PMP Rita- To Practice
5. All of the following are parts of an effective change management plan EXCEPT: A. Procedures B. Standards for reports C. Meetings D. Lessons learned
D
8. All of the following are characteristics of a project EXCEPT: A. It is temporary. B. It has a definite beginning and end. C. It has interrelated activites. D. It repeats itself every month.
D
Experience shows that each time you double the production of doors, unit costs decrease by 10 percent. Based on this, the company determines that production of 3,000 doors should cost $21,000. This case illustrates: A. Learning cycle. B. Law of diminishing returns. C. 80/20 rule D. Parametric cost estimating.
D
When managing a project, which of the following is the BEST order to deal with problems that arise? A. Go to the team, go to management, go to resources. B. Go to resource managers, go to management, go to customer. C. Handle it yourself, go to the customer, go to management. D. Resolve problems with resources you control, go to resource managers, go to the customer.
D
You receive notification that a major item you are purchasing for a project will be delayed. what is the BEST thing to do? A. Replan your project to accomodate this delay. B. Notify your boss. C. Let the customer know about it, and talk over options. D. Meet with the team, and identify alternatives.
D
10. Which ofthe following BEST describes the relationship between standard deviation and risk? A. Nothing B. Standard deviation tells you if the estimate is accurate C. Standard deviation tells you how unsure the estimate is D. Standard deviation tells you if the estimate indudes a pad
10. Answer C Choice A is not best, as the standard deviation tells you the amount of uncertainty or risk involved in the estimate for the activity. An estimate can have a wide range (choice B) and still be accurate if the item estimated includes risks. Choice D cannot be the best answer since there is no such thing as a pad in proper project management. An estimate might be inflated, but it is because of risks, not padding.
1. Understanding the culture, policies, and procedures of the organization in which being performed is MOST challenging in: A. Global organizations B. Manufacturing organizations C. Small organizations D. Agile organizations
A
13. The project life cycle differs from the project manager process in that the project management process: A. Is the same for every project. B. Does not incorporate a methodology. C. Is different for each industry. D. Can spawn many projects.
A
16. The previous project manager for your project managed it without much project organization. There is a lack of management control and no clearly defined project deliverables. Which of the following would be the BEST choice for getting your project better organized? A. Adopt a life cycle approach to the project. B. Develop lessons learned for each phase. C. Develop specific work plans for each work package. D. Develop a description of the product of the project.
A
18. The project manager is working to clearly describe the level of involvement expected from everyone on the project in order to prevent rework, conflict, and coordination problems. Which of the following BEST describes the project manager's efforts? A. Develop Project Management Plan and Plan Quality Management B. Manage Stakeholder Engagement and Direct and Manage Project Work C. Validate Scope and Control Quality D. Identify Risks and Develop Project Team
A
21. Company procedures require the creation of a lessons learned document. Which of the following is the BEST use of lessons learned? A. Historical record for future projects B. Planning record for the current project C. Informing the team about what the project manager has done D. Informing the team about the project management plan
A
3. A project manager is trying to complete a software development project, but cannot get enough attention for the project. Resources are focused on completing process-related work, and the project manager has little authority to assign resources. What form of organization must the project manager be working in? A. Functional B. Matrix C. Expediter D. Coordinator
A
32. Which of the following sequences represents straight line depreciation? A. $100, $100, $100 B. $100, $120, $140 C. $100, $120, $160 D. $160, $140, $120
A
35. An output of the Close Project or Phase process is the creation of: A. Project archives B. A project charter C. A project management plan D. A risk analysis plan
A
39. Linear programming is an example of what type of project selection criteria? A. Constrained optimization B. Comparative approach C. Benefit measurement D. Impact analysis
A
41. The engineering department has uncovered a problem with the cost accounting system and has asked the systems department to analyze what is wrong and fix the problem. You are a project managerr working with the cost accounting programs on another project. Management has issued a change request to the change control board to add the new work to your project. Your existing project has a cost performance index (CPI) of 1.2 and a schedule performance index (SPI) of 1.3, so you have some room to add work without delaying your existing project or going over budget. However, you cannot see how the new work fits within the project charter for your existing project. After some analysis, you determine that the new work and existing work do not overlap and can be done concurrently. They also require different skill sets. Which of the following is the BEST thing to do? A. Develop a project charter B. Reestimate the project schedule with input from the engineering department C. Verify the scope of the new work with the help of the stakeholders D. Identify specific changes to the existing work
A
6. Two project managers have just realized that they are in a weak matrix organization and that their power as project managers is quite limited. one figures out that he is really a project expediter, and the other realizes he is really a project coordinator. How is a project expediter different from a project coordinator? A. The project expediter cannot make decisions. B. The project expediter can make more decision. C. The project expediter reports to a higher-level manager. D. The project expediter has some authority.
A
7. Who has the MOST power in a projectized organization? A. The project manager B. The functional manager C. The team D. They all share power
A
9. A framework for keeping an organization focused on its overall strategy is: A. Organizational project management. B. The PMBOK Guide. C. Project governance. D. Portfolio Management.
A
9. Integration is done by the: A. Project manager B. Team C. Sponsor D. Stakeholders
A
In a matrix organization, information dissemination is MOST likely to be effective when: A. Information flows both horizontally and vertically. B. The communication flows are kept simple. C. There is an inherent logic in the type of matrix chosen. D. Project managers and functional managers socialize.
A
16. Which of the following BEST describes the elements of a WBS Dictionary entry? A. The definition of the work package including it Net Present Value (NPV) B. Work Package ID and Name, Statement of Work, Required Resources, and Monte Carlo Analysis C. Work Package ID and Name, Statement of Work, Risk Register, Earned Value Calculation, Scheduled Complete Date, and Cost. D. Work package ID and Name, Statement of Work, Responsible Organization, Schedule Milestones, Quality Requirements, Code of Account Identifier, Required Resources, Cost Estimate.
Answer :D Planning - Scope Management Answer D is the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C all have things that are not used in the WBS including the Net Present Value, Monte Carlo Analysis and Earned Value Calculation.
8. A new project manager is being mentored by a more experienced certified project management professional ("PMP"). The new project manager is having difficulty finding enough time to manage the project because the product and project scope are being progressively elaborated. The PMP-certified project manager mentions that the basic tools for project management, such as a work breakdown structure, can be used during project executing to assist the project manager. For which of the following can a work breakdown structure be used? A. Communicating with the customer B. Showing calendar dates for each work package C. Showing the functional managers for each team member D. Showing the business need for the project
Answer A A WBS does not show dates or responsibility assignments (choices Band C). Those are included on the bar chart and possibly in the communications management plan. The business need (choice D) is shown in the project charter. Never thought that a WBS could be shown to the customer? Made you think! Of course it could be used for that purpose. In this situation, the product and project scope are being fine tuned. It would save the project manager time to effectively manage progressive elaboration if the WBS was used to assist. The WBS helps ensure everyone understands the scope of the work.
22. Your project has a medium amount of risk and is not very well defined. The sponsor hands you a project charter and asks you to confirm that the project can be completed within the project cost budget. What is the BEST method to handle this? A. Build the estimate in the form of a range of possible results B. Ask the team members to help estimate the cost based on the project charter C. Based on the information you have, calculate a parametric estimate D. Provide an analogous estimate based on past history.
Answer A Accuracy is always important, but since the project charter has just been received, the project has not yet been planned. Therefore, although some of the choices are not blatantly wrong, it is best to estimate in a range.
4. During project executing, a team member comes to the project manager because he is not sure of what work he needs to accomplish on the project. Which of the following documents contain detailed descriptions of work packages? A. WBS dictionary B. Activity list C. Project scope statement D. Scope management plan
Answer A Activity lists (choice B) may list the work package they relate to, but they do not contain detailed descriptions of the work packages. The project scope statement (choice C) defines the project scope, but it does not describe the work a team member is assigned. The scope management plan (choice D) describes how scope will be planned, managed, and controlled. It does not include a description of each work package. The WBS dictionary defines each element in the WBS. Therefore, descriptions of the work packages are in the WBS dictionary.
15. During which project management process group are budget forecasts created? A. Monitoring and controlling B. Planning C. Initiating D. Executing
Answer A Budget forecasts are an output of Control Costs, which is part of monitoring and controlling.
12. You have just joined the project management office after five years of working on projects. One of the things you want to introduce to your company is the need to create and utilize WBSs. Some of the project managers are angry that you are asking them to do "extra work". Which of the following would be the BEST thing you could tell the project managers to convince them to use WBSs? A. Tell them it will prevent work from slipping through the cracks B. Tell them that it is not needed C. Tell them it is required only if the project involves contracts D. Tell them it is the only way to identify risks
Answer A Choice C is not generally true. Every project must have a WBS. Risks can be identified using various methods. Therefore, choice D is an incorrect statement and not the best answer. Choice A, preventing work from being forgotten (slipping through the cracks) is ONE of the reasons the tool is used.
36. The difference between the cost baseline and the cost budget can be BEST described as: A. The management reserve B. The contingency reserve C. The project cost estimate D. The cost account
Answer A Cost accounts are included in the project cost estimate, and the contingency reserve is added to that to come up with the cost baseline. Thereafter the management reserve is added to come up with the cost budget. Therefore, only choice A is correct.
34. A project manager for a small construction company has a project that was budgeted for $130,000 over a six-week period. According to her schedule, the project should have cost $60,000 to date. However, it has cost US $90,000 to date. The project is also behind schedule, because the original estimates were not accurate. Who has the PRIMARY responsibility to solve this problem? A. Project manager B. Senior management C. Project sponsor D. Manager of the project management office
Answer A Did you get lost looking at all the numbers presented in this question? Notice that there are no calculations required, simply an understanding of what the problem is. This question describes schedule management, which is a responsibility of the project manager.
34. Earned value analysis is an example of: A. Performance reporting B. Planning control C. Ishikawa diagrams D. Integrating the project components into a whole
Answer A Earned value analysis is a great reporting tool. With it, you can show where you stand on budget and schedule as well as provide forecasts for the rest of the project.
20. Which of the following represents the estimated value of the work actually accomplished? A. Earned value (EV) B. Planned value (PV) C. Actual cost (AC) D. Cost variance (CV)
Answer A It can be confusing to differentiate earned value terms from each other. The definition presented here is for EV or earned value, so choice A is the best choice.
25. Your cost forecast shows that you will have a cost overrun at the end of the project. Which of the following should you do? A. Eliminate risks in estimates and reestimate B. Meet with the sponsor to find out what work can be done sooner C. Cut quality D. Decrease scope
Answer A Look for the choice that would have the least negative impact in this situation. You would not need to meet with the sponsor to do choice B. Choices C and D always have negative effects. The choice with the least negative impact is Choice A.
27. Which of the following can create the MOST misinterpretation in the project scope statement? A. Imprecise language B. Poor pattern, structure, and chronological order C. Small variation in size of work packages or detail of work D. Too much detail
Answer A Much of the work on the project is dictated by the project scope statement. Any imprecision in such a key document will lead to differing interpretations.
12. Which of the following is an example of a parametric estimate? A. Dollars per module B. Learning bend C. Bottom-up D. CPM
Answer A Parametric estimates use a mathematical model to predict project cost or time.
31. A team member from research and development tells you that her work is too creative to provide you with a fixed single estimate for the activity. You both decide to use the labor hours per installation from past projects to predict the future. This is an example of which of the following? A. Parametric estimating B. Three-point estimating C. Analogous estimating D. Monte Carlo analysis
Answer A Past history is being used to calculate an estimate. Monte Carlo (choice D) relates to what-if analysis. Choice B uses three time estimates per activity. One could use past projects to come up with the estimate (choice C), but the best answer is choice A because an estimate such as hours per installation is a chief characteristic of parametric estimates.
26. Verify Scope is closely related to: A. Perform Quality Control B. Sequence Activities C. Perform Quality Assurance D. Time Management
Answer A Perform Quality Control checks for correctness, and Verify Scope checks for acceptance.
17. The construction phase of a new software product is near completion. The next phases are testing and implementation. The project is two weeks ahead of schedule. What should the project manager be MOST concerned with before moving on to the final phase? A. Verify Scope B. Control Quality C. Create Performance Reports D. Control Costs
Answer A The Verify Scope process deals with acceptance by the customer. Without this acceptance, you will not be able to move into the next project phase.
Which of the following is not an input to Verify Scope A. Accepted Deliverables B. Project Management Plan C. Validated Deliverables D. Requirements Traceability Matrix
Answer A The inputs to Verify Scope process are project management plan, requirements documentation, requirements traceability matrix and validated deliverables. Accepted Deliverables is an OUTPUT of the Verify Scope process
23. Which of the following is an output of the Collect Requirements process? A. Requirements traceability matrix B. Project scope statement C. Work breakdown structure D. Change requests
Answer A The project scope statement (choice B) is an output of the Define Scope process. The work breakdown structure (choice C) is an output of the Create WBS process. Change requests (choice D) are an output of the Verify Scope and Control Scope processes.
21. You are a project manager on a $5,000,000 software development project. While working with your project team to develop a network diagram, you notice a series of activities that can be worked in parallel but must finish in a specific sequence. What type of activity sequencing method is required for these activities? A. Precedence diagramming method B. Arrow diagramming method C. Critical path method D. Operational diagramming method
Answer A The question implies a finish-to-finish relationship between activities. The arrow diagramming method (choice B) does not support these types of relationships. Choice C is not a diagramming method, and choice D is a made-up term.
19. All of the following are parts of the scope baseline EXCEPT the: A. Scope management plan B. Project scope statement C. Work breakdown structure D. WBS dictionary
Answer A The scope management plan is not part of the scope baseline.
4. If the optimistic estimate for an activity is 12 days, and the pessimistic estimate is 18 days, what is the standard deviation of this activity? A. 1 B. l.3 C. 6 D. 3
Answer A The standard deviation is computed by (P - 0)/6. Therefore, the answer is (18 - 12)/6 = 6/6 = 1.
1. To control the schedule, a project manager is reanalyzing the project to predict project duration. She does this by analyzing the sequence of activities with the least amount of scheduling flexibility. What technique is she using? A. Critical path method B. Flowchart C. Precedence diagramming D. Work breakdown structure
Answer A There are only two choices related to scheduling: A and C. Choice C, however, is a diagramming technique that deals with the relationship between activities, not schedule flexibility.
27. Early in the life of your project, you are having a discussion with the sponsor about what estimating techniques should be used. You want a form of expert judgment, but the sponsor argues for analogous estimating. It would be BEST to: A. Agree to analogous estimating, as it is a form of expert judgment B. Suggest life cyde costing as a compromise C. Determine why the sponsor wants such an accurate estimate D. Try to convince the sponsor to allow expert judgment because it is typically more accurate
Answer A This is a tricky question. In order to pick the best answer, you need to realize that analogous estimating is a form of expert judgment. Notice choice C, "determnine why;" sounds like a good idea, but look at the rest of the senten ce. Analogous estimates are not accurate. Reading every word of this choice helps eliminate it.
35. You are about to take over a project from another project manager and find out the following information about the project. Activity Z has an early start (ES) of day 15 and a late start (LS) of day 20. Activity Z is a difficult activity. The cost performance index (CPI) is 1.1. The schedule performance index (SPI) is 0.8. There are 11 stakeholders on the project. Based on this information, which of the following would you be the MOST concerned about? A. Schedule B. Float C. Cost D. The number of available resources
Answer A This is one of those questions that combines topics from various knowledge areas. Did you fall into the trap of calculating the float for Z? The amount of float for one activity and the number of stakeholders does not tell you anything in this case, so choices Band D cannot be the best answers. The CPI is greater than one and the SPI is less than one. Therefore, the thing to be most worried about would be schedule.
8. Which of the following is CORRECT? A. The critical path helps prove how long the project will take B. There can be only one critical path C. The network diagram will change every time the end date changes D. A project can never have negative float
Answer A This question tests your knowledge about a number of topics. There can often be more than one critical path (choice B) but you might adjust to decrease risk and have only one critical path. Choice C uses the word "will:' The network diagram may change or it may not, depending on the amount of schedule reserve and the reason for the change to the schedule. You can have negative float (choice D) if you are behind schedule. Only choice A is correct.
16. Which type of cost is team training? A. Direct B. NPV C. Indirect D. Fixed
Answer A You are training the team on skills required for the project. The cost is directly related to the project and thus a direct cost.
17. In attempting to complete the project faster, the project manager looks at the cost associated with crashing each activity. The BEST approach to crashing would also indude looking at the: A. Risk impact of crashing each activity B. Customers opinion of which activities to crash C. Bosss opinion of which activities to crash and in which order. D. Project life cyde phase in which the activity is due to occur.
Answer A You may or may not need your customer's (choice B) or your boss's (choice C) input, but you will definitely need to include an analysis of risk. Choice A is broader than choice D and therefore is better.
16. Which of the following is a characteristic of project management processes? A. Iterative B. Unique C. Unnecessary D. Standardized
Answer A As the project life cycle progresses, more information becomes available, allowing the team to manage the project to a more detailed level.
25. All of the following occur during the planning process group EXCEPT: A. Develop Project Charter B. Create WBS C. Estimate Costs D. Sequence Activities
Answer A Develop Project Charter (choice A) occurs in the initiating process group.
8. The high-level project schedule constraints have just been determined. What project management process group are you in? A. Initiating B. Planning C. Executing D. Monitoring and controlling
Answer A High-level schedule constraints are determined during the initiating process group.
19. Closure includes all of the following EXCEPT: A. Determining performance measures B. Turning over the product of the project C. Documenting the degree to which each project phase was properly closed after its completion D. Updating the company's organizational assets
Answer A Performance measures are determined earlier in the project so they can be used to measure progress during the project, making choice A the only correct answer to this question.
5. The person who should be in control of the project during project planning is the: A. Project manager B. Team member C. Functional manager D. Sponsor
Answer A The project manager should be named early in the project, during project initiating if possible.
38. During project executing, a large number of changes are made to the project. The project manager should: A. Wait until all changes are known and print out a new schedule B. Make approved changes as needed, but retain the schedule baseline C. Make only the changes approved by management D. Talk to management before any changes are made
Answer B A project manager must be more in control of the project than choices C and D reflect. Choice A is a common error many project managers make. Instead, the project manager should be controlling the project throughout the completion of the project.
22. The preparation of the scope baseline can BEST be described as involving: A. The functional managers B. The project team C. All the stakeholders D. The project expediter
Answer B After the customer's input, the performing organizations project team is responsible for scope baseline preparation. The scope baseline indudes the WBS, WBS dictionary, and project scope statement.
8. Cost performance measurement is BEST done through which of the following? A. Asking for a percent complete from each team member and reporting that in the monthly progress report B. Calculating earned value and using the indexes and other calculations to report past performance and forecast future performance C. Using the 50/50 rule and making sure the life cyde cost is less than the project cost D. Focusing on the amount expended last month and what will be expended the following month
Answer B Asking percent complete (choice A) is not a best practice since it is usually a guess. Often the easiest work is done first on a project, throwing off any percentage calculations of work remaining. It may be a good thing to use the 50/50 rule, as in choice C. However, the 50/50 rule is not necessarily induded in the progress report, and the second part of the sentence is incorrect. The life cyde cost cannot be lower than the project cost, as the life cyde cost indudes the project cost. Choice D is often done by inexperienced project managers who know of nothing else. Not only does it provide little information, but also it cannot be used to predict the future. Choice B is the best answer since it looks at the past and uses this information to estimate future costs.
18. Which of the following processes indudes asking team members about the time estimates for their activities and reaching agreement on the calendar date for each activity? A. Sequence Activities B. Develop Schedule C. Define Scope D. Develop Project Charter
Answer B By the time this process is taking place, Sequence Activities (choice A), Define Scope (choice C), and Develop Project Charter (choice D) would be completed.
You can determine whether requirements have been met by using ___________ A. Quality Audits B. Inspection C. WBS D. Scope Statement
Answer B Choice A is not correct because quality audits do not test completeness of requirements. Quality audits test to see if the quality processes and procedures are being properly followed. Choice C is not correct - the WBS breaks the project into manageable components and cannot determine whether requirements have been met. Choice D is incorrect because scope statement defines project scope description and product acceptance criteria. Choice B is correct because the question is describing the Verify Scope process - which is when you would use the Inspection tool and technique.
33. The project is calculated to be completed four days after the desired completion date. You do not have access to additional resources. The project is low risk, the benefit cost ratio (BCR) is expected to be 1.6, and the dependencies are preferential. Under these circumstances, what would be the BEST thing to do? A. Cut resources from an activity B. Make more activities concurrent C. Move resources from the preferential dependencies to the external dependencies D. Remove an activity from the project
Answer B Cutting resources from an activity (choice A) would not save time, nor would moving resources in the way described (choice C). Removing an activity from the project (choice D) is a possibility, but since the dependencies are preferential and the risk is low, the best choice would be to make more activities concurrent (choice B), as this would have less impact on the project.
11. The project is mostly complete. The project has a schedule variance of 300 and a cost variance of -900. All but one of the quality control inspections have been completed and all have met the quality requirements. All items in the issue log have been resolved. Many of the resources have been released. The sponsor is about to call a meeting to obtain product verification when the customer notifies the project manager that they want to make a major change to the scope. The project manager should: A. Meet with the project team to determine if this change can be made B. Ask the customer for a description of the change C. Explain that the change cannot be made at this point in the process D. Inform management
Answer B Do not jump into the problem without thinking. The customer only notified the project manager that "they want to make a change," They did not describe the change. The project manager would need to understand the nature of the change and have time to evaluate the impact of the change before doing anything else. Of these choices, the first thing to do is to determine what the change is (choice B) and then meet with the team (choice A), but only if their input is required. The project manager should not just say no (choice C) until he knows more about the possible change. He also should not go to management (choice D) without more information.
21. Which of the following are ALL items included in the cost management plan? A. The level of accuracy needed for estimates, rules for measuring cost performance, specifications for how duration estimates should be stated B. Specifications for how estimates should be stated, rules for measuring cost performance, the level of accuracy needed for estimates C. Rules for measuring team performance, the level of accuracy needed for estimates, specifications for how estimates should be stated D. Specifications for how estimates should be stated, the level of risk needed for estimates, rules for measuring cost performance
Answer B Every item in choice B accurately describes apart of the cost management plan. Notice how one word in each of the other options makes the entire choice incorrect. Choice A refers to duration estimates, which are created during the time management process, choice C includes measuring team performance, apart of human resource management, and choice D includes risk.
With which of the following objectives are the techniques "Brainstorming and lateral thinking" used in the scope definition process? A. Create WBS B. Alternatives identification C. Expert judgement D. Stakeholder analysis
Answer B Monitoring & Controlling - Scope Management Alternatives identification is a technique used to generate different approaches to execute and perform the work of a project. Examples of this are brainstorming and lateral thinking.
All of the following are outputs of Control Scope Except? A. Change Requests B. Scope Changes C. Project document updates D. Work performance measurements
Answer B Monitoring & Controlling - Scope Management The outputs of the Control Scope process are work performance measurements, organizational process assets updates, change requests, project management plan updates, and project documents updates.
20. One of the stakeholders on the project contacts the project manager to discuss some additional scope they would like to add to the project. The project manager asks for details in writing and then works through the Control Scope process. What should the project manager do NEXT when the evaluation of the requested scope is complete? A. Ask the stakeholder if there are any more changes expected B. Complete integrated change control C. Make sure the impact of the change is understood by the stakeholder D. Find out the root cause of why the scope was not discovered during project planning
Answer B Notice that there are many things that the project manager could do listed in the choices. The question asks what is the BEST thing to do NEXT. Though they are great things to do, choices A, C, and D are not next. Management of the change is not complete when the Control Scope process is completed. It is important to look at the impact of the change on other parts of the project such as time and cost. Therefore, choice B is the best thing to do next, probably followed by C and then D and A.
27. A project manager is using weighted average duration estimates to perform schedule network analysis. Which type of mathematical analysis is being used? A. Critical path method B. PERT C. Monte Carlo D. Resource leveling
Answer B PERT uses a weighted average to compute activity durations.
7. In order to properly complete the Create WBS process, you would document the WBS dictionary in which of the following ways? A. Use the organizational breakdown structure and the WBS together and present this scope baseline to stakeholders. B. Record the code of account identifier, responsible organization and milestone schedule in the WBS dictionary for each component of the WBS. C. Elaborate the WBS to the point where the new machine specifications are clear and highly detailed. D. Record the approved change requests as one of the outputs of this process.
Answer B Planning - Scope Management The WBS dictionary should be documented with the code of account identifier, a description of the work, the responsible organization, and a milestone schedule for the WBS components.
17. Project setup costs are an example of: A. Variable costs B. Fixed costs C. Overhead costs D. Opportunity costs
Answer B Setup costs do not change as production on the project changes. Therefore, they are fixed costs.
13. A new project manager has asked you for advice on creating a work breakdown structure. After you explain the process to her, she asks you what software she should use to create the WBS and what she should do with it when she is finished creating it. You might respond that it is not the picture that is the most valuable result of creating a WBS. It is: A. A bar chart B. Team buy-in C. Activities D. A list of risks
Answer B The WBS is an input to all of these choices. However, team buy-in (choice B) is a direct result of the WBS creation process, while the other choices use the WBS to assist in their completion. The best answer is choice B.
7. Which of the following is the BEST project management tool to use to determine the longest time the project will take? A. WBS B. Network diagram C. Bar chart D. Project charter
Answer B The bar chart (choice C) may show an end date, but it is not used to determine dates and show progress. The project charter (choice D) may include any required end dates, but not a logical determination ofhow long the project will take. The network diagram (choice B) takes the work packages from the work breakdown structure (choice A) and adds dependencies. The dependencies allow us to look at the various paths through the diagram. The longest duration path is the critical path. Choice B is the best answer.
3. Which of the following is a KEY output of the Verify Scope process? A. A more complete scope management plan B. Customer acceptance of project deliverables C. Improved schedule estimates D. An improved project management information system
Answer B The output of the Verify Scope process is customer acceptance of project deliverables. The other choices all happen during project planning, well before the time that the Verify Scope process takes place.
28. You have just completed the initiating processes of a small project and are moving into the planning processes when a project stakeholder asks you for the projects budget and cost baseline. What should you tell her? A. The project budget can be found in the project's charter, which has just been completed B. The project budget and baseline will not be finalized and accepted until the planning processes are completed C. The project management plan will not contain the project's budget and baseline; this is a small project D. It is impossible to complete an estimate before the project management plan is created
Answer B The overall project budget (choice A) may be included in the project charter but not the detailed costs. Even small projects (choice C) should have a budget and schedule. It is not impossible to create a project budget before the project management plan is created (choice D). It is just not wise, as the budget will not be accurate.
5. During what part of the project management process is the project scope statement created? A. Initiating B. Planning C. Executing D. Monitoring and controlling
Answer B The project scope statement is an output of the Define Scope process, which occurs during project planning.
22. You are a project manager on a $5,000,000 software development project. While working with your project team to develop a network diagram, your data architects suggest that quality could be improved if the data model is approved by senior management before moving on to other design elements. They support this suggestion with an article from a leading software development journal. Which of the following BEST describes what this type of input is called? A. Mandatory dependency B. Discretionary dependency C. External dependency D. Heuristic
Answer B The situation is neither mandatory (choice A), nor driven by an external source (choice C). A rule of thumb (choice D) is something that can be used consistently. This situation is a unique occurrence. The situation is a suggestion of a preferred method, so choice B is the best answer.
9. During a project team meeting, a team member suggests an enhancement to the scope that is beyond the scope of the project charter. The project manager points out that the team needs to concentrate on completing all the work and only the work required. This is an example of: A. Change management process B. Scope management C. Quality analysis D. Scope decomposition
Answer B The team member is suggesting an enhancement that is outside the scope of the project charter. Scope management involves focusing on doing the work and only the work in the project management plan that meets the objectives of the project charter. The project manager is performing scope management.
16. A project manager has just been assigned to a new project and has been given the project charter. The FIRST thing the project manager must do is: A. Create a project scope statement B. Confirm that all the stakeholders have had input into the scope C. Analyze project risk D. Begin work on a project management plan
Answer B This question can be tricky, especially if you have spent so much time studying that you have forgotten some good project management practices. A quick look at Rita's Process Chart in this book might draw you to conclude that the FIRST thing would be to start planning. Wouldn't it be smart to make sure what you have in the project charter is clear and complete before moving on? This is why choice B is the best choice.
6. All of the following are outputs of the Estimate Costs process EXCEPT: A. An understanding of the cost risk in the work that has been estimated B. The prevention of inappropriate changes from being induded in the cost baseline C. An indication of the range of possible costs for the project D. Documentation of any assumptions made during the Estimate Costs process
Answer B This question is asking, "When you finish estimating costs, what do you have?" Many people who do not realize that estimates should be in a range pick choice C. Choice B is more correctly part of the cost management plan and the change control system.
12. A project has three critical paths. Which of the following BEST describes how this affects the project? A. It makes it easier to manage B. It increases the project risk C. It requires more people D. It makes it more expensive
Answer B Though having three critical paths COULD require more people (choice C) or cost more (choice D), the answer that is definitely and always true is choice B. Because you need to manage three critical paths, there is more risk that something could happen to delay the project.
20. During project planning, you estimate the time needed for each activity and then add the estimates to create the project estimate. You commit to completing the project by this date. What is wrong with this scenario? A. The team did not create the estimate, and estimating takes too long using that method B. The team did not create the estimate, and a network diagram was not used C. The estimate is too long and should be created by management D. The project estimate should be the same as the customer's required completion date
Answer B Time estimates for the activities should be created by the team and should not be added. Some activities may take place concurrently. Therefore, choice B must be the correct answer.
18. All of the following must be performed during project initiating EXCEPT: A. Identify and document business needs B. Create a project scope statement C. Divide large projects into phases D. Accumulate and evaluate historical information
Answer B A project scope statement (choice B) is generally created in project planning.
15. Which of the following would be the MOST appropriate thing to do during the initiating process group? A. Create a detailed description of the project deliverables B. Get familiar with the company culture and structure as it relates to the project C. Identify the root cause of problems D. Ensure all project management processes are complete
Answer B Choice A occurs during the planning process group as part of creating the project scope statement. Since you must already have problems in order to determine their root cause, choice C must occur during the monitoring and controlling process group, not initiating. Choice D occurs during the closing process group.
4. A detailed project schedule can be created only after creating the: A. Project budget B. Work breakdown structure C. Project management plan D. Detailed risk assessment
Answer B In the project management process, the project budget (choice A), project management plan (choice C), and detailed risk assessment (choice D) come after the schedule. The only answer that could be an input is the WBS.
9. The WBS and WBS dictionary are completed. The project team has begun working on identifying risks. The sponsor contacts the project manager, requesting that the responsibility assignment matrix be issued. The project has a budget of $100,000 and is taking place in three countries using 14 human resources. There is little risk expected for the project, and the project manager has managed many projects similar to this one. What is the NEXT thing to do? A. Understand the experience of the sponsor on similar projects B. Create an activity list C. Make sure the project scope is defined D. Complete risk management and issue the responsibility assignment matrix
Answer B Look at the order of planning the project the team has chosen. Though understanding the experience of the sponsor (choice A) might sound like a good idea, the sponsor is a stakeholder and understanding the stakeholders is part of stakeholder analysis. That should have occurred before the creation of a WBS. In planning the project, the project scope is defined (choice C is another way of saying finalize the project scope statement) and would come before creating a WBS. Choice D cannot be best, as that work does not come next in the process. Other work, like creating a network diagram, should be completed before risk management can effectively be done. The only correct choice is the activity list (choice B).
10. A project manager does not have much time to spend planning before the mandatory start date arrives. He therefore wants to move through planning as effectively as possible. Which of the following would you recommend? A. Make sure you have a signed project charter and then start the WBS B. Create an activity list before creating a network diagram C. Document all the known risks before you document the high-level assumptions D. Finalize the quality management plan before you determine quality metrics
Answer B This question is asking which of the choices is the most effective way to move through the planning process. Choice A skips the important steps of defining the scope and other activities. High-level assumptions are determined prior to risk identification in the planning process making choice C incorrect. Metrics are part of the quality management plan, making choice D incorrect. Choice B is best, as the activity list is created immediately before the network diagram.
14. A cost baseline is an output of which cost management process? A. Estimate Activity Resources B. Estimate Costs C. Determine Budget D. Control Costs
Answer C A cost baseline is an output of the Determine Budget process.
9. What is the duration of a milestone? A. Shorter than the duration of the longest activity B. Shorter than the activity it represents C. There is no duration D. Same length as the activity it represents
Answer C A milestone shows the completion of a series of activities or work packages. Therefore, it takes no time of its own. With this in mind, choice C is the best answer.
33. Although the stakeholders thought there was enough money in the budget, halfway through the project the cost performance index (CPI) is 0.7. To determine the root cause, several stakeholders audit the project and discover the project cost budget was estimated analogously. Although the activity estimates add up to the project estimate, the stakeholders think something was missing in how the estimate was campleted. Which of the following describes what was missing? A. Estimated costs should be used to measure CPI B. SPI should be used, not CPI C. Bottom-up estimating should have been used D. Past history was not taken into account
Answer C Actual costs are used to measure CPI, and there is no reason to use SPI in this situation, so choices A and B are not correct. Using past history (choice D) is another way of saying "analogous," The best way to estimate is bottom-up (choice C). Such estimating would have improved the overall quality of the estimate.
5. Analogous estimating: A. Uses bottom-up estimating techniques B. Is used most frequently during the executing processes of the project C. Uses top-down estimating techniques D. Uses actual detailed historical costs
Answer C Analogous estimating is used most frequently during the planning processes, not the executing processes (choice B). You do not need to use historical costs (choice D) for an analogous estimate. Therefore, choice C is the correct answer.
38. Cost risk means: A. There are risks that will cost the project money B. The project is too risky from a cost aspect C. There is a risk that project costs could go higher than planned D. There is a risk that the cost of the project will be lower than planned
Answer C Choice A is a correct statement but it is not the definition of cost risk. Choice B refers to the overall cost risk on the project, and assumes that the risk is too great to do the project. The opposite of choice D is correct.
28. The WBS, estimates for each work package, and the network diagram are completed. Which of the following would be the NEXT thing for the project manager to do? A. Sequence the activities B. Verify that they have the correct scope C. Create a preliminary schedule and get the teams approval D. Complete risk management
Answer C Choice A is the same thing as create a network diagram. Choice B is another name for Verify Scope, which is done during the monitoring and controlling process group, not during project planning. Since a schedule is an input to risk management, choice D comes after choice C and so it is not the "next thing to do," The only remaining choice is C.
29. The project manager is allocating overall cost estimates to individual activities to establish a baseline for measuring project performance. What process is this? A. Cost Management B. Estimate Costs C. Determine Budget D. Control Costs
Answer C Choice A is too general. The estimates are already created in this example, so the answer is not choice B. The answer is not D, Control Costs, because the baseline has not yet been created. The correct answer is choice C.
39. A project manager needs to analyze the project costs to find ways to decrease costs. It would be BEST if the project manager looks at: A. Variable costs and fixed costs B. Fixed costs and indirect costs C. Direct costs and variable costs D. Indirect costs and direct costs
Answer C Choice C describes costs that are directly attributable to the project or that vary with the amount of work accomplished.
18. You are managing a six-month project and have held biweekly meetings with your project stakeholders. After five-and-a-half months of work, the project is on schedule and budget, but the stakeholders are not satisfied with the deliverables. This situation will delay the project completion by one month. The MOST important process that could have prevented this situation is: A. Monitor and Control Risks B. Control Schedule C. Define Scope D. Control Scope
Answer C Choices A, B, and D are processes in the monitoring and controlling process group. This situation asks how to prevent the problem. This would have been done during the planning processes. The project deliverables are defined in the Define Scope process (choice C), which is a part of project planning. Good planning reduces the likelihood of a situation like the one described by induding the right people and spending adequate time in darifying the project scope.
The features and functions of a product or service are considered ____; and the work that must be done to deliver a product/service as the output of the project is considered ____. A: Project scope, Product Scope B. Requirements, Deliverables C. Product Scope; Project Scope D. Scope Management Plan, Project Management Plan
Answer C Correct answer is C. Product scope describes the features and functions of the product or service, were as project scope describes the work that must be done to deliver a product/service as the output of the project.
24. You have a project with the following activities: Activity A takes 40 hours and can start after the project starts. Activity B takes 25 hours and should happen after the project starts. Activity C must happen after activity A and takes 35 hours. Activity D must happen after activities Band C and takes 30 hours. Activity E must take place after activity C and takes 10 hours. Activity F takes place after Activity E and takes 22 hours. Activities F and D are the last activities of the project. Which of the following is TRUE if activity B actually takes 37 hours? A. The critical path is 67 hours B. The critical path changes to Start, B, D, End C. The critical path is Start, A, C, E, F, End D. The critical path increases by 12 hours
Answer C Did you notice how difficult this question was to read? Such wording is intentional, to prepare you for interpreting questions on the real exam. Looking at this situation, you see that there are three paths through the network. They are Start, A, C, E, F, End with a duration of 40 + 35 + 10 + 22 = 107; Start, A, C, D, End with a duration of 40 + 35 + 30 = 105; and Start, B, D, End with a duration of25 + 30 = 55. If the duration of activity B changes from 25 to 37, the activity will take 12 hours longer. As the activity is only on the third path, it will only change the duration of that path from 55 to 55 + 12 = 67 hours. Since the duration of the critical path is 107 hours, the delay with activity B will have no impact on the project timeline or the current critical path.
10. A schedule performance index (SPI) of 0.76 means: A. You are over budget B. You are ahead of schedule C. You are only progressing at 76 percent of the rate originally planned D. You are only progressing at 24 percent of the rate originally planned
Answer C Earned value questions ask for a calculation or an interpretation of the results. See the tricks under this topic in this book.
13. If project time and cost are not as important as the number of resources used each month, which of the following is the BEST thing to do? A. Perform a Monte Carlo analysis B. Fast track the project C. Perform resource leveling D. Analyze the life cycle costs
Answer C Fast tracking (choice B) would affect time and cost. Monte Carlo analysis and life cycle costs (choices A and D) do not directly deal with resources. Leveling (choice C) is the only choice that will definitely affect resources.
19. Who has the cost risk in a fixed price (FP) contract? A. The team B. The buyer C. The seller D. Management
Answer C If the costs are more than expected under a fixed price contract, the seller must pay those costs. As explained in the Procurement Management chapter, "cost risk" refers to the person who will have to pay for the added cost if costs escalate. Because the price is fixed, the seller will have to pay any increased costs out of their profit. Naturally, this does not include increased PRICE due to change orders. A fixed price contract and the PRICE could be changed with change orders.
15. Your project management plan results in a project schedule that is too long. If the project network diagram cannot change but you have extra personnel resources, what is the BEST thing to do? A. Fast track the project B. Level the resources C. Crash the project D. Monte Carlo analysis
Answer C Leveling resources (choice B) generally extends the schedule. Monte Carlo analysis (choice D) does not directly address the constraints of this situation. To compress the schedule, you could either crash or fast track. However, the situation says that the network diagram cannot change. This eliminates the fast tracking option (choice A), leaving choice C as the best answer.
24. A scope change has been suggested by one of the stakeholders on the project. After careful consideration and a lot of arguing, the change control board has decided to reject the change. What should the project manager do? A. Support the stakeholder by asking the board for the reason for the rejection B. Suggest to the stakeholder that the next change they request will be approved C. Record the change request and its result D. Advise the change control board to make sure they create approval processes before the next change is proposed
Answer C One could do choice A, but there is no reason to think that the board's rejection would not contain an explanation already, since providing that information is commonly done. Suggesting a change process that circumvents the change control board's authority (choice B) is not ethical. There is no reason to think that approval processes are not already in place (choice D). A rejected change should be recorded for historical purposes, in case the idea is resurrected later, and for other reasons.
A project team member has asked you what project scope management is. Which of the following is a characteristic of project scope management. A. It defines the baseline for project acceptance. B. It defines the requirements for each project within the organization. C. It defines the processes to ensure that the project includes all the work required, and only the work required, to complete the project successfully. D. It defines the functional managers assigned to the project.
Answer C Planning Scope Management Choice C is correct. Project scope management defines the processes to ensure that the project includes all of the work required, and only the work required, to complete the project successfully.
14. When would a milestone chart be used instead of a bar chart? A. Project planning B. Reporting to team members C. Reporting to management D. Risk analysis
Answer C Project planning (choice A) would use both types of charts. Team members (choice B) need to see details and so they need a bar chart rather than a milestone chart. Risk analysis (choice D) COULD make use ofboth charts. A milestone chart is used instead of a bar chart for any situation where you want to report in a less detailed way (choice C). Bar charts can scare people with their complexity and often show too much detail to be worthwhile on a management level. Milestone charts are more effective for reporting to management.
37. Which of the following is a benefit of an analogous project estimate? A. The estimate will be closer to what the work will actually require B. It is based on a detailed understanding of what the work requires C. It gives the project team an understanding of management's expectations D. It helps the project manager determine if the project will meet the schedule
Answer C Remember for the exam that analogous estimates are considered to be top-down, high-level estimates, even though a high-level or even a definitive estimate can be estimated analogously. Therefore, choices A and B cannot be correct. The project manager needs more than an analogous (high-level) estimate to determine whether or not the project will meet the schedule (choice D). It is a benefit to know management's expectations ofhow much the project will cost so that any differences between the analogous estimate and the detailed bottom-up estimate can be reconciled in the planning processes. The best choice is C.
2. A dependency requiring that design be completed before manufacturing can start is an example of a: A. Discretionary dependency B. External dependency C. Mandatory dependency D. Scope dependency
Answer C Since the dependency is required, it could not be discretionary (choice A) and therefore must be man da tory. No mention is made that the dependency comes from a source outside the project, so external (choice B) is not correct. Scope dependency (choice D) is not a defined term. The key word in this question is "requires". The question defines a mandatory dependency.
29. Which ofthe following BEST describes the Verify Scope process? A. It provides assurances that the deliverable meets the specifications, is an input to the project management plan, and is an output of Perform Quality Control B. It ensures that the deliverable is completed on time, ensures customer acceptance, and shows that the deliverable meets specifications C. It ensures customer acceptance, shows that the deliverable meets specifications, and provides a chance for differences of opinion to come to light D. It is an output of Perform Quality Control, occurs before Define Scope, and ensures customer acceptance
Answer C Since the project management plan is completed before the Verify Scope process, choice A cannot be best. Since Verify Scope does not deal with time, but rather acceptance, choice B cannot be best. Since the Verify Scope process does not occur before the Define Scope process, choice D cannot be best. Only the statements in choice C are completely correct, making that the best answer.
30. Which of the following BEST describes product analysis? A. Working with the customer to determine the product description B. Mathematically analyzing the quality desired for the project C. Gaining a better understanding of the product of the project in order to create the project scope statement D. Determining if the quality standard on the project can be met
Answer C Since you need to have a product description before you can do product analysis, choice A cannot be best. Choice B is related to Plan Quality. Choice D is Perform Quality Assurance.
10. When should the Verify Scope process be done? A. At the end of the project B. At the beginning of the project C. At the end of each phase of the project D. During the planning processes
Answer C The Verify Scope process occurs during the monitoring and controlling process group, so choices A, B, and D cannot be correct. Verify Scope is done at the end of each phase (the end of design, implementation, etc.), making choice C the best answer.
36. Rearranging resources so that a constant number of resources is used each month is called: A. Crashing B. Floating C. Leveling D. Fast tracking
Answer C The key to this question is the phrase "constant number used each month". Only leveling, choice C, has such an effect on the schedule.
14. To manage a project effectively, work should be broken down into small pieces. Which of the following does NOT describe how far to decompose the work? A. Until it has a meaningful conclusion B. Until it cannot be logically subdivided further C. Until it can be done by one person D. Until it can be realistically estimated
Answer C The lowest level of the WBS is a work package, which can be performed by more than one person.
1. A work breakdown structure numbering system allows the project staff to: A. Systematically estimate costs of work breakdown structure elements B. Provide project justification C. Identify the level at which individual elements are found D. Use it in project management software
Answer C The numbering system allows you to quickly identify the level in the work breakdown structure where the specific element is found. It also helps to locate the element in the WBS dictionary.
15. A project manager may use to make sure the team members clearly know what work is included in each of their work packages. A. The project scope statement B. The product scope C. A WBS dictionary D. A schedule
Answer C The project scope statement (choice A) describes work on a high-level basis. Work packages need to be specific to enable team members to co~plete their work with less gold plating. The product scope (choice B) would not tell team members what work is assigned to them. The team should have a copy of the schedule (choice D), but a schedule will not show them what work is included in each of their work packages. Work packages are described in the WBS dictionary (choice C). NOTE: Do not think of the WBS dictionary as a dictionary of terms.
As a project manager, you should follow which of the following in order to ensure clear boundaries for project completion: A. WBS B. Scope Verification C. Scope Statement D. Scope Control
Answer C The project team must complete a scope statement for developing a common understanding of the project scope among stakeholders. Scope includes all of the components that make up the product or service of the project and the results the project intends to produce. Scope verification is the process of securing a formal acceptance of the project by stakeholders. The WBS divides the major project deliverables into smaller, more manageable components. Scope control is the process of monitoring the status of the project and product scope and managing changes to the scope baseline.
25. A project manager's scope management efforts are being audited. The cost performance index (CPI) on the project is 1.13, and the benefit cost ratio (BCR) is 1.2. The project scope was created by the team and stakeholders. Requirements on the project have been changing throughout the project. No matter what the project manager has tried to accomplish in managing the project, which of the following is he MOST likely to face in the future? A. Having to cut costs on the project and increase benefits B. Making sure the customer approved the project scope C. Not being able to measure completion of the product of the project D. Having to add resources to the project
Answer C There are many pieces of data in this question that are distracters from the real issue. Though it is common to have to cut costs (choice A) and add resources to a project (choice D), nothing in the question should lead you to think these will be required in this situation. Customers do not generally approve the project scope (what you are going to do to complete their requirements); instead, they approve the product scope (their requirements), so choice B cannot be best. Since the requirements are a measure of the completion of the product of the project (choice C), not having completed requirements makes such measurement impossible. This is why choice C is the best choice.
24. The seller tells you that your activities have resulted in an increase in their costs. You should: A. Recommend a change to the project costs B. Have a meeting with management to find out what to do C. Ask the seller for supporting information D. Deny any wrongdoing
Answer C This is a professional and social responsibility/procurement/cost question. The situation described involves a claim. The best thing to do would be to get supporting information to find out what happened and take corrective action for the future. After choice C and negotiation, choice A would most likely occur. Choice D is unethical. Choice B is a meeting with YOUR management and should not occur until you have all the information.
16. Which of the following is the BEST thing to do to try to complete a project two days earlier? A. Tell senior management that the project's critical path does not allow the project to be finished earlier B. Tell your boss C. Meet with the team and look for options for crashing or fast tracking the critical path D. Work hard and see what the project status is next month
Answer C This is another question that asks about problem solving. Only choice C relates to "evaluate," Choices Band D do not try to solve the real problem. Choice A is just an untrue statement.
37. You provide a project cost estimate for the project to the project sponsor. He is unhappy with the estimate, because he thinks the price should be lower. He asks you to cut 15 percent off the project estimate. What should you do? A. Start the project and constantly look for cost savings B. Tell all the team members to cut 15 percent from their estimates C. Inform the sponsor of the activities to be cut D. Add additional resources with low hourly rates
Answer C This question is full of choices that are not correct project management actions. If you picked the wrong answer, look again at the choices and try to determine what you are missing. Whatever it is, it will show up more than once on the real exam! To answer the question, you must first realize that it is never appropriate for a project manager to just cut estimates across the board (choice B). The project manager should have created an estimate with realistic work package estimates that do not include padding. Then, if costs must be decreased, the project manager can look to cut quality, decrease risk, cut scape, or use cheaper resources (and at the same time closely monitor the impact of changes on the project schedule). One of the worst things a project manager can do is to start a project while knowing that the time or cost for the project is unrealistic. Therefore, choice A cannot be best. Notice that choice D suggests adding resources. That would cost more. Choice C involves evaluating, looking for alternatives, and then going to the sponsor to tell him the impact of the cost cutting.
28. Which of the following is CORRECT in regard to the Control Scope process? A. Effective scope definition can lead to a more complete project scope statement B. The Control Scope process must be done before scope planning C. The Scope Control process must be integrated with other control processes D. Controlling the schedule is the most effective way of controlling scope
Answer C Though it is a correct statement, choice A cannot be the answer because it does not deal with control. Since scope planning occurs before the Control Scope process, choice B cannot be the answer. Since controlling the schedule is not the best way to control scope, choice D is not the best answer. The control processes do not act in isolation. A change to one will most likely affect the others. Therefore, choice C is the best answer.
6. Lag means: A. The amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the project finish date B. The amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the early start date of its successor C. Waiting time D. The product of a forward and backward pass
Answer C Total float and free float (choices A and B) are the time an activity can be delayed without impacting the entire project or the next activity. Critical path method (choice D) is a network analysis technique, not waiting time. Choice C is the correct answer.
2. Estimate at completion (EAC) is a periodic evaluation of: A. The cost of work completed B. The value of work performed C. The anticipated total cost at project completion D. What it will cost to finish the job
Answer C When you look at earned value, many of the terms have similar definitions. This could get you into trouble. Since the EAC means the estimate at completion, choice C is the best answer. Choice D is the definition of ETC, estimate to complete.
20. The work on the first phase of your project has come to an end. What should you ensure is done BEFORE beginning the next phase? A. Verify that the resources are available for the next phase B. Check the project's progress compared to its baselines C. Confirm that the phase has reached its objectives, and have its deliverables formally accepted D. Recommend corrective action to bring the project results in line with project expectations
Answer C A phase or project must be formally closed and accepted.
22. Which process groups must be included in every project? A. Planning, executing, and closing B. Initiating, planning, and executing C. Initiating, planning, executing, monitoring and controlling, and closing D. Planning, executing, and monitoring and controlling
Answer C All five process groups are addressed in each project. It is the responsibility of the project manager to determine the level of attention to give to each process group.
7. During a meeting with some of the project stakeholders, the project manager is asked to add work to the project scope. The project manager had access to correspondence about the project before the project charter was signed and remembers that the project sponsor specifically denied funding for the scope mentioned by these stakeholders. The BEST thing for the project manager to do is to: A. Let the sponsor know of the stakeholders' request B. Evaluate the impact of adding the scope C. Tell the stakeholders the scope cannot be added D. Add the work if there is time available in the project schedule
Answer C Based on the information presented, there is no reason to try to convince the sponsor to add the work (choices B and D). Though one could let the sponsor know (choice A) the best choice would be to say no. A better choice would be to find the root cause of the problem, but that choice is not listed here.
3. The project team has just completed the initial project schedule and budget. The NEXT thing to do is: A. Identify risks B. Begin iterations C. Determine communications requirements D. Create a bar (Gantt) chart
Answer C Communications requirements and quality standards are needed before risks (especially risks relating to communications and quality) can be determined (choice A). Iterations (choice B) cannot begin until the risks are identified, qualified, quantified, and responses developed. These then create the need to revise the WBS and other parts of the project management plan. A bar chart (choice D) would have been done during the creation of the schedule, so it cannot be the next thing. Of the choices listed, determine communications requirements (choice C) is the best.
21. In which process group does the team measure and analyze the work being done on the project? A. Initiating B. Executing C. Monitoring and controlling D. Closing
Answer C During the monitoring and controlling process group, project performance is measured, and needed changes are identified and approved.
12. A project manager gets a call from a team member notifying him that there is a variance between the speed of a system on the project and the desired or planned speed. The project manager is surprised because that performance measurement was not identified in planning. If the project manager then evaluates whether the variance warrants a response, he is in what project management process? A. Initiating B. Executing C. Monitoring and controlling D. Closing
Answer C Even though the measurement was not identified in planning, the project manager would still have to investigate the variance and determine if it is important. Therefore, the project manager is in the project monitoring and controlling process group.
13. A team member notifies the project manager that the activities comprising a work package are no longer appropriate. It would be BEST for the project manager to be in what part of the project management process? A. Corrective action B. Integrated change control C. Monitoring and controlling D. Project closing
Answer C If you chose another part of the project management process, you probably forgot that the situation needs to be evaluated by the project manager before recommending a change or entering integrated change control.
1. In which project management process group is the detailed project budget created? A. Initiating B. Before the project management process C. Planning D. Executing
Answer C Notice the use of the word 'detailed'. Such a budget is created during the planning process group.
24. Which process group focuses on completing the requirements of the project? A. Initiating B. Planning C. Executing D. Closing
Answer C The executing process group is where work is done to produce the product of the project.
11. The BEST time to assign a project manager to a project is during: A. Executing B. Closing C. Initiating D. Planning
Answer C The project manager must be assigned during initiating.
14. During a team meeting, a team member asks about the measurements that will be used on the project to judge performance. The team member feels that some of the measures related to activities assigned to him are not valid measurements. The project is BEST considered in what part of the project management process? A. Closing B. Monitoring and controlling C. Executing D. Initiating
Answer C This situation does not describe an actual measurement (a monitoring and controlling activity) but rather a meeting occurring during project executing talking about control issues.
8. Decomposition occurs during: A. Define Scope B. Verify Scope C. Create WBS D. Control Scope
Answer C. Planning - Scope Management Decomposition is a tool and technique for Creating WBS. Decomposition involves breaking down the scope statement into more manageable components, ultimately arriving at work packages.
11. Which of the following is NOT needed in order to come up with a project estimate? A. A WBS B. A network diagram C. Risks D. A change control system
Answer D A change control system is not required to obtain estimates, but without the other three choices, you cannot develop the estimates. You need the WBS to define the activities, the network diagram to see the dependencies, and the risks to determine contingencies. NOTE: These are high-level risks, not the detailed risks we identify later in the planning process group.
5. A heuristic is BEST described as a: A. Control tool B. Scheduling method C. Planning tool D. Rule of thumb
Answer D A heuristic is a rule of thumb. Examples are cost per line of code, cost per square foot of floor space, etc.
26. A project manager is taking over a project from another project manager during the planning process group. If the new project manager wants to see what the previous project manager planned for managing changes to the schedule, it would be BEST to look at the: A. Communications management plan B. Update management plan C. Staffing management plan D. Schedule management plan
Answer D Answer D is the most correct answer. The schedule management plan is the repository for plans for schedule changes. Note that choice B is a made-up term.
3. If earned value (EV) = 350, actual cost (AC) = 400, planned value (PV) = 325, what is cost variance (CV)? A. 350 B. -75 C. 400 D. -50
Answer D CV = EV - AC
23. The cost contingency reserve should be: A. Hidden to prevent management from disallowing the reserve B. Added to each activity to provide the customer with a shorter critical path C. Maintained by management to cover cost overruns D. Added to the base costs of the project to account for risks
Answer D Choice A is an inappropriate action. Choice B is an incorrect statement. Choice C describes management reserves. During the risk management process, you determine appropriate cost contingency reserves for risk events. The sum of these reserves should be added to the total project estimate to cover the cost of risk events happening.
35. Senior management is complaining that they are not able to easily determine the status of ongoing projects in the organization. Which of the following types of reports would help provide summary information to senior management? A. Detailed cost estimates B. Project management plans C. Bar charts D. Milestone reports
Answer D Detailed estimates (choice A) have nothing to do with the situation described. Project management plans (choice B) will have more detail than is necessary for the situation described and may distract from the conversation if used in this situation. Bar charts (choice C) are usually only for the team. The best answer is choice D because milestone reports present the right level of detail for upper management.
21. During the completion of project work, the sponsor asks the project manager to report on how the project is going. In order to prepare the report, the project manager asks all the team members what percent complete their work is. There is one team member who has been hard to manage from the beginning. In response to being asked what percent complete he is, the team member asks, "Percent complete of what?" Being tired of such comments, the project manager reports to the team members boss that the team member is not co operating. Which of the following is MOST likely the real problem? A. The project manager did not get buy-in from the manager for the resources on the project B. The project manager did not create an adequate reward system for team members to improve their cooperation C. The project manager should have had a meeting with the team member's boss the first time the team member caused trouble D. The project manager does not have work packages
Answer D Is this a hard question? The whole discussion of the team member and his actions is a distracter. The real problem is not that the team member is being uncooperative. He is asking a question that many team members want to ask in the real world. How can I tell you how things are going if I do not know what work I am being asked to do? The real problem is the lack of a WBS and work packages; otherwise the team member would not have to ask such a question. Choice A cannot be the answer because the project manager is not losing resources (what is implied by getting the manager's buy-in). Though a reward system (choice B) would help with cooperation, the real problem here is not cooperation. Choice C cannot be the answer because it does not solve the problem at hand (the team member not knowing what he is to do). It solves another problem. If you chose C, be very careful! You can get 10 to 20 questions wrong on the exam simply because you do not see the real problem!)
7. The main focus of life cycle costing is to: A. Estimate installation costs B. Estimate the cost of operations and maintenance C. Consider installation costs when planning the project costs D. Consider operations and maintenance costs in making project decisions
Answer D Life cycle costing looks at operations and maintenance costs and balances them with the project costs to try to reduce the cost across the entire life of the project.
6. The program was planned years ago, before there was a massive introduction of new technology. While planning the next project in this program, the project manager has expanded the scope management plan because as a project becomes more complex, the level of uncertainty in the scope: A. Remains the same B. Decreases C. Decreases then increases D. Increases
Answer D Not all questions will be difficult. The level of uncertainty in scope increases based on the scale of effort required to identify all the scope. For larger projects it is more difficult to "catch" everything.
30. You are a project manager for a new product development project that has four levels in the work breakdown structure. A network diagram has been created, the duration estimates have been compressed, and a schedule has been developed. What time management activity should you do NEXT? A. Begin Control Schedule B. Estimate Activity Resources C. Analogously estimate the schedule D. Gain approval
Answer D Notice how this question and the previous one seem very similar. This is intended to prepare you for similar questions on the exam. Choices B and C should have already been completed. The situation described is within the Develop Schedule process of time management. Choice A is the next time management process after Develop Schedule, but the Develop Schedule process is not finished. Final approval (choice D) of the schedule by the stakeholders is needed before one has a project schedule .
18. Value analysis is performed to get: A. More value from the cost analysis B. Management to buy into the project C. The team to buy into the project D. A less costly way of doing the same work
Answer D Notice that you need to know the definition of value analysis to answer this question. Also notice that the other choices could be considered correct by someone who does not know the definition.
What is a key element to consider when developing a WBS? A. Can the quality of work be evaluated by testing? B. Are WBS elements organized by phases as level one entries? C. How will element completion be determined? D. Can individual work assignments be managed from the reporting structure indicated by the WBS?
Answer D Planning - Scope Management Answer D is correct because it is a general factor to consider in periodic reviews of the WBS. The PM has discretion as to how to organize the entries (by deliverable, phase, etc )
4. The customer responsible for overseeing your project asks you to provide a written cost estimate that is 30 percent higher than your estimate of the project's cost. He explains that the budgeting process requires managers to estimate pessimistically to ensure enough money is allocated for projects. What is the BEST way to handle this? A. Add the 30 percent as a lump sum contingency fund to handle project risks B. Add the 30 percent to your cost estimate by spreading it evenly across all project activities C. Create one cost baseline for budget allocation and a second one for the actual project management plan D. Ask for information on risks that would cause your estimate to be too low
Answer D Presenting anything besides your original estimate (allocating more to the budget) is inaccurate and calls into question your competence and integrity as a project manager. The customer should list potential changes and risks to your estimate. If the costs and risks are justified, you can increase the budget.
26. A new store development project requires the purchase of various equipment, machinery, and furniture. The department responsible for the development recently centralized its external purchasing process and standardized its new order system. In which document can these new procedures be found? A. Project scope statement B. WBS C. Staffing management plan D. Organizational policies
Answer D Procedures for the rental and purchase of supplies and equipment are found in the organizational policies, part of organizational process assets.
30. Monitoring cost expended to date in order to detect variances from the plan occurs during: A. The creation of the cost change management plan B. Recommending corrective actions C. Updating the cost baseline D. Product performance reviews
Answer D Recommending corrective actions (choice B) and possible updates to the cost baseline(choice C) result from the activity described; they are not concurrent with it. Monitoring costs are part of change control, but not part of creating the change control system (choice A).
9. A cost performance index (CPI) of 0.89 means: A. At this time, we expect the total project to cost 89 percent more than planned B. When the project is completed we will have spent 89 percent more than planned C. The project is only progressing at 89 percent of the rate planned D. The project is only getting 89 cents out of every dollar invested
Answer D The CPI is less than one, so the situation is bad. Choice D is the best answer.
32. An activity has an early start (ES) of day 3, a late start (LS) of day 13, an early finish (EF) of day 9, and a late finish (LF) of day 19. The activity: A. Is on the critical path B. Has a lag C. Is progressing well D. Is not on the critical path
Answer D The activity described has float because there is a difference between the early start and late start. An activity that has float is probably not on the critical path. There is no information presented about lag (choice B) or progress (choice C), so choice D is the best answer.
3. Which of the following are GENERALLY illustrated BETTER by bar charts than network diagrams? A. Logical relationships B. Critical paths C. Resource trade-offs D. Progress or status
Answer D The bar chart (or Gantt chart) is designed to show a relationship to time. This is best used when demonstrating progress or status as a factor of time.
31. A cost management plan contains a description of: A. The project costs B. How resources are allocated C. The budgets and how they were calculated D. The WBS level at which earned value will be calculated
Answer D The exam will ask you what the tools of project management cantain in order to test whether you really understand them. This question is almost impossible to guess correctly.
29. A new product development project has four levels in the work breakdown structure and has been sequenced using the precedence diagramming method. The activity duration estimates have been received. What should be done NEXT? A. Create an activity list B. Begin the work breakdown structure C. Finalize the schedule D. Compress the schedule
Answer D The question is really asking, "What is done after Estimate Activity Durations?" Choices A and B are done before Estimate Activity Durations. Schedule compression (choice D) occurs before finalizing the schedule (choice C) and is, therefore, the best answer.
2. The work breakdown structure can BEST be thought of as an effective aid for __ communications. A. Team B. Project manager C. Customer D. Stakeholder
Answer D The term stakeholder encompasses all the other choices. In this case, it is the best answer since the WBS can be used (but does not need to be used) as a communications tool for all stakeholders to "see" what is included in the project.
13. A rough order of magnitude estimate is made during which project management process group? A. Planning B. Closing C. Executing D. Initiating
Answer D This estimate has a wide range. It is done during project initiating, when very little is known about the project.
23. Based on the following, if you needed to shorten the duration of the project, what activity would you try to shorten? Activity Precedessor Duration _________________________ Start ____ None ________ 0 A ______ Start _________ 1 B ______ Start _________ 2 C ______ Start _________ 6 D ______ A __________ 10 E ______ B, C _________ 1 F ______ C ___________ 2 G ______ D ___________ 3 H ______ E ___________ 9 I _______ F ___________ 1 End ____ G, H, I _______ 0 A. Activity G B. Activity D C. Activity H D. Activity C
Answer D This is one of the two-stage questions you will find on the exam. First you need to draw the network diagram and find the critical path, and then make a decision. ___ Paths ___________ Duration ___________________________ Start, A, D, G, End ________ 14 Start, B, E, H, End _________12 Start, C, E, H, End ________ 16 Start, C, F, I, End __________ 9 Many people immediately look for the longest duration activity on the project to cut. Here activity D is the longest, at 10 weeks. However, that activity is not on the critical path, and cutting it would not shorten the projects duration. You must change the critical path. In this case, both activity C and activity H are on the critical path. If you have a choice, all things being equal, choose the earlier option. Therefore, activity C (choice D) is the best answer.
1. One common way to compute estimate at completion (EAC) is to take the budget at completion (BAC) and: A. Divide by SPI B. Multiply by SPI C. Multiply by CPI D. Divide by CPI
Answer D This question is asking for the formula for EAC, which is BAC/CPI. Notice how you will have to remember the formula to get the answer correct.
19. A project manager is in the middle of the executing process of a very large construction project when he discovers that the time needed to complete the project is longer than the time available. What is the BEST thing to do? A. Cut product scope B. Meet with management and tell them that the required date cannot be met C. Work overtime D. Determine options for schedule compression and present management with his recommended option
Answer D This question tests whether you know how to solve problems, especially if you are one of those project managers who has not realized that an unrealistic schedule is something you should deal with before beginning work. Since cutting product scope affects the customer, choice A has a great negative effect and is therefore not best. A project manager's job is to determine options for meeting any end date or time, therefore choice B cannot be correct. Working overtime (choice C) is expensive and unnecessary when there are so many other choices that could be selected first. Choice D could have the least negative effect on the project.
32. A manufacturing project has a schedule performance index (SPI) of 0.89 and a cost performance index (CPI) of 0.91. Generally, what is the BEST explanation for why this occurred? A. The scope was changed B. A supplier went out of business and a new one needed to be found C. Additional equipment needed to be purchased D. A critical path activity took longer and needed more labor hours to complete
Answer D To answer this question, you must look for a choice that would take longer and cost more. If you picked choice A, reread it. It says scope was changed, not necessarily added to. If the change was to reduce the scope, it might also have reduced cost. Though it would take time to handle the event described in choice B, the impacted activity might not be on the critical path and thus might not affect time. Choice C would definitely add cost, but not necessarily time. Only choice D would negatively affect both time and cast.
23. Control Schedule, Report Performance, and Administer Procurements are parts of which process group? A. Initiating B. Planning C. Executing D. Monitoring and controlling
Answer D All of these processes are part of monitoring and controlling.
25. A project manager has received activity duration estimates from his team. Which of the following does he need in order to complete the Develop Schedule process? A. Change requests B. Schedule change control system C. Recommended corrective actions D. Reserves
Answer D Develop Schedule includes all work and uses all inputs needed to come up with a finalized, realistic schedule. One would need time reserves (choice D) in order to complete a schedule. All of the other items are parts of Control Schedule and occur after Develop Schedule.
17. Which project management process group normally takes the MOST project time and resources? A. Planning B. Design C. Integration D. Executing
Answer D Doing the actual work will normally take the MOST project time and resources.
6. Which of the following is NOT an input to the initiating process group? A. Company processes B. Company culture C. Historical WBSs D. Project scope statement
Answer D Notice the question asks which is NOT an input to the initiating process group. Did you read it correctly? The project scope statement (choice D) is an output of the planning process group. Did you select choice A? Companies should have processes in place for hiring resources, reporting, and managing risks on projects (to name only a few). Does yours?
7. The project sponsor has just signed the project charter. What is the NEXT thing to do? A. Begin to complete work packages B. Verify Scope C. Start integrated change control D. Start to create management plans
Answer D The project charter is created during the initiating process group. Therefore the question is asking what is done next in either the initiating process group or the planning process group. For this type of question, you should look for the choice that occurs closest to the process group you are in. Choice A is done during the executing process group. Choices B and C are done during the monitoring and controlling process group. Choice D is the best choice, as it is part of the planning process group.
2. The project charter is created in which project management process group? A. Executing B. Planning C. Closing D. Initiating
Answer D The project charter is needed before planning and execution of the work can begin.
11. The float of an activity is determined by: A. Performing a Monte Carlo analysis B. Determining the waiting time between activities C. Determining lag D. Determining the amount of time the activity can be delayed before it delays the critical path
Answer D This question does not specify what type of float. Total float is the amount of time an activity can be delayed without impacting the end date of the project. Free float is the amount of time an activity can be delayed without impacting the early start of the next activity. The only choice matching either of these definitions is choice D.
19. As a project manager, you have identified the deliverables and details about what is included and excluded on your project. Where would you document this? A. In the scope statement, which is an input to the Create WBS process. B. In the scope statement, which is an input to the Collect Requirements process. C. In the WBS, which is an output of the Requirement management plan process D. In the WBS, which is a tool and technique of the Define Scope process.
Answer: A Planning - Scope Management The scope statement contains a exhaustive list of the project deliverables and details about what is included and excluded on your project. The scope statements in an output of Define Scope and is an input to Create WBS.
12. The WBS element 1.7.A would be found at what level in the WBS? A. two B. three C. four D. cannot be determined
Answer: B Planning - Scope Management Level 1: 1 Level 2: 7 Level 3: A
20. Which of the following documents is used as the baseline for evaluating whether requests for changes or additional work are contained within or outside the project's boundaries and guiding the team through the Executing processes? A. Project Charter B. Project Scope Statement C. Project Requirements Documentation D. WBS Dictionary
Answer: B Planning - Scope Management The project scope statement defines the total scope of the project (what is in-scope and what is out of scope). According to the PMBOK Guide, it is used as a baseline for evaluating change requests and for guiding the project team's work through the Executing processes.
15. The process of creating a work breakdown structure most likely results in which of the following? A. A project schedule B. Team buy-in C. A project budget D. A list of indentified risks.
Answer: B. Planning - Scope Management WBS is a team building activity created by project, hence it is called is team-buy-in. You also know that creating the WBS does not result in a project schedule, a project budget, or a list of identified risks; those are all results of other PMBOK processes.
13. Which of the following is done during Verify scope? A. Verify product correctness B. Verify the WBS C. Inspection D. Performance measurement
Answer: C Monitoring & Controlling - Scope Management Verify scope is the process of formalizing acceptance of the completed project deliverables. Inspection is a tool used for this purpose. Verifying the correctness of the product relates to quality control, while verify scope looks to see if requirements were met (via inspection).
18. You are project manager in a product manufacturing organization. As the project moves towards completion, different material composition is considered for the deliverable. The is an example of which of the following? A. Change request B. Alternatives identification C. Quality assurance D. Verify scope
Answer: C Planning - Scope Management Identifying alternatives is a technique used to generate different approaches to execute and perform the work of the project. Techniques such as brainstorming and lateral thinking are used.
17. Which od the following is a benefit of creating a work breakdown structure? A. It provides authority for the Project Manager B. It allows the project budget to be determined C. It helps attain buy-in from the team doing the work D. It allows the project completion date to be determined
Answer: C Planning - Scope Management The WBS helps get the buy-in from the people doing the work. If they aren't involved in the creation of the WBS, then it's not as easy to get the buy-in and the planning likely won't be as accurate as it could be when the people doing the work are involved.
14. When should details about the product of the project be given? A. Before anything else happens in the project B. Before the project plan is put under version control C. As soon as possible in the project planning D. Whenever the sponsor requires it
Answer: C Planning - Scope Management The more clarity you have about the details of the project's product, the better you will be at writing the overall plan. Do not leave the details for a later date if you can get them early in the planning process.
47. You are the project manager for a railroad construction project. Your sponsor has asked you for a forecast for the cost of project completion. Which of the following is the BEST metric to use for forecasting? A. EV and AC B. SV and CV C. ETC and VAC D. SPI and CPI
Answer: EV, AC, SV, CV, SPI, AND CPI are all measures of PAST performance. ETC and VAC predict future values. Forecasting is future. (C)
49. You've been hired by a large consulting firm to evaluate a software project for them. You have access to the CPI and EV for the project, but not the AC. The CPI is .92 and the EV is $172,500. How much money has actually been spent for the project? A. $158,700 B. $172,500 C. $187,500 D. There is not enough information to calculate the actual cost.
Answer: From the equations, we have CPI = EV/AC. Solving for AC, gives us AC = EV/CPI = 172,500/0.92 = $187,500 (C)
42. You are managing a construction project that is currently being initiated. You met with the sponsors and several important stakeholders, and have started to work on the preliminary scope statement. You've documented several key assumptions that have been made, and identified project constraints and initial risks. Before you can finish the preliminary scope statement, you must make a rough order of magnitude estimate of both time and cost so that the sponsor can allocate the final budget. What is the range of a rough order of magnitude (ROM) estimate? A. -10% to +10% B. -50% to +50% C. -50% to +100% D. -100% to +200%
Answer: Just answer the question. A ROM estimate is defined as -50% to +100%. The rest is unnecessary information.
41. You are managing a project with a total budget of $450,000. According to the schedule, your team should have completed 45% of the work by now. But at the latest status meeting, the team only reported that 40% of the work has actually been completed. The team has spent $165,000 so far on the project. How would you best describe this project? A. The project is ahead of schedule and within its budget. B. The project is behind schedule and within its budget. C. The project is ahead of schedule and over its budget. D. The project is behind schedule and over its budget.
Answer: Let's look at the schedule. Should be 45% complete, we are 40% complete. SPI = EV/PV = 40% / 45% = 0.89 < 1. We are behind schedule. Now to budget. CPI = EV/AC = (40% x $450,000) / $165,000 = 1.09. We are within budget.
40. You are the project manager for a railroad construction project. Your Sponsor has asked you for a forecast for the cost of project completion. The project has a total budget of $80,000 abd CPI of .95 . The project has spent $25,000 of its budget so far. How much more money do you plan to spend on the project? A. $59,210 B. $80,000 C $84,210 D $109,210
Answer: Really asking for ETC. ETC = EAC - AC. We have AC. Can we get EAC? EAC = BAC/CPI. Now we have everything we need. ETC = EAC - AC = BAC/CPI -AC = $ 80,000/0.95 - $25,000 = $59,210 (A)
44. You are managing a project with an EV of $15,000, PV of $12,000, and AC of $11,000. How would you BEST describe this project? A. The project is ahead of schedule and within its budget. B. The project is behind schedule and within its budget. C. The project is ahead of schedule and over its budget. D. The project is behind schedule and over is budget.
Answer: SPI = EV/PV = 15000/12000 = 1.25 > 1 so we're ahead of schedule. CPI = EV/AC = 15000/11000 = 1.36 > 1 ($1.36 in value for every dollar spend) so we're within our budget. (A)
46. You are managing a project with a schedule performance index (SPI) of 1.07 and a cost performance index (CPI) of .94. How would you BEST describe this project? A. The project is ahead of scheule and within its budget. B. The project is behind schedule and within its budget. C. The project is ahead of schedule and over its budget. D. The project is behind schedule and over its budget.
Answer: SPI is greater than 1, you are ahead of schedule. CPI is less than 1, you are over budget. (C)
48. You have been asked to select between three projects. Project A has a net present value of $54,750 and will take six months to complete. Project B has a net present value of $85,100 and will take two years to complete. Project C has a net present value or $15,000 and a benefit-cost ratio of 5:2. Which project should you choose? A. Project A B. Project B C. Project C D. There is not enough information to decide.
Answer: The important information in this question are the NPV values. The given times and BCR are unnecessary information. Choose the greatest NPV. (B)
43. You are managing a construction project to install new door frames in an office building. You planned on spending $12,500 on the project, but your costs are higher than expected, and now you're afraid that your project is spending too much money. What number tells you the difference between the amount of money you planned on spending and what you've actually spent so far on the project? A. AC B. SV C. CV D. VAC
Answer: The question is asking for the difference between planned and actual spending. This is Cost Variance, so CV.
45. You are managing a project with AC = $25,100 , ETC = $45,600 , VAC = -$2,600, BAC = $90,000, and EAC = $92,100. Your sponsor asks you to forecast how much money you expect to spend on the remainder of the project. Which is the BEST estimate to use for this forecast? A. $45,600 B. $87,400 C. $90,000 D. $92,100
Answer: The question is asking how much MORE money will be spent to complete the project. This is the Estimate to Completion, or ETC, which is given to you. $45,600 (A)
10. Which of the following BEST describes the project manager's role as an integrator? A. Help team members become familiar with the project B. Put all the pieces of a project into a cohesive whole C. Put all the pieces of a project into a program D. Get all team members together into a cohesive whole
B
11. Approved corrective action is an input to: A. Validate Scope B. Direct and Manage Project Work C. Develop Project Charter D. Develop Schedule
B
12. A project manager is managing his second project. It started one month after the first, and both are in process. Though his first project is small, this one seems to be growing in size every day. As each day passes, the project manager is beginning to feel more and more in need of help. The project manager has recently heard that there was another project in the company last year that is similar to his second project. What should he do? A. Contact the other project manager and ask for assistance. B. Obtain historical records and guidance from the project management office (PMO). C. Wait to see if the project is impacted by the growth in scope. D. Make sure the scope of the project is agreed to by all the stakeholders.
B
13. Which of the following BEST describes what a project charter may be used for when the work is completed? A. To make sure all the team members are rewarded. B. To help determine if a scope change should be approved. C. To assess the effectiveness of the change control system. D. To make sure that all the documentation on the project is completed.
B
14. To obtain support for the project throughout the performing organization, it's BEST if the project manager: A. Ensures there is a communications management plan. B. Correlates the need for the project to the organization's strategic plan. C. Connects the project to the personal objectives of the sponsor. D. Ensures that the management plan includes the management of team members.
B
17. A project team is working on manufactoring a new product, but they are having difficulty creating a project charter. What is the BEST description of the real problem? A. They have not identified the project objectives. B. They are working on a process and not a project. C. The end date has not been set. D. They have not identified the product of the project.
B
17. You are taking over a project during project planning and discover that six individuals have signed the project charter. Which of the following should MOST concern you? A. Who will be a member of the change control board B. Spending more time on configuration management C. Getting a single project sponsor D. Determining the reporting structure
B
2. The customer has accepted the project scope. However, the lessons learned required by the project management office have not been completed. What is the status of the project? A. The project is incomplete because it needs to be replanned. B. The project is incomplete until all project and product deliverables are complete and accepted. C. The project is complete because the customer has accepted the deliverables. D. The project is complete because it has reached its due date.
B
22. The primary customer of a project has requested an application change during user testing. As project manager, how should you BEST address this issue? A. Develop a risk mitigation plan. B. Created a formal change request. C. Inform the project sponsor of changes to scope, cost, and schedule. D. Ensure the scope change complies with all relevant contractual provisions.
B
24. What is a program? A. An initative set up by management B. A means to gain benefits and control of related projects. C. A group of unrelated projects managed in a coordinated way D. A government regulation
B
25. A company is making an effort to improve its project performance and create historical records of past projects. What is the BEST way to accomplish this? A. Create project management plans. B. Create lessons learned. C. Create network diagrams. D. Create status reports.
B
29. During project executing, the project manager determines that a change is needed to material purchased for the project. The project manager calls a meeting of the team to plan how to make the change. This is an example of: A. Management by objectives B. Lack of a change management plan C. Good team relations D. Lack of a clear work breakdown structure
B
31. You are asked to prepare a budget for completing a project that was started last year and then shelved for six months. All the following would be included in the budget EXCEPT: A. Fixed costs B. Sunk costs C. Direct costs D. Variable costs
B
33. This project is chartered to determine new ways to extend the product life of one of the company's medium-producing products. The project manager comes from the engineering department, and the team comes from product management and marketing departments. The project scope statement and project planning are completed when a stakeholder notifies the team that there is a better way to complete one of the work packages. They even supply a technical review letter from their department proving that the new way to complete the work package will actually be faster than the old way. The project manager has had similar experiences with this department on other projects, and was expecting this to happen on this project. What is the FIRST thing the project manager should do? A. Contact the department and complain again about their missing the deadline for submission of scope B. Look for how this schedule change will impact the cost to complete the work package and the quality of the product of the work package C. See if there is a way to change from a matrix environment to a functional organization so as to eliminate all the interference from other departments D. Ask the department if they have any other changes
B
4. The custmer on a project tells the project manager they have run out of money to pay for the project. What should the project manager do FIRST? A. Shift more of the work to later in the schedule to allow time for the customer to get the funds. B. Close Project or Phase. C. Stop work. D. Release part of the project team.
B
40. You have created the project charter, but could not get it approved. Your manager and his boss have asked that the project begins immediately. Which of the following is the BEST thing to do? A. Set up an integrated change control process B. Show your manager the impact of proceeding without approval C. Focus on completing projects that have signed project charters D. Start work on only the critical path activities
B
43. Which of the following BEST reflect the phrase "influencing the factors that affect change"? A. Telling people that changes are not allowed after planning is complete. B. Determining the sources of changes and fixing the root causes. C. Adding more activities to the work breakdown structure to accomodate risks D. Calculating the impact of changes to date on the project.
B
5. A project team member is talking to another team member and complaining that many people are asking him to do things. If he works in a functional organization, who has the power to give direction to the team member? A. The project manager. B. The functional manager. C. The team. D. The PMO.
B
6. A work authorization system can be used to: A. Manage who does each activity B. Manage what time and in what sequence work is done C. Manage when each activity is done D. Manage who does each activity and when it is done
B
15. Which of the following is TRUE about the development of a project charter? A. The sponsor creates the project charter, and the project manager approves it. B. The project team creates the project charter, and the PMO approves it. C. The executive manager creates the project charter, and the functional manager approves it. D. The project manager creates the project charter, and the sponsor approves it.
D
The seller on the project has presented the project manager with a formal notification that the seller has been damaged by the buyer's activites. The seller claims that the buyer's slow response to requested approvals has delayed theproject and has caused the seller unexpected expense. The FIRST things the project manager should do are: A. Collect all relevant data, send the data to the company attorney, and consult with the attorney about legal actions. B. Review the contract for specific agreed-upon terms that relate to the issue, see if there is a clear response, and consult an attorney if needed. C. Review the procurement statement of work for requirements, send a receipt of claim response, and meet to resolve the issue without resorting to legal action if possible. D. Hold a meeting with the team to review why the acceptances have been late, make a list of the specific reasons, and correct those reasons.
B
16. A project management plan should be realistic in order to be used to manage the project. Which of the following is the BEST method to achieve a realistic project management plan? A. Sponsor creates the project management plan based on input from the project manager B. Functional manager creates the project management plan based on input from the project manager C. Project manager creates the project management plan based on input from senior management D. Project manager creates the project management plan based on input from the team
D
19. All of the following are parts of Direct and Manage Project Work EXCEPT: A. Identifying changes B. Using a work breakdown structure C. Implementing corrective actions D. Setting up a project control system
D
2. In a projectized organization, the project team: A. Reports to many bosses B. Has no loyalty to the project. C. Reports to the functional manager. D. Will not always have a "home"
D
1. The need for ___ is one of the major driving forces for communication in a project. A. Optimization B. Integrity C. Integration D. Differentiation
C
10. Which of the following BEST describes the major constraints on a project? A. Scope, number of resources, and cost. B. Scope, cost, and time C. Scope, time, cost, quality, risk, resources, and customer satisfaction. D. Time, cost, and number of changes.
C
11. If a project manager is concerned with gathering, integrating, and disseminating the outputs of all project management processes, she should concentrate on improving the: A. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS). B. Communication management plan. C. Project management information system (PMIS). D. Scope management plan.
C
12. Double declining balance is a form of: A. Decelerated depreciation B. Straight line depreciation C. Accelerated depreciation D. Life cycle costing
C
14. Which of the following BEST describes a project management plan? A. A printout from project management software B. A bar chart C. Risk, staffing, process improvement, and other management plans D. The project scope
C
15. Your management has decided that all orders will be treated as "projects" and that project managers will be used to update orders daily, to resolve issues, and to ensure the customer formally accepts the product within 30 days of completion. Revenue from the individual orders can vary from US $100 to US $150,000. The project manager will not be required to perform planning or provide documentation other than daily status. How would you define this situation? A. Because each individual order is a "temporary endeavor," each order is a project. B. This is program management since there are multiple projects involved. C. This is a reoccurring process. D. Orders incurring revenue over $100,000 would be considered projects and would involve project management.
C
18. One of your team members informs you that he does not know which of the many projects he is working on is the most important. Who should determine the priorities between projects in a company? A. The project manager. B. The project management team C. The project management office (PMO) D. The team
C
19. The difference between a project, program, and portfolio is: A. A project is a temporary endeavor with a beginning and an end, a program may include other nonproject work, and a portfolio is all the projects in a given department or division. B. A project is a lengthy endeavor with a beginning and an end, a program combines two or more unrealted projects, and a portfolio combines two or more programs. C. A project is a temporary endeavor with a beginning and an end, a program is a group of related projects, and a portfolio is a group of projects and programs related to a specific strategic objective. D. A project is a contracted endeavor with a beginning and end, a portfolio is a group of projects with more open-minded completion dates, and a program combines two or more portfolios.
C
20. Operational work is different from project work in that operational work is: A. Unique. B. Temporary. C. Ongoing and repetitive. D. A part of every project activity.
C
21. You are in the middle of executing a major modification to an existing product when you learn that the resources promised at the beginning of the project are not available. The BEST thing to do is to: A. Show how the resources were originally promised to your project B. Replan the project without the resources C. Explain the impact if the promised resources are not made available D. Crash the project
C
23. Consideration of ongoing operations and maintenance is crucially important to products of projects. Ongoing operations and maintenance should: A. B included as activities to be performed during project closure. B. Have a separate phase in the project life cycle, because a large portion of life cycle costs is devoted to maintenance and operations. C. Not be viewed as part of a project. D. Be viewed as a separate project.
C
25. You are a project manager who was just assigned to take over a project from another project manager who is leaving the company. The previous project manager tells you that the project is on schedule, but only because he has constantly pushed the team to perform. What is the FIRST thing you should do as the new project manager? A. Check risk status B. Check cost performance C. Determine a management strategy D. Tell the team your objectives
C
27. It is the middle of the project when the project manager is informed by her scheduler that the project control limits are secure. That same morning she receives a note from a team member about a problem he is having. The note says, "This activity is driving me crazy and the manager of the accounting department won't help me until the activity's float is in jeopardy." In addition, the project manager has e-mails from a minor stakeholder and 14 e-mails from team members. While she is reading the e-mails, a team member walks into the project manager's office to tell her a corrective action was implemented by a team member from the project management office, but was not documented. What should the project manager do NEXT? A. Report the documentation violation to the project management ofice, evaluate the security of the control limits, and review the e-mailing rules in the communications management plan B. Clarify the reasoning behind documentation being a problem, get the accounting department to assist the team member, and respond to the minor stakeholder C. Add the implemented corrective action to the historical records, discuss the value of documentation at the next team meeting, and smooth the team member with the accounting department problem D. Find out who caused the problem with the accounting department, respond to the minor stakeholder before responding to the other e-mails, and review the process listed in the communications management plan for reporting concerns with the team member having the documentation problem
C
20. A project manager is appointed to head a highly technical project in an area with which this person has limited familiarity. The project manager delegates the processes of Develop schedule, Estimate Costs, Define Activities, and Estimate Activity Resources to various project team members, and basically serves as an occasional referee and coordinator of activities. The results of this approach are likely to be: A. A team functioning throughout the project at a very high level, demonstrating creativity and commitment B. A team that initially experiences some amounts of confusion, but that after a period of time becomes a cohesive and effective unit C. A team that is not highly productive, but that stays together because of the work environment created by the project manager D. A team that is characterized by poor performance, low morale, high levels of conflict and high turnover
D
28. The client demands changes to the product specification that will add only two weeks to the critical path. Which of the following is the BEST thing for the project manager to do? A. Compress the schedule to recover the two weeks B. Cut scope to recover the two weeks C. Consult with the sponsor about options D. Advise the client of the impact of the change
C
34. Project A has an internal rate of return (IRR) of 21 percent. Project B has an IRR of 7 percent. Project C has an IRR of 31 percent. Project D has an IRR of 19 percent. Which of these would be the BEST project? A. Project A B. Project B C. Project C D. Project D
C
38. A project manager is trying to convince management to use more formal project management procedures and has decided to start improving the company's project management by obtaining a project charter. Wich of the following BEST describes why the project charter would help the project manager? A. It describes the details of what needs to be done B. It lists the names of all team members C. It gives the project manager authority D. It describes the project's history
C
4. A project manager has very little project experience, but he has been assigned as the project manager of a new project. Because he will be working in a matrix organization to complete his project, he can expect communications to be: A. Simple. B. Open and accurate. C. Complex. D. Hard to automate.
C
7. A project is plagued by changes to the project charter. Who has the primary responsibility to decide if these changes are necessary? A. The project manager B. The project team C. The sponsor D. The stakeholders
C
8. Effective project integration usually requires an emphasis on: A. The personal careers of the team members. B. Timely updates to the project management plan. C. Effective communication at key interface points. D. Product control.
C
The ongoing definition of a project as more information becomes available to the team is called: A. Scope validation. B. Strategic planning. C. Progressive elaboration. D. Quantitative elaboration.
C
The process of decomposing deliverables into smaller, more manageable components is complete when: A. Project justification has been established. B. Change requests have occurred. C. Cost estimates can be developed for each work element. D. Each work element is found in the WBS dictionary.
C
22. Lessons learned are BEST completed by: A. The project manager. B. The team. C. The sponsor. D. The stakeholders.
D
23. The project manager has just received a change from the customer that does not affect the project schedule and is easy to complete. What should the project manager do FIRST? A. Make the change happen as soon as possible B. Contact the project sponsor for permission C. Go to the change control board D. Evaluate the impacts on other project constraints
D
24. Your company just won a major new project. It will begin in three months and is valued at $2,000,000. You are the project manager for an existing project. What is the FIRST thing you should do once you hear of the new project? A. Ask management how the new project will use resources B. Resource level your project C. Crash Your project D. Ask management how the new project will affect your project
D
26. You are assigned as the project manager in the middle of the project. The project is within the baselines, but the customer is not happy with the performance of the project. What is the FIRST thing you should do? A. Discuss it with the project team B. Recalculate baselines C. Renegotiate the contract D. Meet with the customer
D
3. When it comes to changes, the project manager's attention is BEST given to: A. Making changes B. Tracking and recording changes C. Informing the sponsor of changes D. Preventing unnecessary changes
D
30. The project was going well when all of a sudden there were changes to the project coming from multiple stakeholders. After all the changes were determined, the project manager spent time with all the stakeholders to find out why there were changes and to discover any more. The project work has quieted down when a team member casually mentions to the project manager that he added functionality to a product of the project. "Do not worry," he says, "I did not impact time, cost, or quality!" What should a project manager do FIRST? A. Ask the team member how the need for the functionality was determined B. Hold a meeting to review the team member's completed work C. Look for other added functionality D. Ask the team member how he knows there is no time, cost, or quality impact
D
36. All of the following would occur during the Close Project or phase process EXCEPT: A. Creating lessons learned B. Formal acceptance C. Reducing resource spending D. Performing benefit cost analysis
D
37. Which of the following is included in a project charter? A. A risk management strategy B. Work package estimates C. Detailed resource estimates D. The business need for the project
D
42. All technical work is completed on the project. Which of the following remains to be done? A. Validate Scope B. Plan Risk Responses C. Create a staffing management plan D. Complete lessons learned
D
Which of the following sequences is in the proper order: A: Define scope, estimate activity duration, estimate resources, determine budget B: Collect requirements, develop human resource plan, estimate activity duration, sequence activities C. Collect requirements, define scope, determine budget, sequence activities D. Collect requirements, define scope, create WBS, define activities, sequence activities
The correct order is D - Collect Requirements, Define Scope, Create WBS, Define Activities, Sequence Activities
