Practice Exam Ex 3

The image is of a peripheral blood smear stained with Prussion blue stain. What are the inclusions seen in the RBC indicated by the arrow? Siderotic granules Pappenheimer bodies Howell-Jolly bodies Heinz bodies

Siderotic granules

What is the purpose of adding citrate to donated red cell units? It stabilizes the pH of the unit during storage. It is a substrate in ATP synthesis. It supports ATP generation by the glycolytic pathway. It prevents coagulation.

It prevents coagulation.

Which of the following best describes reverse typing? Known antisera used to detect ABO antigens. Known antigen used to detect ABO antibodies. Known antigen used to detect ABO antigens. Known antisera used to detect ABO antibodies.

Known antigen used to detect ABO antibodies.

If CSF tubes numbered #1, #2 and #3 CANNOT be analyzed within one hour, the correct procedure for the microbiology sample tube is to: Refrigerate it Freeze it Leave it at room temperature Incubate in a 56-degree water bath

Leave it at room temperature

Which of the following is the most common condition associated with a nonmegaloblastic macrocytic anemia? Liver disease Aplastic anemia Chronic blood loss Folic Acid deficiency

Liver disease

Which of the following may be seen in a CSF sample of a patient that has a subarachnoid (intracranial) hemorrhage (SAH)? Macrophages containing hemosiderin Uneven distribution of blood in CSF tubes collected Clot is present in the CSF sample Supernatant of CSF sample does not have xanthochromia

Macrophages containing hemosiderin

Which of the following viruses or diseases is screened for in blood donors only using questions asked during the donor screening and selection process? Hepatitis B West Nile Virus Malaria HIV

Malaria

Albumin levels are can be a good gauge for chronic protein deficiency. Which of the following terms describes inadequate protein and caloric intake? Kwashiorkor Marasmus Albuminemia Hypoproteinism

Marasmus

Which of the following tests would be most affected by microclots in an EDTA tube drawn for a CBC? RBC Hematocrit Hemoglobin Platelet count

Platelet count

Which is the best method for examination of synovial crystals? Phase contrast Darkfield microscopy Brightfield microscopy Polarized light

Polarized light

What is the distance the solute migrates divided by the distance the solvent migrates in thin-layer chromatography (TLC)? pH pKa Rf pKb

Rf

The term used to describe patients with absence of Rh antigens is: Rhmod Rhnull Partial D Del

Rhnull

The light pink-yellow, mucoid, non-hemolytic colonies on blood agar, an uncommon isolate, belongs to the aerobic actinomycetes. This species is widely spread among farm animals and may cause human respiratory infections upon animal contact. The Gram stain reveals Gram positive cocci, with younger colonies also showing branching bacilli, with residuals seen here. Carbohydrates were not utilized (asaccharolytic), and the decarboxylase reactions are also negative. The presumptive identification is: Rhodococcus equi Nocardia asteroides Oerskovia turbata Streptomyces species

Rhodococcus equi

What is the cell that is indicated by the arrow in this Prussian-blue stained bone marrow smear? Ringed sideroblast Reticulocyte Megakaryocyte Plasma cell

Ringed sideroblast

Which of the following Enterobacteriaceae produces H2S? Klebsiella species Escherichia species Salmonella species Yersinia species

Salmonella species

In the upper bi-plate image are shown colonies growing on MacConkey (left), and on blood agar (right). Relatively large confluent gray white colonies are observed growing on blood agar, while smaller smooth convex colonies with a deep red pigmentation are growing on MacConkey agar. Note that the pigment is confined to the colonies growing on MacConkey agar that does not diffuse into the adjacent agar. In follow-up to making a presumptive identification, observe that the colonies growing on the DNase agar in the lower image (right) show a positive reaction with clearing of the adjacent agar, compared to the growth of a negative control growing in the streak lines to the left. From these observations, select from the multiple choices the presumptive identification of this isolate. Proteus vulgaris Serratia marcescens Providencia stuartii Citrobacter koseri

Serratia marcescens

Which of the following is an example of proper transfusion practices regarding fresh frozen plasma (FFP)? Contains all labile coagulation factors except cryoprecipitate Has a higher risk of transmitting hepatitis than whole blood Should be transfused within 24 hours of thawing ABO-compatible units are not required for transfusion purposes

Should be transfused within 24 hours of thawing

Which of the following Staphylococcus species will produce yellow colonies on mannitol salt agar? Staphylococcus aureus Staphylococcus saprophyticus Staphylococcus epidermidis Staphylococcus haemolyticus

Staphylococcus aureus

When distinguishing megaloblastic from nonmegaloblastic macrocytic anemia, which of the following is a key difference in red blood cell morphology? The presence of target cells in nonmegaloblastic macrocytic anemia The presence of oval macrocytes in nonmegaloblastic anemia The presence of round macrocytes in megaloblastic anemia The presence of round macrocytes in nonmegaloblastic anemia.

The presence of round macrocytes in nonmegaloblastic anemia.

A serum specimen for potassium testing is collected in a red top tube without a gel separator barrier. If testing is delayed by a few hours, how should the specimen be handled? Discard the specimen and recollect right before testing is available again. Discard the specimen and recollect in a gel separator tube. The specimen should be centrifuged as soon as it clotted and serum should be transferred to another tube. There is no special handling procedure for this specimen.

The specimen should be centrifuged as soon as it clotted and serum should be transferred to another tube.

When collecting routine blood product donations, the venipuncture site is first cleaned with: 70% Isopropyl alcohol 50% Iodine 0.7% Iodophor compound 2% Chlorhexidine

0.7% Iodophor compound

The volume of urine recommended for centrifugation for a microscopic examination is: 1 - 3 mL 10 - 15 mL 15 - 20 mL Volume is not important

10 - 15 mL

After frozen RBC's have been thawed and washed, they must be used within how many hours? 6 12 24 48

24

What is the glomerular filtration rate for a patient with a serum creatinine of 2 mg/dL, if the urine creatinine was 124 mg/dL and the urine volume was 2.2 L/24 hrs? 9.5 mL/min 13.6 mL/min 95 mL/min1 36 mL/min

95 mL/min

Group A beta-hemolytic streptococci are best characterized by which of the following: Positive CAMP test Optochin sensitivity Bile esculin-hydrolysis Bacitracin sensitivity

Bacitracin sensitivity

This image is a Wright stained peripheral blood smear. The RBC that is indicated by the arrow contains which of the following? Basophilic stippling Cabot rings Pappenheimer bodies Howell-Jolly bodies

Basophilic stippling

Fecal urobilinogen level may be markedly decreased because of: Hemolysis Decreased intestinal reabsorption of urobilinogen Increased serum bilirubin Biliary obstruction

Biliary obstruction

Blood lactate concentration is an indicator of impaired circulation and tissue oxygenation in critically ill patients. If circulation and tissue oxygenation are impaired: Blood lactate concentration will decrease below the lower end of the established reference range. Blood lactate concentration will increase. Blood lactate will not be affected. Blood lactate will be slightly decreased.

Blood lactate concentration will increase.

In the condition kernicterus, the abnormal accumulation of bilirubin occurs in what tissue? Brain Liver Kidney Blood

Brain

Which of the following areas of the brain and spinal cord is responsible for producing CSF? Subarachnoid space Dura mater Choroid plexuses Arachnoid granulations

Choroid plexuses

This member of the Enterobacteriaceae was isolated from a stool specimen and gave the following biochemical reactions: TSI: K/A, no gas, no H2S Citrate: Positive Lysine decarboxylase: Negative Ornithine decarboxylase: Positive Indole: Negative This organism agglutinated in Group D Shigella antiserum. All of the above biochemical results are consistent with this identification, EXCEPT? TSI Citrate Lysine Indole

Citrate

In the in vitro coagulation scheme, factor V is primarily involved in the: Extrinsic pathway ONLY Intrinsic pathway ONLY Fibrinolytic pathway Common pathway

Common pathway

An anaerobe was recovered from a blood culture after 92 hours incubation. A gram stain of the isolate is illustrated in the photomicrograph. The most likely identification is: Cutibacterium (Propionibacterium) acnes Corynebacterium jeikeium Fusobacterium nucleatum Clostridium perfringens

Cutibacterium (Propionibacterium) acnes

In which of the following condition(s) would an increased serum osmolality be an expected finding? Dehydration and Diabetes insipidus Hyponatremia and Dehydration Increased arginine vasopressin hormone (AVP formerly ADH) secretion and in Hyponatremia AVP and Diabetes insipidus

Dehydration and Diabetes insipidus

Which part of the spectrophotometer is used for the isolation of individual wavelengths of light? Light source Sample cell Diffraction grating Photodetector

Diffraction grating

Illustrated in this photograph is a close-in view of colonies growing on the surface of xylose lysine deoxycholate (XLD) agar. The bacterial species most likely producing the colonies shown here is: Proteus mirabilis Citrobacter koseri Edwardsiella tarda Shigella sonnei

Edwardsiella tarda

A D-test is performed on gram positive cocci to determine inducible resistance to clindamycin when the isolate is sensitive to clindamycin and resistant to which antibiotic? Methicillin Vancomycin Cefoxitin Erythromycin

Erythromycin

Which of the following assays is commonly used to confirm the diagnosis of Activated Protein C resistance? Factor V Leiden Mutation Assay Antithrombin Activity Assay Antithrombin Antigen Assay Anticardiolipin Antibody Immunoassay

Factor V Leiden Mutation Assay

All of the following disorders would affect the results of a Prothrombin time (PT) EXCEPT? Factor VIII deficiency Coumadin therapy Vitamin K deficiency Alcoholic cirrhosis

Factor VIII deficiency

Concerning antigen-antibody reactions, the prozone effect causes which of the following results? False positive False negative No reaction at all Mixed field reaction

False negative

For routine phlebotomy procedures, the antecubital area of the forearm is the preferred site for blood collection procedures. All of the following veins are located in the antecubital area, EXCEPT? Median cubital vein Femoral vein Basilic vein Cephalic vein

Femoral vein

What section of an immunoglobulin molecule is responsible for the differences between immunoglobulin classes? Fc Fab Heavy chains Light chains

Heavy chains

A 55-year-old white male had the following lab data:RBC 3.7 X 1012/LSerum iron 220 µg/dL (N: 60-80 µg/dL)TIBC 300 µg/dL (N: 260-400 µg/dL)Hct 32%Serum Ferritin 2,800 ng/mL (N: 10-200 ng/mL)WBC 5.8 x 109/LMCV 86 fLMCH 26 pgMCHC 32%Prussian Blue stain of bone marrow aspirate indicates markedly elevated iron stores.These laboratory results are MOST consistent with which of the following conditions? Sideroblastic anemia Anemia of chronic disease Hemochromatosis Megaloblastic anemia

Hemochromatosis

What type of anticoagulant is generally suitable for TDM analysis? Heparin EDTA Citrate Oxalate

Heparin

Which genetic description will NOT contain Bart's hemoglobin at birth? Heterozygous alpha thalassemia-1/alpha thalassemia-2 Heterozygous alpha thalassemia-1 Homozygous alpha thalassemia-2 Heterozygous alpha thalassemia-2

Heterozygous alpha thalassemia-2

The liver fluke, Fasciola hepatica can be identified by its relatively small size the cone-shaped anterior extension (arrow). How do humans become infected with this organism? Ingestion of poorly cooked meat Ingestion of poorly cooked water plants Bite of infected fly or insect Direct skin contact with contaminated soil

Ingestion of poorly cooked water plants

A 56-year old female was taken to the emergency room in a coma by her employer's nurse. She had lost 35 pounds in 3 months; she was always thirsty; drinking a lot of water and running to the bathroom. The following are her laboratory results: Results: (indicates reference range) pH: 7.11 (7.35-7.45)pCO2: 21 mm Hg (35-45 mm Hg)Glucose: 950 mg/dL (60-110 mg/dL)Serum osmolality: 365 mOsm/Kg (275-295 mOsm/Kg)Urine ketone: strongly positive (negative)Urine glucose: strongly positive (negative) What is the MOST likely cause of this patient's symptoms? Gestational diabetes Diabetes insipidus Insulin dependent diabetes mellitus Type II diabetes mellitus

Insulin dependent diabetes mellitus

Which of the following organisms are Gram negative? Bacillus Vibrio Staphylococcus Nocardia

Vibrio

Eosinophils are increased in all of the following conditions EXCEPT? Parasitic infections Allergic reactions Viral infections Inflammatory reactions

Viral infections

Which protein is represented by the band labeled by the number 4 on the SPE scan? Albumin Alpha Beta Gamma

Albumin

According to the HIV testing algorithm from the CDC, all of the following statements are true, EXCEPT: A nonreactive screening test to either HIV-1 or HIV-2 is confirmation that a patient does not have HIV. As part of initial screening, an HIV-1/2 antigen/antibody combination immunoassay should be performed. An HIV-1/2 antibody differentiation immunoassay should be used to differentiate a positive screening test. HIV-1 NAT testing should only be used to resolve any discrepant results between initial reactive testing and nonreactive follow-up testing.

A nonreactive screening test to either HIV-1 or HIV-2 is confirmation that a patient does not have HIV.

Which genotype(s) is/are possible for a mating of an AB mother and an AB father? AB only AA and BB AB, AA, and BB All genotypes are possible

AB, AA, and BB

Hemoglobin S (HbS) is MOST common in which of the following countries? African countries Mediterranean countries Middle Eastern countries North American countries

African countries

Which of the following tests would be employed in order to detect neural tube defects? Bilirubin L/S ratio Alpha fetoprotein Creatinine

Alpha fetoprotein

Which of the following blood tests is used to determine acute pancreatitis? Acid phosphatase Uric acid Amylase Alkaline phosphatase (ALP)

Amylase

All of the following antibodies are detected at immediate spin EXCEPT? Anti-P1 Anti-Jka Anti-A Anti-M

Anti-Jka

A 70-year-old man who three days previously had incurred a cerebral vascular accident was semi-comatose and having difficulty breathing. He developed sudden fever overnight and was found to have pneumonia. The Gram stain shown in this photomicrograph was obtained from purulent material obtained through the intubation tube.What is the most likely type of pneumonia? Lobar pneumonia Aspiration pneumonia Community acquired pneumonia Bronchitis secondary to Moraxella catarrhalis

Aspiration pneumonia

All of the following are urinalysis findings associated with nephrotic syndrome EXCEPT: Oval fat bodies Fatty and waxy casts Renal tubular epithelial cells Mild proteinuria

Mild proteinuria

The goal of an ergonomics program is to prevent which of the following disorders or conditions? Autoimmune disorders Allergic contact dermatitis Musculoskeletal disorders Infection

Musculoskeletal disorders

An electrophoretic separation of lactate dehydrogenase isoenzyme that demonstrates elevation in LD-1 greater than LD-2 could be indicative of: A normal LD isoenzyme pattern Myocardial infarction Pancreatitis Diabetes mellitus

Myocardial infarction

To ensure precision and accuracy of the reagent strip tests used for chemical analysis of urine, it is necessary that: Only a positive control be run on a daily basis. Positive controls are run on a daily basis and negative controls are run when opening a new bottle of test strips Positive and negative controls are run on a daily basis and when a new bottle of test strips is opened Positive and negative controls are not required for urine strips

Positive and negative controls are run on a daily basis and when a new bottle of test strips is opened

Which of the following laboratory results would be seen in a patient with acute Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC)? Prolonged PT, decreased fibrinogen, elevated platelet count, increased FDP Normal PT, decreased fibrinogen, decreased platelet count, decreased FDP Prolonged PT, decreased fibrinogen, decreased platelet count, increased FDP Normal PT, increased fibrinogen, decreased platelet count, decreased FDP

Prolonged PT, decreased fibrinogen, decreased platelet count, increased FDP

What is the main function of the hexose monophosphate shunt in red blood cells (RBC's)? Regulate the level of 2,3-DPG Protect hemoglobin from oxidation via NADH Provide ATP Provide NADPH and reduced glutathione to prevent oxidation of hemoglobin

Provide NADPH and reduced glutathione to prevent oxidation of hemoglobin

The primary purpose of neutrophil granules is to: Facilitate nuclear maturation. Help distinguish neutrophils from lymphocytes. Prepare cells for removal from circulation. Provide microbicidal action.

Provide microbicidal action.

Illustrated in the composite photograph is an inflammatory reaction of skin with erythema and micro-pustule formation, most consistent with a dermatophyte infection. The lactophenol blue mount was prepared from a 4-day old colony grown from the skin lesion as shown. The accompanying lactophenol blue microscopic mount illustrates small, spherical micro conidia arranged in loose clusters along the sides of thin hyaline hyphae. The species identification can be confirmed by the positive urease reaction as shown. What is the appropriate identification? Microsporum gypseum Trichophyton mentagrophytes Microsporum canis Epidermophyton floccosum

Trichophyton mentagrophytes

The motile, feeding stage of the amoebas and flagellates is called: Cysts Trophozoites Eggs Larvae

Trophozoites

Which of the following is considered a high-incidence antigen? K (big K) C (big C) c (little c) k (little k)

k (little k)

Which of the following antibodies usually show enhanced agglutination with the use of proteolytic enzymes? Anti-M,-N, and -S Anti-Jka, -Jkb, -C, and -E Anti-Fya and -Fyb Anti-K

Anti-Jka, -Jkb, -C, and -E

Which one of the following antibodies has been implicated in hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn (HDFN)? Anti-I Anti-K Anti-Lea Anti-Leb

Anti-K

The predominant cells seen in this CSF are from a twelve-year-old female exhibiting fever, lethargy, and a stiff neck. The WBC count on the sample was 2,000/microliter. The findings most likely indicate: Normal cytocentrifuged smear Viral meningitis Bacterial meningitis Alzheimer's disease

Viral meningitis

What sugar configuration is necessary as a base for attachment of other sugars to produce ABO antigens? Galactose plus fucose Glucose plus fucose N-acetylgalactosamine plus fucose D-galactose plus fucose

Galactose plus fucose

Which of the following substances is conjugated with the "indirect" bilirubin to form "direct" bilirubin? Ascorbic acid Glucuronic acid Uric acid Salicylic acid

Glucuronic acid

Two sputum specimens were submitted to the Microbiology laboratory for culture. A Gram stained smear was evaluated for each specimen prior to culturing. The fields that are shown in these images are representative of the 20 - 30 low power fields (lpf) that were examined. Which one of the two results represents a sputum specimen that is acceptable for culturing? Gram stain A Gram stain B Both are acceptable for culturing Neither are accepted for culturing

Gram stain A

The antigen marker most closely associated with transmission of HBV infections is: HBsAg HBeAg HBcAg HBiAg

HBeAg

Which one of the following statements concerning Tamm-Horsfall protein is FALSE? It is the protein that is predominantly detected by a urine reagent strip test. Hyaline casts are formed by this protein in the distal tubule. It acts as a coating and lubricant in the tubules. It is produced by the tubules.

It is the protein that is predominantly detected by a urine reagent strip test.

Which of the following are terms used to describe storage pool iron? Hemosiderin and myoglobin Ferritin and hemosiderin Hemopectin and hemoglobin Apoferritin and transferrin

Ferritin and hemosiderin

Which of these methods measures fetal hemoglobin or D positive red cells or both to evaluate fetomaternal hemorrhage? Rosette test Kleihauer-Betke test Flow cytometry AHG testing

Flow cytometry

All of the following are standard methods for measuring the specific gravity of urine, EXCEPT: Urine reagent strips Freezing point depression Refractometry Harmonic oscillation densitometry

Freezing point depression

What is the process of monoclonal antibody production? Stimulation of activated T cells Fusion of plasma cell secretions Fusion of antibody specific lymphocyte and myeloma cell Multiplication of cytotoxic T cells

Fusion of antibody specific lymphocyte and myeloma cell

Observation of colonies producing brick red fluorescence under long-wave ultraviolet light on KVLB agar allows for presumptive identification of which anaerobic bacterial genus? Fusobacterium Peptostreptococcus Bacteroides Prevotella

Fusobacterium

All of the following conditions are associated with a polyclonal (broadbased) increase in gamma globulins except? Liver disease Chronic inflammation Immune reaction Immunodeficiency

Immunodeficiency

Which of the following methods may be employed to definitively identify Bence-Jones proteins? Immunoelectrophoresis Sulfosalicyclic acid precipitation Heat precipitation at 40-60oC Urine dipstick

Immunoelectrophoresis

When assessing a bone marrow aspirate smear of an adult, a normal M/E ratio (myeloid to erythroid cells) would be? M:E = 1:1 M:E =1:3.5 M:E = 2.5:1 M:E = 7:1

M:E = 2.5:1

What would be the next step when an EDTA specimen had an automated platelet count of 61,000/mm3 and the platelets were surrounding the neutrophils on the differential? Report the automated platelet count since it is more accurate than a platelet estimate Warm the EDTA tube and repeat the automated platelet count Rerun the original specimen since the platelet count and blood smear estimate do not match Recollect a specimen for a platelet count without using EDTA

Recollect a specimen for a platelet count without using EDTA

What is the cell indicated by the arrow in this illustration? Hairy cell Smudge cell Foam cell Blast

Smudge cell

Which of the following would be the most appropriate method to confirm a positive protein from a urine dipstick: Immunoelectrophoresis Heat precipitation Sulfosalicylic acid precipitation Protein electrophoresis

Sulfosalicylic acid precipitation

The 40 µm in diameter ovum illustrated in the photograph may be observed in the stool specimens of individuals presenting with minimal abdominal discomfort and low grade diarrhea. Pairs of hooklets are observed internally in the absence of an internal membrane. Select from the multiple choice answers the presumptive identification of this cestode ovum. Hymenolepis diminuta Diphyllobothrium latum Taenia spp. Dipylidium caninum

Taenia spp.

Which of the following statements about hepatitis C virus (HCV) is true? There is vaccination against infection with HCV. The primary route of infection with HCV is airborne transmission. Patients infected with HCV will always have observable symptoms. The majority of individuals who are infected with HCV and develop antibodies in their serum (seroconvert) will develop a chronic infection and active liver disease.

The majority of individuals who are infected with HCV and develop antibodies in their serum (seroconvert) will develop a chronic infection and active liver disease.

Which of the following human parasite spreads its infection through ingestion of raw meat or from oocysts from cat feces? Microsporidium Toxoplasma gondii Cryptosporidium spp. Enterocytozoon bieneusi

Toxoplasma gondii

Throughout history, plague pandemics have killed millions. Transmission of the human plague may still occur through bites of rodent fleas or contact with infected animals. What is the causative agent of plague? Vibrio cholerae Bacillus anthracis Clostridium botulinum Yersinia pestis

Yersinia pestis

The following stain reactions were resulted on a suspected case of leukemia: Myeloperoxidase + Sudan Black B + Chloroacetate Esterase + Nonspecific Esterases - Which of the following is the correct interpretation? Acute Myelocytic Leukemia Acute Monocytic Leukemia Acute Megakaryoblastic Leukemia Acute Lymphocytic Leukemia

Acute Myelocytic Leukemia

The Emergency Department has collected blood test tubes for potassium, albumin, plasma hemoglobin, and acid phosphatase. Which of these test results will NOT be negatively affected if the blood tube is sent by the hospital's pneumatic tube system? Albumin Plasma hemoglobin Potassium Acid phosphatase

Albumin

Which of the following is a true statement about aminoglycoside antibiotics? Aminoglycosides have a half-life of 1-2 hours and are metabolized by the liver. Aminoglycosides are anitbiotics used to treat only Gram-negative bacterial infections. Aminoglycosides are antibiotics used to treat only Gram-positive bacterial infections. Aminoglycosides can be toxic antibiotics that are used to treat bacterial infections when such bacteria are resistant to less-toxic antibiotics.

Aminoglycosides can be toxic antibiotics that are used to treat bacterial infections when such bacteria are resistant to less-toxic antibiotics.

What is the term used to describe inadequate blood supply that decreases availability of oxygen to the myocardium? Acute myocardial infarction (AMI) Angina Congestive heart failure (CHF) Myocardial ischemia

Myocardial ischemia

An elution is a technique that is used to release, concentrate, and purify antibodies that are bound to red blood cells. In preparing red cells for any elution method, one must be particularly careful to: Leave a small amount of serum in the test system so complement will be present Add albumin to decrease zeta potential Pretreat the cells with enzymes Thoroughly wash sensitized red cells

Thoroughly wash sensitized red cells

An exchange transfusion has been ordered for a low birth weight infant. The physician has ordered irradiated Red Blood Cells for this purpose. Why is it necessary to irradiate the blood products for this patient? To prevent alloimmunization of the patient To prevent transfusion-associated graft-versus-host disease (TA-GVHD) To kill bacteria and viruses present in the Red Blood Cells To allow the cells to have a longer half-life

To prevent transfusion-associated graft-versus-host disease (TA-GVHD)

Regarding therapeutic drug monitoring, which of the following statements is correct when collecting a specimen for a trough level? Trough level is tested on a blood sample that is collected after a dose of the drug is given (at a specified time). Trough level is the point at which the drug is highest in the patient's body. Trough level is tested on a blood sample that is collected immediately prior to when the next dose of the drug is given. Trough level is collected randomly, there is no specific time for it.

Trough level is tested on a blood sample that is collected immediately prior to when the next dose of the drug is given.

Which of the following is the most commonly encountered presenting sign of a delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction (DHTR)? Active bleeding Unexplained decrease in hemoglobin or hematocrit Renal failure Abnormal liver function

Unexplained decrease in hemoglobin or hematocrit

What is the largest constituent of plasma nonprotein nitrogen: Ammonia Creatinine Ketones Urea

Urea

Which if the following blood tests is used to diagnose gout? Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) Amylase Uric acid Creatinine

Uric acid