Practice Test 2
Retinal isomerase is used to alter the conformation of retinal. Retinal isomerase is most likely manufactured by: A. dehydration synthesis. B. hydrolytic synthesis. C. oxidation. D. glycosidic anabolism.
A. Retinal isomerase, an enzyme, is a protein, and proteins are synthesized by the condensation of amino acids. Condensation involves dehydration.
Recent cross-cultural research identifies six emotions that are universally recognizable. Which of the following is NOT one of the six? A. Boredom B. Disgust C. Fear D. Happiness
A.
Information was gathered from individuals who had made at least one formal donation in the previous year. The study on international donations suggests which one of the following forms of bias? A. A sampling bias, which is caused by non-random participant selection methods B. An instruction bias, which is caused by misleading instructions and/or instruction errors C. A response bias, which is caused by discounting results of participants who did not complete the study D. A publication bias, which is caused by journal selection factors
A. Information was gathered from individuals who had made at least one formal donation in the previous year, which suggests a sampling bias
The average age of participants in this meta-analysis was about 62 years old. That would place the average participant in which psychosocial crisis stage according to Erik Erikson's eight-stage theory of development? A. Integrity vs. Despair B. Generativity vs. Stagnation C. Identity vs. Role Confusion D. Trust vs. Mistrust
A. Integrity vs. Despair asks whether one can come to terms with the approach of one's own death or does one feel despair over the disappointments of one's life, the "natural" feelings of old age (choice A is correct). Generativity vs. Stagnation describes the period between one's 30s to one's 50s when a person struggles between building a career and family and getting stuck in routine (choice B is wrong).
When an alpha particle and a beta particle are given equivalent initial kinetic energies, the beta particle will travel a significantly greater distance in air before losing its energy. Why? A. The alpha particle's greater size and charge results in a greater number of interaction. B. Beta particles have greater momentum. C. The beta particle's smaller size causes it to have more elastic collisions with air molecules. D. The greater velocity of the alpha-particle relative to the beta-particle results in an erratic.
A. The alpha particle would experience a greater electric force and a greater gravitational force than an equally-energetic beta particle, not because of its lower velocity, but because of its greater charge and its greater mass.
Group A members had a lower BPM when they re-entered the shopping center than did the individuals of group B. Which of the following is true regarding the members of groups A and B? A. There was a greater concentration of acetylcholine in the cardiac muscles of the group A members than was the case for the group B members. B. The vagus nerve was active for the group B members, but inactive for the group A members. C. Group A members' sympathetic nervous systems were activated when they re-entered the shopping mall. D. The hypothalamus was stimulated more in group A members than in group B members.
A. Acetylcholine has an inhibiting effect on cardiac muscle and therefore would cause a decrease in heart rate. Thus, group A members would have a greater concentration of acetylcholine present around their cardiac tissue since they had a lower heart rate (choice A is correct).
Similarities that exist between protists and bacteria include all of the following except: A. Organelles B. Double-stranded DNA C. Unicellularity D. Flagellar motility
A. Bacteria do not have organelles while protists exhibit the organelles typical of animal cells (answer choice A is correct).
The aptamer designed by the scientists binds selectively to histone proteins whose surrounding DNA: A. is bound less tightly than the DNA of histone proteins without acetylation of the lysine residues. B. is bound more tightly than the DNA of histone proteins without acetylation of the lysine residues. C. is acetylated. D. is not acetylated.
A. Since DNA is negatively charged, it would bind more tightly to histone proteins when the lysine residues are positively charged (in other words, when the histone is NOT acetylated). When acetylated, the lysine residues are no longer charged so the normal DNA around the histone protein would be bound less tightly.
Which of the following equations gives the voltage V necessary to maintain an oil droplet of mass m and charge -q suspended in the region between Plates A and B, which are separated by a distance d? A. V = mgd / q B. V = mg / (qd) C. V = gd / (mg) D. V = q / (mgd)
A. The voltage, V, and the electric field strength, E, between Plates A and B are related by the equation V = Ed, where d is the distance between the plates. The oil drop is suspended in the region between the plates when qE = mg (see the prior question), or, in terms of V, when q(V / d) = mg. Solving this last equation for V gives V = mgd / q.
Which of the following is NOT a result or characteristic of high neuroticism? A. Increased extraversion B. A more reactive sympathetic nervous system C. Increased likelihood of mood disorders D. Prolonged states of negative mood
A. (I Choose B.) Extraversion and neuroticism are two separate personality traits included in the Big Five. The two personality traits are unrelated. Individuals with high neuroticism often have overly active sympathetic nervous systems; this explains why they often display traits of hyper-arousal, which is correlated with aggressiveness and the tendency to anger easily
Accuses a school of maintaining a hidden curriculum that gives boys an advantage in subjects, such as geometry. The school makes changes that are later characterized by a local paper as tokenism. Which of the following scenarios is most illustrative of this vignette? A. The school hired one female geometry teacher to join an existing staff of 9 male geometry teachers. B. The school required its geometry teachers to disclose curriculum expectations at the start of school C. The school instituted a reward system to provide incentives to female students to improve geometry scores. D. The school rewarded geometry teachers who ensured that boys and girls received equal time to ask questions in class.
A. (I Choose D.) Tokenism refers to an organization's inadequate remediation of problems of inequality while exploiting minimal improvements. Such an approach is likened to giving a low-cost token to equality advocates in order to quell their demands for substantial reform. Thus, emphasizing its hiring of a female geometry teacher despite a disproportionate number of male geometry teachers could be characterized as "tokenism" (choice A is correct).
Based on the table above, which one of the following species is the strongest reducing agent? A. Ba (+2.91 V) B. Cu+ (Can Only Reduce) C. PbSO4 (Can Only Reduce) D. F- (-2.87 V)
A. (Remember: + E° = Spontaneous) The strongest reducing agent is the species that it most easily oxidized. Choice B can be eliminated since the reduction of Cu+ is spontaneous (since E° > 0). Choice D can also be eliminated because the oxidation of F- is nonspontaneous. The oxidation of Ba (to Ba2+) is spontaneous (E° = +2.91 V) and has a higher voltage than the (magnitude of) the voltage for the reduction of PbSO4, so barium is the strongest reducing agent here.
In its interaction with the magnesium ion, Asn581 acts as which of the following? A. Lewis acid B. Lewis base C. Brønsted acid D. Brønsted base
B. A Lewis base functions as an electron donor. Asn581 donates a lone pair to the magnesium metal ion, and in doing so acts as a ligand, or Lewis base, in the formation of a coordinate covalent bond. A Lewis acid acts as electron acceptor, not donor (eliminate choice A). A Brønsted acid acts as a proton donor, while a Brønsted base acts as a proton acceptor (eliminate choices C and D).
Which of the following would be increased the most in an individual with uncontrolled diabetes? A. Acetyl-CoA B. Ketone bodies C. Lactic acid D. NADH
B. An individual with uncontrolled diabetes would have hyperglycemia and a relative (or complete) deficiency of insulin. This means that glucose levels would be elevated in the blood and unable to get inside of insulin-responsive tissues. Thus, any molecule that is produced mainly through glucose catabolism and cannot be made from alternative pathways (such as lactic acid), would be decreased, not increased (choice C is incorrect). In addition to being produced during cellular respiration, NADH can be made in the Krebs cycle and acetyl-CoA can be made from fatty acid oxidation would enter the Krebs cycle; however the greatest increase would be in the production of ketone bodies. Ketone bodies represent an alternate energy molecule in the absence of glucose.
Which of the following would result from destruction of the spleen? A. Impaired ability to synthesize red blood cells B. Impaired ability to fight off encapsulated bacteria C. Impaired digestion D. Increased red blood cell destruction
B. The spleen is one of the major organs of the immune system. It is rich with lymphocytes, both B and T, and serves a major resource in the body's natural defenses against pathogens, especially encapsulated bacteria (choice B is correct).
Suzanne was in the middle of deep sleep and was suddenly jolted awake and alert by her alarm clock. Suzanne's brain wave state has most likely quickly shifted from: A. alpha wave to delta wave. B. delta wave to beta wave. C. theta wave to alpha wave. D. beta wave to theta wave.
B. This question calls for knowledge of four brain wave states. Beta waves are associated with alert wakefulness, while alpha waves are associated with relaxed wakefulness or drowsiness. Theta waves are active during drowsiness or sleep, and delta waves are associated with deep sleep. The question described Suzanne as being jolted from deep sleep to alert wakefulness, which corresponds to a shift from delta wave to beta wave activity
HIV, the virus that causes AIDS, is a retrovirus. RNA copies of the viral genome are produced using the normal host machinery, then packaged into viral capsid proteins for release. Which one of the following is most likely to contribute to the development of drug-resistant HIV? A. Mutation of the virus after insertion into the host-cell genome B. Frequent random errors in transcription by host-cell enyzmes C. Viral proteins folding differently in the presence of drug than in its absence D. Changes in the tertiary structure of viral RNA by drug
B. (I Choose A.) Drug resistance develops as mutant versions of the virus are produced and begin infecting new host cells. The change must be able to be passed on to viral progeny. Since the normal host RNA polymerases have no proofreading function, it is more likely that errors will occur here, leading to mutant virus (choice B is better than choice A).
The Whorfian hypothesis suggests that our perception of the world is based on our availability of language with which to describe it. If a language's only color words were white, black, red, and green, which of the following would a supporter of the Whorfian hypothesis believe? A. There is nothing purple in the environment of the native speakers of this language. B. Native speakers of this language perceive grass and the ocean as being the same color. C. It is evolutionarily important for native speakers of this language to identify the color red (e.g., to avoid poisonous berries). D. Native speakers of this language are most likely colorblind.
B. (I Choose C.) Since the Whorfian hypothesis states that language drives cognition, a supporter would believe that the only distinctions among colors that a native speaker of this language would perceive are among black, white, red, and green. Therefore, they would not see a difference between the green of the grass and the blue of the ocean (choice B is correct).
A young man develops ophidiophobia, which is a fear of snakes. His fear is maintained because he intentionally avoids any encounters with snakes. Which of the following operant conditioning principles describes how the man is preserving his fear? A. Positive reinforcement B. Negative reinforcement C. Positive punishment D. Negative punishment
B. (I Choose C.) Since the avoidance of snakes is relieving the man's anxiety, he will continue to avoid snakes; a negative stimulus, the anxiety that the man feels from a snake's presence, is "removed" (or avoided) following his avoidance behavior. This pattern describes negative reinforcement (choice B is correct). Punishment involves a decrease in a behavior. The man's decrease in anxiety is not going to lead to a decrease in the avoidance behavior (choices C and D are wrong).
All of the following are true about photoreceptors in the retina EXCEPT: A. rods function best in reduced light. B. rods are highly sensitive to visual detail. C. cones process color information in bright light. D. cones are the only photoreceptor found in the fovea.
B. (I Choose D.) Although rods are more sensitive to lower levels of light than are cones, rods are not sensitive to detail and instead are generally involved in peripheral vision in normal or bright light (choice B is false and therefore correct).
Which of the following is employed by many organisms in order to reduce the two-fold cost of sexual reproduction? A. Foraging B. Pheromones C. Social aggression D. Inclusive fitness
B. (I Choose D.) Pheromones are chemicals released by organisms that trigger a social response through detection by other members of the same species. They are often used as signals in sexual reproduction and to assess reproductive compatibility and fitness, reducing the two-fold cost.
If 99% of the H+ ions in a solution of pH 1.3 were neutralized, what would be the final pH? A. 0.3 B. 3.3 C. 5.3 D. 6.9
B. (I Choose D.) If only 1% = 1/100 of the H+ ions remained, then the number of H+ ions would drop by a factor of 102. Therefore, the pH would increase by log(102) = 2 units. In this case, the pH would rise from 1.3 to 1.3 + 2 = 3.3.
The following characteristics are shared between skeletal and smooth muscle with the exception of: A. Upstroke in action potential is secondary to inward Na+ current B. Potential exhibits a plateau C. Action potential opens voltage gated Ca2+ channels D. Ca2+ is the primary substrate for triggering contraction
B. (I choose D.) Neither skeletal nor smooth muscle contraction is initiated by an action potential with a plateau; this feature is only characteristic of cardiac action potentials. Once received by either skeletal or smooth muscle, the action potential does, indeed, cause voltage-gated Ca2+ channels to open; in skeletal muscle, these channels are located on the sarcoplasmic reticulum while, in smooth muscle, they are located in the cell membrane (answer choice C is wrong).
The tertiary structure of proteins is partially due to disulfide bonds between cysteine residues. These bonds can be broken by treatment with a mild reducing agent. Which one of the following could be such a reagent? A. CrO3 B. H2SO4 C. NaBH4 D. CH3CH2OH
C. CrO3 is a good oxidizing agent (eliminate choice A) while H2SO4 (sulfuric acid) is a strong acid (eliminate choice B). CH3CH2OH (ethanol) is a poor nucleophile and has no reducing abilities (eliminate choice D). NaBH4 is a reducing agent since it has hydrogen present in the form of hydride.
In gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD), gastric secretions exit the stomach via the lower esophageal sphincter and come in contact with the lower part of the esophagus. How would this affect the esophageal epithelium? I Increased proliferation of the stratified squamous epithelium II Conversion to columnar epithelium similar to that in the stomach III Introduction of bicarbonate-secreting cells
C. Item I is true: in the short term, gastric acid would corrode the outermost layer of epithelium in the lower esophagus, increasing the production of cells. Item II is true: over time, the acid will destroy the epithelium and expose the submucosa. Columnar epithelium found in the stomach will gradually encroach on this area and become the dominant form of epithelium, since it is not sensitive to acid. Item III is false: There are specialized areas known as Brunner's glands in the proximal duodenum that produce bicarbonate to neutralize the acidic chyme as it passes from the stomach to the duodenum
Electrostatic force is equal to the gravitational force on an oil droplet, at which point the droplet is in static equilibrium. What single change to the experimental system would reduce the electric field strength necessary to maintain the oil drop in static equilibrium? A. Increasing the density of the oil B. Decreasing the distance between the plates C. Decreasing the mass of the drop D. Decreasing the charge magnitude on the drop
C. When the oil drop (with charge -q) is in static equilibrium, the electric force it feels, qE upward, is balanced by the gravitational force, mg downward. Therefore E = mg / q.
The sound level of a sound wave that is striking an eardrum is increased from 35 dB to 55 dB. By what factor has the intensity of the sound increased? A. 2 B. 20 C. 100 D. 200
C. For each increase by 10 in the decibel level, the intensity of the sound increases by a factor of 10. In this case, the decibel level has increased by two units of 10 (since 55 - 35 = 20 = 10 + 10), so the sound intensity increases by two factors of 10, that is, by a factor of 10^2 = 100.
UCP-1 activation will dissipate the proton gradient across the inner mitochondrial membrane and STOP which of the following reactions in mitochondria? A. Electron transport chain B. Krebs cycle C. Oxidative phosphorylation D. NAD+ reduction
C. In the absence of the proton gradient across the inner mitochondrial membrane no electrochemical gradient has been built and oxidative phosphorylation, i.e. the formation of ATP by ATP synthase, will not proceed (C is correct). The electron transport chain will continue and pass electrons along the transport chain, but the pumped protons will return to the matrix of the mitochondria with the help of UCP-1 activation
Which of the following scenarios best exemplifies modeling of deviant behavior? A. Because drug use is more common among cigarette smokers, smoking is considered a "gateway drug" B. Smoking is stigmatized both formally and informally in US society C. A teenager begins smoking cigarettes after repeatedly observing his older brother smoking D. Insurance companies charge a higher premium for smokers than for non-smokers
C. Modeling, according to social learning theory, occurs when an individual observes someone else's behavior and then behaves in a similar way. This is also known as observational learning or vicarious learning. If an individual observes his brother engaging in a deviant behavior (smoking), and then begins to engage in that behavior himself, this best demonstrates modeling of a deviant behavior (choice C is correct).
The following measurements were obtained: Speed of Light in Air = 3.0 × 108 m/s Frequency of Light in Air = 5.0 × 1014 Hz Angle of Incidence = 30.0° Angle of Refraction = 23.5° Density of Material X = 5.0 g/cm3 At what speed does light propagate through Material X? (Note: sin 23.5° = 0.4)
C. Snell's Law gives n1 sin θ1 = nX sin θX → (1) sin30° = nX sin(23.5°) → 0.5 = nX(0.4) → nX = 5/4. Since the index of refraction of Material X is 5/4, then, by definition, the speed of light is reduced by a factor of 5/4 from its speed in vacuum (or air). Thus, vX = (4/5)c = (4/5)(3 × 108 m/s) = 2.4 × 108 m/s.
Which of the following is the most likely origin in the afferent sensory neuron of the α2δ-1 Ca2+ channels implicated in the inhibitory mechanism of GBP on signal transmission? A. Dorsal post-synaptic terminal B. Proximal pre-synaptic terminal C. Dorsal root ganglion D. Proximal portion of the axon
C. The dorsal root ganglion is the location of the neuron cell body where protein production occurs; thus, this is the most likely origin for channel proteins that would subsequently become embedded in the neuron cell membrane (choice C is correct).
Suppose that a team of six doctors who are colleagues at a university has conducted a study about a new medication for the common cold. Four of the researchers deem the medication effective and agree that it should be available in a non-prescription form. The two remaining doctors, however, are concerned about the drug's potentially fatal side effects when taken in large doses. In the end, the two dissenting doctors conform to the opinion of the other four and agree that the medication should be available without a prescription. This is an example of: A. group polarization. B. the bystander effect. C. groupthink. D. social facilitation.
C. (I Choose A.) Groupthink involves the notion that members of groups, especially those groups that value cohesiveness among members, will conform in order to eliminate disharmony, which leads to a faulty decision-making process. In the above scenario, the research team members are colleagues at a university and likely have an ongoing professional relationship. Group polarization occurs when, after pertinent discussion or argument, a group adopts a more extreme position than the positions to which the individual members adhere. In this case, the group did not develop a more extreme position than the one advocated by the original four concurring team members; the remaining two doctors simply deferred to their colleagues
Theorists using the conflict perspective to address questions of health, illness, and medicine are LEAST likely to consider: A. the commodification of health care delivery. B. the presence of disparities in health and health care. C. the power of professionals in patient-provider relationships. D. the dependence of medical institutions on profit.
C. (I Choose A.) While conflict theorists are interested in the creation and maintenance of power differentials, as proponents of a macro-sociological perspective, this interest is applied to social structures as a whole. The patient-provider relationship would perhaps be of more interest to symbolic interactionists, as symbolic interactionism is a micro-level perspective focused on the transfer of information through communication between individuals
Reaction 1 is the sum of Reaction 2 and Reaction 3. Reaction 2 is - ΔG° and Reaction 3 is + ΔG°. Which of the following is true for Reaction 2, once it is allowed sufficient time to achieve equilibrium? A. ΔG < ΔG° B. ΔG = ΔG° C. ΔG > ΔG° D. ΔG = RT
C. (I Choose B.) At equilibrium ΔG = 0. Since reaction 2 has a negative value of ΔG°, it must be true that ΔG > ΔG°.
Which of the following is NOT a component of Baddeley's model of working memory? A. Episodic buffer B. Long-term memory C. Multi-store model D. Phonological loop
C. (I Choose B.) Baddeley's model of working memory was designed to improve upon the multi-store model's conception of short-term memory. The episodic buffer mediates between the long-term memory and the central executive in Baddeley's model, and helps give chronological order to memories and stories. Long-term memory is a component of both Baddeley's model and the multi-store model. The phonological loop is a component of Baddeley's model. It helps to store and retrieve auditory memories and stimuli.
Sociologists refer to women's role as family caregivers in addition to their role as professionals as the "second shift". How might the "second shift" be interpreted as a psychosocial stressor? A. It increases women's sense of self-efficacy in the workplace. B. It results from prejudice against working women. C. It may lead to identity interference. D. It is a function of the "glass ceiling", which leads to a lower standard of living.
C. (I Choose B.) By definition, women's "second shift" refers to an ongoing duality of roles (the role of a working professional and the role of the family caregiver). When the demands of these roles conflict in terms of time and energy, tension results. Identity interference is the principle that states that people experience stress when two aspects of their identity are in conflict. Thus, the "second shift" could be understood as a cause of identity interference, which then constitutes a psychosocial stressor (choice C is correct).
"Take The First" could accurately be described as: A. a foundation for the representativeness heuristic. B. the result of syllogistic reasoning. C. a subtype of the availability heuristic. D. an indication of executive dysfunction.
C. (I Choose B.) The availability heuristic is a problem-solving strategy whereby the most salient information seemingly applicable to a problem is selected to produce a solution. Similarly, the TTF heuristic entails one's use of information that comes immediately to mind.
The episodic buffer allowed participants to: A. remember the instructions of the OLG task. B. form a visual picture of the video clip while recording response options. C. apply experience learned in prior games in order to generate options. D. avoid confusing the contents of one clip with those of another.
C. (I Choose D.) According to Baddeley, the working memory system is composed of four parts. The visuospatial sketchpad is a short-term visual store, the phonological loop is a short-term auditory store, the central executive is responsible for task-switching, and the episodic buffer integrates information from the other three systems and from long-term memory. An example of the contribution of the episodic buffer, therefore, is the recollection and application of prior game experience
Which of the following procedures should be implemented to measure the levels of Aβ peptide? A. Place the culture dishes under a microscope and directly count the amount of Aβ B. Harvest the cells, break down the cell membrane, and measure the levels of cellular Aβ using a specific antibody. C. Harvest the cells, break down the cell membrane, and measure the levels of cellular Aβ using PCR. D. Harvest the condition media from the dishes and use an ELISA coated with anti-Aβ peptide to measure the levels of Aβ released.
D. Aβ peptide is released into the extracellular space so it should be found in the condition media of the culture dishes. ELISA is the preferred method for secreted proteins found in the media, blood or extracellular space, therefore the harvested media can be used with an ELISA coated with anti-Aβ to measure the levels of Aβ
Rogerian psychological theory, as developed by Carl Rogers, differs from Freudian theory in that: A. The Rogerian psychotherapeutic process focuses more upon early childhood events and conflicts than does the psychoanalytic process. B. Freudian theory emphasizes social influences, while Rogerian theory focuses on biological impulses. C. Freudian theory suggests that people are motivated by the need to become self-actualized, whereas Rogers posited that people are motivated to avoid anxiety. D. Freudian theory emphasizes innate biological drives and focuses on the conflict between the individual and societal demands, while Rogerian theory focuses on the individual's experience within the social environment and posits that individuals are motivated to become self-actualized.
D. Freud posited the existence of the id, which contains the biological impulses and unconscious desires, and emphasized that the superego and the ego formed in order to manage the individual's interactions with society. Carl Rogers also recognized the importance of the interaction of the individual with society, but, unlike Freud, posited that people are motivated by the desire to become actualized as the best possible versions of themselves (choice D is correct).
It was observed under the microscope that a small section of bone consisted of concentric rings of fibrous material surrounding an open circular region. The bone section was identified as an osteon. The circular region is expected to contain: A. mature osteocytes. B. maturing chondrocytes. C. large blood cell precursors. D. blood vessels.
D. In compact bone, the osteon is the basic unit of structure. Concentric rings surround the central circular region that contains blood or lymph vessels (choice D is correct).
A woman spoke to a behaviorist about a fear of flying. She stated that when she was a young child she would start crying when she heard loud noises. Every time she was in a plane, she began to cry from the roar of the engines. Soon any time that she saw a plane she felt immense fear. Which of the following is the conditioned stimulus that led to her specific phobia? A. Loud noises B. Crying C. Engines D. Planes
D. The conditioned stimulus is paired with the unconditioned stimulus repeatedly and, over time, can elicit a conditioned response. In this case the plane was the conditioned stimulus that was paired with the unconditioned stimulus, loud noises (choice D is correct). The loud noise, which is produced by the engine, is the unconditioned stimulus
Competing reactions in E2 reaction next to a carbonyl group followed by CH3I are responsible for the product mixture. All of the following reactions contribute to the product mixture EXCEPT: A. deprotonation. B. aldol reaction. C. nucleophilic substitution. D. hydride shift.
D. The hydroxide ion can deprotonate both the 3-pentanone and the 2-methyl-3-pentanone (eliminate choice A). Aldol condensation can occur between the enolates formed from the deprotonations described above and any ketones in solution (eliminate choice B). Nucleophilic substitutions can occur between any enolate and methyl iodide (eliminate choice C). Hydride shifts cannot occur from an enolate, but only from a carbocation intermediate, which cannot form under the basic conditions of the reaction.
The iron law of oligarchy: A. asserts that, because of the constant struggle between the labor class and the ownership class, democracy will be inevitably replaced by socialism. B. explains how formal social norms are codified into laws. C. describes the process whereby tasks are broken down into component parts to be completed by different workers in an organization. D. suggests that democracy is not possible in large groups or organizations.
D. (I Choose B.) The iron law of oligarchy is a theory in sociology that states that regardless of how democratic an organization is, all organizations will eventually and inevitably end up with a majority of the power in the hands of a few, thus leading to an oligarchy. The iron law of oligarchy suggests that democracy is practically and theoretically impossible, particularly in large and complex organizations
Which of the following could explain why a patient is blind in his left eye? A. His right V1 is irreparably damaged. B. His left optic tract is severed. C. His right optic tract is severed. D. His left optic nerve is severed.
D. (I Choose C.) Blindness in the left eye is different from blindness in the left visual field. Blindness in the left eye could only be due to damage to the eye itself or to the left optic nerve, the part of the visual pathway that spans from the retina to the optic chiasm (choice D is correct). Damage to either the V1 in the right hemisphere or the right optic tract would cause blindness in the left visual field, as these are parts of the pathway that receive information from both eyes about the left half of the world (choices A and C are wrong).
A scientist wants to test the heritability of sexual attractiveness in college-age females. This could be best accomplished by: A. using monozygotic twin studies to measure the percentage of sexual attractiveness caused by genes. B. using dizygotic twin studies to measure the percentage of sexual attractiveness caused by genes. C. using dizygotic twin studies to measure the percentage of variation in sexual attractiveness attributable to genetics. D. using monozygotic twin studies to measure the percentage of variation in sexual attractiveness attributable to genetics.
D. (I Choose C.) Heritability is best tested with monozygotic twin studies, since monozygotic twins share the same genes. Also, heritability is defined as the proportion of observable differences in phenotype attributable to genetic causes (choice D is correct).
What is the correct relationship between the first ionization energies of the elements mercury, thallium, and lead? A. Hg > Tl > Pb B. Tl > Pb > Hg C. Pb > Tl > Hg D. Hg > Pb > Tl
D. (I Choose C.) Hg: [Xe] 4f14 5d10 6s2 Tl: [Xe] 4f14 5d10 6s2 6p1 Pb: [Xe] 4f14 5d10 6s2 6p2 In Hg, all orbitals are full, which is relatively stable. It is the least likely atom to give up any electrons, and therefore it has the highest ionization energy (eliminate choices B and C). Tl is the opposite. If Tl gives up a single electron, it would result in the electron configuration of Hg, which is more stable. Therefore, Tl has the lowest ionization energy.
Margaret was more afraid of dying in a terrorist attack than dying from dangers lurking in her own neighborhood because she was watching so many news reports of deaths by terrorist attack. This is an example of what psychological construct? A. Normative influence B. Fixation C. Attribution theory D. The availability heuristic
D. (I Choose C.) The availability heuristic states that a person will make a decision based on the information most readily available in memory. If Margaret has been watching many reports of terrorist dangers on the news, she will be more likely to worry about those than the dangers lurking in her own neighborhood about which she has heard little (choice D is correct).Attribution theory describes a social-cognitive approach to creating cause-and-effect relationships. Informational influence means that she is using the information in an attempt to be correct. (C. is Wrong)
When asked to indicate what contributed to their desirability ratings, none of the daters mentioned the issue of whether the individual whom they were rating approached them or remained stationary. Moreover, all of the daters instead focused upon the individual's perceived personality and character traits. This might be an example of: A. a self-fulfilling prophecy. B. stereotyping. C. socialized identity formation. D. the fundamental attribution error.
D. (I Choose C.) The fundamental attribution error is the tendency to interpret others' behavior in terms of personal attributes, as opposed to situational factors. In this case, the daters may have tended to interpret what they perceived as desirable or undesirable behavior during the speed dating interactions as dispositional, rather than simply the result of the structured situation
Rank the following bonds in order of increasing polarity: I. C—Cl III. Cl—Cl II. Si—Cl IV. P—Cl
III < I < IV < II The polarity of a bond depends on the difference in electronegativity between the two bonding atoms: The larger the difference, the more unequal the sharing of electrons, and the more polar the bond.
How would the functionalist sociological perspective view chronic illness? I The distribution of chronic diseases reflects social patterns in the distribution of wealth and power. II Disease is a form of deviant behavior because it interrupts the contributions of people to their societies. III The medical profession is important in regulating the production capabilities of those with chronic conditions.
Item I is false: health disparities as a result of social inequalities in the distribution of resources is of interest to conflict theorists, not to functionalists Item II is true: deviance is defined as the violation of social standards of conduct. Because structural functionalism is concerned with contributions to the greater social structure, functionalists consider disease to be a cause of deviant behavior because it inhibits individual contributions, thus having a negative impact on social order Item III is true: the importance of social maintenance in structural functionalism creates the need for sources of regulation, such as medical professionals with authoritative roles in health care
This can be attributed to a number of factors, including the social stigma surrounding such services. Which of the following is true of stigma? I It is applied to deviant character traits rather than external deformities. II It is defined as disapproval resulting from actual or perceived social deviance. III It can lead to demeaning labels that are applied to entire social groups.
Item I is false: social stigma is a negative reaction to a person or group. This can result from the perception, correct or incorrect, of the presence of numerous characteristics; these include personal or behavioral traits, such as in certain mental illnesses, or external deformations, such as visible manifestations of eating disorders Item II is true: deviance is the violation of social norms, which is seen as unacceptable by the society at large Item III is true: labels are often applied to individuals deviating from the social norm, thus perpetuating social stigma
Human T-cell lymphotropic virus (HTLV) is very similar to HIV. Which of the following would be true regarding HTLV? I HTLV exhibits a lysogenic life cycle. II HTLV is a retrovirus. III HTLV destroys the antibody-producing cells.
Item I is true: HIV exhibits a lysogenic life cycle since it integrates into the host's genome. If HTLV is similar to HIV, then it must also be lysogenic (choice C can be eliminated). Item II is true: If HTLV is similar to HIV, then it must also be a retrovirus (choice B can be eliminated). Item III is false: HIV and HTLV infect the host's T-cells. The B-cells are the antibody-producing cells of the body. There is no discussion of HIV infecting B cells (choice D can be eliminated and choice A is correct).
Interactionist theorists often use the dramaturgical approach in order to understand the processes behind social interactions. The dramaturgical perspective of health care might assert that: I Medical professionals use impression management to manage their presentations and influence the perceptions of others, such as their colleagues. II Medical professionals might dress in business suits while treating patients in a private practice setting, which is an example of the "front stage." III Medical professionals, when alone, might engage in "unprofessional" behavior, which is an example of the "front stage."
Item I is true: The dramaturgical perspective suggests the use of impression management in most situations, including the specific example of health care settings Item II is true: During social interactions on the "front stage", people use impression management to choose their method of presentation Item III is false: When alone, people are able to act as themselves without the worries of impression management. Therefore, medical professionals behaving "unprofessionally" when alone is an example of a back stage self, not a front stage interaction
The basic experiment tests the conditions under which a research subject, the "teacher", will administer an electric shock to the "learner" (a confederate member of the research team). The teacher receives instructions from an authoritative "experimenter" (a research team member) to administer the shock under certain circumstances. Which of the following experimental modifications would in fact test for the effects of conformity on obedience? I Adding another teacher (a confederate) to the shock administration room II Adding a window to the room so that the teacher can see the learner III Increasing the proximity of the teacher to the learner
Item I is true: adding another confederate teacher to the shock administration room would test whether the naive subject would conform to the actions of the other "teacher" when determining whether or not to obey. Item II is false: adding a window to the room wherein the learner will receive the shock would not test for the effects of conformity on obedience because it would not include a similarly situated figure Item III is false: similarly, merely increasing the proximity of the teacher to the learner would only test obedience, as there is no other person present to whose behavior the subjects might conform their actions
A researcher proposed to block the leptin receptor in order to treat hypertension in obese patients. Which of the following detection methods would work best to identify the receptor in the different tissues affected by leptin? I Northern blot II Western blot III Southern blot
Item II is true The leptin receptor is a protein and located in the cell membrane of different tissue types. Detection of a protein can be done using a Western blot. Items I and III are false: a Northern blot is designed to detect specific RNA sequences, and a Southern blot is designed to detect specific DNA sequences. Neither one of these two methods will assure that the final protein product will be formed in the cells tested.
The Big Five personality model consists of which five traits?
Openness, conscientiousness, extraversion, agreeableness, and neuroticism; the first letters of each spell OCEAN,
What is an Imine?
Since propylamine is a primary amine, an imine is formed instead (choice C is correct). (Makes a double bond with the Nitrogen when to C=O turns into C-OH and then OH leaves and Bond folds back onto C-N to turn into C=N.)