Procedures and Airport Operations
What is the minimum visibility for a pilot to receive a land and hold short (LAHSO) clearance? A) 3 statute miles. B) 1 statute mile. C) 3 nautical miles.
A) 3 statute miles.
Which statement best defines hypoxia? A) A state of oxygen deficiency in the body. B) An abnormal increase in the volume of air breathed. C) A condition of gas bubble formation around the joints or muscles.
A) A state of oxygen deficiency in the body.
Information concerning parachute jumping sites may be found in the A) Airport/Facility Directory. B) NOTAMs. C) Graphic Notices and Supplemental Data.
A) Airport/Facility Directory.
Susceptibility to carbon monoxide poisoning increases as A) Altitude increases. B) Altitude decreases. C) Air pressure increases.
A) Altitude increases.
Hazardous attitudes occur to every pilot to some degree at some time. What are some of these hazardous attitudes? A) Antiauthority, impulsivity, macho, resignation, and invulnerability. B) Poor risk management and lack of stress management. C) Poor situational awareness, snap judgments, and lack of a decision making process.
A) Antiauthority, impulsivity, macho, resignation, and invulnerability.
What preparation should a pilot make to adapt the eyes for night flying? A) Avoid bright white lights at least 30 minutes before the flight. B) Avoid red lights at least 30 minutes before the flight. C) Wear sunglasses after sunset until ready for flight.
A) Avoid bright white lights at least 30 minutes before the flight.
(Refer to Figure 64.) Which marking indicates a vehicle lane? A) C B) A C) E
A) C
(Refer to Figure 49.) The arrows that appear on the end of the north/south runway indicate that the area A) Cannot be used for landing, but may be used for taxiing and takeoff. B) Is usable for taxiing, takeoff, and landing. C) May be used only for taxiing.
A) Cannot be used for landing, but may be used for taxiing and takeoff.
What is the purpose of the runway/runway hold position sign? A) Denotes intersecting runways. B) Denotes area protected for an aircraft approaching or departing a runway. C) Denotes entrance to runway from a taxiway.
A) Denotes intersecting runways.
How can a military airport be identified at night? A) Dual peaked (two quick) white flashes between green flashes. B) White flashing lights with steady green at the same location. C) Alternate white and green light flashes
A) Dual peaked (two quick) white flashes between green flashes.
(Refer to Figure 78, 79 and Legend 3.) Where in relation to the airfield is the airport beacon located for Sioux City (SUX) airport? A) East of runway 17-35. B) Approach end of runway 31. C) West of runway 17-35.
A) East of runway 17-35.
To set the high intensity runway lights on medium intensity, the pilot should click the microphone seven times, and then click it A) Five times within five seconds. B) Three times within three seconds. C) One time within four seconds.
A) Five times within five seconds.
(Refer to Figure 65.) Which airport marking is a runway safety area/obstacle free zone boundary? A) G B) H C) N
A) G
A lighted heliport may be identified by a A) Green, yellow, and white rotating beacon. B) Flashing yellow light. C) Blue lighted square landing area.
A) Green, yellow, and white rotating beacon.
The danger of spatial disorientation during flight in poor visual conditions may be reduced by A) Having faith in the instruments rather than taking a chance on the sensory organs. B) Shifting the eyes quickly between the exterior visual field and the instrument panel. C) Leaning the body in the opposite direction of the motion of the aircraft.
A) Having faith in the instruments rather than taking a chance on the sensory organs.
What does the outbound destination sign identify? A) Identifies direction to take-off runways. B) Identifies entrance to the runway from a taxiway. C) Identifies runway on which an aircraft is located.
A) Identifies direction to take-off runways.
(Refer to Figures 76 and 77.) Inbound to Pierre Regional (PIR) from the southwest wind 240 at 12 knots expect to make A) Left traffic for runway 25. B) Left traffic for runway 07. C) Right traffic for runway 25.
A) Left traffic for runway 25.
(Refer to Figure 50.) Which runway and traffic pattern should be used as indicated by the wind cone in the segmented circle? A) Left-hand traffic on Runway 36. B) Right-hand traffic on Runway 18. C) Right-hand traffic on Runway 9.
A) Left-hand traffic on Runway 36.
To minimize the side loads placed on the landing gear during touchdown, the pilot should keep the A) Longitudinal axis of the aircraft parallel to the direction of its motion. B) Downwind wing lowered sufficiently to eliminate the tendency for the aircraft to drift. C) Direction of motion of the aircraft parallel to the runway.
A) Longitudinal axis of the aircraft parallel to the direction of its motion.
Large accumulations of carbon monoxide in the human body result in A) Loss of muscular power. B) An increased sense of well-being. C) Tightness across the forehead.
A) Loss of muscular power.
While operating in Class D airspace, each pilot of an aircraft approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator (VASI) shall A) Maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe landing. B) Stay high until the runway can be reached in a power-off landing. C) maintain a 3° glide until approximately 1/2 mile to the runway before going below the VASI.
A) Maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe landing.
(Refer to Figure 52.) What is the recommended communications procedure for landing at Lincoln Municipal during the hours when the tower is not in operation? A) Monitor airport traffic and announce your position and intentions on 118.5 MHz. B) Contact UNICOM on 122.95 MHz for traffic advisories. C) Monitor ATIS for airport conditions, then announce your position on 122.95 MHz.
A) Monitor airport traffic and announce your position and intentions on 118.5 MHz.
(Refer to Figure 65.) From the cockpit, marking G confirms the aircraft to be A) On a runway, about to clear. B) On a taxiway, about to enter runway zone. C) Near an instrument approach clearance zone.
A) On a runway, about to clear.
The most effective method of scanning for other aircraft for collision avoidance during nighttime hours is to use A) Peripheral vision by scanning small sectors and utilizing offcenter viewing. B) Series of short, regularly spaced eye movements to search each 30-degree sector. C) Regularly spaced concentration on the 3-, 9-, and 12-o'clock positions.
A) Peripheral vision by scanning small sectors and utilizing offcenter viewing.
A below glide slope indication from a pulsating approach slope indicator is a A) Pulsating red light. B) Steady white light. C) Pulsating white light.
A) Pulsating red light.
(Refer to Figure 9, area B.) How should the flight controls be held while taxiing a tailwheel airplane into a right quartering headwind? A) Right aileron up, elevator up. B) Right aileron down, elevator neutral. C) Right aileron up, elevator down.
A) Right aileron up, elevator up.
(Refer to Figure 49.) Select the proper traffic pattern and runway for landing. A) Right-hand traffic and Runway 18. B) Left-hand traffic and Runway 18. C) Left-hand traffic and Runway 22.
A) Right-hand traffic and Runway 18.
(Refer to Figure 65.) Sign F confirms your position on A) Runway 22. B) Routing to runway 22. C) Taxiway 22.
A) Runway 22.
When approaching taxiway holding lines from the side with the continuous lines, the pilot A) Should not cross the lines without ATC clearance. B) May continue taxiing. C) Should continue taxiing until all parts of the aircraft have crossed the lines.
A) Should not cross the lines without ATC clearance.
Who should not participate in the Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) program? A) Student pilots. B) Recreational pilots only. C) Military pilots.
A) Student pilots.
What antidotal phrase can help reverse the hazardous attitude of "macho"? A) Taking chances is foolish. B) I can do it. C) Nothing will happen.
A) Taking chances is foolish.
During a night flight, you observe a steady red light and a flashing red light ahead and at the same altitude. What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft? A) The other aircraft is crossing to the left. B) The other aircraft is crossing to the right. C) The other aircraft is approaching head-on.
A) The other aircraft is crossing to the left.
During a night flight, you observe a steady white light and a flashing red light ahead and at the same altitude. What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft? A) The other aircraft is flying away from you. B) The other aircraft is crossing to the left. C) The other aircraft is crossing to the right.
A) The other aircraft is flying away from you.
How can you determine if another aircraft is on a collision course with your aircraft? A) There will be no apparent relative motion between your aircraft and the other aircraft. B) The nose of each aircraft is pointed at the same point in space. C) The other aircraft will always appear to get larger and closer at a rapid rate.
A) There will be no apparent relative motion between your aircraft and the other aircraft.
A military air station can be identified by a rotating beacon that emits A) Two quick, white flashes between green flashes. B) White and green alternating flashes. C) Green, yellow, and white flashes.
A) Two quick, white flashes between green flashes.
Pilots are more subject to spatial disorientation if A) Visual cues are taken away, as they are in instrument meteorological conditions (IMC) B) Eyes are moved often in the process of cross-checking the flight instruments. C) They ignore the sensations of muscles and inner ear.
A) Visual cues are taken away, as they are in instrument meteorological conditions (IMC)
Prior to starting each maneuver, pilots should A) Visually scan the entire area for collision avoidance. B) Announce their intentions on the nearest CTAF. C) Check altitude, airspeed, and heading indications.
A) Visually scan the entire area for collision avoidance.
A pilot and two passengers landed on a 2,100 foot east-west gravel strip with an elevation of 1,800 feet. The temperature is warmer than expected and after computing the density altitude it is determined the takeoff distance over a 50 foot obstacle is 1,980 feet. The airplane is 75 pounds under gross weight. What would be the best choice? A) Wait until the temperature decreases, and recalculate the takeoff performance. B) Try a takeoff without the passengers to make sure the climb is adequate. C) Taking off into the headwind will give the extra climb-out time needed.
A) Wait until the temperature decreases, and recalculate the takeoff performance.
Pilots are encouraged to turn on their landing lights when operating below 10,000 feet, day or night, and when operating within A) Class B airspace. B) 10 miles of any airport. C) within 15 miles of a towered airport.
B) 10 miles of any airport.
Unless each occupant is provided with supplemental oxygen, no person may operate a civil aircraft of U.S. registry above a maximum cabin pressure altitude of A) 14,000 feet MSL B) 15,000 feet MSL. C) 12,500 feet MSL.
B) 15,000 feet MSL.
The "yellow demarcation bar" marking indicates A) A hold line from a taxiway to a runway. B) A runway with a displaced threshold that precedes the runway. C) The beginning of available runway for landing on the approach side.
B) A runway with a displaced threshold that precedes the runway.
(Refer to Figure 47.) VASI lights as shown by illustration C indicate that the airplane is A) Below the glide slope. B) Above the glide slope. C) Off course to the left.
B) Above the glide slope.
When taxiing with strong quartering tailwinds, which aileron positions should be used? A) Ailerons neutral. B) Aileron down on the side from which the wind is blowing. C) Aileron down on the downwind side.
B) Aileron down on the side from which the wind is blowing.
Which aileron positions should a pilot generally use when taxiing in strong quartering headwinds? A) Aileron down on the side from which the wind is blowing. B) Aileron up on the side from which the wind is blowing. C) Ailerons neutral.
B) Aileron up on the side from which the wind is blowing.
(Refer to Figure 47.) While on final approach to a runway equipped with a standard 2-bar VASI, the lights appear as shown by illustration D. This means that the aircraft is A) Above the glide path. B) Below the glide path. C) On the glide path.
B) Below the glide path.
Airport taxiway edge lights are identified at night by A) White directional lights. B) Blue omnidirectional lights. C) Alternate red and green lights.
B) Blue omnidirectional lights.
Which is the correct traffic pattern departure procedure to use at a noncontrolled airport? A) Make all turns to the left. B) Comply with any FAA traffic pattern established for the airport. C) Depart in any direction consistent with safety, after crossing the airport boundary
B) Comply with any FAA traffic pattern established for the airport.
When a stressful situation is encountered in flight, an abnormal increase in the volume of air breathed in and out can cause a condition known as A) Aerosinusitis. B) Hyperventilation. C) Aerotitis.
B) Hyperventilation.
The Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM) specifically encourages pilots to turn on their landing lights when operating below 10,000 feet, day or night, and especially when operating A) In Class B airspace. B) In conditions of reduced visibility. C) Within 15 miles of a towered airport.
B) In conditions of reduced visibility.
(Refer to Figure 9, area C.) How should the flight controls be held while taxiing a tricycle-gear equipped airplane with a left quartering tailwind? A) Left aileron up, elevator neutral. B) Left aileron down, elevator down. C) Left aileron up, elevator down.
B) Left aileron down, elevator down.
(Refer to Figure 9, area A.) How should the flight controls be held while taxiing a tricycle-gear equipped airplane into a left quartering headwind? A) Left aileron down, elevator neutral. B) Left aileron up, elevator neutral. C) Left aileron up, elevator down.
B) Left aileron up, elevator neutral.
(Refer to Figure 50.) The segmented circle indicates that the airport traffic is A) Left-hand for Runway 18 and right-hand for Runway 36. B) Left-hand for Runway 36 and right-hand for Runway 18 C) Right-hand for Runway 9 and left-hand for Runway 27.
B) Left-hand for Runway 36 and right-hand for Runway 18
The best method to use when looking for other traffic at night is to A) Sook to the side of the object and scan rapidly. B) Look to the side of the object and scan slowly. C) Scan the visual field very rapidly.
B) Look to the side of the object and scan slowly.
When approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator (VASI), the pilot shall A) Remain on the glide slope and land between the two-light bar. B) Maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope. C) Maintain an altitude that captures the glide slope at least 2 miles downwind from the runway threshold.
B) Maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope.
Eye movements during daytime collision avoidance scanning should A) Use peripheral vision by scanning small sectors and utilizing off-center viewing. term-75 B) Not exceed 10 degrees and view each sector at least 1 second. C) Be 30 degrees and view each sector at least 3 seconds.
B) Not exceed 10 degrees and view each sector at least 1 second.
What antidotal phrase can help reverse the hazardous attitude of impulsivity? A) Do it quickly to get it over with. B) Not so fast, think first. C) It could happen to me.
B) Not so fast, think first.
Who has final authority to accept or decline any land and hold short (LAHSO) clearance? A) Air traffic controller. B) Pilot-in-command. C) Second-in-command.
B) Pilot-in-command.
Which wind condition would be most critical when taxiing a nosewheel equipped high-wing airplane? A) Direct crosswind. B) Quartering tailwind. C) Quartering headwind.
B) Quartering tailwind.
What is the most effective way to use the eyes during night flight? A) Concentrate directly on each object for a few seconds. B) Scan slowly to permit offcenter viewing. C) Look only at far away, dim lights.
B) Scan slowly to permit offcenter viewing.
Where is the "Available Landing Distance" (ALD) data published for an airport that utilizes Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO)? A) 14 CFR Part 91, General Operating and Flight Rules. B) Special Notices section of the Chart Supplements U.S. (formerly Airport/Facility Directory or A/FD). C) Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM).
B) Special Notices section of the Chart Supplements U.S. (formerly Airport/Facility Directory or A/FD).
Except in Alaska, during what time period should lighted position lights be displayed on an aircraft? A) 1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise. B) Sunset to sunrise. C) End of evening civil twilight to the beginning of morning civil twilight.
B) Sunset to sunrise.
(Refer to Figure 48.) According to the airport diagram, which statement is true? A) Runway 30 is equipped at position E with emergency arresting gear to provide a means of stopping military aircraft. B) Takeoffs may be started at position A on Runway 12, and the landing portion of this runway begins at position B. The takeoff and landing portion of Runway 30 begins at position E. C) The takeoff and landing portion of Runway 30 begins at position E.
B) Takeoffs may be started at position A on Runway 12, and the landing portion of this runway begins at position B.
(Refer to Figure 48.) The portion of the runway identified by the letter A may be used for A) Landing. B) Taxiing and takeoff. C) Taxiing and landing.
B) Taxiing and takeoff.
When operating an aircraft at cabin pressure altitudes above 12,500 feet MSL up to and including 14,000 feet MSL, oxygen shall be used during A) The entire flight time at those altitudes. B) That flight time in excess of 30 minutes at those altitudes. C) That flight time in excess of 10 minutes at those altitudes.
B) That flight time in excess of 30 minutes at those altitudes.
(Refer to Figure 71, area 4 and Legend 1.) For information about the parachute jumping operations at Lincoln Regional/ Harder (LHM) Airport, refer to A) Notes on the border of the chart. B) The Chart Supplements U.S. (formerly Airport/Facility Directory). C) The Notices to Airmen (NOTAM) publication.
B) The Chart Supplements U.S. (formerly Airport/Facility Directory).
Who is responsible for determining whether a pilot is fit to fly for a particular flight, even though he or she holds a current medical certificate? A) The FAA. B) The pilot C) The medical examiner.
B) The pilot
A slightly high glide slope indication from a precision approach path indicator is A) Four white lights. B) Three white lights and one red light C) Two white lights and two red lights.
B) Three white lights and one red light
The recommended entry position to an airport traffic pattern is A) 45° to the base leg just below traffic pattern altitude. B) To enter 45° at the midpoint of the downwind leg at traffic pattern altitude. C) To cross directly over the airport at traffic pattern altitude and join the downwind leg.
B) To enter 45° at the midpoint of the downwind leg at traffic pattern altitude.
(Refer to Figure 52.) Traffic patterns in effect at Lincoln Municipal are A) To the right on Runway 18 and Runway 36. B) To the right on Runway 18 and Runway 35; to the left on Runway 36. C) To the right on Runways 14 - 32.
B) To the right on Runway 18 and Runway 35; to the left on Runway 36.
When should pilots decline a land and hold short (LAHSO) clearance? A) Only when the tower operator concurs. B) When it will compromise safety. C) Pilots can not decline clearance.
B) When it will compromise safety.
The numbers 8 and 26 on the approach ends of the runway indicate that the runway is orientated approximately A) 008° and 026° true B) 080° and 260° true. C) 080° and 260° magnetic
C) 080° and 260° magnetic
The numbers 9 and 27 on a runway indicate that the runway is oriented approximately A) 009° and 027° true. B) 090° and 270° true. C) 090° and 270° magnetic.
C) 090° and 270° magnetic.
(Refer to Figure 63.) What is the length of the displaced threshold for runway 22 at Toledo (TDZ)? A) 25 feet. B) 100 feet. C) 380 feet.
C) 380 feet.
(Refer to Figure Commercial 58.) You have requested taxi instructions for takeoff using Runway 16. The controller issues the following taxi instructions: "N123, Taxi to runway 16." Where are you required to stop in order to be in compliance with the controller's instructions? A) 6 (Six). B) 9 (Nine). C) 5 (Five).
C) 5 (Five).
What effect does haze have on the ability to see traffic or terrain features during flight? A) Haze causes the eyes to focus at infinity. B) The eyes tend to overwork in haze and do not detect relative movement easily. C) All traffic or terrain features appear to be farther away than their actual distance.
C) All traffic or terrain features appear to be farther away than their actual distance.
What is one of the neglected items when a pilot relies on short and long term memory for repetitive tasks? A) Flying outside the envelope. B) Situation awareness. C) Checklists.
C) Checklists.
Most midair collision accidents occur during A) Hazy days. B) Cloudy nights. C) Clear days
C) Clear days
(Refer to Figure 48.) Area C on the airport depicted is classified as a A) Stabilized area. B) Multiple heliport. C) Closed runway.
C) Closed runway.
(Refer to Figure 65.) Sign E is a visual clue that A) Indicates "B" holding area is ahead B) Warns the pilot of approaching taxiway B C) Confirms the aircraft's location to be on taxiway B.
C) Confirms the aircraft's location to be on taxiway B.
What often leads to spatial disorientation or collision with ground/obstacles when flying under Visual Flight Rules (VFR)? A) Getting behind the aircraft. B) Duck-under syndrome. C) Continual flight into instrument conditions.
C) Continual flight into instrument conditions.
(Refer to Figure 64.) Which symbol indicates a taxiway/taxiway intersection hold position marking? A) B B) D C) E
C) E
Which would most likely result in hyperventilation? A) The excessive consumption of alcohol. B) An extremely slow rate of breathing and insufficient oxygen. C) Emotional tension, anxiety, or fear.
C) Emotional tension, anxiety, or fear.
What antidotal phrase can help reverse the hazardous attitude of "antiauthority"? A) Rules do not apply in this situation B) I know what I am doing. C) Follow the rules.
C) Follow the rules.
What is the one common factor which affects most preventable accidents? A) Structural failure. B) Mechanical malfunction. C) Human error.
C) Human error.
What antidotal phrase can help reverse the hazardous attitude of "resignation"? A) What is the use. B) Someone else is responsible. C) I am not helpless.
C) I am not helpless.
What is the purpose of the No Entry sign? A) Identifies area that does not continue beyond intersection. B) Identifies the exit boundary for the runway protected area. C) Identifies a paved area where aircraft are prohibited from entering.
C) Identifies a paved area where aircraft are prohibited from entering.
When turning onto a taxiway from another taxiway, what is the purpose of the taxiway directional sign? A) Indicates direction to take-off runway. B) Indicates designation and direction of exit taxiway from runway. C) Indicates designation and direction of taxiway leading out of an intersection.
C) Indicates designation and direction of taxiway leading out of an intersection.
What antidotal phrase can help reverse the hazardous attitude of "invulnerability"? A) It can not be that bad. B) It will not happen to me. C) It could happen to me
C) It could happen to me
(Refer to Figure 9, area C.) How should the flight controls be held while taxiing a tailwheel airplane with a left quartering tailwind? A) Left aileron down, elevator neutral. B) Left aileron up, elevator neutral. C) Left aileron down, elevator down.
C) Left aileron down, elevator down.
(Refer to Figure 52.) When approaching Lincoln Municipal from the west at noon for the purpose of landing, initial communications should be with A) Lincoln Tower on 118.5 MHz. B) Minneapolis Center on 128.75 MHz. C) Lincoln Approach Control on 124.0 MHz.
C) Lincoln Approach Control on 124.0 MHz.
(Refer to Figure 47.) Illustration A indicates that the aircraft is A) Below the glide slope. B) Above the glide slope. C) On the glide slope.
C) On the glide slope.
(Refer to Figure 65.) A left turn at the intersection depicting sign A would place the aircraft A) Ready for a Runway 4 intersection takeoff. B) On the taxiway leading to Runway 4. C) Ready for a Runway 22 intersection takeoff.
C) Ready for a Runway 22 intersection takeoff.
In the aeronautical decision making (ADM) process, what is the first step in neutralizing a hazardous attitude? A) Making a rational judgement. B) Recognizing the invulnerability of the situation. C) Recognizing hazardous thoughts.
C) Recognizing hazardous thoughts.
If a pilot experiences spatial disorientation during flight in a restricted visibility condition, the best way to overcome the effect is to A) Concentrate on yaw, pitch, and roll sensations. B) onsciously slow the breathing rate until symptoms clear and then resume normal breathing rate. C) Rely upon the aircraft instrument indications.
C) Rely upon the aircraft instrument indications.
(Refer to Figure 50.) The segmented circle indicates that a landing on Runway 26 will be with a A) Left-quartering headwind. B) Right-quartering tailwind. C) Right-quartering headwind.
C) Right-quartering headwind.
(Refer to Figure 49.) If the wind is as shown by the landing direction indicator, the pilot should land on A) Runway 36 and expect a crosswind from the right. B) Runway 22 directly into the wind. C) Runway 18 and expect a crosswind from the right.
C) Runway 18 and expect a crosswind from the right.
Which approach and landing objective is assured when the pilot remains on the proper glidepath of the VASI? A) Lateral course guidance to the runway. B) Runway identification and course guidance. C) Safe obstruction clearance in the approach area.
C) Safe obstruction clearance in the approach area.
What is it often called when a pilot pushes his or her capabilities and the aircraft's limits by trying to maintain visual contact with the terrain in low visibility and ceiling? A) Peer pressure. B) Mind set. C) Scud running.
C) Scud running.
(Refer to Figure 52.) Which type radar service is provided to VFR aircraft at Lincoln Municipal? A) Sequencing to the primary Class C airport and standard separation. B) Sequencing to the primary Class C airport and conflict resolution so that radar targets do not touch, or 1,000 feet vertical separation. C) Sequencing to the primary Class C airport, traffic advisories, conflict resolution, and safety alerts.
C) Sequencing to the primary Class C airport, traffic advisories, conflict resolution, and safety alerts.
Risk management, as part of the aeronautical decision making (ADM) process, relies on which features to reduce the risks associated with each flight? A) The mental process of analyzing all information in a particular situation and making a timely decision on what action to take. B) Application of stress management and risk element procedures C) Situational awareness, problem recognition, and good judgment.
C) Situational awareness, problem recognition, and good judgment.
A pilot experiencing the effects of hyperventilation should be able to restore the proper carbon dioxide level in the body by A) Increasing the breathing rate in order to increase lung ventilation. B) Breathing spontaneously and deeply or gaining mental control of the situation C) Slowing the breathing rate, breathing into a paper bag, or talking aloud.
C) Slowing the breathing rate, breathing into a paper bag, or talking aloud.
(Refer to Figure 50.) The traffic patterns indicated in the segmented circle have been arranged to avoid flights over an area to the A) North of the airport. B) South of the airport. C) Southeast of the airport.
C) Southeast of the airport.
A lack of orientation with regard to the position, attitude, or movement of the aircraft in space is defined as A) Hyperventilation. B) Hypoxia C) Spatial disorientation.
C) Spatial disorientation.
Which technique should a pilot use to scan for traffic to the right and left during straight-and-level flight? A) Concentrate on relative movement detected in the peripheral vision area. B) Continuous sweeping of the windshield from right to left. C) Systematically focus on different segments of the sky for short intervals.
C) Systematically focus on different segments of the sky for short intervals.
VFR approaches to land at night should be accomplished A) At a higher airspeed. B) With a steeper descent. C) The same as during daytime.
C) T
An airport's rotating beacon operated during daylight hours indicates A) There are obstructions on the airport. B) The Air Traffic Control tower is not in operation. C) That weather at the airport located in Class D airspace is below basic VFR weather minimums.
C) That weather at the airport located in Class D airspace is below basic VFR weather minimums.
During a night flight, you observe steady red and green lights ahead and at the same altitude. What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft? A) The other aircraft is crossing to the left. B) The other aircraft is flying away from you. C) The other aircraft is approaching head-on.
C) The other aircraft is approaching head-on.
