Reproductive/Growth, Development, & Genetics
Select the correct word from the list to complete each sentence in regards to the stages of parturition.
(Parturition) is the process by which a baby is born. Physicians usually calculate the (gestation) period, or length of the pregnancy, as 280 days from the last menstrual period. (Labor) is the period during which the contractions occur that eventually expel the fetus and placenta from the uterus. The first stage of labor, often called the (dilation) stage, begins with the onset of regular uterine contractions. The first stage extends until the (cervix) has dilated to a diameter about the size of the fetus's head. During the first stage of labor the (amniotic sac) ruptures releasing fluid. The second stage of labor, often called the (expulsion) stage, lasts from the time of maximum cervical dilation until the baby exits the vagina. During the second stage, contractions of the abdominal muscles assist the contractions of the (uterus). During the third stage of labor, or (placental) stage, the placenta tears away from the wall of the uterus.
Place the following labels in order of occurrence beginning with the earliest.
1. neural plate 2. heartbeat 3. limb buds form 4. sensory receptors appear on skin 5. spleen appears 6. interventricular septum completes 7. pineal body appears 8. mesonephros disintegrates 9. uterus appears
Arrange the following events in the proper order in which they occur during meiosis I. 1 = Separation of homologous chromosomes 2 = Synapsis 3 = Crossing-over 4 = Independent assortment
2, 3, 4, 1
See if you can correctly order the developmental milestones commonly achieved at these time periods over the first year of life. Each time market should have at least one milestone corresponding to it.
6 weeks- able to hold head up, first smile 3 months- thumb sucking 4 months- begins to raise body using the arms 5 months- laughter, reaching for objects, and tracking movement with eyes 8 months- recognizes familiar people 12 months- standing and walking begins
Recall from Chapter 18, how negative feedback systems are used to maintain homeostasis with regard to controlling hormone release. Both testosterone and estrogen can act suppress gonadotropin hormone (GnRH) release from the hypothalamus. Can you identify a second negative feedback mechanism by which testosterone can suppress its own release? Drag a word or phrase into each sentence to make it correct.
After puberty, blood levels of testosterone are maintained within a normal range by the negative feedback mechanism described below. Increased blood levels of testosterone (inhibit) the production of (GnRH) from the hypothalamus. (GnRH) normally diffuses just a short distance to the (anterior pituitary gland), where it will (stimulate) the release of (LH). As a result, (LH) release from the pituitary gland (decreases). This, in turn, (decreases) the production of (testosterone) from the testes. As the blood testosterone level (decreases), the hypothalamus is freed from regulation by testosterone and (increases) its production of (GnRH). As a result, pituitary gland release of (LH) into the blood (increases), which (increases) the production of of (testosterone) from the testes.
Drag the terms to the right into the blanks to correctly complete the sentences.
As the fetus reaches full term, its hypothalamus secretes CRH and a rise in corticosteroids. The latter cause a relative increase of estrogen over (progesterone), and the release of (prostaglandins). As a result, uterine contraction starts because (estrogen) and prostaglandins promote uterine contraction, and (progesterone) inhibits it. Pressure caused by the baby's head stretches the (cervix), which sends nerve impulses to the hypothalamus. The hypothalamus causes the (posterior pituitary) to release (oxytocin), and the latter stimulates uterine contraction. Continued uterine contractions force the head to stretch the (cervix), further sending neural feedback to the hypothalamus, which leads to additional (oxytocin) release. This cycle of uterine contraction, neural stimulation, and (oxytocin) secretion continue until birth occurs. The events described above reflect a classic example of regulation involving (positive feedback).
Complete each of the following statements by dragging the word or phrase into the proper position. Answers may be used more than once.
Both the male and female external reproductive anatomy is contained within the boundaries known as the perineum. The anterior boundary is the pubic symphysis while the two lateral borders of the perineum are the paired ischial tuberosities of the os coxae. The posterior landmark defining the boundaries of the perineum is the inferiormost section of the coccyx. The four boney landmarks can be bisected by drawing a line between the ischial tuberosities resulting in an anterior and posterior triangle. The anterior triangle is known as the urogenital triangle because of the location of the urethral orifice and the reproductive organs. The posterior triangle is known as the anal triangle and is defined by the ischial tuberosities and the coccyx.
Drag the terms into the blanks to correctly complete each sentence.
Cystic fibrosis is a(n) recessive disorder. It causes the production of thick mucus that blocks the respiratory airways. Tay-Sachs disease is a(n) recessive disorder. People with this gene defect lack an emzyme that is needed to metabolize a fatty substance associated with neurons. Down syndrome is a chromosomal abnormality. For most of the 23 chromosomes, an extra chromosome copy results in a nonviable fetus. However, trisomy 21 is an exception. Hemophilia A is a(n) X-linked recessive disorder. People with this gene lack clotting factors. Huntington's disease is a(n) dominant disorder. People with this gene eventually lose mitochondrial function, leading to a lactic acid buildup in the brain.
Drag the terms listed on the right into the blanks to correctly complete each sentence.
During pregnancy, high levels of estrogen and progesterone will stimulate the development of mammary glands and inhibit milk production. After brith, levels of estrogen and progesterone will decrease significantly, enabling the hypothalamus to secrete PRH, which stimulates the anterior pituitary to secrete prolactin. The latter stimulates milk production. Continued sensory feedback from suckling keeps stimulating the hypothalamus to secrete PRH to sustain prolactin release. Sensory feedback from suckling also triggers the hypothalamus to release oxytocin from the posterior pituitary . This hormone stimulates milk ejection.
Drag and drop the correct word to complete each sentence.
FSH and LH are produced by the (pituitary gland). FSH is primarily responsible for starting oogenesis. During the beginning of the proliferative phase, FSH and LH levels are (low). Near the end of the proliferative phase, LH, FSH, estrogen, and progesterone are (rising). Estrogen and LH levels peak sharply at (ovulation). At ovulation, the follicle swells and bursts, releasing the oocyte. Progesterone levels are high during the (secretory phase). This hormone will cause (negative feedback). Without the two gonadotropins to stimulate estrogen and progesterone secretion, the lining is no longer maintained and menses occurs approximately (fourteen) days after ovulation.
Which of the following represents the correct order of the phases of the cell cycle?
G1 → S → G2 → M
Complete each of the following statements by dragging the word or phrase into the proper position.
If a person is heterozygous for a dominant/recessive gene, they (will) express the trait. (Homozygous) is the term describing a situation where someone has the same alleles. Someone with (Dd) would be considered heterozygous for the "D" trait. GG would describe someone otherwise known as (homozygous dominant). Regardless of the alleles that someone has in their two loci, (phenotype) refers to the discernable expression of a gene or allele. Someone can be (a carrier) of an allele if they possess the genotype but not the phenotype.
Which of the followings is NOT true about the placenta?
It allows exchange of lymphocytes between the maternal blood and the fetal blood.
Drag a word or phrase into each blank to correctly complete the sentences.
Sexual stimulation initiates (parasympathetic) impulses, leading to (dilation) of arterioles and (constriction) of venules supplying the erectile tissue. These vascular changes produce an (erection), which permits placing the urethral opening near the opening of the cervix. Just before ejaculation, (sympathetic) impulses stimulate contractions of the epididymis, (vas deferens), and ejeculatory ducts, leading from each testicle, and contractions in the accessory glands. Continued sexual stimulation of the glans leads to an (orgasm), which is characterized by (ejaculation) of semen with rhythmic contractions of (skeletal muscles) located at the base of the penis. Immediately after ejaculation, (sympathetic) impulses cause (constriction) of arterioles and (dilation) of venules supplying the erectile tissue, and the penis becomes flaccid. While the the two (autonomic) nervous systems generally act in opposite ways, they collaborate in mediating the sexual response.
Drag the terms to the right into the blanks to correctly complete the sentences.
Sperm rapidly arrive in the (uterine tube) wherein a few (thousand) will achieve the capability of fertilizing the oocyte. During fertilization, the (acrosomes) of sperm release digestive enzymes, that help them penetrate the mass of (follicular cells) around the (secondary oocyte). The first sperm to enter the (secondary oocyte) triggers the second (meiotic division), resulting in the formation of the (ovum) and the second polar body. The union of a sperm and (ovum) results in a (diploid) cell now called a (zygote). A (secondary oocyte) remains viable for about 24 hours, while a (spermatozoan) remains viable for about 72 hours or even longer.
Complete each of the following statements by dragging the word or phrase into the proper position. Then rearrange the statements into the correct order.
The beginning of mitosis, prophase is marked by the condensation of DNA into chromosomes and the break up of the nuclear membrane. The next stage is called metaphase and is characterized by the alignment of chromosomes along the equator of the cell and the spindle fibers from the aster anchoring to the plasma membrane as well as some of the kinetochores. When the sister chromatids begin to pull apart the cell is characterized as being in anaphase. As the nuclear envelope starts to reform around the chromosomes located at each pole, the cell enters telophase. Overlapping with anaphase and telophase, the cell must complete its division of cytoplasm in the process of cytokinesisprior to cessation of cell division.
Complete each of the following statements by dragging the word or phrase into the proper position. Then rearrange the statements into the correct order.
The cell cycle describes the life cycle of all cells from one division to the next and includes interphase and mitosis. The cycle begins with the G1 or first gap phase a period of time between the completion of the previous division and the replication of chromosomes for the upcoming division. The synthesis or S phase is marked by duplication of all DNA as well as the centrioles necessary for the last phase of telophase. The last stage of interphase is called G2 or the second gap phase. It is usually a short period of time between the completion of DNA synthesis and the onset of mitosis where the DNA can be checked for errors. Mitosis then defines the process of separating the genetic material and producing the result of two genetically identical daughter cells before entering the start of the next interphase.
Complete each of the following statements by dragging the word or phrase into the proper position.
The major male reproductive hormone, testosterone is produced by the interstitial cells of the testes. Interstitial cells are stimulated to produce testosterone after being stimulated by LH (also known as ICSH). The hypothalamus of both males and females secretes GnRH resulting in secretion of FSH and LH from the pituitary gland. FSH in females circulates to the ovaries where it works to choose a single primordial follicle per month for development into a dominant follicle. A developing follicle, as a result of FSH and LH is surrounded by increasing numbers of estrogen secreting granulosa cells. Theca interna cells produce androgens which then diffuse to the granulosa cells for later conversion to estrogen. Secreted from the adenohypophysis, FSH stimulates the production of androgen binding protein, a critical receptor of testosterone.
Complete each of the following statements by dragging the word or phrase into the proper position. Then rearrange the statements into the correct order of appearance in the male duct system starting with the creation of sperm.
The secretions of the male reproductive tract originate in the testes where sperm is produced The fluid from the seminal vesicles joins sperm from the vas deferens at the ejaculatory duct. The second largest producer of seminal volume, the prostate gland surrounds the urethra and ejaculatory duct. Contributing a small portion of the overall seminal volume (5%), the bulbourethral glands are involved with pre-ejaculatory secretions for lubrication and preparation of the urethra for the passage of sperm.
Put the following events in order regarding events occurring just before and after fertilization .
The sperm undergoes capacitation A sperm cell penetrates the secondary oocyte The embryo passes through the uterine tube to the uterus The trophoblast of the embryo digests its way into the endometrium
Complete each of the following statements by dragging the word or phrase into the proper position.
Unlike male secretions that must transport and deliver sperm, secretions of the female reproductive system mostly serve to lubricatethe reproductive organs involved with intercourse The mucosae located on the wall of the vagina produce the majority of female reproductive fluids. The greater vestibular glands are similar to the bulbourethral glands of the male and deposit fluids onto the vestibule and the labia minora. Additional lesser vestibular glands are located more anteriorly and secrete fluids onto the vestibule near the clitoris.
Which of the following events occur during ovulation?
all choices are correct A surge in LH causes the primary oocyte to complete the first meiotic division Protolytic enzymes break down the tissue surrounding the oocyte, causing the follicle to rupture There is a surge in estrogen A surge in LH causes the primary oocyte to complete the first meiotic division and protolytic enzymes break down the tissue surrounding the oocyte, causing the follicle to rupture
1. The removal of amniotic fluid for analysis is called___________. (you must spell this correctly) 2. The procedure above can be used for gaining information of chromosomal structure about the fetus using ________. 3. Fetuses are routinely imaged using sound waves in a process called _________.
amniocentesis karyotyping ultrasound imaging
Drag each of the terms or statements in the proper category to identify the whether the given label refers to an item or process that occurs prior to or after ovulation. Assume that the ovulation occurs on day 14 and unless specifically stated, assume fertilization was unsuccessful.
before ovulation- primordial follicles, secondary follicles, graafian follicles, creation of the zone pellucida, formation of the theca external, first polar body formation, primary follicles, mature follicles, atrium formation, formation of the theca interna, first meiotic division, second meiotic division begins after ovulation-corpus albicans, corpus lutetum formation, ova contact the fimbriae, second polar body formation, corpus luteum atrophy, ova entry in to the infundibulum, second meiotic division completion
Drag each of the terms or statements in the proper category to identify the whether the given label refers to an item or process that occurs prior to or after ovulation. Assume that the ovulation occurs on day 14 and unless specifically stated, assume fertilization was unsuccessful.
before ovulation-proliferative phase, estrogen low, menses, rapidly rising LH, rapidly rising FSH, estrogen inhibition go hypothalamic GnRH release, rapidly rising estrogen, shedding of endometrium after ovulation-progesterone peak, secretory phase, fertilization, implantation, formation of a zygote, rapidly declining gonadtropins, constriction of the spiral arteries
Match the example to the correct term. 1. When an organism is homozygous for two dominant alleles, and another that is heterozygous have the same phenotype: 2. Two alleles at the same locus are expressed so that separate, distinguishable phenotypes occur at the same time: 3. The dominant allele does not completely mask the effects of the recessive allele in the heterozygote: 4. When many genes determine a phenotype: 5. Traits that are affected by the genes on either X or Y chromosomes:
complete dominance co-dominence incomplete dominance polygenic traits sex linked traits
The division of the cytoplasm is called
cytokinesis
Place each of the terms in the proper category to identify whether they are arise from the ectoderm, mesoderm, or endoderm.
ectoderm- tooth enamel, outer ear, sensory neurons, anterior pituitary, facial bones mesoderm- demos, bones, muscles, microglia endoderm- epithelium of the GI tract, tonsils, epithelium of the lungs, thyroid, thymus, urinary bladder
Match the hormone with the description of its role in the menstrual cycle. 1. Increases towards the end of the proliferative phase; positive feedback mechanism with LH. 2. Levels rise during the secretory phase, and decline during menses unless fertilization occurs. 3. Primarily responsible for initiating the development of primary follicles. 4. Initiates ovulation; causes ovulated follicle to become the corpus luteum.
estrogen progesterone FSH LH
Meiosis II of spermatogenesis results in the formation of secondary spermatocytes.
false
Classify the actions as to whether they are found in males, females or both. It should be noted that, in the female, FSH also stimulates inhibin release by follicular cells. This release is maximal from the dominant follicle. This hormone then selectively inhibits FSH release from the anterior pituitary, preventing less developed follicles from developing further.
female- FSH causes cells to secrete estrogen, development of follicles, stimulation of uterine epithelium male- LH receptor stimulation causes testosterone release both- FSH increase LH receptors, steroid hormones cause negative feedback, GnRH stimulates the release of follicle stimulating hormone, inhibit selectively inhibits FSH release
Place each of the terms in the proper category to identify whether the description is associated with the first, second, or third trimester.
first trimester- rising HCG levels dominate, estrogen and progesterone production dominated by the ovaries second trimester- declining HCG, estrogen and progesterone production shared by the ovaries and placenta third trimester- elevating estrogen, elevating progesterone, estrogen and progesterone production dominated by the placenta, placental dominance of estrogen, progesterone, and HCG
Label the stages of the ovarian cycle in the figure, based on the levels of FSH and LH, as well as the days of the month.
follicle phase, ovulation, luteal phase
Label the stages of the ovarian cycle in the figure, based on the levels of FSH and LH, as well as the days of the month.
follicle phase-ovulation-luteal phase
In spermatogenesis, meiosis results in the formation of
four sperm cells with 23 chromosomes each.
Match the region of the uterus with its description.
fundus- Broad, curved superior region extending between the uterine tubes body- Major part of the uterus; composed of a thick wall of smooth muscle cervix- Narrow inferior portion; projects into the vagina
Drag the labels to their appropriate boxes.
geminal period- 8 days after fertilization, ectoderm formation, blastocyte implantation, formation of zygote, embryonic period-neural tube completed, formation of the heart, formation of the foregut, cartilage formation begins, fetal period-ossification begins, placenta stops growing, external genetalia begin forming, mature muscle structure commences
Determine whether each term on the left is described as haploid or diploid. Then click and drag each to the appropriate category on the right.
haploid- sperm cell, 1n, egg cell, gamete, germ cell diploid- 23 homologous pairs, liver cell, somatic cell, skin cell, 2n
Match the region of the uterine tube with its description.
infundibulum- free, funnel shaped lateral margin of the uterine tube ampulla- expanded region medial to the infundibulum isthmus- Extends medially from the ampulla toward the wall of the uterus uterine part- Extends medially from the isthmus; continuous with the uterine wall
DNA Ploidy - Counting DNA Molecules in Gametogenesis Chromosomes: The most significant part of a chromosome is its DNA. The term "chromosome" was coined long before we understood DNA to be the genetic material, and is defined as a single connected structure of DNA and its associated proteins. We have since learned that chromosomes are made up of either one or two tightly coiled DNA molecules wrapped around an enormous number of organizing proteins. Recall from mitosis (Chapter 3, page 93, Figure 3.40) that DNA replication of each of the 23 unique chromosomes yields two coiled DNA molecules, one in each chromatid, connected by a kinetochore. Ploidy: The term ploidy (used alone) is traditionally used to describe the number of unique sets of chromosomes in a cell. DNA Ploidy: Because a chromosome can contain either one or two DNA molecules, understanding the events of meiosis is simpler if we just count unique sets of DNAs. For this, the term "DNA ploidy" (use both words together) is used. DNA ploidy is defined by the number of full sets of chromosomal DNAs in a cell, each set comprising 23 DNA molecules. Hence, a normal human cell has a DNA ploidy of n = 2. In order for a cell to make another copy of itself in mitosis, or four gametes in meiosis, the DNA ploidy must double to n = 4. Gametes, of course have a DNA ploidy of n = 1. Chromosomal vs. DNA ploidy in meiosis/ spermatogenesis (below): The column of small, circular images on the right illustrates the status of a single pair of homologous chromosomes in cells of the stages of spermatogensis. It could be any pair among the 23 pairs found in humans, and the images are based on similar structures shown in the text. Each vertical line, kinetochore-connected or not, represents one complete copy of the DNA of that chromosome type. Using the definition of chromosome ploidy, the lowest three figures are all diploid - not a very useful fact, but focusing instead on DNA ploidy, the numbers all add up.
left side top to bottom- 1, meiosis 2, meiosis 1, 4, 2, stem cell right top to bottom- spermatid, secondary spermatocyte, mitosis
Correctly label the following parts of a mature sperm.
left top to bottom- acrosome, nucleus, centromere, mitochondria right side top to bottom- head, mid piece, tail
A Finnish gentleman spends ten minutes in a sauna and then, per tradition, jumps into an icy cold stream. Assuming he does not experience cardiac arrest, his scrotum will respond to this change in temperature. Please label the following image of the male genitalia.
left top to bottom- spermatic cord, scrotum right top to bottom- inguinal canal, cremaster muscle, muscle that draws scrotum towards abdomen, muscle that reduces size of testis, darts muscle
Drag each of the terms or statements in the proper category to identify whether the given anatomical structure is found in males, females, or both.
male- penis, testes, seminiferous tubules, ductus deferens, epidydimus, scrotum, seminal vesicles, prostate, cremaster female- vagina, uterus, vulva, labia, hymen, cervix, ovaries, clitoris, vestibular glands both- urethra, prepuce
Which of the following has an antrum?
mature follicle
Which of the following is involved in ovulation?
mature follicle
The following statements address either mitosis or meiosis. Match the information to correct process. Used to produce gametes in the body: Results in 4 unique daughter cells: Results in 2 identical daughter cells: Resultant cells have 46 chromosomes: Resultant cells have 23 chromosomes: Used to produce somatic cells of the body:
meiosis meiosis mitosis mitosis meiosis mitosis
Put the phases of the menstrual cycle in the correct order, beginning with menstruation.
menses, proliferative phase, ovulation, secretory phase
Place each description into the appropriate box, matching each with the correct phase of the male sexual response.
menstrual phase, proliferative phase, secretory phase
Match the derivative with the correct germ layer. Dermis of the skin Brain and spinal cord Muscle Lining of the lungs Epidermis of the skin Lining of the digestive tract Lens and cornea of the eye
mesoderm ectoderm mesoderm endoderm ectoderm endoderm ectoderm
Spermatogonia divide by _________; primary spermatocytes divide by __________, and secondary spermatocytes divide by ____________.
mitosis, meiosis, meiosis
Place each of the terms or statements in the proper category to identify whether it belongs to the general cell cycle or, more specifically, to mitosis.
mitosis- prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase, chromatids condense and nuclear envelope disintegrates, cytokinesis, chromatids align along the equator of the cell interphase- normal cell growth, hypertrophy of the cell, DNA replication, replication of centrioles, proof reading of replicated DNA, G2, second gap phase
Place each description into the appropriate box, matching each with the correct phase of the male sexual response.
orgasm- accompanied by emission and ejaculation, pleasurable release erection-parasympathetic impulses stimulate mucus secretion, dilation of arteries into penis, compression of vein of penis, accumulation of blood in corpora spongiosum and cavernosa, nitric oxide causes smooth muscle relaxation emmission- movement of sperm and secretion into urethra, sympathetic impulses release secretions ejaculation- contraction of skeletal muscle at the base of the penis, forcible propulsion of seminal fluid and sperm from urethra, skeletal muscle contractions
Place the following labels in order through which an unfertilized ova will pass beginning with the site of production.
ovary, infundibulum, ampulla, isthmus funds, body, cervical canal, opening cervix, vagina, vaginal orifice
Click and drag the following stages into the proper sequence to represent the development of the follicle in the ovary.
primary follicle, secondary follicle, tertiary follicle, ovulation, corpus luteum
Suckling sends neural feedback to the hypothalamus which responds by releasing the hormone, oxytocin, from the posterior pituitary gland. Oxytocin, informally dubbed "the love hormone", promotes both maternal bonding and stimulation of smooth muscle-type contraction in the mammary glands. These contractions compress the milk-filled ducts to expel their contents through the only available opening, the nipple. Oxytocin is responsible for milk release, but which hormone stimulates milk production?
prolactin
Which of the following represents the correct order of the phases of mitosis?
prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase
Match the male reproductive structure with its function
prostate gland- secretes portion of semen testes- secretes reproductive hormone ductus deferens- Contracts to propel sperm towards ejaculatory duct urethra- Passage for semen to outside of body
Routine health screening for older men normally includes screening for elevated levels of what factor in blood analysis? Most of those suffering from prostate cancer are likely to experience rapid tumor growth and spread. Elderly men often choose not to treat their prostate cancers because___.
prostate specific antigen false they are more likely to die from unrelated causes before the cancer
Correctly label the following parts of the testis.
refer to screenshot
Germ Layers and Development of the Embryo: The diagram below contains structures arranged in two columns. That on the left shows embryo stages in a sagittal, or longitudinal view. That on the right shows stages in transverse, or cross sections. Figures on the right correspond to the plane represented by the black line in the upper left figure. The upper, middle and lower pairs correspond to each other and show changes seen in the yolk sac (yellow), amniotic sac (blue) and other layers. The outermost, red and blue layers are extraembryonic membranes and will form the chorion and placenta.The inner, red-colored embryonic region lies between the blue and yellow germ layers. It will come to encircle part of the yolk sac, and contains two body cavities. The red, blue, and yellow germ layers are the mesoderm, ectoderm and endoderm, respectively. The yolk sac will form part of the umbilical cord, and will also contribute to organ formation, including that of the digestive system lining. It can be seen in the figure to the lower left (the gold-colored structure). If the extent of the pharynx lies between two black arrows, see if you can guess which organs, seen here as small outgrowths of the endodermis, are being pointed to in that figure. Where might the mouth be? How about the stomach? Finally, the lower right figure shows two inner blue circles of different sizes. The very small one arises as an infolding of the other, and denotes the neural tube, which will give rise to the nervous system.
refer to screenshot
Label the female external genitalia in the figure.
refer to screenshot
Label the reproductive structures of the female pelvis.
refer to screenshot
Label the structures of the developing placenta.
refer to screenshot
Label the structures surrounding the ovary in the figure.
refer to screenshot
Label the testis and spermatic cord using the hints provided.
refer to screenshot
Label the various stages of oogenesis. Be careful not to confuse oocytes with follicles when assigning terms the terms "secondary" and "primary".
refer to screenshot
Some of the labels below address function, while others address anatomy. Place the labels in their appropriate locations.
refer to screenshot
A typical ejaculation results in the discharge of 2 to 5 mL of the fluid called ___________.
semen
Place the following labels in order through which sperm would pass beginning with the site of spermatogenesis.
seminiferous tubules, tubules rectus, rete testis, efferent ductules, epididymus, ductus deferens, prostatic urethra, membranous urethra, spongy urethra, glans penis, external urethral orifice
Meiosis produces __________ in humans.
sperm cells and oocytes
Beginning with the germ cell and ending with the mature cell, put the development of the sperm into the correct order.
spermatogonia, primary spermocyte, secondary spermocyte, spermatid, sperm cell
Cervical dilation corresponds to _____of childbirth. Stage 1 of parturition ends when___. Expulsion of the uterus corresponds to _____ of childbirth. Medical complications from tearing of the tendon that holds the uterus in position occurs during____ .
stage 1 cervical opening reaches head size stage 3 stage 1
Review Chapter 19, Section 19.06 (page 657) on the Rh blood group as necessary, to answer the following questions related to pregnancy, partuition, and Rh incompatibility. 1. Concern over Rh incompatibility arises when_________. 2. Mixing of blood between mother and fetus generally occurs___________. 3. Hemolytic disease of the newborn will likely appear first in the ___________. 4. The generation of anti-Rh antibodies by the mother is normally prevented by ____________.
the father is Rh positive and the mother is Rh negative during childbirth second child an injection of anti-Rh antibodies
Place each of the terms or statements in the proper category to identify the proper stage of mitosis.
top left- telophase, nuclear envelope begins to form, chromosomes uncoil, nucleoli re-form top right- prophase, first step in mitosis, chromosomes form and thicken, centrioles migrate to center poles bottom right- metaphase, asters connect to the plasma membrane, chromosomes are aligned across the equator bottom left- anaphase, third phase of mitosis, centromere divide in two, sister chromatids are pulled to opposite ends of the cell
Label the structures of the male reproductive system.
top to bottom- ureter, seminal vesicle, prostate gland, ejeculatory duct, spongy urethra
During spermatogenesis, spermatids differentiate into spermatozoa.
true
Mitosis and cytoplasmic division result in the formation of two genetically identical cells.
true