A&P 1 Ch. 8
A pollex has ______ phalanges. A. 2 B. 3 C. 14 D. 10 E. 7
A. 2
Which features are found only on thoracic vertebrae? A. Costal facets and demifacets B. Transverse foramina C. Spinous processes D. Vertebral foramina E. Laminae
A. Costal facets and demifacets
The vertebral column includes ___ cervical, ___ thoracic, and ___ lumbar vertebrae. A. 5, 12, 7 B. 6, 14, 6 C. 7, 13, 4 D. 7, 12, 5 E. 6, 13, 5
D. 7, 12, 5
Which tarsal bone articulates with metatarsals IV and V? A. Talus B. Calcaneus C. Lateral cuneiform D. Cuboid E. Medial cuneiform
D. Cuboid
Which does not contribute to the pelvic brim? A. Arcuate line B. Sacral promontory C. Pubic crest D. Gluteal line E. Pectineal line
D. Gluteal line
Which bone does not belong to the appendicular skeleton? A. Femur B. Sacrum C. Calcaneus D. Clavicle E. Ulna
B. Sacrum
What bone(s) does the clavicle articulate with? A. Scapula only B. Scapula and sternum C. Scapula and humerus D. Humerus and sternum E. Humerus only
B. Scapula and sternum
Which bone is not part of the nasal complex? A. Nasal B. Frontal C. Inferior nasal concha D. Temporal E. Ethmoid
D. Temporal
Which is not correct regarding the patella? A. The patella is triangular in shape. B. The patella is located in the tendon of the quadriceps femoris muscle. C. The posterior aspect of the patella articulates with the femur. D. The broad superior portion of the patella is called the apex. E. The patella can be palpated on the anterior surface of the knee.
D. The broad superior portion of the patella is called the apex.
The skull consists of ________ cranial bones and ________ facial bones. A. 8, 14 B. 7, 12 C. 10, 12 D. 5, 7 E. 9, 11
A. 8, 14
Protection of vital organs and hematopoiesis are two functions commonly named for the ________ skeleton. A. Axial B. Appendicular
A. Axial
Which feature is unique to the axis? A. Dens B. Bifid spinous process C. Superior articular facet D. Transverse foramen E. Vertebral foramen
A. Dens
Which bones articulate with the zygomatic bone? A. Frontal, temporal, and maxilla B. Temporal and maxilla C. Temporal and parietal D. Frontal, parietal, and occipital E. Temporal, sphenoid, and maxilla
A. frontal, temporal, maxilla
The part of a rib that articulates with the demifacets on the bodies of vertebrae is the A. head. B. tubercle. C. shaft. D. tuberosity.
A. head
On the os coxae, the ischial ramus is fused to the A. inferior pubic ramus. B. superior pubic ramus. C. ischial spine. D. ischial body. E. pubic tubercle.
A. inferior pubic ramus.
The hyoid bone is located between the A. mandible and the larynx. B. maxilla and the mandible. C. pharynx and the nasal cavity. D. cranium and the axilla. E. larynx and the trachea.
A. mandible and the larynx
Which bones form the inferior margin of the orbit? A. Maxilla and zygomatic B. Frontal and sphenoid C. Palatine and sphenoid D. Lacrimal and ethmoid E. Zygomatic and sphenoid
A. maxilla and zygomatic
The tibial tuberosity is the attachment site for the A. patellar ligament. B. hamstring muscles. C. patellar tendon. D. sciatic nerve. E. intercondylar eminence.
A. patellar ligament.
Which is not correct regarding the pelvis? A. The adult pelvis is composed of 4 bones. B. The pelvis includes the sacrum. C. The pelvic girdle protects the viscera of the pelvic cavity. D. In anatomic position, the pubis is posterior and inferior to the ischium. E. There are two sacroiliac articulations.
D. In anatomic position, the pubis is posterior and inferior to the ischium.
Which bones form the calvaria? A. Occipital and parietal B. Parietal and frontal C. Occipital, parietal, and temporal D. Occipital, parietal, and frontal E. Occipital, parietal, temporals, and frontal
D. Occipital, parietal, and frontal
Which is not a correct pairing of a bone and its common name? A. Clavicle - collar bone B. Patella - knee cap C. Scapula - shoulder blade D. Talus - heel E. Tibia - shin
D. Talus - heel
The zygomatic process of the temporal bone and the _______ process of the zygomatic bone form the zygomatic arch. A. Zygomatic B. Maxillary C. Frontal D. Temporal E. Mastoid
D. Temporal
Which is not correct regarding the femur? A. The condyles are located at the distal end of the bone. B. In anatomic position, the femur is angled medially. C. The head of the femur articulates with the acetabulum. D. The intercondylar fossa is located on the anterior surface of the bone. E. The depression in the head of the femur is called the fovea.
D. The intercondylar fossa is located on the anterior surface of the bone.
Which is not among the bones in the proximal row of carpals? A. Triquetrum B. Lunate C. Scaphoid D. Trapezoid E. Pisiform
D. Trapezoid
Each of the depressions on the maxillae and mandible that holds a tooth is called a(n) A. fossa. B. sulcus. C. sinus. D. alveolus. E. foramen.
D. alveolus.
Which is not a feature of the ethmoid bone? A. Cribriform foramina B. Perpendicular plate C. Crista galli D. Inferior nasal concha E. Orbital plate
D. inferior nasal concha
Which of these is not a paranasal sinus? A. Maxillary sinus B. Ethmoid sinus C. Sphenoid sinus D. Mastoid sinus E. Frontal sinus
D. mastoid sinus
The incisive foramen and palatine process are features of which bone? A. Mandible B. Palatine bone C. Vomer D. Maxilla E. Temporal bone
D. maxilla
Which bone bears the infraorbital foramen? A. Frontal B. Temporal C. Mandible D. Maxilla E. Zygomatic
D. maxilla
The jugular foramen is located between the _____ and _____ bones. A. temporal; parietal B. sphenoid; ethmoid C. sphenoid; occipital D. occipital; temporal E. occipital; parietal
D. occipital; temporal
The bones of the antebrachium are the A. radius, ulna, and humerus. B. radius, ulna, humerus, and carpals. C. radius, ulna, carpals, and metacarpals. D. radius and ulna. E. carpals, metacarpals, and phalanges.
D. radius and ulna.
The inferior termination of the sacral canal is an opening called the A. anterior sacral foramen. B. sacral promontory. C. posterior sacral foramen. D. sacral hiatus.
D. sacral hiatus.
The basin in the floor of the cranium that accommodates the temporal lobe of the brain is the A. Posterior cranial fossa B. Middle cranial fossa C. Inferior cortical plate D. Cribiform fissure E. Sella turcica
B. Middle cranial fossa
What is the inner, gelatinous region of each intervertebral disc called? A. Annulus fibrosus B. Nucleus pulposus C. Lamella D. Chondral ring E. Articular ring
B. Nucleus pulposus
The occipital condyles articulate with the A. axis. B. atlas. C. dens. D. vertebra prominens. E. odontoid process.
B. atlas
The _________ process of the mandible articulates with the temporal bone. A. alveolar B. condylar C. mastoid D. temporal E. coronoid
B. condylar
The head of the fibula articulates with the fibular articular facet on the A. lateral condyle of the tibia. B. lateral condyle of the femur. C. medial malleolus of the tibia. D. medial condyle of the tibia. E. medial condyle of the femur.
A. lateral condyle of the tibia.
Which bone is not a facial bone? A. Temporal B. Mandible C. Zygomatic D. Maxilla E. Nasal
A. temporal
The bony projections that can be palpated medially and laterally at the wrist are the A. medial and lateral epicondyles. B. spinous processes. C. styloid processes. D. medial and lateral malleoli. E. greater and lesser trochanters.
C. styloid processes.
What are you resting your hands on when you rest them on your hips, just below the waist? A. Iliac crests B. Superior gluteal lines C. Ischial spines D. Ischial tuberosities E. Arcuate lines
A. Iliac crests
The ________ suture is the articulation between the occipital bone and both parietal bones. A. Lambdoid B. Coronal C. Sagittal D. Squamous E. Frontal
A. Lambdoid
The sagittal suture joins the A. Left and right parietal bones B. Left and right temporal bones C. Parietal and occipital bones D. Temporal and occipital bones E. Frontal and parietal bones
A. Left and right parietal bones
Which bones articulate with the femur? A. Os coxae, tibia, patella B. Os coxae, tibia, fibula C. Scapula, radius, ulna D. Os coxae, fibia, tibula E. Tibia, fibula, patella, os coxae
A. Os coxae, tibia, patella
Which bones articulate with the humerus? A. Scapula, radius, and ulna B. Scapula and radius C. Scapula and ulna D. Clavicle, scapula, ulna, and radius E. Clavicle and ulna
A. Scapula, radius, and ulna
Which statement accurately compares the hand and the foot? A. The hand and the foot each have 14 phalanges. B. The hand and the foot each have 15 phalanges. C.. Each hand has 14 phalanges, but each foot has 15 phalanges. D. Each hand has 15 phalanges, but each foot has 14 phalanges.
A. The hand and the foot each have 14 phalanges.
Which is not a cranial bone? A. Vomer B. Frontal C. Occipital D. Temporal E. Parietal
A. Vomer
Each auricular surface of the sacrum is located on a(n) A. ala. B. median sacral crest. C. sacral cornu. D. apex. E. spinous process.
A. ala
Which fontanel is the last to close? A. Anterior B. Sphenoidal C. Mastoid
A. anterior
The clavicles articulate with the sternum at the _____ notches. A. clavicular B. suprasternal C. mastosternal D. jugular E. first costal
A. clavicular
What is the location of the auditory ossicles? A. Petrous part of temporal bone B. Squamous part of temporal bone C. Tympanic part of temporal bone D. Auditory part of temporal bone E. Mastoid part of temporal bone
A. petrous part of temporal bone
Which curves of the vertebral column are present at birth? A. Thoracic and sacral B. Lumbar and cervical C. Lumbar and sacral D. Cervical and thoracic E. Lumbar and thoracic
A. thoracic and sacral
How many pairs of ribs are "floating ribs" that do not articulate with the sternum? A. 5 B. 2 C. 7 D. 12 E. 10
B. 2
Not counting sesamoid bones, what is the total number of tarsals, metatarsals, and phalanges in a single ankle and foot? A. 24 B. 26 C. 27 D. 30 E. 32
B. 26
What is the function of the nuchal lines? A. Attachment for durability mater B. Attachment for muscles and ligaments C. Passageway for cranial nerves D. Passageway for jugular vein E. Grooves for dural sinuses
B. Attachment for muscles and ligaments
Which is not characteristic of a male pelvis? A. Greater sciatic notch narrow, U-shaped, and deep B. Coccyx tilted posteriorly C. Pubic arch less than 90 degrees D. Obturator foramen oval E. Superior inlet heart-shaped
B. Coccyx tilted posteriorly
Which bone marking does not serve as an articulating surface? A. Head B. Epicondyle C. Condyle D. Facet E. Trochlea
B. Epicondyle
Which bone is not paired? A. Maxillary B. Mandible C. Lacrimal D. Nasal E. Zygomatic
B. Mandible
What is the superior portion of the sternum called? A. Xiphoid process B. Manubrium C. Body D. Gladiolus E. Coccyx
B. Manubrium
Which is a sesamoid bone? A. Femur B. Patella C. First metatarsal D. Clavicle E. Calcaneus
B. Patella
Which cranial fossa supports the cerebellum? A. Anterior B. Posterior C. Middle D. Lateral E. Medial
B. Posterior
Which is the highest of the three arches of the foot? A. The transverse arch B. The medial longitudinal arch C. The lateral longitudinal arch
B. The medial longitudinal arch
Which statement accurately describes the articulations between ribs and vertebrae? A. Three of the cervical and ten of the thoracic vertebrae articulate with ribs. B. Twelve thoracic vertebrae articulate with the ribs. C. Two lumbar and ten thoracic vertebrae articulate with the ribs. D. Two cervical, two lumbar and eight thoracic vertebrae articulate with the ribs. E. Nine thoracic and three lumbar vertebrae articulate with the ribs.
B. Twelve thoracic vertebrae articulate with the ribs.
Which is not a feature of the ulna? A. Trochlear notch B. Ulnar notch C. Coronoid process D. Head E. Styloid process
B. Ulnar notch
As an adult ages, the symphysial surface of the pubis A. becomes more flattened, and the bony ridge at its circumference progressively disappears. B. becomes more flattened, and a bony rim forms at its circumference. C. becomes more billowed, and the bony ridge at its D.circumference progressively disappears. E. becomes more billowed, and a bony rim forms at its circumference.
B. becomes more flattened, and a bony rim forms at its circumference.
The costal tuberosity is a feature of the A. manubrium of the sternum. B. clavicle. C. scapula. D. xiphoid process. E. body of the sternum.
B. clavicle.
A skull with five gracile features and one robust feature is most likely a _______ skull. A. male B. female
B. female
The membranous sheets that connect developing cranial bones are called A. sutures. B. fontanelles. C. intraosseous membranes. D. craniochondral articulations. E. ossicles.
B. fontanelles
The _________ provide passageways for spinal nerves to exit the vertebral column and travel to other parts of the body. A. vertebral foramina B. intervertebral foramina C. vertebral canals D. articular facets E. transverse foramina
B. intervertebral foramina
Which of the spinal curves forms when a child is about 12 months of age? A. Sacral B. Lumbar C. Cervical D. Thoracic E. Coccygeal
B. lumbar
The medial and lateral condyles of the tibia articulate with the A. apex of the patella. B. medial and lateral condyles of the femur. C. medial and lateral epicondyles of the femur. D. head of the fibula. E. greater and lesser trochanters of the femur.
B. medial and lateral condyles of the femur.
The ___________ subdivides the pelvis into the "true pelvis" and the "false pelvis". A. sacral promontory B. pelvic brim C. pelvic inlet D. pelvic outlet E. pubic symphysis
B. pelvic brim
The apical ectodermal ridge A. forms at the proximal end of each limb bud. B. plays a role in differentiation and elongation of the limb. C. ossifies prior to formation of the hand and foot plates. D. must undergo apoptosis before the limb can develop. E. secretes mesoderm for muscle formation.
B. plays a role in differentiation and elongation of the limb.
The biceps brachii muscle attaches to the _________ of the radius. A. neck B. radial tuberosity C. styloid process D. head E. radial notch
B. radial tuberosity
The spinal curvature that develops as a child learns to walk shifts the trunk weight over the legs. It is an example of a ________ curve. A. primary B. secondary
B. secondary
Which bone bears the mandibular fossa? A. Maxilla B. Temporal C. Zygomatic D. Mandible E. Frontal
B. temporal
The vertebral column protects A. the kidneys. B. the spinal cord. C. the spleen. D. All of the choices are correct.
B. the spinal cord.
Which bone is unpaired? A. Lacrimal B. Vomer C. Inferior nasal concha D. Palatine E. Maxilla
B. vomer
How many pairs of ribs articulate (directly or indirectly) with the sternum? A. 7 B. 12 C. 10 D. 5 E. 24
C. 10
Which bone count is not correct for a normal adult human? A. 14 facial bones B. 7 pairs of true ribs C. 7 lumbar vertebrae D. 6 auditory ossicles E. 8 cranial bones
C. 7 lumbar vertebrae
At what location do the three bones of the os coxae fuse? A. Iliac crest B. Ischial tuberosity C. Acetabulum D. Pelvic brim E. Pubic symphysis
C. Acetabulum
Which is not a carpal bone? A. Hamate B. Trapezium C. Capitulum D. Scaphoid E. Trapezoid
C. Capitulum
What is the correct order for the vertebral regions, from superior to inferior? A. Cervical - thoracic - sacral - coccygeal - lumbar B. Thoracic - sacral - lumbar - thoracic - coccygeal C. Cervical - thoracic - lumbar - sacral - coccygeal D. Thoracic - coccygeal - cervical - lumbar - sacral E. Thoracic - cervical - lumbar - coccygeal - sacral
C. Cervical - thoracic - lumbar - sacral - coccygeal
Which bone is not part of the axial skeleton? A. Malleus B. Sacrum C. Clavicle D. Atlas E. Frontal bone
C. Clavicle
Which bone does not contribute to the medial longitudinal arch of the foot? A. Talus B. Navicular C. Cuboid D. Metatarsal I E. Medial cuneiform
C. Cuboid
What is the name of the prominence on the medial surface of the ankle? A. Tibial tuberosity B. Medial condyle C. Medial malleolus D. Calcaneus E. Head of the fibula
C. Medial malleolus
Which bone articulates with all three cuneiform bones? A. Cuboid B. Calcaneus C. Navicular D. First metatarsal E. Talus
C. Navicular
Which of these bones does not contribute to the region known as the pterion? A. Frontal B. Sphenoid C. Occipital D. Parietal E. Temporal
C. Occipital
Which of the following choices accurately describes the crural bones? A. Both the tibia and fibula are weight-bearing. B. Only the fibula is weight-bearing. C. Only the tibia is weight-bearing. D. Neither the tibia nor fibula are weight-bearing.
C. Only the tibia is weight-bearing.
Which bone bears the superior and inferior temporal lines? A. Temporal B. Occipital C. Parietal D. Frontal E. Zygomatic
C. Parietal
Which bones comprise each pectoral girdle? A. Scapula, clavicle, and sternum B. Scapula, clavicle, sternum, and humerus C. Scapula and clavicle D. Sternum and clavicle E. Scapula, clavicle, and humerus
C. Scapula and clavicle
Rib 1 articulates with vertebra ______ and the ______. A. T1; body of the sternum B. T2; body of the sternum C. T1; manubrium of the sternum D. C7; manubrium of the sternum E. T2; clavicle
C. T1; manubrium of the sternum
Rami, trochanters, tubercles, and tuberosities are bone markings that serve as A. articulating surfaces. B. passageways for nerves. C. attachments for ligaments or tendons. D. pits or depressions to hold cartilage. E. passageways for blood vessels.
C. attachments for ligaments or tendons.
Developmentally, the most significant growth in the skull occurs A. between the ages of 5 and 10. B. between the ages of 10 and 15. C. before age 5. D. between the ages of 15 and 20. E. between the ages of 20 and 25.
C. before age 5
Transverse foramina are found in _____ vertebrae. A. thoracic B. lumbar C. cervical D. sacral E. all
C. cervical
The head of the humerus articulates with the A. greater trochanter. B. trochlear notch. C. glenoid cavity. D. greater tubercle. E. intertubercular sulcus.
C. glenoid cavity.
Which bone bears the greater and lesser cornua? A. Maxilla B. Stapes C. Hyoid D. Incus E. Mandible
C. hyoid
The expanded distal end of the fibula is called the A. head. B. neck. C. lateral malleolus. D. medial malleolus. E. shaft.
C. lateral malleolus.
A perpendicular plate is a feature of the _____ and _____ bones. A. palatine; lacrimal B. ethmoid; sphenoid C. palatine; ethmoid D. nasal; lacrimal E. maxilla; zygomatic
C. palatine; ethmoid
Which is not a function of the vertebral column? A. Supporting the weight of the head B. Maintaining upright body position C. Passageway for cranial nerves D. Passageway for spinal nerves E. Protecting the spinal cord
C. passageway for cranial nerves
What is the function of the cribriform plate? A. Permits air to enter the cranial cavity to cool the brain B. Provides large surface area for muscle attachment C. Permits passage of the olfactory nerves D. Forms part of the nasal septum E. Articulates with the atlas for rotational head movement
C. permits passage of the olfactory nerves
The sternal angle can be used as an anatomical landmark to identify the position of the A. apex of the heart. B. jugular vein. C. second rib. D. trachea. E. hyoid bone.
C. second rib.
The cervical and lumbar curvatures are ________ curves, and they arch ________. A. primary; anteriorly B. primary; posteriorly C. secondary; anteriorly D. secondary; posteriorly
C. secondary; anteriorly
The pterygoid spines and optic canals are features of the _____ bone. A. ethmoid B. temporal C. sphenoid D. occipital E. frontal
C. sphenoid
The ossicles are A. three of the fourteen facial bones. B. six of the fourteen cranial bones. C. three small bones within each ear. D. neck bones that articulate with the larynx (voice box).
C. three small bones within each ear
Which of these features is found in a lumbar vertebra? A. Pedicles B. Vertebral foramen C. Spinous process D. Vertebral arch E. All of the choices are correct.
E. All of the choices are correct.
Which cervical vertebra is also known as the vertebra prominens? A. C1 B. C2 C. C4 D. C5 E. C7
E. C7
Which of these skull bones cannot be easily palpated? A. Frontal B. Temporal C. Occipital D. Parietal E. Ethmoid
E. Ethmoid
Which is not a site for muscle attachment on the femur? A. Gluteal tuberosity B. Pectineal line C. Linea aspera D. Greater trochanter E. Lateral condyle
E. Lateral condyle
Of the following list, which describe the functions of the paranasal sinuses? a: Warm and moisten inhaled air b: Strengthen the bone c: Provide resonance to the voice A. a, b, and c B. None of the listed functions describe those of the sinuses. C. a only D. b only E. a and c
E. a and c
Which is characteristic of a female skull, as compared to a male skull? A. Chin pointed and triangular B. Mandibular angle greater than 125 degrees C. Little or no prominence to superciliary arches D. External surface of occipital bone relatively smooth E. All of the choices are characteristic of a female skull.
E. all of the choices are characteristic of a female skull
The only direct connection between the pectoral girdle and the axial skeleton is where the _____ articulates with the _____. A. humerus; scapula B. scapula; clavicle C. scapula; thoracic cage D. clavicle; humerus E. clavicle; sternum
E. clavicle; sternum
The ___________ of the scapula is the point where the medial and lateral borders meet. A. lateral angle B. superior angle C. supraglenoid tubercle D. infraglenoid tubercle E. inferior angle
E. inferior angle
In anatomic position, the radius lies _____ to the ulna. A. posterior B. medial C. superior D. inferior E. lateral
E. lateral
Which is not a correct pairing of bone and feature? A. Occipital bone - foramen magnum B. Sphenoid bone - foramen rotundum C. Temporal bone - carotid canal D. Frontal bone - supraorbital foramen E. Parietal bone - mental foramen
E. parietal bone- mental foramen
The portion of the sphenoid bone that houses the pituitary gland is the A. pterygoid process. B. pterygoid plate. C. greater wing. D. lesser wing. E. sella turcica.
E. sella turcica
The vertebral processes that are most easily palpated along the midline of the back are the _____ processes. A. transverse B. inferior articular C. superior articular D. lamellar E. spinous
E. spinous