ANSC 224

In both males and females, how many cell divisions are there after germ cells complete meiosis? a. 0 b. 1 c. 2 d. 4 e. it ranges from 4 to 8

a. 0

If you examined oocytes in the ovary, they would have _____ polar bodies and be __________. a. 0, in late prophase 1 b. 2, in metaphase 2 c. 1, in metaphase 2 d. 2, meiotically mature e. 1, late in prophase 1

a. 0, in late prophase 1

The gestation length for a cow is a. 280 days b. 114 days c. 150 days d. 340 days e. 215 days

a. 280 days

The general definition of a hormone is: a. A substance released by an organ into the blood to cause a change in a target tissue b. A small amino acid that travels via a carrier system c. A substance released into blood from the hypothalamus and pituitary d. A substance found in endocrine organs that causes a neural response e. A substance that travels via neurons to bind intracellular receptors to cause a change

a. A substance released by an organ into the blood to cause a change in a target tissue

Freemartinism in cattle is due to: a. AMH inhibiting development of the female reproductive tract b. AMH inhibiting development of the male reproductive tract c. Estrogen inhibiting development of the male reproductive tract d. Fusion of placentas in identical twins e. Estrogen inhibiting development of the female reproductive tract

a. AMH inhibiting development of the female reproductive tract

If the undifferentiated gonad in the absence of SRY begins to form an ovary, no ________ will be produced and the __________ will regress. a. AMH, mesonephric ducts (Wolffian ducts). b. Estrogen, paramesonephric ducts (Mullerian ducts). c. AMH, paramesonephric ducts (Mullerian ducts). d. Estrogen, mesonephric ducts (Wolffian ducts). e. Testosterone, mesonephric ducts (Wolffian ducts).

a. AMH, mesonephric ducts (wolffian ducts)

If you wanted to recruit follicles to grow on the ovary, the hormone of choice would have predominant __________ activity. a. FSH b. estrogen c. prostaglandin d. progesterone e. LH

a. FSH

During embryo transfer in cattle, embryo donors are usually injected with: a. FSH and PGF2 alpha b. FSH and LH c. GnRH and PGF2 alpha d. GnRH and LH e. None of the above

a. FSH and PGH2 alpha

All of meiosis in an oocyte is completed at" a. Fertilization b. Ovulation c. The fetal stage d. Puberty

a. Fertilization

What mediates the effects of fasting on IGF activity? a. IGFBP-1 and IGFBP-2 b. leptin c. growth hormone d. adrenal hormones e. fatty acid mobilization from adipose

a. IGFBP-1 and IGFBP-2

The nucleus of an oocyte in the ovary that is growing, producing cortical granules and the zona pellucida is: a. In meiotic arrest b. In late metaphase II c. In early prophase II d. Undergoing rapid mitosis e. Advancing through all stages of meiosis

a. In meiotic arrest

After meiosis is completed, both male and female germ cells go through ______ mitotic division/s: a. No b. One c. Two d. Three e. Four

a. No

Protein hormones are water soluble and bind to receptors: a. On the cell plasma membrane that often activate G proteins and adenylate cyclase b. In the nucleus that activate adenylate cyclase c. On the cell plasma membrane that are transcription factors d. In the nucleus that are transcription factors e. That shuttle between the plasma membrane and the nucleus

a. On the cell plasma membrane that often activate G protiens and adenylate cyclase

Even though it has the high false positive rate, the PSA test is used frequently to assess ___________ because it ______________. a. Prostate cancer, only misses detecting cancer 15% of the time. b. Benign prostatic hyperplasia, only misses detecting BPH 15% of the time. c. Benign prostatic hyperplasia, only misses detecting BPH 5% of the time d. Prostate cancer, requires a minor prostate biopsy. e. Prostate cancer, only misses detecting cancer 70-75% of the time.

a. Prostate cancer, only misses detecting cancer 15% of the time

Which of these are germ cells that do not divide further? a. Spermatids. b. Spermatogonia. c. Primary spermatocytes. d. Secondary spermatocytes. e. Sertoli cells

a. Spermatids

AMH is produced by the developing ____________ and will cause regression of the paramesonephric ducts (Mullerian ducts): a. Testis. b. Ovary. c. Anterior pituitary d. Gubernaculum e. Sry gene

a. Testis

The underlying basis for sperm separation into X and Y chromosome-bearing sperm is that: a. The X chromosome is larger than the Y b. The Y chromosome is larger than the X c. Y-bearing sperm swim faster d. Y-bearing sperm are larger e. X-bearing sperm swim faster

a. The X chromosome is larger than the Y

The typical treatment for men that are over the age of 80 and diagnosed with prostate cancer is: a. To monitor the growth of the prostate b. To remove the prostate surgically c. To remove the testes d. To give the patient aggressive chemotherapy e. To inject radioactive beads into the prostate

a. To monitor the growth of the prostate

Sperm can be sorted into those that have an X chromosome and those that have a Y by separating sperm based on: a. Total DNA b. Sperm swimming speed c. Sperm size d. Sperm weight

a. Total DNA

The scrotum can raise and lower the testis due to changes in ambient temperature by contraction or relaxation of the: a. Tunica dartos b. Tunica albuginia c. Testicular capsule d. Testicular parenchyma e. Scrotal skin

a. Tunica dartos

In embryo transfer, embryos are flushed nonsurgically from the: a. Uterus b. Cervix c. Oviducts d. Ovarian follicles e. Vagina

a. Uterus

To be able to penetrate the zona pellucida, sperm must release enzymes in the ___________ just before binding the zona pellucida. a. acrosome b. nucleus c. midpiece d. principle piece

a. acrosome

In our model species of cycling animals, and in women, the follicle phase is initiated a. after luteolysis b. after ovulation c. with a primordial to secondary follicle d. with antrum formation e. C and D only

a. after luteolysis

The name of the innermost fluid membrane that surrounds the fetus in gestation is called the a. amnion b. chorion c. zona d. blastocoele e. allantois

a. amnion

In the first week of embryonic development, the reason the embryo cells divide but the embryo does not increase in size is due to: a. an intact zona b. limited space on the oviduct c. limited CL production of progesterone d. all of the above e. none of the above

a. an intact zona

Prostate cancer in humans is sometimes treated by depriving the cancer of ___________. a. androgens b. LH c. hCG d. PSA e. FSH

a. androgens

Unilateral cryptorchids: a. Are fertile b. Are infertile c. Are not masculine

a. are fertile

The enzyme that converts testosterone to estradiol is called: a. aromatase b. 5 alpha-reductase c. hyaluronidase d. hydrolase e. lyase

a. aromatase

The assisted reproductive technology that has the greatest impact on farm animals is: a. Artificial insemination b. Embryo transfer c. Sperm sexing d. Cloning e. In vitro fertilization

a. artificial insemination

The process of follicle degeneration is classified as: a. atresia b. selection c. senescence d. menopause e. luteolysis

a. atresia

Recent data demonstrate that the acrosome reaction of fertilizing sperm takes place: a. Before sperm reach the zona pellucida b. When sperm bind to the zona pellucida c. After sperm penetrate the zona pellucida d. When sperm fuse with the oocyte plasma membrane

a. before sperm reach the zona pellucida

A drug that blocked guanylate cyclase would: a. Block erection. b. Cause erections even in men that are completely paralyzed c. Increase the volume of blood the sinuses of the penis. d. Cause erections in men that have nerves that function normally. e. Not affect erection.

a. block erection

What is the function of multinucleated osteoclast cells? a. bone remodeling throughout life b. growth in bone diameter in adolescence c. closure of the epiphyseal plate during puberty d. removal of chondrocytes from cartilage models for bone during limb formation e. none of the above

a. bone remodeling throughout life

How do steroid and thyroid hormones regulate gene expression in cells? a. by acting as ligand activated transcription factors for various steroid responsive genes b. by activating the MAPK pathway c. by activating the PI3-K pathway d. by activating the mTor (mammalian target of rapamycin) e. by activating DNA methylation

a. by acting as ligand activated transcription factors for various steroid responsive genes

The following animal is identified as an induced ovulator a. cat b. pig c. horse d. rat e. A and D only

a. cat

If you wanted to collect many sperm from a valuable stallion that just died to use them for in vitro fertilization, from what part of the male tract would you collect the sperm? a. Cauda epididymis. b. Caput epididymis. c. Testes. d. Seminal vesicles. e. Prostate

a. cauda epididymus

Oocytes from mice that do not produce ovastacin, the cortical granule enzyme that degrades ZP2 at fertilization: a. Continue to bind sperm after fertilization b. Do not bind any sperm c. Are not any different than normal oocytes

a. continue to bind sperm after fertilization

What will be the end fate of a dominant follicle that ovulates in a cow who is not inseminated? a. corpus albicans b. corpus luteum c. ovarian cyst d. a new recruited follicle e. atresia

a. corpus albicans

Starting at day __________ in women, under declining ____________ the endometrium is expected to fall off. a. day 1 / progesterone b. day 5 / estrogen c. day 1 / LH d. day 10 / estrogen e. none of the above

a. day 1 / progesterone

Which of the following stress responses are mediated by glucocorticoids? a. decreased peripheral protein degradation b. decreased peripheral glucose metabolism c. increased adrenal catecholamine release d. increased liver glycogen storage

a. decreased peripheral protein degradation

In women that conceive, after hte first week, the cells of the __________ produce the hormone hCG to ensure progesterone production continues from the CL a. embryo b. endometrium c. pituitary d. corpus luteum e. fetal brain

a. embryo

In the development of the female sexual brain, what hormone is prevented from entering? a. estradiol b. testosterone c. progesterone d. GnRH e. all of the above

a. estradiol

A hormone that exhibits positive feedback to induce an LH surge is: a. estrogen b. progesterone c. inhibin d. GnRH e. prostaglandin

a. estrogen

For an example of a positive feedback hormone, the best example to use from the following would include a. estrogen b. progesterone c. inhibin d. prostaglandin e. all of the above

a. estrogen

The unique aspect of the human corpus luteum is a. estrogen and progesterone production b. hCG and progesterone production c. extended bleeding with corpus hemorrhagicum formation d. secretes very low ration of progesterone to estrogen e. all of the above

a. estrogen and progesterone production

The signal that initiates the process of birth is thought to arise from ___________. a. fetal pituitary ACTH b. final uterine stretch c. membranes that cause cervical dilation d. fetal re-positioning e. uterine contractions

a. fetal pituitary ACTH

At what age do most female mammals have the highest number of oocytes: a. fetus b. birth c. puberty d. adult

a. fetus

The cytoplasmic bridges that are important for tightly synchronizing spermatogenesis are between: a. Germ cells of the same maturational stage b. Germ cells and Leydig cells c. Germ cells and Sertoli cells d. Sertoli cells and Leydig cells

a. germ cells of the same maturational stage

A normal oocyte that is in the oviduct should: a. Have one polar body b. Be in the dictyate phase of prophase I c. Have two polar bodies d. Have a tight cumulus cell mass e. Have one residual body

a. have one polar body

An oocyte that is mature and ready to be fertilized should: a. Have one polar body b. Be in the diplotene phase of prophase I c. Have two polar bodies d. A tight cumulus cell mass e. Have one residual body

a. have one polar body

Individuals with XY sex chromosomes that have mutations in the androgen receptor that make it inactive will: a. Have testes and appear outwardly female. b. Have ovaries and appear outwardly male. c. Have testes and appear outwardly male. d. Have ovaries and appear outwardly female.

a. have testes and appear outwardly female

When considering mammals with external testes and dolphins, to control testicular temperature, blood vessels are coiled around each other to: a. Increase the surface area of the vessels allowing vessels containing cool blood to cool the vessels containing warm blood that enter the testes b. Allow the blood to mix so that cool blood leaving the testes and warm blood entering the testes mix together so that the blood entering the testes is cooler. c. Increase the surface area of the vessels allowing vessels containing warm blood to warm the vessels containing cool blood coming from the body and entering the testes d. Allow the blood to mix so that warm blood leaving the testes and cool blood coming towards the testes to mix together so that the blood entering the testes is warmer

a. increase the surface area of the vessels allowing vessels containing cool blood to cool the vessels containing warm blood that enter the testes

Which of the following is a pathway to parturition? a. increased fetal cortisol causes a decrease in maternal progesterone b. increased maternal GNRH caused increased oxytocin c. increased IGF-1 levels as the fetus matures d. limit of uterine size results in stretching as fetus gets larger e. increasing nutrient demand as fetus gets larger

a. increased fetal cortisol causes a decrease in maternal progesterone

The spermatic cord passes through the _____________ and carries blood vessels, the vas deferens, nerves and muscle tissue: a. Inguinal canal b. Hypophyseal-hypothalamic portal system c. Seminal vesicles d. Urethra e. Prostate

a. inguinal canal

In males, FSH secretion is kept from going too high by feedback from: a. inhibin b. activin c. LH d. testosterone

a. inhibin

Why does embryo death commonly occur about the time of implantation? a. insufficient progesterone to prepare uterus for implantation b. defects in the formation of placental membrane or trophoblast c. the embryo begins to use zygotic rather than maternal RNA d. defects in neural tube formation e. failure of somite and limb bud formation

a. insufficient progesterone to prepare uterus for implantation

What is the function of mTor (mammalian target of rapamycin) a. integrates intracellular nutrient availability with growth factor signaling b. inhibits MAPK stimulation of proliferation c. inhibits cyclin dependent kinase d. it is an early response gene e. it is a constitutively expressed gene

a. integrates intracellular nutrient availability with growth factor signaling

In any seasonally responsive livestock species, reproductive cycles occur as a result of the hormone _________________ causing changes in release of __________. a. Melatonin/GnRH and FSH/LH b. Progesterone / reduced melatonin c. Pineal / progesterone d. Seasonal / melatonin e. LH / melatonin

a. melatonin/GnRH and FSH/LH

Although the PSA test is often used to determine if someone has prostate cancer, interpreting the results can be complicated because: a. Most men with a positive PSA test do not have cancer b. Most men with a negative PSA test have cancer c. A prostate biopsy is required for a PSA test d. The PSA test can be dangerous in older men e. The PSA test cannot be used on young men

a. most men with a positive PSA test do not have cancer

For regulation of reproductive function, the ________ serves as the initial sensory system for all changes that occur in both the internal and external environments: a. Nervous system b. Ovaries and testes c. Pituitary d. Eyes and nose e. Pineal gland

a. nervous system

The primary reason hormones such as GnRH and LH are released in pulse patterns in blood is due to: a. neural cell control b. the cyclic nature of reproduction c. arterial dilation and venous constriction d. pheromonal stimulation e. none of the above

a. neural cell control

Bilateral cryptorchids have: a. Normal testosterone production but are infertile. b. Low testosterone production and are infertile. c. Normal testosterone production and are fertile d. Low testosterone production but are fertile. e. Only one descended testis.

a. normal testosterone production but are infertile

Considering gonadal differentiation, which is true? a. Paired bipotential gonads will either become testes or ovaries. b. Two sets of future gonads are present early in development and one set (i.e. future testes) will develop but the other set (i.e. future ovaries) will regress. c. Paired bipotential gonads become ovaries or testes just before birth. d. Two sets of future gonads are present early in development and one set (i.e. future testes) will develop but the other set (i.e. future ovaries) will regress just before birth.

a. paired bipotential gonads will either become testes or ovaries

In many livestock species, in the presence of high levels of both progesterone and estrogen, the reproductive tissues and hormone patterns are dominated by _____________. a. progesterone b. estrogen c. an LH surge d. high GnRH release e. all of the above

a. progesterone

The connective tissue and cartilage of the limbs arise from? a. Proliferation of lateral mesoderm b. Migration of cells from the somites c. Migration of Neural crest cells d. Epithelial-mesenchymal transformation of dorsal/ventral ectoderm e. Zone of polarizing activity (ZPA) f. None of the above

a. proliferation of lateral mesoderm

The primary method for shortening luteal lifespan is _______ from the ___________ a. prostaglandin release from the uterus b. LH release from the pituitary c. ACTH release from the fetal pituitary d. progesterone from the corpus luteum e. placental signal to mother

a. prostaglandin release from the uterus

Although there may be a variety of off-target affects, which of these drugs could be used to promote erection? a. Something that activates guanylate cyclase b. Something that activates phosphodiesterase 5 c. Something that blocks guanylate cyclase d. Something that blocks protein kinase G e. Something that blocks nitric oxide production

a. something that activates guanylate cyclase

Which of the following embryonic structures results from segmentation? a. Somite formation b. Neural tube closure c. Condensing limb cartilage models d. The notochord e. Lateral plate mesoderm

a. somite formation

Steroid hormones like testosterone bind primarily to receptors located on/in the: a. Target cell nucleus. b. Target cell mitochondria. c. Target cell plasma membrane d. Target cell extracellular matrix

a. target cell nucleus

An individual that is XXY has: a. Testes. b. Ovaries. c. Both testes and ovaries. d. No gonads.

a. testes

Bilateral cryptorchids appear masculine because a. testosterone production by the testes is not affected by body temperature b. the animals grow faster because of the higher than normal testosterone production c. they have one descended testis d. testosterone production is suppressed when testicular temperature is elevated e. the Leydig cells are damaged

a. testosterone production by the testes is not affected by body temperature

Scrotal circumference is sometimes measured in bulls to assess: a. The ability to produce large numbers of sperm b. The average liquid volume of semen c. Testicular temperature d. The ability to produce testosterone e. The ability to produce LH

a. the ability to produce large numbers of sperm

The source of melatonin is from __________ and is released ______________. a. the pineal / at night b. the hypothalamus / from the retina c. the ovary / at nighttime d. the uterus / at night e. the retina / int he day

a. the pineal / at night

An inguinal hernia occurs when a loop of the intestine drops through: a. The same canal through which the testes descend b. The gubernaculum c. The peritoneum d. The mesonephric duct e. The paramesonephric duct

a. the same canal through which the testes descend

If you observed a semen sample with many sperm with droplets on the tail, very near the head, it is most likely that a. there is a problem with epididymal maturation b. there is a problem in spermatogenesis c. the sperm were cold-shocked d. this is common and normal e. these sperm have developed hyperactivated motility and will be more fertile

a. there is a problem with epididymal maturation

In males, hormones produced by the hypothalamus move to the anterior pituitary: a. Through a specialized vascular system b. By specialized transport through nerve axons c. By a specialized diffusion through the tissues d. Through the lymph system

a. through a specialized vascular system

The blood-testis barrier in the seminiferous tubules is formed by _______ between the _______. a. Tight junctions, Sertoli cells b. Tight junctions, Leydig cells c. Cytoplasmic bridges, Sertoli cells d. Cytoplasmic bridges, Leydig cells e. Gap junctions, germ cells

a. tight junctions, Sertoli cells

Why do satellite cells divide and fuse to muscle fibers? a. to add DNA to existing fibers during normal muscle growth b. to cause a shift in metabolism from slow to fast fibers c. to form secondary muscle fibers in the fetus d. to create new muscle fibers after exercise

a. to add DNA to existing fibers during normal muscle growth

Which of the following is true about trabecular bone? a. trabecular bone is formed after chondrocyte apoptosis in the epiphyseal plate b. trabecular bone is the result of intramembranous ossification c. trabecular bone is not remodeled d. trabecular bone is not important for bone strength e. trabecular bone develops directly from chondroblasts

a. trabecular bone is formed after chondrocyte apoptosis in the epiphyseal plate

During embryo transfer in cattle, embryos should be deposited in the: a. Uterine horn b. Uterine body c. Cervix d. Vagina e. None of the above

a. uterine horn

The reason that Viagra was ineffective for high blood pressure and chest pain but was effective for erectile dysfunction is a. viagra is most active on a specific phosphodiesterase only found in the penis b. After ingestion, Viagra is transported only to the penis c. The more recent versions of Viagra were more pure and so only acted on penile tissue d. The first men who took Viagra in experimental trials had cases of high blood pressure and chest pain that were too severe for Viagra to be effective e. Viagra is active on most phosphodiesterases and these enzymes are found in the penis but not in other tissues

a. viagra is most active on a specific phosphodiesterase only found in the penis

Which of the following are different between epithelial and mesenchymal cells? a. Expression of cadherin and integrin b. Apical polarization c. Differentiation potential d. None of the above e. All of the above

all of the above

During spermatogenesis, a new stem cell starts to differentiate about every: a. 2 days b. 14 days c. 60 days d. 180 days e. year

b. 14 days

In most of our model species, once ovulation occurs, it will require ____ day(s) before a CL will be considered "formed" a. 1 b. 5 c. 14 d. 21 e. all of the above depending upon species

b. 5

The enzyme that converts testosterone to dihydrotestosterone is called: a. aromatase b. 5 alpha-reductase c. hyaluronidase d. hydrolase e. lyase

b. 5 alpha-reductase

In most species, from the time of ovulation, how long does it take for the corpus luteum to form and become functional for progesterone release into blood? a. 2 days b. 5 days c. 10 days d. 15 days e. 21 days

b. 5 days

Freemartinism in cattle is due to: a. AMH moving from the placenta of a female to a male b. AMH moving from the placenta of a male to a female c. A testis aberrantly migrating from a male to a female d. An ovary aberrantly migrating from a female to a male

b. AMH moving from the placenta of a male to a female

The fetal testes produce two hormones that cause the development of the male reproductive tract. They are ____ and ___. a. FSH, LH. b. AMH, Androgens. c. Testosterone, LH. d. Estrogen, FSH. e. AMH, estrogen

b. AMH, androgens

The oldest and most commonly used Assisted Reproductive Technology is: a. Embryo transfer b. Artificial insemination c. Intracytoplasmic sperm injection d. A and B e. A and C

b. Artificial insemination

A drug that activated phosphodiesterase 5 would: a. Decrease blood pressure. b. Block erection. c. Cause erections even in men that are completely paralyzed d. Increase the volume of blood the sinuses of the penis. e. C and D

b. Block erection

All steroid hormones are made from this starting substance: a. cAMP b. Cholesterol c. Protein kinase G d. cGMP e. Amino acids

b. Cholesterol

The Olympic sprinter, Ben Johnson, was suspected of taking anabolic steroids because the negative feedback from the steroids he took: a. Increased his production of testosterone b. Decreased his production of testosterone c. Increased his LH production d. Increased his GnRH production e. Decreased his inhibin production

b. Decreased his production of testosterone

Cells that are considered stem cells can do something unique. They can: a. Divide by meiosis for an unlimited time b. Divide to form a daughter cell that differentiates and another that is an undifferentiated stem cells c. Differentiate into many tissues d. Live for an indefinite period of time e. Undergo genetic recombination

b. Divide to form a daughter cell that differentiates and another that is an undifferentiated stem cells

Genetic recombination during gametogenesis occurs in females at the ______ stage and in males at the _______ stage: a. Adult, adult b. Fetal, adult c. Adult, puberty d. Puberty, adult e. Puberty, fetal

b. Fetal, adult

Where in the cell cycle is the restriction point that checks for adequate growth factors and nutrients? a. M b. G1 c. S d. G2 e. G0

b. G1

The normal sequence of hormone release in the male is: a. LH, GnRH, testosterone b. GnRH, LH, testosterone c. Testosterone, GnRH, LH d. GnRH, testosterone, LH e. LH, testosterone, GnRH

b. GnRH, LH, testosterone

The male accessory sex glands in most species are found ______________? a. Near the testes b. In the pelvic region c. Alongside the penis d. Alongside the vas deferens e. None of the above.

b. In the pelvic region

The major way in which the release FSH in males is suppressed is through the hormone ______________. a. testerone b. Inhibin c. GnRH d. Follistatin e. Activin

b. Inhibin

ABC Pharmaceuticals has just produced a new drug that is a cell permeable mimic of cGMP. What effect would you expect it to have on men with erectile dysfunction? a. It would inhibit erection by increasing the activity of phosphodiesterase 5 b. It would promote erection in nearly all men c. It would inhibit erection d. It would promote erection on a very small number of men e. It would not be effective at promoting erection

b. It would promote erection in nearly all men

The phenotype of an individual with XX sex chromosomes and an SRY gene translocated to one of these X chromosomes would be: a. Female b. Male c. Hermaphrodite

b. Male

Which is NOT a characteristic of a mature oocyte, ready to be fertilized? a. Expanded cumulus cells b. Nucleus in late Prophase I c. Nucleus in metaphase II d. Meiosis is arrested e. One polar body

b. Nucleus in late Prophase I

The direction in which primordial germ cells migrate is due to: a. Innate programming in the germ cells b. Production of Stem Cell Factor by the gonad c. The higher temperature of the embryonic gonad d. Repulsion from the hindgut in which the germ cells reside e. None of the above

b. Production of Stem Cell Factor by the gonad

The DNA from the sperm and the oocyte are formed into ______________ that fuse together at fertilization and compose the embryonic DNA. a. Polar bodies b. Pronuclei c. Residual bodies d. Morula e. Blastocysts

b. Pronuclei

At fertilization, the DNA from the oocyte that is eventually retained in the embryo is formed into a: a. Polar body b. Pronucleus c. Perivitellus d. Cortical granule e. Zona pellucida

b. Pronucleus

"Watchful Waiting" is frequently used as a recommendation for men with prostate cancer because: a. There are no treatments that are successful for prostate cancer. b. Prostate cancer is most common in older men and often these men will die of other causes before prostate cancer becomes serious. c. Prostate cancer is very difficult to monitor because there are no appropriate diagnostic tests. d. Prostate cancer will only affect the prostate gland, which is not necessary for fertility.

b. Prostate cancer is most common in older men and often these men will die of other causes before prostate cancer becomes serious

The materials present in round spermatids but not found in sperm are placed in a a. Polar body b. Residual body c. Pronucleus d. Spermatocyte e. Spermatogonia

b. Residual body

The testicular cells that have FSH receptors are the: a. Leydig cells. b. Sertoli cells. c. Interstitial cells. d. B and C. e. FSH only functions in females

b. Sertoli cells

Tight junctions between _______________ block _____________ from destroying male germ cells. a. Leydig cells, the nervous system b. Sertoli cells, the immune system c. Sertoli cells, the vascular system d. Leydig cells, the immune system

b. Sertoli cells, the immune system

When an adult animal is cloned, the DNA that is put into the host oocyte comes from: a. Oocytes from the animal to be cloned b. Somatic cells from the animal to be cloned c. Sperm from the animal to be cloned d. A and C

b. Somatic cells from the animal to be cloned

The last cell division (although it is an unusual division) in oogenesis is activated when: a. The oocyte reaches a specific size b. The fertilizing sperm fuses with the oocyte c. The oocyte differentiates d. At ovulation e. At meiotic arrest

b. The fertilizing sperm fuses with the oocyte

During oogenesis, female germ cells develop as a group. Nevertheless, what is the fate of most of these germ cells? a. They ovulate. b. They die off. c. They move to the center of the ovary d. They undergo nearly unlimited rounds of mitosis

b. They die off

During artificial insemination in cattle, semen should be deposited in the: a. Uterine horns b. Uterine body c. Cervix d. Vagina e. None of the above

b. Uterine body

Polyestrus is a term used to describe a. multiple females expressing synchronized estrus b. a female that cycles many times in a year c. a female that stands for a long duration of time d. a seasonal female e. none of the above

b. a female that cycles many times in a year

To clone an adult animal, one needs ______________ from the animal to be cloned. a. A sperm b. A somatic cell c. An oocyte d. A germ cell

b. a somatic cell

What is the function of E3 ubiquitin ligases in protein degradation? a. activating ubiquitin for conjugation with other proteins b. adding poly-ubiquitin in order to target proteins for degradation c. ligating (cutting) target proteins d. regulating protein uptake and degradation by the proteasome e. removing ubiquitin from poly-peptides after degradation

b. adding poly-ubiquitin in order to target proteins for degradation

During early brain development for male hormone release, testosterone is: a. prevented from entering the brain b. allowed to enter but is converted into estradiol c. not allowed d. not produced by fetal testes e. c and d only

b. allowed to enter but is converted to estradiol

All proteins hormones are made from this starting substance: a. cAMP b. amino acids c. Protein kinase G d. cGMP e. cholesterol

b. amino acids

What happens to growth hormone (GH) secretion in an animal on a restricted diet? a. basal level decreases b. amplitude and frequency of secretory pulses increases c. basal level increases d. amplitude and frequency of secretory pulses decreases

b. amplitude and frequency of secretory pulses increases

Which is the most commonly used Assisted Reproductive Technology? a. Embryo transfer b. Artificial insemination c. Sperm sexing d. In vitro fertilization

b. artificial insemination

During fertilization, if release of the cortical granules is blocked, the oocyte will: a. Not be activated by the fertilizing sperm b. Be fertilized by multiple sperm c. Not be affected d. Not resume meiosis e. Lose the zona pellucida prematurely

b. be fertilized by multiple sperm

Protein hormone receptors: a. Can directly regulate gene transcription b. Bind to cell surface receptors c. Penetrate through the target cell plasma membrane d. Are soluble in oil but not water e. Are non-specific, that is a single receptor binds any steroid hormone

b. bind to cell surface receptors

The very tough protective coat around oocytes is penetrated in ICSI: a. By sperm acrosomal enzymes b. By a small pipette c. By a small drill releasing acid d. By multiple sperm e. By infectious viruses

b. by a small pipette

Several waves of free _______________ move across oocytes at fertilization to trigger the completion of meiosis. a. cAMP b. calcium c. sodium d. magnesium e. cGMP

b. calcium

If you wanted to collect sperm that had many cytoplasmic droplets, from which part of the male tract would you collect sperm? a. urethra. b. Caput epididymis. c. Cauda epididymis. d. Seminal vesicles. e. Prostate

b. caput epididymus

The epididymis is sometimes divided into 3 parts. In which part are most mature sperm stored? a. caput b. cauda c. corpus d. dorsal e. ventral

b. cauda

What follows chondrocyte hypertrophy during growth of the epiphyseal plate? a. chondrocyte proliferation b. chondrocyte apoptosis c. osteoblast differntiation d. osteocyte proliferation e. vascular growth

b. chondrocyte apoptosis

Blood entering the testes of mammals with external testes is: a. Cooled by venous blood that was first cooled evaporatively in the lungs b. Cooled by venous blood coming from the testes. c. Used to cool the venous blood leaving the testes. d. Is first cooled by passing through the lungs.

b. cooled by venous blood coming from the testes

Why can synthetic steroids and testosterone have very different effects in muscle and reproductive tissues? a. differences in testosterone receptors between tissues b. differences in steroid-converting enzyme activity between tissues c. different in lipid metabolism between tissues d. differences in estrogen receptors between tissues

b. differences in steroid-converting enzyme activity between tissues

How does a primary, multinucleated skeletal muscle fiber form? a. nuclear replication in myotubes without cell division b. differentiation and fusion of mononucleated myoblasts c. condensation and differentiation of mesenchymal precursors d. asymmetric satellite cell division and fusion

b. differentiation and fusion of mononucleated myoblasts

One way to treat prostate cancer is to deprive the cancer of the hormone, ______________. a. FSH b. Dihydrotestosterone (DHT) c. Estradiol d. Prostaglandin F2 alpha e. LH

b. dihydrotestosterone (DHT)

The mesonephric duct that drains the embryonic mesonephros becomes the ______ in adults. a. oviduct b. epididymis c. uterus d. testis e. seminal vesicles

b. epididymus

MAPK signaling results in phosphorylation of Rb protein. Rb normally inhibits transcription of cyclins. What could be the result of a mutation in Rb protein? a. excess hypertophy b. excess proliferation c. excess apoptosis d. delayed entry into M e. delayed exit into G0

b. excess proliferation

The levels of sexual development and differentiation can be subdivided best into: a. Genetic, hormonal and phenotypic sex b. Genetic, gonadal and phenotypic sex c. Gonadal, phenotypic and functional sex d. Gonadal and genetic sex e. Gonadal, genetic and endocrine sex

b. genetic, gonadal, and phenotypic sex

What is the result of increasing hormone receptor number? a. same response at a lower hormone concentration b. greater response at the same hormone concentration c. both of the above d. neither of the above

b. greater response at the same hormone concentration

Boys that lack 5 alpha-reductase: a. Have a deeper voice. b. Have female external genitalia. c. Have no abnormalities. d. Do not produce testosterone. e. Do not have testes.

b. have female external genitalia

Why does increasing the percent of adipose tissue make animals less efficient? a. reduced spontaneous activity b. high energy content of the tissue c. relative cost of protein synthesis d. increased metabolic rate e. increased energetic cost of lipid synthesis

b. high energy content of the tissue

Which of the following is a major effect of thyroid hormone? a. decreased oxidative metabolism b. increased oxidative metabolism c. increased testosterone sensitivity d. increased leptin sensitivity e. decreased IGF activity

b. increased oxidative metabolism

Which of the following is an important function of the insulin-like growth factors (IGFs)? a. increase glucose uptake into cells b. increased proliferation of most cells c. increased mutation in dividing cells d. increased metabolic rate e. increased apoptosis of most cells

b. increased proliferation of most cells

Which of the following is a primary effect of growth hormone (GH)? a. increasing glucose oxidation b. increase lipid oxidation c. increasing testosterone sensitivity d. increasing protein synthesis

b. increasing lipid oxidation

The reason FSH declines in the follicular phase is due to: a. GnRH b. inhibin feedback c. progesterone decline d. all of the above e. a and c only

b. inhibin feedback

Viagra acts to promote an erection by: a. Activating an enzyme that synthesizes cGMP. b. Inhibiting an enzyme that degrades cGMP. c. Activating an enzyme that synthesizes NO. d. Inhibiting an enzyme that synthesizes GTP. e. Inhibiting an enzyme that synthesizes ATP.

b. inhibiting an enzyme that degrades cGMP

If sperm have defective acrosomes, for fertilization to occur, sperm can be a. capacitated b. injected into the oocyte c. incubated with oocytes during in vitro fertilization d. hyperactivated

b. injected into the oocyte

Which hormone is the major regulator of overall animal growth? a. leptin b. insulin like growth factor c. insulin d. growth hormone e. thyroid hormone

b. insulin like growth factor

If a 60-year-old man took testosterone to try to prevent loss of muscle, how would that affect his hormone profile? a. It would increase his own LH production b. It would decrease his own LH production c. It would increase his own inhibin production d. It would increase his own GnRH production e. It would increase his own FSH production

b. it would decrease his own LH production

What is a major determinant of muscle size in adults? a. The number of secondary fibers formed in the fetus b. Levels of IGF relative to myostatin c. The number of satellite cells per fiber d. All of the above e. None of the above

b. levels of IGF relative to myostatin

Sperm are produced as male germ cells differentiate in the ____________. a. Seminal vesicles b. lining of the seminiferous tubule c. Rete tubules d. Efferent ducts e. Epididymis

b. lining of the seminiferous tubule

Body builders taking anabolic steroids that have androgen activity usually also have: a. High endogenous LH production b. Low endogenous production of testosterone c. Increased his LH production d. Increased his GnRH production e. Decreased his inhibin production

b. low endogenous production of testosterone

A major difference between the hypothalamus and pituitary of males compared to females is: a. Males do not produce FSH and LH b. Males do not have a surge center c. Males do not produce GnRH d. Males do not produce estradiol e. In males, the pituitary is not connected to the hypothalamus

b. males do not have a surge center

In both spermatogenesis and oogenesis, the last cell division is: a. Mitosis. b. Meiosis. c. Is only completed at fertilization. d. Is started in the fetal stage

b. meiosis

The acrosome starts to form just after male germ cells have completed: a. mitosis b. meiosis c. spermiation d. stem cell division e. capacitation

b. meiosis

There are 3 primary germ layers in early embryos. Most of the reproductive system that we discuss is derived from ______. a. ectoderm b. mesoderm c. endoderm. d. protoplasm. e. neuroderm

b. mesoderm

What is the relationship of size to metabolic rate of an animal? a. metabolic rate is proportional to adipose mass b. metabolic rate is proportional weight to the 2/3 power c. metabolic rate is proportional to length (height) to the 2/3 power d. metabolic rate is proportional to metabolic energy intake e. metabolic rate is proportional to cell number

b. metabolic rate is proportional to weight to the 2/3 power

Myoblasts forming skeletal muscle arise from which process? a. migration of cells from the neural tube b. migration of cells from the somites c. proliferation of mesodermal cells beneath the epithelium d. epithelial-mesenchymal transformation of limb ectoderm e. none of the above

b. migration of cells from the somites

The 3 parts of spermatogenesis are, in order: a. Meiosis, stem cell proliferation, differentiation b. Mitosis, meiosis, differentiation c. Differentiation, mitosis, meiosis d. Meiosis, differentiation, stem cell proliferation

b. mitosis, meiosis, differentiation

When performing embryo transfer in cattle, usually flushing embryos occurs about a week after insemination and, if they have developed normally, _________ are collected. a. 4-8 cell embryos b. morula and blastocysts c. 8 cell and morula d. 8 cell and blastocysts

b. morula and blastocysts

In monotocous species, such as cattle and horses, twinning most commonly occurs by: a. a single egg that splits b. multiple eggs that ovulate c. blastomeres that escape to form new embryos d. spontaneous blastocyst splitting e. two sperm fertilizing one egg

b. multiple eggs that ovulate

Receptors for protein hormones are found: a. In the cell cytosol b. On the plasma membrane c. In the nucleus d. Soluble in the bloodstream e. All of the above

b. on the plasma membrane

In both males and females, stem cell division yields: a. Two daughter cells that are the same as the parent b. One daughter cells that differentiates and a second that is the same as the parent c. Two daughter cells that begin differentiation d. Two daughter cells that immediately begin meiosis e. Four daughter cells that immediately begin meiosis

b. one daughter cell that differentiates and a second that is the same as the parent

Individuals that have XY sex chromosomes and have a mutation that makes Sry inactive have: a. testes b. ovaries c. both testes and ovaries d. neither testes nor ovaries

b. ovaries

Prior to fertilization, sperm complete capacitation in the: a. vagina b. oviduct c. uterus d. cervix

b. oviduct

Oxytocin is ________________ a that is released from the ____________. a. Peptide / uterus b. Peptide / posterior pituitary c. Steroid / Posterior pituitary d. Glycoprotein / Hypothalamus e. Steroid / Anterior pituitary

b. peptide / posterior pituitary

In several species, as pregnancy progresses, to maintain the pregnancy, the __________ may take over _____________ production. a. fetal ovary / progesterone b. placenta / progesterone c. corpus luteum / LH d. placenta / prostaglandin e. fetus / oxytocin

b. placenta / progesterone

As oocytes undergo meiotic divisions, they divide unequally. Half of the DNA is placed into a: a. Pronucleus b. Polar body c. Residual body d. Zona pellucida e. Cortical granule

b. polar body

During spermatogenesis, stem cell renewal occurs in part of the ________ stage. a. Meiosis b. Proliferation c. Differentiation d. Spermiogenesis

b. proliferation

During embryonic development, most organs and tissues are growing primarily by which process? a. cell hypertophy b. proliferation or hyperplasia c. apoptosis d. accumulation of extracellular matrix e. all of the above

b. proliferation or cell hyperplasia

During fetal development, most organs and tissues are growing primarily by which process? a. cell hypertophy b. proliferation or hyperplasia c. apoptosis d. accumulation of extracellular matrix e. all of the above

b. proliferation or hyperplasia

When freezing cells, it is important to use a penetrating cryoprotective which can a. coat and stabilize the plasma membrane b. reduce ice formation c. speed up the cooling rate d. allow cells to be thawed quickly e. make it easier to package semen in a straw

b. reduce ice formation

The retractor penis muscle will _______ when a male becomes aroused. a. Contract b. relax c. not change d. enlarge in diameter e. become engorged with blood

b. relax

The pituitary gland has anterior and posterior lobes that are derived from tissues with different embryologic origin. The part of the pituitary that responds to releasing hormones from the hypothalamus is derived from the ________. a. Floor of the brain. b. Roof of the mouth. c. Infundibulum. d. Embryonic eye. e. Embryonic ear.

b. roof of the mouth

The ___________ are somatic cells inside the seminiferous tubule that help germ cells develop into sperm. a. Leydig cells b. Sertoli cells c. Spermatogonia d. Peritubular cells e. Lymph cells

b. sertoli cells

The cells in the seminiferous tubule that act as nurse cells for the developing germ cells are the _______. a. Spermatogonia b. Sertoli cells c. Leydig cells d. Spermatids e. Spermatocytes.

b. sertoli cells

Which of the following tissues has the greatest relative growth from birth to maturity? a. axial skeleton b. skeletal muscle c. liver d. skin e. small intestine

b. skeletal muscle

Cumulus cells synthesis a sticky sugar-based substance that is deposited between them as the oocyte matures. How do sperm pass through this? a. Sperm motility forces them through the sugar b. Sperm have an enzyme that degrades the sticky sugar c. The sugar breaks down after the oocyte is activated at fertilization d. The beating of the sperm tail pushes the cells and sticky sugar off the oocyte

b. sperm have an enzyme that degrades the sticky sugar

Individuals that have XX sex chromosomes and have a translocation in which Sry has moved to one of the X chromosomes have: a. ovaries b. testes c. both testes and ovaries d. neither testes nor ovaries

b. testes

The Sry gene is turned on and is used to synthesize protein in the ___________. a. ovaries b. testes c. anterior pituitary d. prostate e. seminal vesicles

b. testes

Which androgens are the most potent in males: a. Testosterone and androstenedione b. Testosterone and dihydrotestosterone c. Dihydrotestosterone and estradiol d. Dihydrotesterone and cholesterol e. Testosterone and estradiol

b. testosterone and dihydrotestosterone

Oocytes arrested in late Prophase I of meiosis are brought out of arrest by: a. Retinoic acid b. The LH surge c. The FSH surge d. Formation of an antrum in the surrounding follicle

b. the LH surge

In order for pregnancy to be recognized in most of our model species, what must occur? a. the myometrium must contract b. the embryo must contact or signal the uterus c. the uterus must communicate with the hypothalamus by feedback d. the uterine drainage of prostaglandin must allow transfer to the ovarian artery by countercurrent exchange e. all of the above

b. the embryo must contact or signal the uterus

Testosterone and dihydrotestosterone are important for formation of the male tract in the early embryo. What produces these hormones? a. The embryonic ovary b. The embryonic testis c. The metanephros d. The posterior pituitary e. The SRY gene

b. the embryonic testis

The major reason that in oogenesis, 1 primary oocytes produces 1 ovum but in spermatogenesis, 1 primary spermatocyte produces 4 spermatids is that: a. Stem cell proliferation occurs for a longer period in females b. The ovum needs all the materials in the original primary oocyte to form a warehouse of material for the early embryo c. Stem cell proliferation occurs for a longer period in males d. Forming the large polar bodies requires many materials from the primary oocyte e. Forming the large pronuclei requires many materials from the primary oocyte

b. the ovum needs all the materials in the original primary oocyte to form a warehouse of material for the early embryo

The pituitary gland has anterior and posterior lobes that are derived from tissues with different embryologic origin. The part of the pituitary that is derived from the floor of the brain is ________. a. The anterior pituitary b. The posterior pituitary. c. The infundibulum. d. Rathke's pouch. e. The ventricle.

b. the posterior pituitary

Most often, which sperm are the ones that fertilize oocytes? a. The very first sperm arriving in the oviduct b. The sperm arriving later in the oviduct c. The sperm that have abundant cholesterol in their plasma membrane d. The sperm that are covered with coating proteins

b. the sperm arriving later in the oviduct

Germ cell development in the testis is synchronized tightly due to cytoplasmic bridges. How do these bridges accomplish this? a. Hold germ cells together as they move through the seminiferous epithelium b. They allow organelles, RNA, proteins, and ions to move freely from one cell to another c. They keep Sertoli cells attached to the base of the tubule d. They produce testosterone that is necessary for spermatogenesis e. They have internal clocks that are exquisitely timed.

b. they allow organelles, RNA, proteins, and ions to move freely from one cell to another

For sperm to penetrate the tough zona pellucida, they need: a. To be motile and have an intact acrosome b. To have hyperactivated motility and have just acrosome reacted c. To be captured by the oocyte microvilli d. To have hyperactivated motility and an intact acrosome

b. to have hyperactivated motility and have just acrosome reacted

During normal cryopreservation, if cells are cooled and put into liquid nitrogen too fast __________. a. The toxic high glycerol concentrations kill the cells b. Too many ice crystals form inside cells c. The toxic high salt concentrations kill the cells d. the cells can recover if they are thawed quickly e. none of the above

b. too many ice crystals form inside cells

If you were to treat unfertilized oocytes with Ovastacin and then perform in vitro fertilization, what would you expect to happen? a. the oocyte would be polyspermic (fertilized by many sperm) b. very few oocytes would be fertilized c. the oocytes would be fertilized and develop normally d. the zona pellucida would dissolve e. the oocytes would complete meiosis

b. very few oocytes would be fertilized

On the USDA nutrition facts labels required for human foods, percent daily values are based on a _____ calorie diet? a. 1000 b. 1500 c. 2000 d. 2500

c. 2000

The gestation length of a rat is approximately a. 5 days b. 7 days c. 21 days d. 43 days e. 60 days

c. 21 days

At the completion of spermatogenesis, one primary spermatocyte will form _____ sperm. a. 1. b. 2. c. 4. d. 8. e. 16.

c. 4.

In the sperm axoneme, the 9 + 2 arrangement refers to: a. 9 pairs of mitochondria around a central pair b. 9 pairs of sperm tails arranged into 2 groups of sperm c. 9 pairs of microtubules around a central pair d. A structure that extends from the tail into the acrosome e. Strange math

c. 9 pairs of microtubules around a central pair

Before sexual differentiation, embryos have: a. A pair of testes and a pair of ovaries. b. No gonads. c. A pair of gonads that can form either testes or ovaries. d. Embryonic kidneys that will differentiate into either a pair of testes or ovaries.

c. A pair of gonads that can form either testes or ovaries

Sperm can be sorted into those that have an X chromosome and those that have a Y by separating sperm based on: a. Sperm swimming speed b. Sperm size c. Amount of fluorescence after staining sperm d. Sperm weight

c. Amount of fluorescence after staining sperm

At what age do women have the most oocytes during their lifetime? a. As an adult. b. At menopause. c. As a fetus d. At birth. e. At puberty

c. As a fetus

The hormone used to induce development of multiple follicles prior to embryo transfer is: a. LH b. PGF2-alpha c. FSH d. GnRH e. Estradiol

c. FSH

In females from most species, part of each of the two paramesonephric ducts (Mullerian ducts) will fuse and: a. Degenerate b. Form primordial germ cells c. Form the uterus d. Form the ovary e. Form the vagina

c. Form the uterus

An effective penetrating cryoprotective for freezing cells must: a. Not be even minimally toxic to cells b. Not affect ice crystal formation c. Have a very low freezing point d. Coat the plasma membrane

c. Have a very low freezing point

During spermatogenesis, stem cell renewal occurs only when the male: a. Is a fetus b. Goes through puberty c. Is an adult d. Is born

c. Is an adult

Freemartinism: a. Is caused by placental fusion allowing AMH produced by the female fetus to cause developmental abnormalities in the male b. Occasionally causes infertility in the female fetus of mixed twins (male and female) c. Is caused by placental fusion between twin fetuses of a male and female d. Occasionally causes infertility in the male fetus of mixed twins (male and female) e. Is rare in sets of mixed twins in cattle

c. Is caused by placental fusion between twin fetuses of a male and female

An oocyte that was in the long meiotic arrest resumes meiosis at ovulation in response to: a. FSH b. GDF-9 from the cumulus cells c. LH d. estrogen e. testosterone

c. LH

Regarding the most frequent causes of human fertility, which is true? a. Males are most often the cause of infertility. b. Females are most often the cause of infertility. c. Males are the cause of infertility in couples as often as are females.

c. Males are the cause of infertility in couples as often as are females

The caput and corpus epididymis ________ sperm and the cauda epididymis _________ sperm: a. Stores, matures. b. Matures, concentrates. c. Matures, stores. d. Stores, activates motility of

c. Matures, stores

To allow sperm to fertilize oocytes, the cumulus cells must be mature. You can observe this maturation by: a. Noticing the increase in cumulus cell number b. Noticing the change in shape of the individual cumulus cells c. Noticing the increase in size of the cumulus d. Noticing the high ciliary beating of the cumulus cells

c. Noticing the increase in size of the cumulus

Which of the following intracellular signaling pathways is important for regulating cell size? a. MAP kinase b. cyclin dependent kinase c. PI-3 kinase d. DNA methylation e. P53 transcription

c. PI-3 kinase

Benign Prostatic Hypertrophy is sometimes treated with an inhibitor of 5-alpha reductase because: a. This enzyme inhibits the spread of the cancer b. This reduces blood flow to the prostate c. The size of the prostate depends on dihydrotestosterone d. It causes a degradation of cGMP e. It acts to reduce the activity of phosphodiesterases

c. The size of the prostate depends on dihydrotestosterone

How many cell divisions occur during the meiosis phase of spermatogenesis? a. None b. One c. Two d. Three e. Four

c. Two

A characteristic that distinguished germ cells from somatic cells is that germ cells: a. Undergo mitosis. b. Never undergo cell death. c. Undergo meiosis. d. Do not differentiate into mature cells.

c. Undergo meiosis

What is the metabolic consequence of the increase in adipocyte size as an animal grows? a. an increase in lipid oxidation b. a decrease in preadipocyte proliferation c. a decrease in insulin sensitivity d. an increase in estrogen sensitivity

c. a decrease in insulin sensitivity

The major reason that fertility is lower with a dose of sexed semen compared to conventional semen is: a. Females mount an immune response against sperm stained with this dye b. X bearing sperm have lower fertility than Y bearing sperm c. A dose of sexed semen has about 1/10 the number of sperm in a straw d. Separating sperm through the flow cytometer damages sperm e. The dye used to stain sperm is mutagenic and lowers fertility

c. a dose of sexed semen has about 1/10 the number of sperm in a straw

In an induced ovulator, ovulation occurs as a direct result of the stimulation of the cervix because: a. neuron firing from direct connection to ovary b. LH released directly from cervix c. a neural signal travels through the spine to induce release of GnRH d. counter current exchange from cervix and ovary e. A and B only

c. a neural signal travels through the spine to induce release of GnRH

Which of the following control growth hormone secretion? a. Leptin b. IGF c. Amino acids d. All of the above e. None of the above

c. amino acids

An unusual species has a mutation in Hox gene pattern. Hox A9 and A10 have been replaced by duplications of Hox D11 and D12 (usually more 5' paralogs). How would you expect the structure of this animal to appear? a. Deletion of limbs b. Both limbs more similar to forelimbs c. Both limbs more similar to hindlimbs d. Addition of limbs e. None of the above

c. both limbs are more similar to hindlimbs

Which growth factors are made and secreted by adipose cells? a. leptin b. IGF-1 c. both of the above d. neither of the above

c. both of the above

Which of the following tissues are derived from the ectoderm? a. liver, pancreas, thyroid b. cartilage, bone, muscle c. brain, nerves d. stomach, small intestine, large intestine

c. brain, nerves

A drug that activated guanylate cyclase would: a. Block erection. b. Increase blood pressure. c. Cause erections even in men that are completely paralyzed d. Reduce the volume of blood the sinuses of the penis. e. C and D

c. cause erections even in men that are completely paralyzed

In a pig, the site of semen ejaculation in the female reproductive tract with natural service is in the a. vagina b. vestibule c. cervix d. uterus e. all of the above

c. cervix

The primary source of mucus in most species at estrus and during parturition is the a. vulva b. vagina c. cervix d. uterus e. ovary

c. cervix

Placentation in livestock is a process that involves attachment of ________ to __________. a. endometrium and amnion b. capillaries and chorion c. chorion and endometrium d. amnion and chorion e. fetus and amnion

c. chorion and endometrium

The type of placentation in the co where the villi attach in sites is called a. zonary b. caruncular c. cotyledonary d. discoid e. diffuse

c. cotyledonary

The female(s) that will show large follicle development during both the luteal and follicular phase is the a. sow b. woman c. cow d. rat e. all of the above

c. cow

In a seasonally polyestrus animal, the female would : a. Show estrus only once in one season in a year b. A cycle in two seasons with estrus several times in a season c. cycle many times within one season of the year d. not ovulate until mated in a single season of the year e. ovulate in one season and express estrus in another season of the year

c. cycle many times within one season of the year

An example of negative feedback, treating a female with progesterone would do what? a. increase inhibin production b. decrease estrogen release c. decrease LH pulses d. a and b only e. all of the above

c. decrease LH pulses

In an example of negative feeback, treating a female with progesterone would do what? a. increase inhibin production b. decrease estrogen release c. decrease LH pulses d. A and B only e. all of the above

c. decrease LH pulses

How does leptin regulate body weight? a. decreases food intake b. increases food intake c. decreases food intake and increases adaptive thermogenesis d. increases food intake and decreases adaptive thermogenesis

c. decreases food intake and increases adaptive thermogenesis

Which of the following would best describe the relationship of increasing follicle size int he follicle phase with changes in numbers of FSH [1] and LH [2] receptors on these follicles? a. increasing / constant b. decreasing / decreasing c. decreasing / increasing d. increasing / decreasing e. constant / decreasing

c. decreasing / increasing

Phenotypic differences between twin calves would result from which of the following? a. difference in genotype b. differences in maternal imprinting c. differences in epigenetic processes during development d. normal variation in regulatory pathways e. differences in allometric relationships

c. differences in epigenetic processes during development

Before sexual differentiation, embryos have: a. Ducts that can form the male reproductive system. b. Ducts that can form the female reproductive system. c. Ducts that can form the male and the female reproductive system. d. No ducts that are retained in the adult reproductive system

c. ducts that can form the male and the female reproductive system

In most species recognition of pregnancy first occurs as a direct result of: a. uterine signals to the embryo to stop moving b. embryo hormone signals to the mother's hypothalamus/pituitary c. embryo signals that act to promote ovary progesterone production or change uterus release of prostaglandin d. all of the above e. A and B only

c. embryo signals that act to promote ovary progesterone production or change uterus release of prostaglandin

Why does extra GH in young animals increase height while GH in older animals does not? a. Level of sex hormones in older animals b. Decreased cell proliferation in older animals c. Epiphyseal plate ossification d. All of the above e. None of the above

c. epiphyseal plate ossification

The innermost cell layer of the follicle that converts androgen into estrogen is called: a. mucosa b. antrum c. granulosa d. theca e. primary

c. granulosa

Which of the following are mechanisms for the epigenetic variation between individuals? a. copy number variants (CNVs) b. single nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs) c. histone methylation d. histone ubiquitination

c. histone methylation

During fetal development, tissues are growing in size by? a. hypertrophy b. differentiation c. hyperplasia d. apoptosis e. accumulation of extracellular matrix

c. hyperplasia

Why does the vulva swell and follicles become large in response to estrogen secreted when approaching estrus? a. increased cell size b. relaxation of connective tissues c. increase arterial flow and reduced venous drainage d. storage of estrogen molecules with carriers e. all of the above

c. increase arterial flow and reduced venous drainage

A patient is producing sperm that lack acrosomes. What technology is his best option for having biological children? a. In vitro fertilization b. Artificial insemination c. Intracytoplasmic sperm injection d. None of the above

c. intracytoplasmic sperm injection

As sperm move through he caput and corpus epididymis, they become ________ and _________. a. motile, dilute. b. fertile, dilute. c. mature, a droplet moves away from the head. d. motile, a droplet moves toward the head. e. mature, dilute

c. mature, a droplet moves away from the head

In the fetal stage, germ cells in the ovary are arrested in __________ and germ cells in the testis are arrested in _________. a. Meiosis, meiosis b. Mitosis, mitosis c. Meiosis, mitosis d. Mitosis, meiosis e. Meiosis, late prophase I

c. meiosis, mitosis

In women, the term given as the end of reproductive cycles is: a. anestrus b. senescence c. menopause d. diestrus e. atresia

c. menopause

Which of the following cell types forms the primitive streak? a. ectodermal cells b. blastocyst cells c. mesoderm cells d. trophoblastic cells e. endodermal cells

c. mesoderm cells

Which of the following are mechanisms for epigenetic changes in the genome? a. deleted or non-coding RNA b. single nucleotide polymorphisms (SNP) in DNA or gene copy number variants c. methylation of DNA or methylation of histone proteins d. phosphorylation of hormone involved in signal transduction e. cell cycle checkpoint family proteins

c. methylation of DNA or methylation of histone proteins

In both males and females, primordial germ cells must ________ and _______ before invading the gonad. a. Begin meiosis, migrate b. Undergo mitosis, meiosis c. migrate, undergo mitosis d. complete mitosis, meiosis e. complete meiosis, mitosis

c. migrate, undergo mitosis

In males and females, the first part of gametogenesis is: a. Meiosis. b. Cell differentiation. c. Mitosis and cell migration

c. mitosis and cell migration

The PSA test is somewhat controversial because it leads to many prostate biopsies, which are expensive and can cause nerve damage. Why does its use lead to many unnecessary biopsies? a. Most men with cancer do not have high PSA tests b. The PSA test is difficult to interpret c. Most men with high PSA tests do not have cancer d. It is very difficult to obtain samples for the PSA test and sampling can cause nerve damage. e. The PSA test only detects early stage cancers.

c. most men with high PSA tests do not have cancer

The innermost layer of tissue in the female reproductive tract that is continuous from the oviduct to the vagina is called the: a. serosa b. muscularis c. mucosa d. cortex e. medulla

c. mucosa

Spontaneous ovulators initiate the process of ovulation by _________ while induced ovulators initiate ovulation by _________. a. positive feedback / negative feedback b. neural reflex / cervical reflex c. positive feedback / cervical reflex d. pheromonal reflex / positive feedback e. none of the above

c. positive feedback / cervical reflex

The process of spontaneous ovulation will begin in response to which of the following a. stimulation of the vagina and cervix b. negative feedback of progesterone c. positive feedback of estrogen d. the presence of a large follicle e. mounting

c. positive feedback of estrogen

Following the ovulatory hormone surge, large follicles produce predominantly _________. a. estrogen b. androgen c. progesterone d. prostaglandin e. no hormone

c. progesterone

The key principle of cycle synchronization involves control of appearance and disappearance of ______ in blood. a. estrogen b. melatonin estrogen c. progesterone d. prostaglandin d. GnRH

c. progesterone

Cells forming the cartilage models for bone in the limbs arise from which process? a. migration of cells from the neural tube b. migration of cells from the somites c. proliferation of mesodermal cells beneath the epithelium d. epithelial-mesenchymal transformation of limb ectoderm e. none of the above

c. proliferation of mesodermal cells beneath the epithelium

For females of the following species, which do NOT show a 21 day cycle? a. pig b. horse c. rat d. cow e. C and D only

c. rat

Why does fast growth make animals more efficient? a. reduced metabolic rate b. reduced spontaneous activity c. reduced maintenance energy requirements d. reduced thermogenesis from resulting from extra food intake e. reduced energy required for growth

c. reduced maintenance energy requirements

In the time approaching birth, the expansion of the birth canal pelvic ligaments dilation of the cervix is due to: a. fetal ACTH b. progesterone c. relaxin d. prostaglandin e. oxytocin

c. relaxin

The normal movement of the sperm tail is generated by: a. the midpiece sliding across the terminal piece b. dynein arms of the acrosome c. sliding of pairs of microtubules across other pairs d. hyperactivated motility e. compartmentalization between the head and tail

c. sliding of pairs of microtubules across other pairs

Polytocous refers to a. species that have one vagina and cervix b. species having one offspring per pregnancy c. species having more than one offspring per pregnancy d. species having multiple pregnancies each year e. species that have multiple estrus periods a year

c. species having more than one offspring per pregnancy

Which layers of epithelial cells int he skin exhibits asymmetric division? a. cornified layer b. granular layer c. spinous layer d. basal layer e. basement membrane

c. spinous layer

The major reason that males of most mammals can produce billions of sperm through their adult lives and females produce a much smaller number of oocytes is that: a. Stem cell proliferation occurs for a longer period in females b. Meiosis in males yields includes many more cell divisions than in females c. Stem cell proliferation in females ends prior to birth but in males, occurs for their adult life. d. Forming the large polar bodies requires many materials from the primary oocyte e. Sperm are highly specialized and differentiated cells

c. stem cell proliferation in females ends prior too birth but in males, occurs for their adult life

Individuals with XX sex chromosomes that have SRY translocated onto one of the X chromosomes would be expected to have _____. a. No gonads b. ovaries c. testes d. both testes and ovaries e. one testis and one ovary

c. testes

Testosterone concentrations are highest in the: a. Adrenal gland b. Anterior pituitary c. Testis d. Hypothalamus e. Bloodstream

c. testis

Leydig cells produce _______ and are found in the ________. a. LH, interstitial compartment b. FSH, tubular compartment c. Testosterone, interstitial compartment d. Testosterone, adluminal compartment e. LH, adluminal compartment

c. testosterone, interstitial compartment

The major portion of the fluid in semen is produced by: a. The testes b. The rete testis c. The accessory sex glands d. The urethra e. The ampulla.

c. the accessory sex glands

Benign Prostatic Hypertrophy often causes pain at urination because: a. The prostate is near a group of nerves b. Prostatic tissue is heavily innervated c. The prostate surrounds the urethra d. It is usually a strong indication of developing prostate cancer e. Cancerous cells invade the entire male reproductive tract

c. the prostate surrounds the urethra

What is the primary determinant of muscle contraction speed in adults? a. the number of satellite cells per fiber b. predominant exercise during hypertrophy c. the ratio of primary to secondary fivers formed in the fetus d. none of the above

c. the ratio of primary to secondary fibers formed in the fetus

Sperm that have an X chromosome can be collected from a semen sample because: a. They swim faster than Y-bearing sperm b. They are noticeably larger than Y bearing sperm c. They have more DNA than Y bearing sperm d. They swim slower than Y bearing sperm e. They have less DNA than Y bearing sperm

c. they have more DNA than Y bearing sperm

Spermatogenesis occurs in the __________ compartment of the seminiferous tubule. a. adluminal b. basal c. tubular d. interstitial e. inguinal

c. tubular

When performing embryo transfer in cattle, usually flushing embryos occurs about a week after insemination because the _________ is flushed. a. oviduct b. cervix c. uterus d. vagina e. entire reproductive tract

c. uterus

In early embryo development, hatching refers to a. ovulation b. embryo implantation c. zona breakdown d. formation of blastocoel cavity e. C and D only

c. zona breakdown

Selection of a dominant follicle for ovulation in women occurs at a. menstruation b. after ovulation c. the day before ovulation d. 5 days before ovulation e. no dominant follicle in women

d. 5 days before ovulation

In a group of randomly cycling cows with normal cycle length, what percent of the cows might be expected to express estrus within a 10 day observation period? a. 10% b. 21% c. 25% d. 50% e. 100%

d. 50%

Using intracytoplasmic sperm injection, offspring can be produced using sperm that: a. Lack acrosomes b. Are immotile c. Lack DNA d. A and B e. All of the above

d. A and B

Despite its problems, the PSA test is still used often because: a. Of the low rate of false negatives. b. All men with elevated PSA have cancer. c. PSA can be detected in the blood d. A and C e. B and C

d. A and C

Protein hormones: a. Bind to receptors on the plasma membrane b. Can penetrate through the plasma membrane and bind to intracellular receptors that act directly as transcription factors c. Are water soluble d. A and C e. B and C

d. A and C

In addition to damage by ice crystals, when sperm are frozen, they are damaged by: a. High salt concentrations b. Glycerol c. A change in temperature d. All of the above e. None of the above

d. All of the above

GnRH is carried by blood vessels directly (first) to the _______________________. a. Posterior pituitary b. Optic chiasm c. Entire body d. Anterior pituitary

d. Anterior pituitary

In the follicle phase of the estrous cycle, which structure(s) would be expected? a. corpus luteum b. medium sized follicles c. large follicle d. B and C only e. all of the above

d. B and C only

Oocytes that lacked the cortical granule enzyme ovastacin, when incubated with sperm: a. Did not mature b. Died before fertilization c. Were not fertilized d. Became polyspermic

d. Became polyspermic

Sertoli cells have receptors for __________ and produce ______________. a. FSH, testosterone b. LH, testosterone c. LH, inhibin d. FSH, inhibin e. FSH, GnRH

d. FSH, inhibin

Stem cell proliferation during gametogenesis occurs in females at the ______ stage and in males at the _______ stage: a. Adult, puberty b. Puberty, adult c. Adult, fetal d. Fetal, adult e. Puberty, fetal

d. Fetal, adult

Steroid hormones are oily and bind to receptors: a. On the cell plasma membrane that activate G proteins and adenylate cyclase b. In the nucleus that activate adenylate cyclase c. On the cell plasma membrane that are transcription factors d. In the nucleus that are transcription factors e. That shuttle between the plasma membrane and the nucleus

d. In the nucleus that are transcription factors

What is the typical therapy for a patient who wants to have biological children but produces sperm without any acrosomes? a. Artificial insemination b. In vitro fertilization c. Intrauterine insemination d. Intracytoplasmic sperm injection

d. Intracytoplasmic sperm injection

A struggling pharmaceutical company has just produced a new drug that is a cell permeable mimic of Nitric Oxide (NO). What effect would you expect it to have on men with erectile dysfunction? a. It would promote erection on a very small number of men b. It would not be effective at promoting erection c. It would inhibit erection by increasing the activity of phosphodiesterase 5 d. It would promote erection in nearly all men e. It would inhibit erection

d. It would promote erection in nearly all men

Which of the following hormones is important for cell luteinization in early formation? a. progesterone b. collagenase c. FSH d. LH e. estrogen

d. LH

An easy and non-invasive way to estimate sperm production in males with more pendulous testes like cattle is to: a. Measure testosterone production. b. Count the number of Sertoli cells in microscopic sections of the testes. c. Weigh the entire animal. d. Measure scrotal circumference.

d. Measure scrotal circumference

The discovery that a few humans and a few mice with ovaries had a Y chromosome was one line of evidence that the gene that caused testis development is ______. a. AMH b. androgen. c. hCG. d. SRY. e. FSH

d. SRY

Sex determination and differentiation occurs, in chronological order, at: a. The phenotypic, gonadal and genetic level. b. The genetic, phenotypic and gonadal level. c. The gonadal, genetic and phenotypic level. d. The genetic, gonadal, and phenotypic level. e. The gonadal, phenotypic and genetic level.

d. The genetic, gonadal, and phenotypic level.

Although it was first developed over 15 years ago, cloning has not been used widely because: a. One can only produce 1-2 clones from each animal b. FDA has concluded that meat and milk from cloned animals is not safe for human consumption c. Surprisingly, the clones have turned out to be very different genetically than the original animals d. The success rates are very low, making the cost high

d. The success rates are very low, making the cost high

Why is Viagra not effective for treating erectile dysfunction in men who are paralyzed? a. Viagra only blocks guanylate cyclase activity but does not promote cGMP production b. Viagra is an inefficient blocker of PDE6 c. Viagra is an inefficient blocker of guanylate cyclase d. Viagra only blocks cGMP breakdown but does not promote cGMP production

d. Viagra only blocks cGMP breakdown but does not promote cGMP production

Individuals with ____ sex chromosomes would be expected to have testes. a. XO b. XX c. hCG d. XXY e. FSH

d. XXY

For any small follicle that begins to grow, its fate could be which of the following? a. medium follicle b. atresia c. ovulation d. all of the above e. A and B only

d. all of the above

How do androgens and estrogens modulate growth? a. effects of growth hormone secretion b. effects on IGF-1 production c. effects on protein metabolism d. all of the above e. none of the above

d. all of the above

How does adipose tissue change from birth to 6 months of age in a pig? a. Increase in adipocyte size b. Increase in adipocyte number c. Decrease in insulin sensitivity d. All of the above e. None of the above

d. all of the above

Hox genes are important for positional identity in which tissues? a. vertebrae b. GI tract c. genitalia d. all of the above e. none of the above

d. all of the above

In livestock, the placental structure allows separation of the maternal and fetal capillaries from one another, and which is accomplished by which layers? a. endometrium b. chorion c. basement membrane d. all of the above e. a and b only

d. all of the above

In the life cycle of a follicle following ovulation, regardless of the reproductive state, which structures will likely form at some time? a. Corpus albicans b. Corpus luteum c Corpus hemorrhagicum d. all of the above e. none of the above

d. all of the above

Satellite cells of muscle are activated under which of these conditions? a. Normal muscle fiber growth b. Muscle fiber regeneration c. Muscle fiber hypertrophy d. All of the above e. None of the above

d. all of the above

The cervix is associated with which of the following functions?\ a. source of mucus b. a barrier for entry into the uterus c. a passageway for birth d. all of the above e. B and C only

d. all of the above

The luteal phase lasts 14 days in which of the following species? a. woman b. cow c. pig d. all of the above e. B and C only

d. all of the above

What hormones regulate satiety (short term food intake)? a. gherlin b. cholecystokinin and PPY c. glucagon-like peptide d. all of the above e. none of the above

d. all of the above

What mediates the effects of GH on local IGF activity in a tissue? a. IGF Binding Proteins b. IGF synthesis c. GH receptor number d. All of the above e. None of the above

d. all of the above

Which of the following are effects of growth hormone (GH)? a. Decreasing insulin sensitivity b. Increasing IGF activity c. Decreasing protein turnover d. All of the above e. None of the above

d. all of the above

Which of the following are functions of the oviduct? a. sperm and egg movement b. fertilization c. embryo development d. all of the above e. A and B only

d. all of the above

Which of the following are important in regulating anterior/posterior axial development? a. retanoic acid b. fibroblast growth factor (FGF) c. hox genes d. all of the above e. none of the above

d. all of the above

Which of the following processes impact adipocyte size? a. Food intake b. Metabolism of stored fatty acids c. Spontaneous activity and exercise d. All of the above e. None of the above

d. all of the above

Why may synthetic steroids have different myogenic and androgenic effects? a. Different receptor binding affinities b. Different genes modulated by receptor in different tissues c. Differences in steroid-converting enzymes d. All of the above e. None of the above

d. all of the above

The uterus of a pig, cow, and horse has a defined uterine body and horns and are classified as: a. caruncular b. zonary c. placcental d. bicornuate e. simplex

d. bicornuate

Which of the following portions of the skeleton form by intramembranous ossification? a. humerus and femur b. vertebrae c. bones of pelvis d. bones of jaw e. none of the above

d. bones of jaw

Booroola sheep that ovulate twice as many oocytes are an example of the importance of: a. the effect of age on ovulation rate b. the importance of the zona pellucida c. Sheep that reach puberty much earlier d. communication between the oocyte and surrounding follicle cells

d. communication between the oocyte and surrounding follicle cells

Counter current circulation in the male reproductive system is used to cool the testes. This is based on: a. Cooled arterial blood cooling the venous blood coming from the body and entering the testis. b. Arterial blood passing through the fin or fluke of a Dolphin before entering the testis. c. Warmed venous blood warming the arterial blood coming from the body and entering the testis. d. Cooled venous blood cooling the arterial blood coming from the body and entering the testis.

d. cooled venous blood cooling the arterial blood coming from the body and entering the testis

A myometrial block is removed in stage 1 of parturition in all species by: a. increased oxytocin b. increased estrogen c. a change in countercurrent placental blood flow d. decline in progesterone e. the fetal muscle activator

d. decline in progesterone

An interesting exotic species has an unusual mutation in the Hox genes D11, D12, and D13 (very 5' paralogs) have been deleted. How would you expect the structure of this animal to appear? a. addition of cervical vertebrae b. addition of ribs c. deletion of fore limbs d. deletion of hind limbs e. none of the above

d. deletion of hind limbs

The presence of a fully-formed corpus luteum would be evident during the _____________ period of the estrus cycle and would be distinguished as having elevated __________. a. metestus / progesterone b. proestrus / estrogen c. estrus / estrogen d. diestrus / progesterone e. proestrus / progesterone

d. diestrus / progesterone

If a morula is split into two equal halves: a. The damage will result in defective embryos b. One half will develop normally and the other half will be defective c. Each half will develop, producing non-identical twins d. Each half will develop, producing identical twins

d. each half will develop, producing identical twins

If there is a mutation in the gene encoding ovastacin and it does not inactivate ZP2, the fertilized egg can be fertilized by additional sperm causing: a. Offspring with Klinefelter's Syndrome b. Offspring with Turner Syndrome c. Improper meiosis d. Early embryonic death

d. early embryonic death

Which of the following arise from cells in the primitive streak? a. Embryonic ectoderm b. Hypoblast c. Amnion d. Embryonic mesoderm e. Cytotrophoblast

d. embryonic mesoderm

Which of the following are different between epithelial and mesenchymal cells? a. the presence of some integrin on the cell membrane b. relative amount of cell to cell and cell to matrix adhesion c. asymmetric proliferation d. export of synthesized proteins out of the cells e. ability to synthesize proteins

d. export of synthesized proteins out of the cells

Meiosis begins in oocytes when the female is in the _______ stage. a. puberty b. adult c. perinatal (soon after birth) d. fetal

d. fetal

During oogenesis, an animal's primordial germ cells complete mitosis when she is a/an: a. adult b. adolescent c. neonate d. fetus

d. fetus

Large hormones composed of two long-chain amino acids with carbohydrate side chains are classified as: a. steroids b. receptors c. prostaglandins d. glycoproteins e. peptides

d. glycoproteins

Interaction between epithelial and mesenchymal cells is essential for development of which tissue? a. epiphyseal cartilage b. skeletal muscle c. gastric goblet cells d. hair or wool follicles e. oligodendrocytes

d. hair or wool follicles

Of the following species, which would have an estrus lasting 5 days? a. rat b. cow c. pig d. horse e. sheep

d. horse

Steroid hormones bind to receptors: a. On the cell plasma membrane that often activate G proteins and adenylate cyclase b. In the nucleus that activate adenylate cyclase c. On the cell plasma membrane that are transcription factors d. In the nucleus that are transcription factors e. That shuttle between the plasma membrane and the nucleus

d. in the nucleus that are transcription factors

Weight gain during pregnancy results from? a. nutrient demands of growing fetuses b. reduced spontaneous activity c. elevated insulin levels d. induced leptin resistance e. IGFBPs

d. induced leptin resistance

When splitting a blastocyst in half, one must be sure to cut the ________________ in half: a. trophoblast b. morula c. zygote d. Inner cell mass e. oogonia

d. inner cell mass

What is the function of mTor (mammalian target of rapamycin)? a. it inhibits cell prolifieration b. it is activated by anabolic steroids c. it is inhibited by glucocorticoids d. it signals intracellular nutrient availability e. it mediates the G1/S cell cycle check point

d. it signals intracellular nutrient availability

Increasing body fat make animals less efficient because a. the metabolizable energy required to make a pound of adipose tissue is much higher than other tissues b. metabolic rate declines as animals get fatter c. the metabolizable energy required to synthesize proteins is higher than required to synthesize lipid d. maintenance energy increases as animals get fatter

d. maintenance energy increases as animals get fatter

The myotome arises from cells located in the? a. Neural tube b. Dorsal ectoderm c. Ventral endoderm d. None of the above e. All of the above

d. none of the above

Before fertilization, fertilizing sperm are usually stored for some time in the ________ where they complete capacitation. a. vagina b. cervix c. uterus d. oviduct

d. oviduct

Most mammals with extracorporeal testes cool arterial blood entering the testes by: a. Passing the arteries through the limbs first to cool the blood. b. Passing the arteries along the intestinal tract first to cool the blood. c. Mixing the arterial and venous blood. d. Passing the arteries alongside veins carrying blood leaving the testes.

d. passing the arteries alongside veins carrying blood leaving the testes

The blood-testis barrier is a physical and biochemical barrier that protects ______ from the immune system. a. Pre-meiotic germ cells b. Sertoli cells c. Leydig cells d. Post-meiotic germ cells e. Spermatogonia

d. post-meiotic germ cells

Establishing the body axes in the embryo results from which of the following processes? a. neural tube closure b. somite and limb bud formation c. orientation at uterine implantation d. primitive streak induction e. organization of the inner cell mass

d. primitive streak induction

The predominant hormone during the luteal phase of the cycle is a. FSH b. LH c. estrogen d. progesterone e. prostaglandin

d. progesterone

Most physicians will not prescribe androgens for andropause because of the increased risk of: a. baldness b. effects on a man's voice c. osteoporosis d. Prostate cancer e. Excessive muscle buildup

d. prostate cancer

LH release in males is controlled most directly by: a. Release of inhibin from Leydig cells. b. Androgen Binding Protein inhibition. c. Pulsatile release of FSH. d. Pulsatile release of GnRH.

d. pulsatile release of GnRH

How does adipose function in thermal regulation? a. increased blood flow for increased oxidative metabolism b. increased fatty acid synthesis for storage c. decreased leptin to increase food intake d. reduced blood flow to white adipose e. increased insulation

d. reduced blood flow to white adipose

When cells are frozen, a penetrating cryoprotective is added that: a. Raises the freezing point b. Coats the plasma membrane c. Is often egg yolk d. Reduces ice crystal formation

d. reduced ice crystal formation

Which of the following is a function of the apical ectodermal ridge (AER) in limb bud development? a. Source of cartilage precursor cells b. Regulates epithelial differentiation c. Regulates chondrocyte hypertrophy d. Regulates mesoderm proliferation e. None of the above

d. regulates mesoderm proliferation

For induced ovulation, the ovulation process begins with a. vulval stimulation b. pheromonal signals from the male c. mounting d. stimulation of the vagina or cervix e. positive hormone feedback

d. stimulation of the vagina or cervix

The blood-testis barrier is formed to protect germ cells from: a. Sertoli cells. b. Red blood cells. c. Destruction by cells inside the seminiferous tubule. d. The immune system.

d. the immune system

Even though Viagra is taken as a pill and is carried throughout the body, the reason it affects erection specifically is that: a. Phosphodiesterases are only found in the penis. b. The particular guanylate cyclase it acts selectively on is only found in the penis. c. The only sinuses in the body are in the penis. d. The particular phosphodiesterase it acts selectively on is only found in the penis.

d. the particular phosphodiesterase it acts selectively on is only found in the penis

In the early developing embryo, what is the initial requirement for whether a male or female embryo will develop? a. the presence of an ovary or testes b. the initial production of estrogen or testosterone c. the presence of either mullerian or wolffian ducts d. the presence of an X or Y chromosome e. all of the above

d. the presence of an X or Y chromosome

In embryo transfer, ______________ is/are flushed non-surgically to collect embryos. a. oviducts b. the vagina c. ovaries d. the uterus e. follicles

d. the uterus

The outer most layer of cells of a blastocyst is called the _________ and will eventually form the ___________ a. Inner mass / Placenta b. Blastomere / Placentomes c. Blastomeres / embryo d. trophoblast / chorion e. trophoblast / amnion

d. trophoblast / chorion

In July, you would expect the __________ to be ___________. a. Tunica dartos, contracted b. Tunica vaginalis, relaxed c. Tunica vaginalis, contracted d. Tunica dartos, relaxed e. External cremaster, contracted

d. tunica dartos, relaxed

Countercurrent blood exchange between the uterine vein and the ovarian artery allows: a. eggs to move in the uterus b. eggs and sperm to enter the oviduct c. feedback to the brain d. uterine prostaglandin to reach the ovary e. all of the above

d. uterine prostaglandin to reach the ovary

In our model species, sperm, once inseminated and eggs once ovulated are expected to survive ________ and ____________ respectively a. 7 days and 2 days b. 4 days and 2 days c. 4 hours and two hours d. 12 hours and 24 hours e. 24 hours and 12 hours

e. 24 hours and 12 hours

At estrus, define all hormone(s) that would be elevated or high in circulation? a. estrogen b. LH c. progesterone d. all of the above e. A and B only

e. A and B only

Bidirectional muscle movement in the uterus and oviduct in response to hormones is achieved by which tissue(s)? a. inner myometrium b. outer myometrium c. endometrium d. all of the above e. A and B only

e. A and B only

Which of the following are functions of the oviduct? a. sperm and egg movement b. fertilization c. placentation d. all of the above e. A and B only

e. A and B only

The hormonal change called andropause that happens normally as men age is most closely associated with: a. An increase in testosterone b. A decrease in estradiol c. An increase in inhibin d. An increase in estradiol e. A decrease in testosterone

e. A decrease in testosterone

To penetrate the zona pellucida, sperm must a. Become hyperactivated b. Lose membrane cholesterol c. Undergo capacitation d. Undergo the acrosome reaction e. All of the above

e. All of the above

Mitochondria are some of the few organelles that sperm retain during spermatogenesis. Where are most mitochondria in sperm found: a. Next to the centrioles b. Throughout the principle piece c. Near the acrosome. d. Adjacent to the nucleus e. Around the midpiece

e. Around the midpiece

Formation of the luteal cells involves a. A change of red blood cells into luteal cells b. Change of theca to luteal cells c. Change of Granulosa to luteal cells d. All of the above e. B and C only

e. B and C only

In women, uterine growth occurs during which phase(s) of the menstrual cycle a. the entire cycle b. the follicle phase c. the luteal phase d. all of the above e. B and C only

e. B and C only

When semen is stored frozen, ______________ is added to lower the freezing point and minimize freeze-thaw damage. a. a pH buffer b. An isotonic solution c. Antibiotics d. Egg yolk e. Cryoprotectant

e. Cryoprotectant

If more than one sperm fertilizes an oocyte, the embryo will: a. Develop at a faster rate b. Form 3 polar bodies c. Its germinal vesicle will break down d. Release its cumulus cells e. Die quickly

e. Die quickly

Female germ cells begin meiosis at the ______ stage and male germ cells begin meiosis at the _______ stage: a. Adult, puberty b. Puberty, adult c. Puberty, fetal d. Adult, fetal e. Fetal, adult

e. Fetal, adult

Stem Cell Factor (SCF) is a chemoattractant that entices primordial germ cells to migrate towards the: a. Embryonic kidney. b. Embryonic cervix. c. Mullerian duct. d. Mesonephric duct. e. Gonad.

e. Gonad

If you could look inside a seminiferous tubule of an adult, you could find: a. Fluid, sperm and Leydig cells. b. Sertoli cells, Leydig cells and fluid. c. Rete testis, fluid and mature sperm. d. Efferent ducts, fluid and mature sperm. e. Immature germ cells, Sertoli cells, sperm and fluid

e. Immature germ cells, Sertoli cells, sperm and fluid

Testosterone is referred to as a pro-hormone because, in addition to having direct effects on tissues,: a. It can be converted into progesterone and estradiol. b. It can be converted into estradiol and androstenedione. c. It can be converted into progesterone and androstenedione. d. It is inactive unless converted into another hormone. e. It can be converted into dihydrotestosterone and estradiol.

e. It can be converted into dihydrotestosterone and estradiol.

Most mammals with external testes cool blood entering the testes: a. With a network of veins that contain blood cooled in the inguinal canal b. With a network of arteries than contain blood cooled in the testes c. With a network of arteries that contain blood cooled in the inguinal canal d. By passing the vessels around the lungs prior to entering the testes e. With a network of veins that contain blood cooled in the testes

e. With a network of veins that contain blood cooled in the testes

Of the following species, which would have an estrus lasting less than one day? a. rat b. cow c. horse d. pig e. a and b only

e. a and b only

The cells of the corpus luteum originate from the a. granulosa b. theca c. endometrium d. oocyte e. a and b only

e. a and b only

During growth of the epiphyseal plate what does IGF stimulate? a. Chondrocyte proliferation b. Chondrocyte hypertrophy c. Osteoblast proliferation d. None of the above e. All of the above

e. all of the above

Endocrine function(s) for reproductive tissues can be best illustrated by which of the following? a. CL production of progesterone b. pituitary release of LH into blood c. steroid production by the follicle d. A and B only e. all of the above

e. all of the above

In most species, Luteolysis is a process that is related to which of the following? a. The destruction of the corpus luteum b. Start of a new follicle phase c. Uterine release of prostaglandin d. Decline in progesterone e. all of the above

e. all of the above

In which of the species listed below, does estrus occur before ovulation? a. rodent b. horse c. sheep d. b and c only e. all of the above

e. all of the above

Signaling between cells occurs by which of the following mechanisms? a. autocrine b. juxtacrine c. paracrine d. endocrine e. all of the above

e. all of the above

Which of the following hormones have either a direct or indirect involvement in stimulating or inhibiting uterine contractions? a. prostaglandin b. estrogen c. oxytocin d. progesterone e. all of the above

e. all of the above

Which of the following would be attributed to the placental function a. molecule transport and exchange b. barrier to mixing fetal and maternal blood c. hormone production d. A and C only e. all of the above

e. all of the above

The greatest cause of infertility in men: a. Is varicocele b. Is a deficiency of testosterone c. Is a deficiency of FSH d. Is a blockage of the vas deferens e. Can be attributed to unidentified factors.

e. can be attributed to unidentified factors

The sequence of 3 steps in spermatogenesis is (in order): a. Meiosis, mitosis, cell differentiation b. Cell differentiation, cell proliferation, meiosis c. Meiosis, spermatocytogenesis, spermiogenesis d. Mitosis, cell differentiation, meiosis e. Cell proliferation, meiosis, cell differentiation

e. cell proliferation, meiosis, cell differentiation

In the hormone pathway to produce estrogen, the first step in the complete hormone pathway is the conversion of ____________ to _____________. a. cholesterol to estrogen b. androgen to estrogen c. progesterone to cholesterol d. androgen to progesterone e. cholesterol to progesterone

e. cholesterol to progesterone

The type of placentation in which the placenta attaches over its entire surface is called: a. zonary b. caruncular c. cotyledonary d. discoid e. diffuse

e. diffuse

During the second meiotic division, the oocyte DNA that is contributed to the embryo is kept in the: a. Second polar body b. Male pronucleus c. Cortical granules d. First polar body e. Female pronucleus

e. female pronucleus

During spermiogenesis, the extra organelles and cytosol that are not retained in sperm are: a. dumped into the lumen of the seminiferous tubule b. fused with developing primary spermatocytes c. formed into a pronucleus d. formed into a polar body e. formed into a residual body

e. formed into a residual body

In bilateral cryptorchids, the Leydig cells: a. Are perturbed by the low temperature and regress. b. Are perturbed by the high temperature and regress. c. Proliferate and produce more hormones d. Become unresponsive to FSH. e. Function normally.

e. function normally

Stem Cell Factor (SCF) is produced by the __________ to provide a direction for the migration of primordial germ cells. a. Embryonic kidney. b. Embryonic cervix. c. Mullerian duct. d. Mesonephric duct. e. Gonad.

e. gonad

If someone were to take injected LH, what would be the outcome? a. it would promote a decrease in his testosterone concentrations through a positive feedback loop b. his FSH concentrations would increase and he would have less muscle mass c. his GnRH release would increase d. it would promote an increase in his testosterone concentrations through a positive feedback loop e. his own testosterone concentrations would increase

e. his own testosterone concentrations would increase

What is a major effect of estrogen on growth? a. decreasing growth hormone b. decreasing IGF c. decreasing chondrocyte proliferation and hypertrophy d. increasing muscle protein synthesis e. increasing satellite cell proliferation

e. increasing satellite cell proliferation

Bilateral cryptorchids are __________ and have ____________ testosterone concentrations. a. Fertile, low. b. Infertile, low. c. Fertile, high. d. Infertile, high. e. Infertile, normal.

e. infertile, normal

How does the central nervous system regulate body weight? a. growth hormone secretion b. adrenal steroid production c. insulin secretion d. all of the above e. none of the above

e. none of the above

What is the difference between cortical and trabecular bone? a. Cortical bone is the result of endochondral ossification b. Trabecular bone is located in the diaphysis or shaft of long bones c. Cortical bone does not have a vascular supply d. All of the above e. None of the above

e. none of the above

Which of the following are true of reproductive steroid hormones? a. They are soluble alone in blood b. The bind external cell receptors c. They are synthesized and released from the pituitary and hypothalamus d. A and B only e. None of the above

e. none of the above

The uterus and oviduct arise from the development of the ______ duct. a. Mesonephric (Wolffian) b. sex chord c. infundibular d. ovarian e. paramesonephric (Mullerian)

e. paramesonephric (mullerian)

A characteristic that distinguishes germ cells from somatic cells is that germ cells: a. Do not differentiate into mature cells. b. Do not proliferate c. Undergo mitosis. d. Never undergo cell death. e. Pass their genes to offspring.

e. pass their genes to offspring

During oogenesis, the DNA from primary oocytes that is not found within mature ova is placed into: a. pronuclei b. residual bodies c. cumulus cells d. the zona pellucida e. polar bodies

e. polar bodies

Which of the following hormones increases short term food intake? a. gherlin b. cholecystokinin and PPY c. glucagon-like peptide d. leptin e. pro-opiomelanocortin (POMC)

e. pro-opiomelanocortin (POMC)

What is the function of Peroxisome proliferator activated receptors (PPARs)? a. Regulation of cortisol and steroid synthesis b. Regulation of muscle fiber types c. Modulation of thyroid hormone response d. Modulation of steroid aromatase activity e. Regulation of adipocyte differentiation

e. regulation of adipocyte differentiation

An XY human with complete androgen insensitivity syndrome would not respond to androgens due to mutation of ____. a. The glucocorticoid receptor. b. aromatase. c. 5 alpha-reductase. d. testosterone. e. The androgen receptor

e. the androgen receptor

Even though the differentiated posterior pituitary secretes hormones, its embryonic origin is: a. The roof of the mouth. b. An outpocketing of the eye. c. Derived from the anterior pituitary. d. Formed from the tube that connects ears to the mouth. e. The brain

e. the brain