BOC review-Blood bank
Regarding loss of RBC membrane deformability, all of the following are true except A) increase in ATP level B) decrease in ATP level C) increase in calcium level D) decrease in spectrin phosphorylation level
A) increase in ATP level
Which constituent in the Hardy-Weinberg equation represents a gene frequency? A) q B) p2 C) 2pq D) q2
A) q
Name the main lipid components of a RBC membrane. A) phospholipids B) sphingomyelin C)glycolipids D)glycophorin A
A)phospholipids
In the normal hemoglobin-oxygen dissociation curve, what percentage of oxygen is released to the tissues when PO2 averages 40 mmHg? a)75% b)25% c)100% d)50%
B) 25%
What percentage of normal adult hemogobin is Type A2? A) 10% B) 3% C) 5% D) 95%
B) 3%
Which red cell preservative has a storage time of 35 days? A) ACD B) CPDA-1 C) AS-1 D) CPD
B) CPDA-1
What red cell morphology is indicative of globin denaturation caused by increased intracellular oxidants? A) bite cells B) heinz bodies C) spherocytes D) target cells
B) Heinz Bodies
Which of the following metabolic pathways is responsible for maintaining heme iron in the Ferrous state? a) glycolysis b)methemoglobin reductase c)Luebering-Rapoport shunt d)pentose phosphate shunt
B) methemoglobin reductase
What would the hemoglobin-oxygen dissociation curve depict in a patient exhibiting clinical signs of alkalosis? A) normal B) shift to the left C) shift to the right D) none of the above
B) shift to the left
Which of the following best describes classical Genetics? A) DNA alteration that is caused by a physical or chemical agent B) transmission of characteristics from parents to offspring C) possessing a pair of identical alleles D) the synthesis of RNA from DNA requiring RNA polymerase
B) transmission of characteristics from parents to offspring
in Mendel's law of separation, the first-filial generation is: A) Recessive B) homozygous C) heterozygous D) autologous
C) heterozygous
All of the following biochemical changes are associated with loss of red cell viability upon storage except A) decreased pH B) loss of red cell function C) increased ATP level D)dereased glucose consumption
C) increased ATP level
A structural alteration of DNA in an organism that is caused by a physical or chemical agent is called: a) transcription b) translation c) mutation d) cloning
C) mutation
What factors are known to influence patient metabolism and function? A)storage temperature B) initial pH C) platelet count D) all of the above
D) all of the above
Which of the following antibodies are considered the most significant in blood banking because they react at body temperature? a) IgG b) IgM c) IgA d) IgE
a) IgG
Why is the 37˚ C reading omitted when using PEG additive? a) PEG may cause aggregation of RBCs at 37˚ C b) Antibodies detected by PEG do not react at 37˚ C c) Warm-reacting antibodies are not clinically significant d) Unwanted reactions due to C3b will be detected at 37˚ C
a) PEG may cause aggregation of RBCs at 37˚ C
What is meant by the term "autosomal"? a) Trait is not carried on the sex chromosomes b) Trait is carried on sex chromosomes c) Trait is not expressed in the parents d) Organism possesses different alleles for a given characteristic
a) Trait is not carried on the sex chromosomes
What test is used to remove autoantibodies from test serum? a) absorption b) direct Coombs c) elution d) indirect Coombs
a) absorption
A person with the genotype MM shows a 3+ reaction when red cells are mixed with M antisera; whereas a person with the genotype MN shows a 1+ reaction. What phenomenon is occurring here? a) dosage b) prozone c) zeta potential d) hemolysis
a) dosage
What effect does a low pH have on a saline AHG test? a) enhances antibody elution b) enhances the antigen-antibody complex c) increases hydrogen bonding d) increases bacterial contamination
a) enhances antibody elution
If not labeled "gamma heavy chain specific," monospecific anti-IgG may contain antibodies to: a) immunoglobulin light chains b) alpha heavy chains c) mu heavy chains d) C3d
a) immunoglobulin light chains
What is the function of mononuclear phagocytes? a) present processed antigen to lymphocytes b) present processed antibody to lymphocytes c) release histamine released Incorrect Response d) produce antibody
a) present processed antigen to lymphocytes
Why are "check cells" added to all negative reactions in the AHG test? a) to ensure AHG was not neutralized by free globulin molecules b) to wash away any unbound antibody c) to increase the cell-to-serum ratio d) to bring the antibody closer to the antigen in the test system
a) to ensure AHG was not neutralized by free globulin molecules
Approximately what percentage of warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia will produce a positive DAT with both IgG and C3d antibodies? a) 20% b) 67% c) 10% d) 13%
b) 67%
How is polyclonal antiglobulin serum made? a) Serum from one human is injected into another human, and antibody is produced b) Human serum is injected into rabbits, and an immune response triggers production of antibody c) Murine serum is injected into rabbits, and an immune response triggers production of antibody d) Murine serum is injected into mice and an immune response triggers production of antibody
b) Human serum is injected into rabbits, and an immune response triggers production of antibody
What class of immunoglobulin is capable of crossing the placenta? a) IgM b) IgG c) IgE d) IgD
b) IgG
Which immunoglobulin exists in a pentameric configuration? a) IgG b) IgM c) IgA d) IgE
b) IgM
What is a major advantage of polymerase chain reaction (PCR)? a) Primers can be reused b) It uses a small amount of DNA c) Probes can come from several sources d) DNA can be single stranded
b) It uses a small amount of DNA
An advantage of polyclonal anti-IgG over monoclonal anti-IgG is: a) AHG produced in rabbits is more specific than AHG produced in mice b) Polyclonal anti-IgG will recognize IgG variants c) Polyclonal anti-IgG also has anticomplement activity d) Polyclonal anti-IgG recognizes only one IgG epitope
b) Polyclonal anti-IgG will recognize IgG variants
What do "check cells" contain? a) A+ red cell coated with anti-D b) Rh (D)+ red cells coated with anti-D c) Rh (D)- red cells coated with anti-D d) B+ red cells coated with anti-D
b) Rh (D)+ red cells coated with anti-D
Why are enzymes used in blood banking? a) Enzymes enhance reactivity of MNS antigens b) Sialic acid is released from red cells, which helps to reduce the zeta potential c) Hydrophobic glycoproteins are removed from the red cell membrane rendering the membrane hydrophilic (water loving), thereby allowing the red cells to move closer Incorrect Response d) all of the above
b) Sialic acid is released from red cells, which helps to reduce the zeta potential
What happens to the target cell after the cytokine has bound? a) Contents of cell are expelled b) Target cell is programmed to produce biological responses c) Host exhibits a hypersensitivity reaction d) ABO antigens are stripped off of membrane
b) Target cell is programmed to produce biological responses
A father carries the Xga trait and passes it on to all of his daughters, but none of his sons. What type of inheritance does this represent? a) autosomal dominant b) X-linked dominant c) X-linked recessive d) autosomal recessive
b) X-linked dominant
Only 5% of Kell-negative individuals will develop antibodies to Kell if exposed to the Kell antigen, whereas 50% to 70% of Rh (D) negative individuals would produce antibodies to D upon exposure. What is the reason for this? a) difference in ABO type b) difference in immunogenicity c) phenotype d) all of the above
b) difference in immunogenicity
What cells are considered polymorphonuclear granulocyes? a) monocytes b) eosinophils c) lymphocytes d) none of the above
b) eosinophils
Why does anti-C3d activity require standardization in AHG reagents? a) Low activity will fix anti-H and other clinically insignificant antibodies b) high activity will fix anti-I and other clinically insignificant antibodies c) It eliminates false negative reactions d) two of the above
b) high activity will fix anti-I and other clinically insignificant antibodies
In a pedigree analysis, what do vertical lines indicate? a) consanguineous mating b) offspring c) stillbirth d) deceased sibling
b) offspring
In performing gene cloning for blood group genes, what is a possible source of RNA? a) lymphocytes b) reticulocytes c) neutrophils d) platelets
b) reticulocytes
Extravascular hemolysis occurs when red cells are coated with antibody; what organ sequesters these cells? a) thymus b) reticuloendothelial system c) bone marrow d) all of the above
b) reticuloendothelial system
What is the purpose of washing cells in the AHG test? a) to dilute serum b) to remove all unbound protein c) to remove all bound protein d) to exclude a low affinitiy antibody
b) to remove all unbound protein
In the production of polyspecific AHG, why are IgG and complement antibodies absorbed with A1, B, and O cells? a) to eliminate the possibility of prozone b) to remove heterospecific antibody c) to eliminate false negative results d) to standardize dilutions of antibody
b) to remove heterospecific antibody
How is a 40:1 ratio of serum to cells prepared for the AHG test? a) 5 drops of serum + 1 drop of a 5% v/v red cell suspension b) 1 drop of serum + 1 drop of a 5% v/v red cell suspension c) 2 drops of serum + 1 drop of a 5% v/v red cell suspension d) 1 drop serum + 5 drops of a 5% v/v red cell suspension
c) 2 drops of serum + 1 drop of a 5% v/v red cell suspension
All of the following are characteristics of a secondary immune response except: a) Antibodies are formed quickly b) There is higher avidity for antigen c) A higher dose of antigen is required to form antibodies d) A lower dose of antigen is required to form antibodies
c) A higher dose of antigen is required to form antibodies
All of the following complement proteins can be found on the red cell membrane except: a) C3d b) C4b c) C4a d) C4d
c) C4a
Why is EDTA not conducive to complement activation? a) Antigens are destroyed b) Antibodies are neutralized c) Calcium is inactivated d) It dilutes plasma
c) Calcium is inactivated
In the MN blood group system, a person who inherits an "M" allele and "N" allele expresses both M and N antigens on the red blood cells. Which of the following is true? a) M is dominant to N b) N is dominant to M c) M and N are codominant alleles d) M and N are located on the same chromosome
c) M and N are codominant alleles
How is the classical pathway of complement activated? a) by polysaccharides on the surface of bacteria b) by enzyme catalysis c) by binding of antigen with antibody d) by lipopolysaccharides on surface of red cells
c) by binding of antigen with antibody
All of the following are functions performed by the complement system except: a) direct lysis of bacteria b) promoter of phagocytosis c) decreased vascular permeability d) smooth muscle contraction
c) decreased vascular permeability
What is a possible consequence of incubating tubes too long with LISS when performing the IAT? a) increased sensitivity b) hemolysis c) elution of antibody from red cell d) all of the above
c) elution of antibody from red cell
A patient came in for a routine type and screen prior to surgery. The antibody screen was negative at 37 degrees C and AHG phase. Check cells did not produce agglutination often. What is a possible explanation for this result? a) dirty glassware b) use of positive DAT cells c) inadequate washing d) overcentrifugation
c) inadequate washing
In an immune response, what is the time called in which no antibody is detected in test serum? a) secondary response b) primary response c) latency period d) amnestic response
c) latency period
All of the following conditions may produce a positive DAT except: a)hemolytic disease of the newborn b)hemolytic transfusion reaction c) lymphoma d) drug-induced hemolytic anemia
c) lymphoma
An antibody screen is performed, and all three tubes are negative after adding AHG. Check cells are added, and the tubes are centrifuged. No agglutination occurs after the addition of check cells. What is the next course of action? a) recentrifuge tubes b) addition of one drop of control cells c) repeat the antibody screen d) addition of one drop of AHG
c) repeat the antibody screen
What is responsible for recognition of the antibody-binding site to homologous antigen? a) phenotype b) solubility of antigen c) variable region of light/heavy chain d) complementarity
c) variable region of light/heavy chain
A woman with blood group A marries a man with blood group O. Their first born child has blood group O. The mother's most probable genotype is: a) OO b) AA c) AB d) AO
d) AO
Point mutations include which of the following? a) substitutions b) insertions c) deletions d) all of the above
d) all of the above
What does polyspecific AHG contain? a) IgG b) C3b c) C3d d) all of the above
d) all of the above
What type of globulin does the antiglobulin test detect? a) IgG alloantibodies b) IgG autoantibodies c) C3b complement components d) all of the above
d) all of the above
The portion of the immunoglobulin molecule which determine class: a) light chain b) kappa chain c) lambda chain d) heavy chain
d) heavy chain
When there is an excess of antigen in a serologic test system, what course of action should be followed? a) dilute the serum b) add complement c) decrease the serum-to-cell ratio d) increase the serum-to-cell ratio
d) increase the serum-to-cell ratio
