CPT Final #3

What is the general recommended rest for advanced clients between SAQ reps? Select one: a. 0 to 90 seconds b. 180 to 240 seconds c. 90 to 120 seconds d. 120 to 180 seconds

a. 0 to 90 seconds

What is the RDA for protein? Select one: a. 0.8 g/kg of body weight b. 1.2 g/kg of body weight c. 1.6 g/kg of body weight d. 2.0 g/kg of body weight

a. 0.8 g/kg of body weight

How many repetitions of each SAQ drill is appropriate for youth athletes? Select one: a. 3 to 5 reps b. 1 or 2 reps c. 6 to 8 reps d. 8 to 10 reps

a. 3 to 5 reps

What rate of oxygen utilization defines one metabolic equivalent (MET), a value representing the amount of oxygen utilized at true rest? Select one: a. 3.5 mL/kg/min b. 2.5 mL/kg/min c. 5.0 mL/kg/min d. 7.0 mL/kg/min

a. 3.5 mL/kg/min

Which scheme would be the most ideal to achieve maximal strength adaptations? Select one: a. 5 sets, 5 repetitions, 85% 1RM b. 4 sets, 8 repetitions, 30% 1RM c. 2 sets, 20 repetitions, 50% 1RM d. 2 sets, 12 repetitions, 75% 1RM

a. 5 sets, 5 repetitions, 85% 1RM

What is the sufficient recovery time that is generally needed between plyometric exercises during a workout? Select one: a. 60 to 120 seconds b. 30 seconds c. 0 seconds d. 5 minutes

a. 60 to 120 seconds

What would be considered a normal resting heart rate for a healthy sedentary person? Select one: a. 80 beats per minute b. 105 beats per minute c. 50 beats per minute d. 120 beats per minute

a. 80 beats per minute

What best defines a Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire (PAR-Q+)? Select one: a. A detailed questionnaire designed to assess an individual's physical readiness to engage in structured exercise b. A screening where the results indicate a need for medical clearance, when one is not, in fact, needed c. A questionnaire with lists of questions that pertain to health history and habits, such as exercise history, eating behaviors, and general lifestyle d. A screening tool used to evaluate the benefits and the risks associated with starting any type of exercise that is strenuous in nature

a. A detailed questionnaire designed to assess an individual's physical readiness to engage in structured exercise

What is a professional development technique that helps individuals identify their personal strengths and weaknesses, opportunities for growth, and potential threats to success? Select one: a. A unique selling proposition (USP) b. A SWOT analysis c. Forecasting d. Building rapport

b. A SWOT analysis

Which of the following types of balance occurs when an individual seeks to maintain postural control within a stationary limit of stability but with a moving base of support? Select one: a. Static balance b. Moderate-level balance c. Dynamic balance d. Semi-dynamic balance

d. Semi-dynamic balance

Which of the following exercises is typically used to measure maximum strength of the lower extremities? Select one: a. Single-leg squat b. Overhead squat c. Lunge d. Squat

d. Squat

If forward head posture is permitted during the drawing-in maneuver, what muscle may be preferentially activated, leading to poor muscle balance throughout the spine? Select one: a. Upper trapezius b. Diaphragm c. Rhomboids d. Sternocleidomastoid

d. Sternocleidomastoid

The hamstring complex compensating for weakened hip extensors, which cannot produce force effectively, is an example of what key term? Select one: a. Altered length-tension relationship b. Altered reciprocal inhibition c. Reciprocal inhibition d. Synergistic dominance

d. Synergistic dominance

What are the two components of the central nervous system? Select one: a. The somatic and autonomic nervous systems b. The sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems c. The nerves and sensory receptors d. The brain and spinal cord

d. The brain and spinal cord

How should the amortization phase of the stretch-shortening cycle be described? Select one: a. The transition between the isometric and eccentric phases b. The transition between the concentric and isometric phases c. The transition from concentric loading to eccentric unloading d. The transition from eccentric loading to concentric unloading

d. The transition from eccentric loading to concentric unloading

Rotational movement of the torso should primarily occur where? Select one: a. Frontal plane b. Sagittal plane c. Lumbar spine d. Thoracic spine

d. Thoracic spine

Which of the following is not a negative side effect of stress? Select one: a. Restricted blood flow b. Hypertension c. The release of endorphins d. Atherosclerosis

c. The release of endorphins

What is the principle of specificity? Select one: a. A principle stating that the body will adapt to the specific demands that are placed on it b. The body's ability to naturally sense its general orientation and relative position of its parts c. The process by which the human body strives to maintain a relatively stable equilibrium d. The phenome

a. A principle stating that the body will adapt to the specific demands that are placed on it

Which statement best describes the term deconditioned? Select one: a. A state in which a person may have a combination of muscle imbalances, poor flexibility, insufficient endurance, or limited joint stability b. A state in which the individual is out of breath when climbing a flight of stairs c. A state in which a person is dealing with a chronic health condition d. A state in which a person is overweight or obese and at risk for diabetes

a. A state in which a person may have a combination of muscle imbalances, poor flexibility, insufficient endurance, or limited joint stability

Which of the following is a component of quickness training? Select one: a. Assessment of visual stimuli b. Speed c. Stride rate d. Acceleration

a. Assessment of visual stimuli

What is the correct order of fascia, starting with the most superficial? Select one: a. Epimysium, perimysium, endomysium b. Endomysium, perimysium, epimysium c. Epimysium, endomysium, perimysium d. Perimysium, endomysium, epimysium

a. Epimysium, perimysium, endomysium

In a group exercise setting within a fitness facility, which person should greet all members, make everyone feel welcome, and ensure that participants have the right equipment and attire to participate safely? Select one: a. Exercise leader b. General manager c. Certified Personal Trainer d. Fitness manager

a. Exercise leader

Which type of scoliosis is influenced by improper muscle balance? Select one: a. Functional (nonstructural) scoliosis b. Permanent scoliosis c. Structural (non-functional) scoliosis d. Bony scoliosis

a. Functional (nonstructural) scoliosis

Calcium is of principal importance for what? Select one: a. Maintaining strong bones b. Nutrient absorption c. Clearing toxins d. Maintaining a strong immune system

a. Maintaining strong bones

Movement represents the integrated functioning of which three main body systems? Select one: a. Muscular, nervous, and skeletal b. Muscular, ligamentous, and skeletal c. Nervous, ligamentous, and vascular d. Nervous, skeletal, and vascular

a. Muscular, nervous, and skeletal

What are three postural distortion patterns to look for in static postural assessments? Select one: a. Pes planus distortion syndrome, lower crossed syndrome, and upper crossed syndrome b. Knee dominance, upper crossed syndrome, and lower crossed syndrome c. Pes planus distortion syndrome, knees cave inward, and arms fall forward d. Low-back arches, shoulders elevate, and head juts forward

a. Pes planus distortion syndrome, lower crossed syndrome, and upper crossed syndrome

Your client has shown great improvements in their mobility and flexibility. Following the OPT model, what phase would you recommend next? Select one: a. Phase 2 b. Phase 3 c. Phase 4 d. Phase 5

a. Phase 2

What is an example of the role of the Certified Personal Trainer in working on balance training with a client? Select one: a. Prescribing progressive, appropriate balance training exercises with knowledge/awareness of the client's medical history b. Performing medical rehabilitation with the client for their balance deficits c. Diagnosing balance disorders d. Prescribing medications or supplements to improve components of the balance system (e.g., vision, vestibular, somatosensation)

a. Prescribing progressive, appropriate balance training exercises with knowledge/awareness of the client's medical history

How often should elastic resistance bands be checked? Select one: a. Prior to every use b. Once a day c. Only when there are signs of wear d. Once a week

a. Prior to every use

What term refers to the ability of a test to produce consistent and repeatable results? Select one: a. Reliability b. Appropriateness c. Validity d. Relevance

a. Reliability

Which concept should be used to describe the functioning of the serratus anterior as it assists the anterior deltoid during shoulder flexion? Select one: a. Synergist b. Antagonist c. Agonist d. Stabilizer

a. Synergist

Which of the following is a recommendation when assessing skinfold measurements? Select one: a. Take a minimum of two measurements at each site; each measurement must be within 1 to 2 mm to take an average at each site. b. Take skinfold measurements immediately after exercise. c. Do not give clients prior instructions about measurement protocol, as this can skew results. d. Do not open the jaw of the caliper before removing it from the site.

a. Take a minimum of two measurements at each site; each measurement must be within 1 to 2 mm to take an average at each site.

What is bioenergetics? Select one: a. The study of the ways in which food is turned into energy b. The study of metabolism during exercise c. The study of weight loss d. The study of aerobic metabolism

a. The study of the ways in which food is turned into energy

If the concentric phase of a plyometric exercise doesn't use all the stored elastic energy from the eccentric phase, what occurs? Select one: a. The unused energy is dissipated as heat. b. The unused energy builds up and causes muscular pain. c. The attempt at jumping will fail. d. The unused energy is stored for the next jump.

a. The unused energy is dissipated as heat.

What are the three categories within the lipid family? Select one: a. Triglycerides, phospholipids, and sterols b. Saturated fat, unsaturated fat, and cholesterol c. Cholesterol, omega-3s, and omega-6s d. Saturated, unsaturated, and hydrogenated fats

a. Triglycerides, phospholipids, and sterols

Asking a client to turn their head side to side during a balance exercise would challenge which system? Select one: a. Vestibular system b. Somatosensory system c. Auditory system d. Visual system

a. Vestibular system

You have a client seeking weight loss. What range of sets is most appropriate for SAQ drills? Select one: a. 7 to 8 sets b. 3 or 4 sets c. 1 or 2 sets d. 5 or 6 sets

b. 3 or 4 sets

Of the following individuals, who would be the most suitable for being programmed SAQ (speed, agility, and quickness) exercises/movements? Select one: a. An overweight client with adequate strength b. A client who has been training for 1 month with adequate strength c. A client who has been training 2 months with some improvements in strength d. A client who has been exercising for 4 months with some strength

b. A client who has been training for 1 month with adequate strength

What blood pressure is reflective of a hypertensive crisis? Select one: a. A reading of 130 to 139 mm Hg systolic or 80 to 89 mm Hg diastolic b. A systolic reading greater than 180 mm Hg and/or a diastolic reading greater than 120 mm Hg c. A systolic reading of 140 mm Hg or higher or a diastolic of 90 mm Hg or higher d. A reading of 120 to 129 mm Hg systolic and less than 80 mm Hg diastolic

b. A systolic reading greater than 180 mm Hg and/or a diastolic reading greater than 120 mm Hg

Which of the following statements is considered to be most accurate? Select one: a. Cardiorespiratory fitness training does not provide many health benefits, and it should not be top priority when designing a program. b. An individual's cardiorespiratory fitness level is a strong predictor of morbidity and mortality. c. Greater caloric expenditure in exercise translates to increased cardiorespiratory fitness levels. d. Greater muscle mass accumulated through exercise translates to increased cardiorespiratory fitness levels.

b. An individual's cardiorespiratory fitness level is a strong predictor of morbidity and mortality.

What artery is used to measure blood pressure? Select one: a. Radial artery b. Brachial artery c. Carotid artery d. Femoral artery

b. Brachial artery

Vitamin C has a role in which of these functions? Select one: a. Immunity only b. Collagen synthesis and immunity c. Increasing bone density d. Collagen synthesis only

b. Collagen synthesis and immunity

What are the five kinetic chain checkpoints? Select one: a. Feet, ankles, knees, abdomen, and chest b. Feet and ankles, knees, LPHC, shoulders, and head and neck c. Feet and ankles, LPHC, shoulders, head, and neck d. Feet, ankles, knees, torso, and neck

b. Feet and ankles, knees, LPHC, shoulders, and head and neck

How many skinfold sites are measured when determining body composition using the Durnin-Womersley protocol? Select one: a. Three b. Four c. Six d. Seven

b. Four

What parameter of Muscular Development Training would be most associated with this style of training? Select one: a. Strength and stabilization b. Growth and volume c. Growth and stabilization d. Strength and volume

b. Growth and volume

Loaning some exercise bands to a client who is scheduled to go on vacation is an example of which type of social support? Select one: a. Informational support b. Instrumental support c. Emotional support d. Companionship support

b. Instrumental support

Implementing exercise concepts like core, balance, and agility training with resistance training methods indicates what style of training? Select one: a. Isolated training b. Integrated training c. Circuit training d. Hypertrophy training

b. Integrated training

What term is used to describe muscle tension that is created without a change in muscle length and no visible movement of the joint? Select one: a. Concentric b. Isometric c. Isokinetic d. Eccentri

b. Isometric

Compared to nonheme iron, heme iron is absorbed how? Select one: a. Equally b. More efficiently c. Less efficiently d. Not at all

b. More efficiently

Human movement is accomplished through the functional integration of three systems within the human body: the nervous system, the skeletal system, and what other system? Select one: a. Vascular b. Muscular c. Coronary d. Digestive

b. Muscular

Humans can learn new things at any stage of life, due to which process that causes the brain to reform neural pathways? Select one: a. Neuromotor skills b. Neuroplasticity c. Neurocircuitry d. Remodeling

b. Neuroplasticity

At his first visit to his new fitness trainer, Robert's BMI was 37. According to this information, how would Robert be classified? Select one: a. Overweight b. Obese c. Healthy weight d. Underweight

b. Obese

Which term describes the act of lightly pushing on a client's shoulders when they are balancing on one foot so they can learn to maintain or recover balance? Select one: a. Neuromuscular control b. Perturbation c. Sensorimotor function d. Somatosensation

b. Perturbation

Which phase of the OPT model introduces lifting near or at maximal intensity? Select one: a. Phase 5 b. Phase 4 c. Phase 2 d. Phase 3

b. Phase 4

Denise has just earned her NASM Certified Personal Trainer credential and has been hired at a health club. She hopes to attract and retain clientele to grow her business. What qualities would most help Denise be successful in her new career? Select one: a. Offering her services as an in-home trainer to people in her immediate area b. Providing accountability, support, feedback and guidance, and results c. Creating a social media page to post client results and a hashtag that her clients can use to help grow her following d. Providing a custom exercise prescription with an added meal plan for each client

b. Providing accountability, support, feedback and guidance, and results

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Question text Which sense provides information about changes in pressure on the skin, muscle length, and joint angles? Select one: a. Vestibular system b. Somatosensory system c. Visual system d. Hearing system

b. Somatosensory system

What are the three levels of the OPT model? Select one: a. Stabilization, Muscular Development, and Power b. Stabilization, Strength, and Power c. Strength Endurance, Maximal Strength, and Power d. Stabilization, Strength, and Maximal Strengt

b. Stabilization, Strength, and Power

An important aspect of an established exercise group includes which of the following? Select one: a. Groups function only when all members are present. b. The group feels distinct from other people. c. Groups rely only on the leader for support. d. Once the group is formed, no other participants are allowed in.

b. The group feels distinct from other people.

Which of the following best describes the role of micronutrients in the body? Select one: a. They provide some calories, and they are required for the regulation of muscle protein synthesis and glucose metabolism. b. They regulate various metabolic processes, including energy metabolism. c. They are the primary source of energy for all physiologic processes. d. They are the primary energy source during short, high-intensity training.

b. They regulate various metabolic processes, including energy metabolism.

What is the recommended frequency for cardiorespiratory training if participating in moderate-intensity exercise like brisk walking? Select one: a. 3 times a week b. 4 times a week c. 5 times a week d. 6 times a week

c. 5 times a week

What is forecasting? Select one: a. A relationship in which two people understand each other's ideas, have respect for one another, and communicate well b. A system for learning about the needs of a potential client to be able to identify and present a number of solutions for those needs c. A business management technique that helps predict how much work is needed to meet a revenue goal d. A rapport-building technique where fitness professionals walk around the gym floor talking to members without overtly presenting a sale

c. A business management technique that helps predict how much work is needed to meet a revenue goal

What most correctly identifies the purpose of a resume? Select one: a. A resume allows a job candidate to highlight their expertise in a particular field. b. A resume allows a job candidate to express a personal statement about their passion. c. A resume allows a job candidate to present their job skills to a potential employer. d. A resume allows a job candidate to identify athletic accomplishments.

c. A resume allows a job candidate to present their job skills to a potential employer.

Movements that take place within a joint and are not visible to the human eye may be classified in what way? Select one: a. Osteokinematic b. Anterior c. Arthrokinematic d. Posterior

c. Arthrokinematic

Which of the following vitamins or groups of vitamins plays a key role in energy metabolism? Select one: a. Water-soluble vitamins b. Fat-soluble vitamins c. B vitamins d. Vitamin C

c. B vitamins

When a client indicates that she finds it difficult to complete a workout on her own, she is likely in need of which type of support? Select one: a. Emotional support b. Informational support c. Companionship support d. Instrumental support

c. Companionship support

Question text What breathing change occurs at the second ventilatory threshold (VT2)? Select one: a. Inspiration is prolonged. b. Breathing becomes more shallow. c. Expiration becomes more forceful. d. Breathing settles into a more consistent rhythm.

c. Expiration becomes more forceful.

Regarding free-weight training, which of the following is the most accurate statement? Select one: a. Training with free weights always requires the fitness professional to be a spotter. b. Free weights are less intimidating than machines for those new to exercise. c. Free weights may improve dynamic joint stabilization and proprioception. d. Free-weight training is often safer for a new user when compared to machines.

c. Free weights may improve dynamic joint stabilization and proprioception.

Which muscles are typically overactive in association with lower crossed syndrome? Select one: a. Abdominals b. Upper trapezius c. Hip flexors and lumbar extensors d. Adductor complex

c. Hip flexors and lumbar extensors

Why is it important for clients to learn how to accelerate, decelerate, and stabilize in all planes of motion? Select one: a. Multiplanar training eliminates the risk for injury. b. Athletic performance is a universal goal. c. Injuries often occur when rotating or moving laterally. d. Most injuries occur in the sagittal plane.

c. Injuries often occur when rotating or moving laterally.

Adjusting daily priorities is a strategy to overcome which of the following barriers? Select one: a. Unrealistic goals b. Convenience c. Lack of time d. Ambivalence

c. Lack of time

Which heart chamber receives oxygenated blood and pumps it to the body? Select one: a. Left atrium b. Right ventricle c. Left ventricle d. Right atrium

c. Left ventricle

What is a characteristic of a type I muscle fiber? Select one: a. Quick to fatigue b. Fewer capillaries c. Less force production d. Larger in size

c. Less force production

Posture of the spine is primarily controlled by which muscles of the core? Select one: a. Global muscles b. Local and global muscles c. Local muscles d. Back muscles only

c. Local muscles

Using battle ropes is considered which sort of exercise? Select one: a. Steady-state aerobic training b. High-impact activity c. Low-impact activity d. Proprioceptive training

c. Low-impact activity

According to the integrated performance paradigm, which of the following is a requirement for the safe control of movement during plyometrics? Select one: a. Speed b. Strength c. Neuromuscular stabilization d. Power

c. Neuromuscular stabilization

A Certified Personal Trainer may seek further proprioceptive development in which of the following phases? Select one: a. Phase 4 b. Phase 5 c. Phase 1 d. Phase 3

c. Phase 1

Which statement is an accurate reflection of exercise and physical activity as it relates to cancer? Select one: a. Balance training poses serious risks to the hips and pelvis. b. Core training poses serious risks to the vertebral column. c. Self-myofascial techniques are not recommended for clients receiving chemotherapy or radiation treatments. d. Resistance training is contraindicated for clients with diagnosed cancer.

c. Self-myofascial techniques are not recommended for clients receiving chemotherapy or radiation treatments.

Which part of a food label would help a client review the ingredients in a food product? Select one: a. The percent daily values b. The nutrition label c. The ingredients list d. The nutrition facts panel

c. The ingredients list

What is the primary purpose of the peripheral nervous system? Select one: a. To transmit impulses between afferent and efferent neurons b. To transmit nervous impulses from neuron to neuron c. To connect the central nervous system to the rest of the body d. To coordinate the activity of all parts of the body

c. To connect the central nervous system to the rest of the body

The drawing-in maneuver increases activation of what muscle? Select one: a. Erector spinae b. External obliques c. Transverse abdominis d. Diaphragm

c. Transverse abdominis

Receptors involved with this sense are specifically responsible for determining angular accelerations of the head while bending over to pick something up off the ground. Select one: a. Somatosensory b. Sensorimotor function c. Vestibular d. Visual

c. Vestibular

Which three senses are involved in the balance system? Select one: a. Vestibular, somatosensory, and auditory systems b. Visual, vestibular, and auditory systems c. Visual, vestibular, and somatosensory systems d. Visual, vestibular, and hearing systems

c. Visual, vestibular, and somatosensory systems

For effective weight loss, how many calories should obese clients expend per exercise session? Select one: a. 25 to 75 kcal b. 600 to 700 kcal c. 100 to 150 kcal d. 200 to 300 kcal

d. 200 to 300 kcal

A community could influence physical activity for its inhabitants by doing which of the following? Select one: a. Allowing more permits for fitness facilities to open b. Limiting the number of sports leagues that are using a community center c. Reducing the number of fast-food restaurants d. Creating more green spaces, playgrounds, and walking trails

d. Creating more green spaces, playgrounds, and walking trails

Jessica is looking to grow in her career as a personal trainer. Which employment option would offer her the best chance to provide mentorship to fitness professionals, use managerial skills, and respond directly to member needs when necessary? Select one: a. Master instructor b. Strength and conditioning coach c. General manager d. Fitness manager

d. Fitness manager

Which of the following nutrition topics are within the scope of practice for a Certified Personal Trainer? Select one: a. Meal planning with caloric or nutrient-specific guidelines for weight loss/gain or sports performance b. Medical nutrition therapy as related to an individual's medical diagnoses c. Specific nutrition recommendations for an individual's caloric, macronutrient, or micronutrient intake d. General guidance on the importance of nutrition for health and performance

d. General guidance on the importance of nutrition for health and performance

Which of the following is a characteristic of linear periodization? Select one: a. Helps prevent workouts from becoming boring b. Changes acute variables on a weekly basis c. Involves training multiple styles each week d. Increases intensity while decreasing volume

d. Increases intensity while decreasing volume

Long-term exercise adherence is associated with which type of motivation? Select one: a. Extrinsic motivation b. Incentive motivation c. Amotivation d. Intrinsic motivation

d. Intrinsic motivation

What is the most important reason not to allow the knee to cave inward during a lunge jump exercise? Select one: a. It reduces force too much. b. It makes the next jump too easy to execute. c. It creates too powerful a jump. d. It causes stress to the connective tissues.

d. It causes stress to the connective tissues.

Not having someone to exercise with would be an example of which type of barrier? Select one: a. Lack of motivation b. Lack of willpower c. Lack of convenience d. Lack of social support

d. Lack of social support

Individuals with low-back pain have decreased activation of which local muscle of the core? Select one: a. Pectoralis major b. Iliopsoas c. Latissimus dorsi d. Multifidus

d. Multifidus

Kettlebell exercises have proven extremely beneficial in the development in which plane or of which chain? Select one: a. Sagittal plane b. Transverse plane c. Anterior chain d. Posterior chain

d. Posterior chain

What area of the body is most targeted during the single-leg squat to row exercise? Select one: a. Deep cervical flexors b. Anterior chain c. Intrinsic core musculature d. Posterior chain

d. Posterior chain

What stage of change is a person in if they are not planning on exercising within the next 6 months? Select one: a. Action b. Contemplation c. Maintenance d. Precontemplation

d. Precontemplation

The body can adapt to new demands while becoming stronger and more resilient through which exercise programming approach? Select one: a. Systematic approach b. All-or-nothing principle c. SAID principle d. Progressive overload

d. Progressive overload

Which of the following is not a skill-related concept that would enhance core training? Select one: a. Balance b. Agility c. Coordination d. Quickness

d. Quickness

Most exercises and motions of the body regularly occur in which plane of motion? Select one: a. Transverse b. Axial c. Frontal d. Sagittal

d. Sagittal

What is the purpose of the Current Good Manufacturing Practices? Select one: a. To set prices for supplements b. To set regulations on what ingredients can and cannot be used c. To ban illegal substances d. To provide guidelines to help ensure quality and purity of products

d. To provide guidelines to help ensure quality and purity of products

Which muscle acts to increase intra-abdominal pressure? Select one: a. Pelvic floor musculature b. Diaphragm c. Quadratus lumborum d. Transverse abdominis

d. Transverse abdominis

Which of the following protein structures is important for muscular contractions by providing a binding site? Select one: a. Fascicles b. Actin c. Myosin d. Troponin

d. Troponin