D&D Exam 5

What best describes a receptor site?

A molecule on the surface of the cell that receives signals from outside the cell

A client is to receive penicillin. The nurse understands that this drug achieves its effect by which action?

Interfering with the pathogen cell wall

The genetic makeup of a particular cell determines the rate at which that cell can complete which action?

Multiply

An immigrant and his wife are both HIV positive. The physician prescribes antiretroviral medications. However, the client, tell the nurse he is concerned about his ability to afford the treatment. What advice can the nurse provide to the client to help begin the treatment?

The client can approach social agencies and pharmaceutical companies that provide antiretroviral drugs on compassionate grounds

The nurse should advise the client to avoid taking which medication at the same time as a fluoroquinolone?

antacids

The nurse has administered a client's first scheduled dose of amoxicillin. What subsequent client report should prompt the nurse to seek the discontinuation of this drug?

shortness of breath

Which would be tested to determine parasitic sources of infection?

stool

A client may experience an acute exacerbation of hepatitis B if entecavir, adefovir, or telbifudine therapy is stopped.

true

A female HIV-positive patient with a high CD4 count has been taking nevirapin (Viramune) for 9 weeks. What clinical manifestations indicate to the nurse that the patient is having complications from this medication?

yellow sclera and hepatomegally

Which statement by a client taking a sulfonamide requires further instruction?

"I will make sure to use extra sunscreen when I go to the tanning booth." Clients taking sulfonamides should avoid any exposure to sunlight or ultraviolet light, such as tanning beds or sunlamps

A 50-year-old HIV-positive client is being treated for cytomegalovirus (CMV) with intravenous acyclovir. The nurse should recognize the possibility of a serious adverse drug effect if the client reports:

hallucinations

A client is receiving aminoglycoside therapy. The nurse would be alert for:

kidney dysfunction

A 42-year-old client, diagnosed with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), has been receiving antiretroviral therapy for several years. Recently, raltegravir was added to the drug regimen. When appraising the success of this addition to the treatment, the nurse should prioritize which laboratory value?

the clients CD4 count

A critically ill client has developed a fever of 38.9°C, and blood cultures have been drawn and sent to the laboratory for culture and sensitivity testing. Determination of the culture will give the care team what information?

the exact identity of the infecting organism

The nurse is caring for a patient who has HIV and is taking saquinavir therapy. What should the nurse include in the dietary education for this patient?

the patient should not drink grapefruit or pomegranate juice

During which phase is the cell involved in gathering the substances needed to produce the building blocks for DNA?

G1

A client with active AIDS is infected with a retrovirus. This virus is better known as which?

HIV

Chemotherapeutic agents target cells at each phase of the cell cycle except:

The resting phase

Syallabals

The syllable -vir is related to the antivials such as acyclovir, cidofovir, famciclovir, valacyclovir, etc. The syllable -azole signifies antifungals such as edorazole, fluconazole, miconazole, etc. The syllable -cillin signifies the classification of penicillins such as amoxicillin, nafcillin, piperacillin, etc. The syllable -floxacin refers to the fluoroquinolone antibiotics such as ciprofloxacin, levofloxacin, and sparfloxacin.

The health care provider prescribes zanamivir to a client. When developing the teaching plan, the nurse should include what important instructions?

Using the special inhaler included with the drug to administer it.

Drugs that produce effects similar to those produced by naturally occurring hormones, neurotransmitters, and other substances are identified by what term?

agonists

A nurse is caring for a client who is taking acyclovir. What is likely to be a priority nursing diagnoses for this client?

a nutritionist imbalance: less than body requirements due to drug adverse effects

A client is diagnosed with an infection attributable to the gram-negative microorganism Pseudomonas. Which anti-infective agent is most reliable in treating this microorganism?

aminoglycoside

A group of students are reviewing information about anti-infective agents. The students demonstrate a need for additional review when they identify what as an anti-infective agent?

anti-coagulant

The nurse is caring for a client whose prescribed course of cefaclor will soon be completed. What health education should the nurse provide to the client?

avoid drinking fro the next three days

The nurse has educated a client about the risk for kidney damage that accompanies the client's anti-infective regimen. What should the nurse recommend to the client in order to reduce the risk of renal damage?

increase fluid intake

A HIV-positive patient is being treated with didanosine as part of the antiretroviral therapy. Which of the following symptoms should the nurse monitor for and immediately report to the care provider?

peripheral neuropathy

A patient has been prescribed oral tetracycline for the treatment of acne. Which of the following must the nurse include in the patient teaching plan?

take the drug on an empty stomach

A nurse is aware that the concept of selective toxicity is foundational to antimicrobial therapy. Which statement most accurately describes selective toxicity?

A drug harms microbes without harming human cells.

A nurse works in a community setting and follows clients who have TB. Which clients would likely require the most follow-up from rifampin therapy?

An HIV-positive client

Which of the following are examples of fluoroquinolones? Select all that apply.

Levofloxacin (Levaquin) Ciprofloxacin (Cipro). Floroquinolones=floxacin

The nurse should advise clients that which of the following are adverse reactions that may occur with the administration of tetracyclines? Select all that apply.

Photosensitivity Diarrhea Stomatitis

The nurse is caring for a child with respiratory syncytial virus (RSV). Which drug should the nurse expect the pediatrician to order?

Ribavirin Ribavirin is indicated for the treatment of influenza A infections and RSV infection in children.

A client is receiving mefloquine as part of a treatment for malaria asks the nurse about becoming pregnant. Which response by the nurse would be most appropriate?

"You need to avoid pregnancy during the therapy and for 2 months after completion."

Factors that facilitate resistance

-drug concentrations too low -minimum inhiborty concentration must be present -inadequate tissue concentration may occur due to improper length of time between doses -insufficient duration of therapy -Prophylactic use of antibiotics may also contribute to the development of resistant organisms -Patients frequently stop taking antibiotics when they feel better.

Hereps Simplex

1- oral -gential -characterized by the formation of painful vesicles

A client comes to the health-care facility reporting flu-like symptoms. After a thorough assessment, the client is diagnosed with influenza and is to receive oseltamivir. The nurse understands that this drug has been prescribed because the client been symptomatic for less than:

2 days

When caring for infants and the elderly who are in need of an antimicrobial agent, the nurse is aware that when compared with doses for young and middle-aged adults, these clients may require:

A lower dose Infants and the elderly are the populations most vulnerable to drug toxicity. In the infant, the liver and kidneys are still immature and may have difficulty metabolizing or excreting the drug, which results in accumulation. The same process in the elderly is related to the age of their liver and kidneys, which may no longer be functioning at an optimal level.

Which of the following information should the nurse obtain during the pre-administration assessment of a client prescribed a fluoroquinolone or miscellaneous anti-infective? Select all that apply

Allergy history Signs and symptoms of infection Blood pressure Temperature

Amebiasis, an intestinal infection caused by Entamoeba histolytica, is often known as amebic dysentery. How many life cycles does the E. histolytica have?

Amebiasis, an intestinal infection caused by Entamoeba histolytica, is often known as amebic dysentery. E. histolytica has a two-stage life cycle.

Sulfonamides are classified as which type of medication?

Antibacterial

A client is diagnosed with giardiasis and prescribed oral metronidazole. The client self-administered this therapy for 3 weeks and returns for a scheduled checkup. What is the most important follow-up examination or testing that needs to be completed?

Arrange for testing of three stool specimens. The nurse should arrange for testing of three stool specimens to be taken several days apart. The stool test results indicate successful metronidazole therapy

A client has been taking chloroquine for the treatment of malaria for the past 7 days. The client's hemoglobin level has declined from a baseline of 14.3 g/dL (143 g/L) to 7.9 g/dL (79 g/L) this morning. In addition to informing the provider, what is the nurse's best action?

Assess the client for further indications of hemolytic crisis.

A client is admitted to the hospital with elevated temperature, chills, cough, and fatigue. The health care provider orders a chest x-ray, which indicates pneumonia. The blood cultures also come back positive for a Gram-negative bacillus. The provider orders two antibiotics to be given to the client, one for Gram-negative organisms and one for Gram-positive organisms. Why does the provider not prescribe just one antibiotic for both types of bacteria?

Broad-spectrum antibiotics can cause antibiotic resistance.

Antibiotic kill bacteria by:

Cell wall synthesis Protein synthesis Nucleic acid synthesis Bacterial metabolism

Bacteria

Cells without membrane bound oraganelles. Produce exotoxins, which are release by the bacteria. Endotoxins are part of the bacterial cell well

A public health nurse interacts with many members of the community who are at risk for sexually transmitted infections (STIs). The nurse should anticipate the use of tetracycline in a client who is diagnosed with what STI?

Chlamydia The action of tetracycline makes it effective for treating Mycoplasma, Chlamydia, and Rickettsia

Which drug is currently the mainstay of antimalarial therapy and is directly toxic to parasites that absorb it?

Chloroquine

A patient diagnosed with acute primary HIV infection is in the clinic. What treatment should be initiated for this patient?

Combination antiretroviral therapy

Antimycobacterial/Antituberculosis

Divided into first and second line need tow or three therapies at one time Multi-drug resistance Isoniazid prevents TB Disrupts synthesis of the bacterial cell wall AST ad ALT = liver function tests Rule out Hep A, B, C, D, alcoholic sirosis, tylenol overdose, gallbaldder problems

The nurse is preparing to care for a client with a genetic disorder. What characteristic of the cell nucleus should the nurse recognize?

Dna is found in long strands called chromatin

Quinolones/Fluoroquinolones

Effective for aerobic gram-negative and gram-positive infections Subdivided into generations 1st: UTI's 2nd/3rd/4th: borad affects "floxacin" Ciprofloxacin active against aerobic gram-negative organisms Inhibits GNA gyrase, an enzyme needed for bacterial DNA replication Can cause arthropathy - tendon rupture

A client has been diagnosed with Legionnaire's disease and is being treated with a macrolide antibiotic. The nurse should expect the client's mediation administration record to include:

Erythromyocin

The greater the concentration of solutes in solution to which water is moving via osmosis, the lower the osmotic pressure.

False The greater the concentration of solutes in solution to which the water is flowing with osmosis, the higher the osmotic pressure.

Because of their low risk of toxicity, aminoglycocides are replacing many of the other antibiotics today.

False, have potentially serious adverse effects and are being replaced by newer, less toxic drugs in the treatment of serious infections.

The nurse is reviewing cellular structure in preparation for admitting a client with a genetic disorder. The nurse should be aware of what element that is found within the cytoplasm of the cell?

Free ribosomes

Physiology of fungal growth

Fungi can be spread into two groups - yeast and molds Normally, the body has yeast colonies on the skin, mucous membranes, and GI tract. Intact immune systems can stop the growth of fungus

The nurse is explaining Rh factors to a client who will receive a blood transfusion. How should the nurse best describe histocompatibility antigens?

Genetically determined markers for self-cell identification

Bacteria fight back by

Inactivating antibiotics Changing antibiotic binding sites Using different metabolic pathways Changing their walls to keep antibiotics out

A 58-year-old with HIV is starting treatment with Combivir. He currently has a CD4+ cell count of less than 200 cells/mL and a viral load greater than 45,000 copies/mL. The nurse treating the client knows that what is a sign of effective drug therapy?

Increased CD4+ count

A 66-year-old woman with a history of recurrent urinary tract infections has been admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of pyelonephritis. The client began treatment 36 hours ago with intravenous gentamicin and is being monitored closely. The nurse is aware that the therapeutic effect of the client's drug regimen is primarily a result of:

Interference of bacterial reproduction

An adult client is being treated for genital herpes with acyclovir. Which client statement indicates a need for further health education?

It's a relief that this drug will stop me from spreading the infection

What interacts in the immune response?

Leukocytes Antibodies Lymphocytes

A nurse in a laboratory class is watching a cell actively divide under a microscope. What stage of cell division is the nurse observing?

M phase The M phase involves cell division in which the cell splits to form two identical daughter cells. The G0 phase is the resting phase. The S phase involves the actual synthesis of DNA. The G2 phase involves the production of substances needed to manufacture the mitotic spindles.

Sulfonamides

Mainstay treatment for UTI's resistance has increased there are a lot of people with allergies sulfamethoxazole/trimethoprim (SMZ-TMP) (Bactrim DS, Cotrimoxazole, Septra DS) Bactrim: treats uncomplicated UTI's and systemic infections INterferes with the synthsis of folic acid has a blood thinning effect

A 22-year-old female college student presented to the clinic and was given a prescription for metronidazole 250 mg PO tid for 7 days. The nurse at the clinic understands that metronidazole is used in the treatment of which?

Metronidazole (Flagyl) is the prototype antiprotozoan drug for treating amebiasis, giardiasis, and trichomoniasis

MDR-TB

Multiple drug-resistant TB is increasingly common Although some of the bacilli are inherently resistant, others develop resistance over the long course of TB treatment

TB

Mycobacterial infection that is found in the lungs -an airborne disease spread by doplet nuclei -night sweats, cough, low-grade fever, fatigue, weight loss, anorexia

Your client is being treated for streptococcal pharyngitis and is NPO. Her health care provider has ordered Penicillin G to be given IM. She wants to know why she cannot take her medications via an oral route. Your best response is:

Penicillin G is inactivated by gastric acid, therefore it is only given IM or IV.

What client is most likely to be experiencing increased phagocytosis?

Phagocytosis allows a cell, usually a neutrophil or macrophage, to engulf a bacterium or a foreign protein and destroy it within the cell by secreting digestive enzymes into the area. Consequently, phagocytosis would increase in a client fighting a serious infection.

When providing care to a client with a viral infection, the nurse knows that ribavirin (Virazole) for inhalation is used to treat which virus?

RSV

A client is to receiving levofloxacin. Which should be included in the client's teaching? Select all that apply.

Report fever to the prescriber. Report diarrhea to the prescriber. Report creamy white, lace like patches on the tongue, mouth, or throat to the prescriber. ever, burning sensation in the mouth or throat, localized redness, inflammation, and excoriation inside the mouth, groin or skin folds, abdominal cramps, scaly, reddened, popular rash in beast folds, axillae, groin, or umbilicus, and diarrhea

Place the phases of the cell cycle in order beginning with the resting phase (G0).

Resting phase (G0) First gathering phase (G1) Synthesizing phase (S) Final gathering phase (G2) Cell division (M)

The nurse is discharging a client who will be taking an antimicrobial at home. What adverse effects related to antimicrobial therapy should be reported to the health care provider? (Select all that apply.)

Skin rash Any sign of a new infection Diarrhea The client should report a skin rash, any sign of a new infection, vomiting, and diarrhea

Inhibition of metabolic pathways

Sulfonamides inhibits bacterial folate synthesis by acting as an antimetabolite both sulfamethoxazole and trimethoprim work by inhibiting the production of folic acid in bacteria Combining sulfamethoxazole with trimethoprim increases the effectiveness and decreases the chance of antibiotic resistance

The nurse is caring for a 6-year-old child who has pyelonephritis. The use of what group of antibiotics would be contraindicated due to the client's age?

Tetracyclines Tetracyclines can potentially damage developing teeth and bones and thus should be used cautiously or avoided in children under the age of 8 years.

A patient is being tested for HIV using the EIA (enzyme immunoassay). The EIA shows antibodies. The nurse expects the physician to order what test to confirm the EIA test results?

The Western blot test detects antibodies to HIV and is used to confirm EIA test results

A client is taking penicillin for an upper respiratory infection. The client calls the office after 2 days of therapy reporting nausea and abdominal pain. Which would be the best instruction for the nurse to give the client?

These are normal side effects, but if they increase in severity or frequnecy call the office again

Tuberculosis typically affects the lungs but can also involve other parts of the body. Which of the following can be affected by the disease?

Tuberculosis is an infectious disease that usually affects the lungs but may involve most parts of the body, including lymph nodes, meninges, bones, joints, kidneys, and the gastrointestinal tract.

Anti-protozoal drugs

Used to treat many human infections, including amebiasis, giardiasis, trichomoniasis, toxoplasmosis, and opportunistic infections "azole" Metronidazole Acts against anaerobic bacteria by inhibiting DNA synthesis do NOT drink Can cause dysgeusia (metalic taste)

A nurse is asked to explain the difference between community-acquired infections and nosocomial infections. What response best describes the difference?

Usually, community-acquired infections are less severe and easier to treat since nosocomial infections often occur in people whose immunity is impaired.

Monobactams

Vancomycin - the only drug in its class can be very toxic used only when the antibiotics fail to resolve an infection Piggyback on infusion pump Inhibits cell wall synthesis by altering the cell's permeability Treats bacterial septicemia, endocarditis, bone and joint infections Administered oral or IV If given to fast can cause an infusion reaction called red mans syndrome (red skin, tachycardia)

Place the stages of the replication cycle of a virus in the correct order.

Virus adheres to host cell surface Virus enters host cell by pinocytosis Virus sheds its coat Viral nucleic acids replicate Synthesis of viral protein capsid Assembly of new virions and Host cell dies releasing virus to move to other cells

A 23-year-old client is prescribed zidovudine for treatment of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). Which statement indicates that the client has understood the client teaching regarding the action of this medication?

Zidovudine slows the progression but does not cure it

The nurse at a travel clinic is meeting with a family who are planning to move to an area where malaria is endemic in order to do missionary work with their church. The family has two children, ages 4 and 11. What should the nurse teach the family about antimalarial prophylaxis for the children?

a customized prophylaxis plan will be created based on the childs needs

Aspergillosis

a fungus found in soil, water, adn decaying vegetaion -use inhaled steroid, then haeve them rinse mouth

Herpes zoster

acute unilateral and segmental inflammation of the dorsal root ganglia caused by infection with the herpes virus varicella zoster -follows dermatomes

Inhibit viral enzymes

acyclovir saquinavir

Leprosy

affects the skin, the peripheral nerves, the mucosa of the upper respiratory tract, the eyes

Inhibit protein synthesis

aminoglycosides chloramphenicol clidamycin erythromycin tetracyclines

VRE Vancomyosin resistant enterococcus

an aminoglycoside with a penicillin or an aminoglycoside with a cephalosporin. The penicillin or cephalosporin damages the bacterial cell wall and allows the aminoglycoside to penetrate the cell.

A patient with AIDS is being prepared for discharge. The nurse caring for the patient with AIDS knows the patient receives Agenerase. What dietary counseling will the nurse provide based upon the patient's medication regimen?

avoid high fat meals

Inhibitiion of cell wall synthesis

bacteria have rigid cell walls containing complex macromolecules. The cell walls resist the absorption of water. Antimicrobial drugs weaken the cell wall, allowing the cell to absorb water Examples: penicillin, cephalosporins, beta-lactams, monobactams

Tazobactam

bactericidal, combined with piperacillin for synergistic effect Affects P450 Inhibits beta-lactamases to disrupt the bacterial cell wall Need to have a dilutent broad range spectrum Used in acute care setting Elevated magnesium level with can cause seizures Test BUN and creatinine

Macrolides

bacteriostatic or bactericidal susceptible bacteria Erythromycin Treats legionnaire's disease, mycoplasma pneumonia, pneumonia, diphtheria, chlamydial infections, and chancroid Easily inactivated by gastric acid Inhibits RNA-dependent protein synthesis at the chain elongation step Causes a lot of GI distress Causes cardiac problems with taken with second generation antihistamines

Antivirals

block viral RNA or DNA synthesis blocks production of the protein coats of new viruses

Tetracyclines

broad-spectrum antibiotics that affect both gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria Major resistant has developed "cycline" Tetracycline Bacteriostatic to rickets species, mycoplasma pneumonia, chlamydia trachomatis Inhibits or retards the growth of bacteria but does not kill them Causes photosensitivity

Disruption of cell wall permeability

disrupts the integrity of the bacterial cell wall causing the cell to leak components that are vital to survival

A client has been treated with ofloxacin multiple times for an ear infection. The nurse instructs the client to report signs of local adverse reactions. What would this include? (Select all that apply.)

ear irritation itching burning

All of these measures can prevent the spread of parasitic infections EXCEPT:

eating uncooked meat

A nurse provides medication teaching related to the importance of adhering to the saquinavir drug regimen. In order to best minimize the risk of increased fatty-like tissue, the nurse will instruct the patient to:`

engage in regular exercise

A client is allergic to penicillin and has been diagnosed with a genitourinary infection caused by Chlamydia trachomatis. Which medication will most likely be administered?

erythromycin

Aminoglycosides

extremely effective antibiotic although use is limited because of potential fro serious adverse effects Example: gentamicin Used for serious infections only Enters the bacterial cell and binds to the 30S ribosomal subunit Causes nephrotoxicity, neurotoxicity, ototoxicity, neuromuscular blackade

Inhibit nucleic acid synthesis

fluoroquinolone rifampin

Mucormycosis

fungal infection in the sinuses, brain, or lungs

A client is receiving ganciclovir for the long-term treatment and prevention of cytomegalovirus infection. What should the nurse do when administering this drug?

give IV over 60 minutes

Viruses

have a protein coat that surrounds their nucleic acid core. They insert their genome into a host cell's DNA. Use the cell's metabolic pathway to create new viruses

Antivirals are used to treat infections caused by viruses. In particular, acyclovir is useful to treat which infection?

herpes zoster

A nursing student is reading a journal article about highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART). The nurse would expect to find which condition as being treated with this therapy?

human immunodificency virus (HIV)

The nurse has administered an intravenous solution that is expected to draw interstitial fluid into the vascular space. The nurse likely administered what type of solution?

hypertonic

Prion

infectious host proteins. They change the shape of normal proteins to create new prions. They clump together to damage cells. Create degenerative diseases in the central nervous system

bacteriostatic

inhibits growth

A school nurse is talking with a health class of freshman high school students about human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). What patient would the nurse tell the students is at the greatest risk of contracting HIV?

injecting drug user

A client, diagnosed with Trichomonas vaginalis, is being treated with metronidazole orally. What instruction is most important for the nurse to provide this client to minimize the spread of this infection?

instruct her to have her partner treated

What assessment data would confirm that a client is demonstrating the presence of effective major defense mechanisms? Select all that apply.

intact skin and mucous membranes redness and heat at the site of a cut an elevated temperature an elevated white blood cell count

A group of nursing students are researching information about antiretroviral agents. They find information about a category of drugs that prevent enzymes from integrating HIV genetic material into the host cell's DNA. The students are reviewing information related to which agents?

integrase inhibitors

Which statement made by a nurse indicates a need for further teaching concerning the medication chloroquine?

is used to prevent reocurrance

bactericidal

kills

Collect specimen

label with time, date, initials place in biohazard bag grow culture to identify organism known sensitivity to identify treatment or resistance takes 3 days to get culture results so start the patient on broad spectrum antibiotics

Purine Nucleoside analogs

largest group of antiviral drugs "vir" Acyclovir treats herpes Undergoes phosphorylation. In an infected cell, it is converted by the viral enzyme thymidine kinase. Once incorporated into the virus, it terminates DNA synthesis.

A nurse who works on a pulmonary unit should know how blood destroys microorganisms and other characteristics of the immune system. The client has been admitted to the health care facility with pneumonia. Based on this information, what would be the Mb>best explanation by the nurse to the client about which constituent of blood destroys pathogens and develops immunity to diseases such as pneumonia?

leukocytes

A patient with chronic hepatitis B (HBV) infection is scheduled to begin a new treatment regimen that will include adefovir dipivoxil (Hepsera). What assessments should be prioritized before the initiation of this drug treatment?

liver function test and HIV testing

Losartan focuses on what aspect of the cardiac process to address the pathophysiology of heart failure?

lowering blood pressure

Chloroquine acts against erythrocytic forms of plasmodial parasites to prevent or treat what condition?

malaria

Cryptococcosis

manifests as cryptococcal meningitis, the most serious infection in immunocompromised patients -HIV

Inhibition of nucelic acid synthesis

many bacterial use enzymes from replication that do not exist in human cells. Floroquinolones inhibit DNA gyrase, and enzyme needed fro bacterial DNA replication Nucleic acid synthesis is dependent on folic acid

A group of nursing students are reviewing information about the different antiretroviral drugs. The students demonstrate understanding when they identify which as an example of an entry inhibitor? Select all that apply.

maraviroc enfuvirtide

Selecting antimicrobial therpay

match the drug with the bug identify the pathogen drug susceptibilitiy drug spectrum drug dose time to affect the pathogen site of infection patient assessment

The nurse is justified in suspecting that a client who recently completed a course of ceftaroline may have been treated for what health problem?

methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) infection

A group of nursing students are reviewing information about fluoroquinolones. The students demonstrate a need for additional review when they identify which as an example?

metronidazole

Which medication will be administered to treat the diarrhea and abdominal distention associated with giardiasis?

metronidazole

A client is receiving chloroquine for a diagnosis of extraintestinal amebiasis. The nurse should provide information on which medication that is likely to be administered with chloroquine?

metronidazole Chloroquine is used mainly for its antimalarial effects. When used as an amebicide, the drug is effective in extraintestinal amebiasis, but usually ineffective in intestinal amebiasis. Treatment is usually combined with an intestinal amebicide. Metronidazole is an intestinal amebicide.

A client has just been diagnosed with TB. The client is extremely upset and is asking questions concerning the medications. What is an appropriate response by the nurse?

multi-drug therapy for 6-24 months

The nurse informs a client of which are the most common adverse effect of sulfonamide therapy?

nausea Gastrointestinal effects (nausea, vomiting, anorexia, diarrhea, abdominal pain and stomatitis) are the most common adverse effects of sulfonamide therapy

A nurse is preparing to administer famciclovir to a client with a herpes virus infection. The nurse should expect to administer this drug by which route?

oral

A nurse is preparing to administer primaquine therapy to a client. The nurse should anticipate administering the drug by which route?

oral

What is one method that the nurse can teach community members to prevent many parasitic infections?

personal nada public hygiene actions

A client is receiving levofloxacin (Levaquin) IV. During an infusion, the client reports pain and the nurse notes a reddened area along the vein. What does the nurse suspect?

phlebitis Tenderness, pain, and redness along the vein may indicate phlebitis or thrombophlebitis. Extravasation occurs when the fluids leak into the surrounding tissue.

Disrupt cell membrane permeability

polymyxinx polyene antimicrobials imidazole antifungal agents

A nurse is administering a drug that blocks the protease enzyme so new viral particles cannot mature. Which category of drugs is the nurse most likely administering?

protease inhibitors

Parasties

protozoa (malaria, amoebic dysentery, giardiasis) helminths (worms) Arthropods(ticks,mosquitoes,lice)

A client with hypertension has been prescribed amlodipine, a calcium channel blocker. The nurse should recognize that this drug achieves a therapeutic effect by:

reducing the passage of calcium ions into myocardial cells.

Fungi

require cool themperatures to grow most infections happen on the surface of the body

Inhibition of protein synthesis

ribosomes from human cells and bacterial cells are structurally different Tetracyclines bind to the 30S subunit of the bacterial ribosomes and block attatchment of the aminoacyl-tRNA Erythromycin and clindamycin interfere with translocation reactions by binding to the 50S subunit

A client who develops trypanosomiasis is to receive pentamidine. Based on the nurse's knowledge of the infection and drug therapy, what is the priority nursing diagnosis likely to be for this client?

risk for injurry

A client with a diagnosis of rhinosinusitis has been prescribed ciprofloxacin 250 mg SC b.i.d. When contacting the prescriber, the nurse should question the:

route Recommended parameters for ciprofloxacin are 100-500 mg b.i.d. PO for up to 6 weeks. As a result, the nurse should have the provider confirm the correct route.

A nurse is speaking to a 62-year-old female client who has been started on sulfisoxazole, a sulfonamide antibiotic. The nurse should teach this client to contact the health care provider if the client experiences what adverse effect associated with the drug?

skin rash or itching

Mycoplasma, rickettsiae, chlamydiae

smaller than bacteria lack cell walls

A nurse is caring for a client who has been diagnosed with HIV. The client tells the nurse that he is considering supplementing his antiretroviral drug therapy with an herbal regimen that he read about recently. What should the nurse say in response?

some herbal medications could interfere with your medication, so talk with your physician

Work as an antimetabolite

sulfonamides trimethropim

The nurse should determine the effectiveness of chloroquine treatment by focusing on what vital sign?

temperatures

Successful treatment with bacteriostatic antibiotics depends upon:

the ability of the host's immune system to eliminate the inhibited bacteria and an adequate duration of drug therapy.

A medical nurse on a night shift is reviewing a client's medication administration record for the following day. The nurse notes that a combination antimicrobial drug is prescribed. What is implied by the fact that the client has been prescribed a combination drug?

the client may have an infection caused by multiple organisms

A 45-year-old client is prescribed acyclovir for the treatment of genital herpes. Which is an expected outcome for this client?

the client will experience fewer recurrences

Penicillins

the first antibiotic to be introduced for clinical use also called beta-lactams narrow spectrum PCN G Treats infections caused by gram-positive bacteria Administered IM or IV (unstable in solution so comes in powder form) highly protein bound inhibits the third and final stage of bacterial cell wall synthesis Causes GI upset, rash, fevver, wheezing, anaphylaxis

A client who is receiving metronidazole therapy for trichomoniasis asks the nurse how this infection occurred. Which response by the nurse would be most appropriate?

the infection is spread during sexual intercourse

A nurse is educating a client on the administration of tinidazole. Which statement indicates that the client understands the administration of tinidazole?

the medication will leave a bitter or metallic taste in my mouth The most common adverse effects of tinidazole are a bitter metallic taste and nausea. Avoid alcoholic beverages while taking tinidazole and for 3 days after the drug is stopped. Take tinidazole with or after meals to decrease gastrointestinal irritation with other drugs.

MRSA

the pathogen is widely resistant to all of the anti-staphylococcic penicillins, not just methicillin. Many strains of MRSA are also resistant to aminoglycosides, tetracyclines, erythromycin, and clindamycin. Vancomycin is the drug of choice

The client has just begun taking metronidazole and calls the clinic to report that her urine has turned very dark. What is the nurse's best response to this client?

this is an expected side effect

A client 45-years-old just received a heart transplant. One of the clients medications is ganciclovir. The nurse knows this medication was prescribed why?

to prevent CMV infections

Azole anti-fungals

used for both superficial mycoses and more serious systemic mycoses Flucanazole used fro candidiasis and cryptococcal meningitis Inhibits synthesis of ergosterol and P45p enzyme that is an essential component of the fungal membrane topical, oral, IV Gi effects Very high drug-drug interactions

Aminogylcoside antibiotics tend to collect in the eighth cranial nerve. The nurse would anticipate that which clinical manifestation may occur from the cranial nerve involvement?

vertigo The aminoglycosides antibiotics collect in the eighth cranial nerve and can cause dizziness, vertigo, and loss of hearing.

Candidiasis

yeast-like fungus that is always present as part of the normal population of organims, in the mouth, skin, intestinal tract, and vagina -found in skin folds, use of antibiotics can allow it to occur in the vagina

Beta-lactam antibiotics, such as penicillins and cephalosporins, fight infection by inhibiting development of the causative bacteria. What specific component development do these drugs affect?

cell-wall synthesis

A client prescribed rifaximin for diarrhea has developed frank bleeding in the stool. What intervention should the nurse anticipate being implemented to best ensure client safety?

changing to a different antibiotic

Pathogens

causes disease. Opportunistic pathogens will cause disease if your immunity is weakened

Inhibit cell wall synthesis

cephalosporins daptomycin penicillins vancomycin

A group of nursing students and their professor are engaged in a service learning project and will be caring for clients in Haiti. What medication should be administered to prevent the development of malaria?

chloroquine phospate

Which is a component of the cell membrane that is responsible for the stability of the cell membrane more than the permeability, anchors lipids in place, and acts as a secondary messenger within the cell?

cholesterol

In which clients are the use of cidofovir contraindicated?

clients with renal impairment

The client has been taking levofloxacin IV since admission 12 hours ago for a urinary tract infection. The nurse assesses the client's temperature at 99.8ºF. What is the nurse's best response?

continue to monitor vital signs

Cephalosporins

cross sensitive with penicillin have four generations "cef" example: cefazolin treats many kind of infections administered IM (unstable in solution) binds with penicillin binding protein to disrupt cell wall synthesis Adverse effects: maculopapular rash, GI symptoms, headache, dizziness, parenthesis, nephrotoxicity

Which microorganism is known to cause retinitis in people with HIV/AIDS?

cytomeglovirus