Exam 1
The nurse is developing a discharge teaching plan for a patient diagnosed with thromboangiitis obliterans (Buerger's disease). Which expected outcome has the highest priority for this patient? a. Cessation of all tobacco use b. Control of serum lipid levels c. Maintenance of appropriate weight d. Demonstration of meticulous foot care
ANS: A Absolute cessation of nicotine use is needed to reduce the risk for amputation in patients with Buerger's disease. Other therapies have limited success in treatment of thisdisease.
The nurse is conducting a patient assessment. The patient tells the nurse that he has smoked two packs of cigarettes per day for 27 years. The nurse may find which data upon assessment? a. Blood pressure above the normal range b. Bounding pedal pulses c. Night blindness d. Reflux disease
ANS: A Smokers have a constriction of the blood vessels due to the tar and nicotine in cigarettes. This constriction may lead to hypertension. Bounding pulses, night blindness, and reflux disease do not have a direct link to smoking.
A nurse prepares to discharge a patient with cardiac dysrhythmia who is prescribed home healthcare services. Which priority information would be communicated to the home health nurse upon discharge? a. Medication reconciliation b. Immunization history c. Religious beliefs d. Nutrition preferences
ANS: A The home health nurse needs to know current medications the client is taking to ensure assessment, evaluation, and further education related to these medications. The other information will not assist the nurse to develop a plan of care for the client.
The nurse is assessing a client on admission to the hospital. The client's leg appears as shown below: What action by the nurse is best? a. Assess the client's ankle-brachial index. b. Elevate the client's leg above the heart. c. Obtain an ice pack to provide comfort. d. Prepare to teach about heparin sodium
ANS: A This client has dependent rubor, a classic finding in peripheral arterial disease. The nurse should measure the client's ankle-brachial index. Elevating the leg above the heart will further impede arterial blood flow. Ice will cause vasoconstriction, also impeding circulation and perhaps causing tissue injury. Heparin sodium is not the drug of choice for this condition.
A nurse is teaching a female client about alcohol intake and how it affects hypertension. The client asks if drinking two beers a night is an acceptable intake. What answer by the nurse is best? a. "No, women should only have one beer a day as a general rule." b. "No, you should not drink any alcohol with hypertension." c. "Yes, since you are larger, you can have more alcohol." d. "Yes, two beers per day is an acceptable amount of alcohol."
ANS: A Alcohol intake should be limited to two drinks a day for men and one drink a day for women. A "drink" is classified as one beer, 1.5 ounces of hard liquor, or 5 ounces of wine. Limited alcohol intake is acceptable with hypertension. The woman's size does not matter.
A client had a percutaneous angioplasty for hypertension related to vascular kidney disease three months ago. What assessment finding by the nurse indicates that an important outcome for this client has been met? a. Client is able to decrease blood pressure medications. b. Insertion site has healed without redness or tenderness. c. Most recent lab data show BUN: 19 mg/dL and creatinine 1.1 mg/dL. d. Verbalizes understanding of postprocedure lifestyle changes
ANS: A Hypertension can be caused by renovascular disease. Opening up a constricted renal artery can lead to decreased blood pressure, manifested by the need for less blood pressure medication. The other findings are normal and desired, but not specifically related to hypertension caused by renal disease
A nurse teaches a client who experiences occasional premature atrial contractions (PACs) accompanied by palpitations that resolve spontaneously without treatment. Which statement would the nurse include in this client's teaching? a. "Minimize or abstain from caffeine." b. "Lie on your side until the attack subsides." c. "Use your oxygen when you experience PACs." d. "Take amiodarone daily to prevent PACs."
ANS: A PACs usually have no hemodynamic consequences. For a client experiencing infrequent PACs, the nurse would explore possible lifestyle causes, such as excessive caffeine intake and stress. Lying on the side will not prevent or resolve PACs. Oxygen is not necessary. Although medications may be needed to control symptomatic dysrhythmias, for infrequent PACs, the client first would try lifestyle changes to control them
A nurse cares for a client who is on a cardiac monitor. The monitor displayed the rhythm shown below: What action would the nurse take first? a. Assess airway, breathing, and circulation. b. Administer an amiodarone bolus followed by a drip. c. Cardiovert the client with a biphasic defibrillator. d. Begin cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR).
ANS: A Ventricular tachycardia occurs with repetitive firing of an irritable ventricular ectopic focus, usually at a rate of 140 to 180 beats/min or more. Ventricular tachycardia is a potentially lethal dysrhythmia. The nurse would first assess if the client is alert, breathing, and has a pulse. If this client is pulseless, then the nurse would call a Code Blue and begin CPR. The treatment of choice for pulseless ventricular tachycardia is defibrillation. If the client has a pulse, then cardioversion would be indicated. Amiodarone is an appropriate antidysrhythmic, but it is not the first action.
A client is receiving an infusion of alteplase for an intra-arterial clot. The client begins to mumble and is disoriented. What action by the nurse is most important? a. Assess the client's neurologic status. b. Notify the Rapid Response Team. c. Prepare to administer vitamin K. d. Turn down the infusion rate.
ANS: B Clients on fibrinolytic therapy are at high risk of bleeding. The sudden onset of neurologic signs may indicate that the client is having a hemorrhagic stroke. The nurse does need to complete a thorough neurologic examination, but would first call the Rapid Response Team based on the client's manifestations. Vitamin K is not the antidote for this drug. Turning down the infusion rate will not be helpful if the client is still receiving any of the drug.
A patient is in the intensive care unit because of an acute myocardial infarction. He is experiencing severe ventricular dysrhythmias. The nurse will prepare to give which drug of choice for this dysrhythmia? A. Diltiazem (Cardizem) B. Verapamil (Calan) C. Amiodarone (Cordarone) D. Adenosine (Adenocard)
ANS: C Amiodarone (Cordarone) is the drug of choice for ventricular dysrhythmias according to the Advanced Cardiac Life Support guidelines. The other drugs are not used for acute ventricular dysrhythmias.
The nurse is assessing a patient who has been admitted to the intensive care unit (ICU) with a hypertensive emergency. Which finding is most important to report to the health care provider? a. Urine output over 8 hours is 250 mL less than the fluid intake. b. The patient cannot move the left arm and leg when asked to do so. c. Tremors are noted in the fingers when the patient extends the arms. d. The patient complains of a headache with pain at level 7 of 10 (0 to 10 scale).
ANS: B The patient's inability to move the left arm and leg indicates that a stroke may be occurring and will require immediate action to prevent further neurologic damage. The other clinical manifestations are also likely caused by the hypertension and will require rapid nursing actions, but they do not require action as urgently as the neurologic changes.
After receiving change of shift report, which patient admitted to the emergency department should the nurse assess first? a. A 67-yr-old patient who has a gangrenous left foot ulcer with a weak pedal pulse b. A 50-yr-old patient who is complaining of sudden sharp and severe upper back pain c. A 39-yr-old patient who has right calf tenderness, redness, and swelling after a plane ride d. A 58-yr-old patient who is taking anticoagulants for atrial fibrillation and has black stools
ANS: B The patient's presentation of sudden sharp and severe upper back pain is consistent with dissecting thoracic aneurysm, which will require the most rapid intervention. The other patients also require rapid intervention but not before the patient with severe pain.
A nurse assesses a client with atrial fibrillation. Which manifestation would alert the nurse to the possibility of a serious complication from this condition? a. Sinus tachycardia b. Speech alterations c. Fatigue d. Dyspnea with activity
ANS: B Clients with atrial fibrillation are at risk for embolic stroke. Evidence of embolic events includes changes in mentation, speech, sensory function, and motor function. Clients with atrial fibrillation often have a rapid ventricular response as a result. Fatigue is a nonspecific complaint. Clients with atrial fibrillation often have dyspnea as a result of the decreased cardiac output caused by the rhythm disturbance
Which action should the nurse include in a community health program to decrease the incidence of rheumatic fever? a. Vaccinate high-risk groups in the community with streptococcal vaccine. b. Teach community members to seek treatment for streptococcal pharyngitis. c. Teach about the importance of monitoring temperature when sore throats occur. d. Teach about prophylactic antibiotics to those with a family history of rheumatic fever.
ANS: B The incidence of rheumatic fever is decreased by treatment of streptococcal infections with antibiotics. Family history is not a risk factor for rheumatic fever. There is no immunization that is effective in decreasing the incidence of rheumatic fever. Teaching about monitoring temperature will not decrease the incidence of rheumatic fever
A patient's heart monitor shows that every other beat is earlier than expected, has no visible P wave, and has a QRS complex that is wide and bizarre in shape. How will the nurse document the rhythm? a. Ventricular couplets b. Ventricular bigeminy c. Ventricular R-on-T phenomenon d. Multifocal premature ventricular contractions
ANS: B Ventricular bigeminy describes a rhythm in which every other QRS complex is wide and bizarre looking. Pairs of wide QRS complexes are described as ventricular couplets. There is no indication that the premature ventricular contractions are multifocal or that the R-on-T phenomenon is occurring.
A patient with supraventricular tachycardia who is alert and has a blood pressure of 110/66 mm Hg is being prepared for cardioversion. Which action should the nurse take? a. Turn the synchronizer switch to the "off" position. b. Give a sedative before cardioversion is implemented. c. Set the defibrillator/cardioverter energy to 360 joules. d. Provide assisted ventilations with a bag-valve-mask device.
ANS: B When a patient has a nonemergency cardioversion, sedation is used just before the procedure. The synchronizer switch is turned "on" for cardioversion. The initial level of joules for cardioversion is low (e.g., 50). Assisted ventilations are not indicated for this patient
A client has undergone pericardiocentesis to treat cardiac tamponade. The nurse would monitor the client for which to determine whether the tamponade is recurring? a. Facial flushing b. Decreasing pulse c. Paradoxical pulse d. Rising blood pressure
ANS: C Cardiac tamponade is a life-threatening situation caused by the accumulation of fluid in thepericardium. The fluid accumulates rapidly and in sufficient quantity to compress the heart andrestrict blood flow in and out of the ventricles. Hypotension, tachycardia, jugular vein distension, cyanosis of the lips and nails, dyspnea, muffled heart sounds, diaphoresis, and paradoxical pulse(a decrease in systolic arterial pressure greater than 10 mm Hg during inspiration) are indicationsof this emergency situation. The emergency intervention of choice is pericardiocentesis, aprocedure in which fluid is aspirated from the pericardial sac. Options 1, 2, and 4 are notindications of cardiac tamponade.
The primary health care provider requests the nurse start an infusion of milrinone on a client. How does the nurse explain the action of this drug to the client and spouse? a. "It constricts vessels, improving blood flow." b. "It dilates vessels, which lessens the work of the heart." c. "It increases the force of the heart's contractions." d. "It slows the heart rate down for better filling."
ANS: C Milrinone, is a positive inotrope, is a medication that increases the strength of the heart's contractions. It is not a vasoconstrictor, a vasodilator, nor does it slow the heart rate
A patient has received an overdose of intravenous heparin, and is showing signs of excessive bleeding. Which substance is the antidote for heparin overdose? a. Vitamin E. b. Vitamin K. c. Protamine sulfate d. Potassium chloride
ANS: C Vitamin K is the antidote for warfarin.
A telemetry nurse assesses a client who has a heart rate of 35 beats/min on the cardiac monitor. Which assessment would the nurse complete next? a. Pulmonary auscultation b. Pulse strength and amplitude c. Level of consciousness d. Mobility and gait stability
ANS: C A heart rate of 40 beats/min or less could have hemodynamic consequences. The client is at risk for inadequate cerebral perfusion. The nurse would assess for level of consciousness, dizziness, confusion, syncope, chest pain, shortness of breath. Although the other assessments would be completed, the nurse would assess the client's neurologic status next.
While a patient is receiving antilipemic therapy, the nurse knows to monitor the patient closely for the development of which problem? a. Neutropenia b. Pulmonary problems c. Vitamin C deficiency d. Liver dysfunction
ANS: D Antilipemic drugs may adversely affect liver function; therefore, liver function studies need to be closely monitored. The other options do not reflect problems that may occur with antilipemic drugs.
The RN has provided instructions to a client scheduled for an exercise electrocardiogram (ECG) (stress test) at 0900 on the following day. The nurse determines that the client needs additional instructions if the client makes which statement? a. I should not go to the gym to work out today. b. I should wear sneakers when I come for the test. c. I will wear light, loose, comfortable clothing for the procedure. d. I cannot eat for 24 hours before the procedure, I should only drink water
ANS: D The client should eat a light meal 1 to 2 hours before this procedure but caffeine should be avoided. In addition, the client should wear rubber-soled, supportive shoes, such as sneakers, and light, loose, comfortable clothing. A shirt that buttons in front is helpful for ECG lead placement. The client should not do strenuous physical activity for at least 12 hours before testing. A workout at the gym the day before the procedure is acceptable as long as there are no existing cardiac disorders contraindicating this type of activity.
The nurse has received change-of-shift report about the following patients on the progressive care unit. Which patient should the nurse see first? a. A patient who is in a sinus rhythm, rate 98, after having electrical cardioversion 2 hours ago b. A patient with new onset atrial fibrillation, rate 88, who has a first dose of warfarin (Coumadin) due c. A patient with second-degree atrioventricular (AV) block, type 1, rate 60, who is dizzy when ambulating d. A patient whose implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) fired two times today who has a dose of amiodarone (Cordarone) due
ANS: D The frequent firing of the ICD indicates that the patient's ventricles are very irritable, and the priority is to assess the patient and administer the amiodarone. The other patients may be seen after the amiodarone is administered
A client presents to the emergency department with a thoracic aortic aneurysm. Which findings are most consistent with this condition? (Select all that apply.) a. Abdominal tenderness b. Difficulty swallowing c. Changes in bowel habits d. Shortness of breath e. Hoarseness
***ANS: B, D, E Signs of a thoracic aortic aneurysm include shortness of breath, hoarseness, and difficulty swallowing. Pain is often rated as a 10 on a 10-point scale. Bowel habits are not related
Which statements by the client indicate good understanding of foot care in peripheral vascular disease? (Select all that apply.) a. "A good abrasive pumice stone will keep my feet soft." b. "I'll always wear shoes if I can buy cheap flip-flops." c. "I will keep my feet dry, especially between the toes." d. "Lotion is important to keep my feet smooth and soft." e. "Washing my feet in room-temperature water is best." f. "I will inspect my feet daily."
***ANS: C, D, E, F Good foot care includes appropriate hygiene and injury prevention. Keeping the feet dry; wearing good, comfortable shoes; using lotion; washing the feet in room-temperature water; cutting the nails straight across; and inspecting the feet daily are all important measures. Abrasive material such as pumice stones would not be used. Cheap flip-flops may not fit well and won't offer much protection against injury
A 22-year-old male client arrives via ambulance to the emergency department (ED) with complaints of palpitations and weakness. He reports he was on a ladder while working in his garage when he suddenly started to feel shaky and dizzy. He reports that he drinks energy drinks on a daily basis as well as fitness supplements before going to the gym. The emergency physician prescribes a stat electrocardiogram (ECG) and D-dimer and cardiac markers to be drawn. Which of the following findings that the nurse documented as part of the assessment require follow-up by the nurse? Select all that apply.
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A 61-year-old female client is admitted to the Emergency Department with a new report this morning of severe "indigestion" that has not responded to an over-the-counter (OTC) medication, shortness of breath with minimal exertion, and occasional nausea. Her husband of 41 years tell the nurse that she is very anxious because her father died from a massive heart attack. Her health history indicates that she has medication-controlled hypertension but is otherwise healthy. Her current vital signs include: Apical pulse = 94 beats/minute and regular Respirations = 22 breaths/minue Blood pressure = 162/95 mmHg Based on the client's health history, physical assessment, and diagnostic test results, the client is diagnosed with a NSTEMI. She is scheduled for percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI). Which teaching items would the nurse include for the patient prior to the procedure? Select all that apply.
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A 61-year-old female client is admitted to the Emergency Department with a new report this morning of severe "indigestion" that has not responded to an over-the-counter (OTC) medication, shortness of breath with minimal exertion, and occasional nausea. Her husband of 41 years tell the nurse that she is very anxious because her father died from a massive heart attack. Her health history indicates that she has medication-controlled hypertension but is otherwise healthy. Her current vital signs include: Apical pulse = 94 beats/minute and regular Respirations = 22 breaths/minute Blood pressure = 162/95 mmHg The nurse performs a head-to-toe assessment and anticipates primary health care provider. Which of the following orders do you anticipate for this client? Select all that apply.
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A nurse assesses a client's electrocardiogram (ECG) and observes the reading shown below: How would the nurse document this client's ECG strip?
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When applying transdermal nitroglycerin patches, which instruction by the nurse is correct?
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The nurse is admitting an older adult with decompensated congestive heart failure. The nursing assessment reveals adventitious lung sounds, dyspnea, and orthopnea. The nurse should question which doctor's order? a. Intravenous (IV) 500 mL of 0.9% NaCl at 125 mL/hr b. Furosemide (Lasix) 20 mg PO now c. Oxygen via face mask at 8 L/min d. KCl 20 mEq PO two times per day
ANS: A
A nurse admits a client who is experiencing an exacerbation of heart failure. What action would the nurse take first? a. Assess the client's respiratory status. b. Draw blood to assess the client's serum electrolytes. c. Administer intravenous furosemide. d. Ask the client about current medications.
ANS: A Assessment of respiratory and oxygenation status is the most important nursing intervention for the prevention of complications. Monitoring electrolytes, administering diuretics, and asking about current medications are important but do not take precedence over assessing respiratory status
A patient arrives in the emergency department with severe chest pain. The patient reports that the pain has been occurring off and on for a week now. Which assessment finding would indicate the need for cautious use of nitrates and nitrites? a. Blood pressure of 88/62 mm Hg b. Apical pulse rate of 110 beats/min c. History of renal disease d. History of a myocardial infarction 2 years ago
ANS: A Hypotension is a possible contraindication to the use of nitrates because the medications may cause the blood pressure to decrease.
After the nurse gives IV atropine to a patient with symptomatic type 1, second-degree atrioventricular (AV) block, which finding indicates that the drug has been effective? a. Increase in the patient's heart rate b. Increase in strength of peripheral pulses c. Decrease in premature atrial contractions d. Decrease in premature ventricular contractions
ANS: A Atropine will increase the heart rate and conduction through the AV node. Because the drug increases electrical conduction, not cardiac contractility, the quality of the peripheral pulses is not used to evaluate the drug effectiveness. The patient does not have premature atrial or ventricular contractions.
The nurse is caring for a patient with aortic stenosis. Which assessment data would be most important to report to the health care provider? a. The patient reports chest pressure when ambulating. b. A loud systolic murmur is heard along the right sternal border. c. A thrill is palpated at the second intercostal space, right sternal border. d. The point of maximum impulse (PMI) is at the left midclavicular line.
ANS: A Chest pressure (or pain) occurring with aortic stenosis is caused by cardiac ischemia and reporting this information would be a priority. A systolic murmur and thrill are expected in a patient with aortic stenosis. A PMI at the left midclavicular line is normal.
A client had an inferior wall myocardial infarction (MI). The nurse notes the client's cardiac rhythm as shown below: What action by the nurse is most important? a. Assess the client's blood pressure and level of consciousness. b. Call the primary health care provider or the Rapid Response Team. c. Obtain a permit for an emergency temporary pacemaker insertion. d. Prepare to administer antidysrhythmic medication.
ANS: A Clients with an inferior wall MI often have bradycardia and blocks that lead to decreased perfusion, as seen in this ECG strip. The nurse would first assess the client's hemodynamic status, including vital signs and level of consciousness. The client may or may not need the Rapid Response Team, a temporary pacemaker, or medication; there is no indication of this in the question
The nurse is caring for four hypertensive clients. Which drug-laboratory value combination would the nurse report immediately to the health care provider? a. Furosemide/potassium: 2.1 mEq/L b. Hydrochlorothiazide/potassium: 4.2 mEq/L c. Spironolactone/potassium: 5.1 mEq/L d. Torsemide/sodium: 142 mEq/L
ANS: A Furosemide is a loop diuretic and can cause hypokalemia. A potassium level of 2.1 mEq/L is quite low and would be reported immediately. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can cause hyperkalemia. A potassium level of 5.1 mEq/L is on the high side, but it is not as critical as the low potassium with furosemide. The other two laboratory values are normal
A nurse assesses a client who is recovering from a heart transplant. Which assessment findings would alert the nurse to the possibility of heart transplant rejection? (Select all that apply.) a. Shortness of breath b. Abdominal bloating c. New-onset bradycardia d. Increased ejection fraction e. Hypertension f. Fatigue
ANS: A, B, C, F Clinical findings of heart transplant rejection include shortness of breath, fatigue, fluid gain, abdominal bloating, new-onset bradycardia, hypotension, atrial fibrillation or flutter, decreased activity tolerance, and decreased ejection fraction.
Which patient-teaching instructions are appropriate for a patient taking an antidysrhythmic drug? (Select all that apply.) a. "Do not chew or crush extended-release forms of medication." b. "Take the medication with food if gastrointestinal distress occurs." c. "If a dose is missed, the missed dose should be taken along with the next dose that is due to be taken." d. "Take the medications with an antacid if gastrointestinal distress occurs." e. "Limit or avoid the use of caffeine." f. "The presence of a capsule in the stool should be reported to the physician immediately."
ANS: A, B, E Appropriate teaching instructions for a patient taking an antidysrhythmic drug include: do not chew or crush extended-release forms; if gastrointestinal distress occurs, take the drug with food; and limit or avoid the use of caffeine. Do not double medication doses or take medications with an antacid. The presence of a portion of a capsule or tablet in the stool is actually the wax matrix that carried the medication, which has been absorbed. The physician does not need to be notified.
After teaching a client with congestive heart failure (CHF), the nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which client statements indicate a correct understanding of the teaching related to nutritional intake? (Select all that apply.) a. "I'll read the nutritional labels on food items for salt content." b. "I will drink at least 3 liters of water each day." c. "Using salt in moderation will reduce the workload of my heart." d. "I will eat oatmeal for breakfast instead of ham and eggs." e. "Substituting fresh vegetables for canned ones will lower my salt intake."
ANS: A, D, E Nutritional therapy for a client with CHF is focused on decreasing sodium and water retention to decrease the workload of the heart. The client should be taught to read nutritional labels on all food items, omit table salt and foods high in sodium (e.g., ham and canned foods), and limit water intake to a normal 2 L/day.
The nurse working in the emergency department knows that which factors are commonly related to aneurysm formation? (Select all that apply.) a. Atherosclerosis b. Down syndrome c. Frequent heartburn d. History of hypertension e. History of smoking f. Hyperlipidemia
ANS: A, D, E, F Atherosclerosis, hypertension, hyperlipidemia, hyperlipidemia, and smoking are the most commonly related factors. Down syndrome and heartburn have no relation to aneurysm formation.
An 83-year-old woman has been given a thiazide diuretic to treat heart failure. She and her daughter should be told to watch for which problems? A. Constipation and anorexia B. Fatigue, leg cramps, and dehydration C. Daytime sedation and lethargy D. Edema, nausea, and blurred vision
ANS: B
A patient who has recently had an acute myocardial infarction (AMI) ambulates in the hospital hallway. Which data would indicate to the nurse that the patient should stop and rest? a. O2 saturation drops from 99% to 95%. b. Heart rate increases from 66 to 98 beats/min. c. Respiratory rate goes from 14 to 20 breaths/min. d. Blood pressure (BP) changes from 118/60 to 126/68 mm Hg.
ANS: B A change in heart rate of more than 20 beats over the resting heart rate indicates that the patient should stop and rest. The increases in BP and respiratory rate, and the slight decrease in O2 saturation, are normal responses to exercise.
Which nursing action should be included in the plan of care after endovascular repair of an abdominal aortic aneurysm? a. Record hourly chest tube drainage. b. Monitor fluid intake and urine output. c. Check the abdominal incision for any redness. d. Teach the reason for a prolonged recovery period.
ANS: B Because renal artery occlusion can occur after endovascular repair, the nurse should monitor parameters of renal function such as intake and output. Chest tubes will not be needed for endovascular surgery, the recovery period will be short, and there will not be an abdominal wound.
A patient's heart monitor shows a pattern of undulations of varying contours and amplitude with no measurable ECG pattern. The patient is unconscious, apneic, and pulseless. Which action should the nurse take first? a. give epinephrine IV b. perform immediate defibrillation c. prepare for endotracheal intubation d. ventilate with a valve-bag-mask device
ANS: B the patient's rhythm and assessment indicate ventricular fibrillation and cardiac arrest; the initial action should be to defibrillate
A nurse teaches a client with heart failure about energy conservation. Which statement would the nurse include in this client's teaching? a. "Walk until you become short of breath, and then walk back home." b. "Begin walking 200 feet a day three times a week." c. "Do not lift heavy weights for 6 months." d. "Eat plenty of protein to build your strength."
ANS: B A client who has heart failure would be taught to conserve energy and given an exercise plan. The client should begin walking 200-400 feet a day at home three times a week. The client should not walk until becoming short of breath because he or she may not make it back home. The lifting restriction is specifically for clients after valve replacements. Protein does help build strength, but this direction is not specific to heart failure.
After assessing a client who is receiving an amiodarone intravenous infusion for unstable ventricular tachycardia, the nurse documents the findings and compares these with the previous assessment findings: Based on the assessments, what action would the nurse take? a. Stop the infusion and flush the IV. b. Slow the amiodarone infusion rate. c. Administer IV normal saline. d. Ask the client to cough and deep breathe
ANS: B Amiodarone lengthens the absolute refractory period and prolongs repolarization and the action potential duration (and heart rate), so IV administration of amiodarone may cause bradycardia and atrioventricular (AV) block. The correct action for the nurse to take at this time is to slow the infusion, because the client is asymptomatic and no evidence reveals AV block that might require pacing. Abruptly ceasing the medication could allow fatal dysrhythmias to occur. The administration of IV fluids and encouragement of coughing and deep-breathing exercises are not indicated, and will not increase the client's heart rate
A client has presented to the emergency department with an acute myocardial infarction (MI). What action by the nurse is best for optimal client outcomes? a. Obtain an electrocardiogram (ECG) within 20 minutes. b. Give the client a nonenteric coated aspirin. c. Notify the Rapid Response Team immediately. d. Prepare to administer thrombolytics within 30 minutes.
ANS: B Best practice recommendations for acute MI require that aspirin is administered when a client with MI presents to the emergency department or when an MI occurs in the hospital. A rapid ECG (within 10 minutes) is vital for best outcomes. The Rapid Response Team is not needed if an emergency department provider is available. Thrombolytics may or may not be needed depending on the type of myocardial infarction the client has.
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client recovering from a heart transplant. Which statement would the nurse include? a. "Use a soft-bristled toothbrush and avoid flossing." b. "Avoid large crowds and people who are sick." c. "Change positions slowly to avoid hypotension." d. "Check your heart rate before taking the medication.
ANS: B Clients who have had heart transplants must take immunosuppressant therapy for the rest of their lives. The nurse would teach this client to avoid crowds and sick people to reduce the risk of becoming ill him- or herself. These medications do not place clients at risk for bleeding, orthostatic hypotension, or changes in heart rate. Orthostatic hypotension from the denervated heart is generally only a problem in the immediate postoperative period.
Which assessment finding(s) indicate to the nurse that a patient with infective endocarditis has decreased cardiac output? a. Fever, chills, and diaphoresis b. Urine production of 25 mL/hr c. Increase in heart rate of 15 beats/min with walking d. Petechiae on the inside of the mouth and conjunctiv
ANS: B Decreased renal perfusion caused by inadequate cardiac output will lead to decreased urine output. Petechiae, fever, chills, and diaphoresis are symptoms of IE but are not caused by decreased cardiac output. An increase in pulse rate of 15 beats/min is normal with exercise.
A nurse assesses a client with mitral valve stenosis. What clinical sign or symptom would alert the nurse to the possibility that the client's stenosis has progressed? a. Oxygen saturation of 92% b. Dyspnea on exertion c. Muted systolic murmur d. Upper extremity weakness
ANS: B Dyspnea on exertion develops as the mitral valvular orifice narrows and pressure in the lungs increases. The other signs and symptoms do not relate to the progression of mitral valve stenosis
A nurse assesses a client who has mitral regurgitation. In which location in the illustration shown below would the nurse auscultate to best hear a cardiac murmur related to mitral regurgitation? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
ANS: D Sounds from the mitral valve are best heard at the apex of the heart, fifth intercostal space, midclavicular line.
A nurse is in charge of the coronary intensive care unit. Which client would the nurse see first? a. Client on a nitroglycerin infusion at 5 mcg/min, not titrated in the last 4 hours b. Client who is 1-day post coronary artery bypass graft, with blood pressure 88/64 mm Hg c. Client who is 1-day post percutaneous coronary intervention, going home this morning d. Client who is 2-day post coronary artery bypass graft, who became dizzy this morning while walking
ANS: B Hypotension after coronary artery bypass graft surgery can be dangerous because it can lead to collapse of the graft. The charge nurse would see this client first. The client who became dizzy earlier would be seen next. The client on the nitroglycerin drip is stable. The client going home can wait until the other clients are cared for.
A patient who is recovering from an acute myocardial infarction (AMI) asks the nurse about safely resuming sexual intercourse. Which response by the nurse is best? a. "Most patients are able to without any complications." b. "Sexual activity uses about as much energy as climbing two flights of stairs." c. "The doctor will provide sexual guidelines when your heart is strong enough." d. "Holding and cuddling are good ways to maintain intimacy after a heart attack."
ANS: B Sexual activity places about as much physical stress on the cardiovascular system as moderate-energy activities, such as climbing two flights of stairs. The other responses are general statements that may be accurate, but do not provide useful guidelines for judging the physical safety of the activity
A nurse assesses a client with pericarditis. Which assessment finding would the nurse expect to find? a. Heart rate that speeds up and slows down. b. Friction rub at the left lower sternal border. c. Presence of a regular gallop rhythm. d. Coarse crackles in bilateral lung bases
ANS: B The client with pericarditis may present with a pericardial friction rub at the left lower sternal border. This sound is the result of friction from inflamed pericardial layers when they rub together. The other assessments are not related
What nonpharmacologic comfort measures would the nurse include in the plan of care for a client with severe varicose veins? (Select all that apply.) a. Administering mild analgesics for pain b. Applying elastic compression stockings c. Elevating the legs when sitting or lying d. Reminding the client to do leg exercises e. Teaching the client about surgical options f. Encouraging participation in high impact aerobic activity
ANS: B, C, D The three Es of care for varicose veins include elastic compression hose, exercise, and elevation. Mild analgesics are not a nonpharmacologic measure. Teaching about surgical options is not a comfort measure. High impact aerobics is not encouraged and is not a comfort measure
A client is receiving an infusion of tissue plasminogen activator (tPA). The nurse assesses the client to be disoriented to person, place, and time. What action by the nurse is best? a. Assess the client's pupillary responses. b. Request a neurologic consultation. c. Stop the infusion and call the provider. d. Take and document a full set of vital signs.
ANS: C
Heparin is ordered for a patient with a non-ST-segment-elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI). How should the nurse explain the purpose of the heparin to the patient? a. Heparin enhances platelet aggregation. b. Heparin decreases coronary artery plaque size. c. Heparin prevents the development of new clots in the coronary arteries. d. Heparin dissolves clots that are blocking blood flow in the coronary arteries.
ANS: C
A nurse is assessing an obese client in the clinic for follow-up after an episode of deep vein thrombosis. The client has lost 20 lb (9.09 Kg) since the last visit. What action by the nurse is best? a. Ask if the weight loss was intended. b. Encourage a high-protein, high-fiber diet. c. Measure for new compression stockings. d. Review a 3-day food recall diary
ANS: C Compression stockings must fit correctly in order to work. After losing a significant amount of weight, the client would be remeasured and new stockings ordered if needed. The other options are appropriate, but not the most important.
Which assessment finding for a patient who has been admitted with a right calf venous thromboembolism (VTE) requires immediate action by the nurse? a. Report of right calf pain b. Erythema of right lower leg c. New onset shortness of breath d. Temperature of 100.4° F (38° C)
ANS: C New onset dyspnea suggests a pulmonary embolus, which will require rapid actions such as O2 administration and notification of the health care provider. The other findings are typical of VTE.
A client had an acute myocardial infarction. What assessment finding indicates to the nurse that a significant complication has occurred? a. Blood pressure that is 20 mm Hg below baseline b. Oxygen saturation of 94% on room air c. Poor peripheral pulses and cool skin d. Urine output of 1.2 mL/kg/hr for 4 hours
ANS: C Poor peripheral pulses and cool skin may be signs of impending cardiogenic shock and would be reported immediately. A blood pressure drop of 20 mm Hg may not be worrisome. An oxygen saturation of 94% is just slightly below normal. A urine output of 1.2 mL/kg/hr for 4 hours is normal.
The nurse obtains the following data when assessing a patient who experienced an ST-segment-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI) 2 days previously. Which information is most important to report to the health care provider? a. The troponin level is elevated. b. The patient denies having a heart attack. c. Bilateral crackles in the mid-lower lobes. d. Occasional premature atrial contractions (PACs).
ANS: C The crackles indicate that the patient may be developing heart failure, a possible complication of myocardial infarction (MI). The health care provider may need to order medications such as diuretics or angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors for the patient. Elevation in troponin level at this time is expected. PACs are not life-threatening dysrhythmias. Denial is a common response in the immediate period after the MI
The nurse reviews information shown in the accompanying figure from the medical records of a 43-year-old patient. Which risk factor modification for coronary artery disease should the nurse include in patient teaching? a. Importance of daily physical activity b. Effect of weight loss on blood pressure c. Dietary changes to improve lipid levels d. Cardiac risk associated with previous tobacco use
ANS: C The patient has an elevated low-density lipoprotein cholesterol and low high-density lipoprotein cholesterol, which will increase the risk of coronary artery disease. The patient's waist circumference and body mass index indicate an appropriate body weight. The risk for coronary artery disease a year after quitting smoking is the same as a nonsmoker. The patient's occupation indicates that daily activity is at the levels suggested by national guidelines.
Which electrocardiographic (ECG) change by a patient with chest pain is most important for the nurse to report rapidly to the health care provider? a. Inverted P wave b. Sinus tachycardia c. ST-segment elevation d. First-degree atrioventricular block
ANS: C The patient is likely to be experiencing an ST-segment-elevation myocardial infarction. Immediate therapy with percutaneous coronary intervention or thrombolytic medication is indicated to minimize myocardial damage. The other ECG changes may also suggest a need for therapy but not as rapidly.
A patient with acute coronary syndrome has returned to the coronary care unit after having angioplasty with stent placement. Which assessment data indicate the need for immediate action by the nurse? a. Report of chest pain b. Heart rate 102 beats/min c. Pedal pulses 1+ bilaterally d. Blood pressure 103/54 mm Hg
ANS: C The patient's chest pain indicates that restenosis of the coronary artery may be occurring and requires immediate actions, such as administration of oxygen and nitroglycerin, by the nurse. The other information indicates a need for ongoing assessments by the nurse.
A patient with ST-segment elevation in three contiguous electrocardiographic leads is admitted to the emergency department and diagnosed as having an ST-segment-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI). Which question should the nurse ask to determine whether the patient is a candidate for thrombolytic therapy? a. "Do you have any allergies?" b. "Do you take aspirin daily?" c. "What time did your pain begin?" d. "Can you rate the pain on a 0 to 10 scale?"
ANS: C Thrombolytic therapy should be started within 6 hours of the onset of the myocardial infarction, so the time at which the chest pain started is a major determinant of the appropriateness of this treatment. The other information is not a factor in the decision about thrombolytic therapy
A postoperative client has a prescription to begin short-term therapy with enoxaparin. The nurse would plan to explain to the client that this medication is being prescribed for which therapeutic action? a. prevent pain b. relieve back spasms c. increase energy levels d. reduce the risk of DVT
ANS: D
The nurse is screening a patient who will be taking a nonspecific/nonselective beta blocker. Which condition, if present, may cause serious problems if the patient takes this medication? A. Angina B. Hypertension C. Glaucoma D. Asthma
ANS: D
The nurse is obtaining a health history from a 24-yr-old patient with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (CMP). Which information obtained by the nurse is most important in planning care? a. The patient has a history of a recent upper respiratory infection. b. The patient has a family history of coronary artery disease (CAD). c. The patient reports using cocaine a "couple of times" as a teenager. d. The patient's 29-year-old brother died from a sudden cardiac arrest.
ANS: D About half of all cases of HC have a genetic basis, and it is the most common cause of sudden cardiac death in otherwise healthy young people. The information about the patient's brother will be helpful in planning care (such as an automatic implantable cardioverter-defibrillator [AICD]) for the patient and in counseling other family members. The patient should be counseled against the use of stimulant drugs, but the limited past history indicates that the patient is not at current risk for cocaine use. Viral infections and CAD are risk factors for dilated cardiomyopathy, but not for HC.
The nurse is caring for a 70-yr-old patient who takes hydrochlorothiazide and enalapril (Norvasc). The patient's blood pressure (BP) continues to be high. Which patient information may indicate a need for a change? a. Patient takes a daily multivitamin tablet. b. Patient checks BP daily just after getting up. c. Patient drinks wine three to four times a week. d. Patient uses ibuprofen (Motrin) treat osteoarthritis.
ANS: D Because use of nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) can prevent adequate BP control, the patient may need to avoid the use of ibuprofen. A multivitamin tablet will help supply vitamin D, which may help lower BP. BP decreases while sleeping, so self-monitoring early in the morning will result in obtaining pressures that are at their lowest. The patient's alcohol intake is not excessive.
A 58-year-old man has had a myocardial infarction (MI), has begun rehabilitation, and is ready for discharge. He is given a prescription for metoprolol (Lopressor) and becomes upset after reading the patient education pamphlet. "I don't have high blood pressure—why did my doctor give me this medicine?" Which explanation by the nurse is correct? a. "This medication will prevent blood clots that may lead to another heart attack." b. "Beta blockers will improve blood flow to the kidneys." c. "This drug is prescribed to prevent the high blood pressure that often occurs after a heart attack." d. "Studies have shown that this medication has greatly increased survival rates in patients who have had a heart attack."
ANS: D Beta blockers are frequently given to patients after they have suffered an MI because of their cardioprotective properties. The other responses are incorrect.
A 79-year-old patient is taking a diuretic for treatment of hypertension. This patient is very independent and wants to continue to live at home. The nurse will know that which teaching point is important for this patient? a. He should take the diuretic with his evening meal. b. He should skip the diuretic dose if he plans to leave the house. c. If he feels dizzy while on this medication, he needs to stop taking it and take potassium supplements instead. d. He needs to take extra precautions when standing up because of possible orthostatic hypotension and resulting injury from falls.
ANS: D Caution must be exercised in the administration of diuretics to the older adults because they are more sensitive to the therapeutic effects of these drugs and are more sensitive to the adverse effects of diuretics, such as dehydration, electrolyte loss, dizziness, and syncope. Taking the diuretic with the evening meal may disrupt sleep because of nocturia. Doses should never be skipped or stopped without checking with the prescriber.
A nurse teaches a client who has a history of heart failure. Which statement should the nurse include in this client's discharge teaching? a. "Avoid drinking more than 3 quarts of liquids each day." b. "Eat six small meals daily instead of three larger meals." c. "When you feel short of breath, take an additional diuretic." d. "Weigh yourself daily while wearing the same amount of clothing."
ANS: D Clients with heart failure are instructed to weigh themselves daily to detect worsening heart failure early, and thus avoid complications. Other signs of worsening heart failure include increasing dyspnea, exercise intolerance, cold symptoms, and nocturia. Fluid overload increases symptoms of heart failure. The client would be taught to eat a heart-healthy diet, balance intake and output to prevent dehydration and overload, and take medications as prescribed. The most important discharge teaching is daily weights as this provides the best data related to fluid retention.
A nurse is caring for a client with acute pericarditis who reports substernal precordial pain that radiates to the left side of the neck. Which nonpharmacologic comfort measure would the nurse implement? a. Apply an ice pack to the client's chest. b. Provide a neck rub, especially on the left side. c. Allow the client to lie in bed with the lights down. d. Sit the client up with a pillow to lean forward on
ANS: D Pain from acute pericarditis may worsen when the client lays supine. The nurse would position the client in a comfortable position, which usually is upright and leaning slightly forward. An ice pack and neck rub will not relieve this pain. Dimming the lights will also not help the pain
A nurse cares for a patient with end-stage heart failure who is awaiting a transplant. The patient appears depressed and states, "I know a transplant is my last chance, but I don't want to become a vegetable." How would the nurse respond? a. "Would you like to speak with a priest or chaplain?" b. "I will arrange for a psychiatrist to speak with you." c. "Do you want to come off the transplant list?" d. "Would you like information about advance directives?
ANS: D The client is verbalizing a real concern or fear about negative outcomes of the surgery. This anxiety itself can have a negative effect on the outcome of the surgery because of sympathetic stimulation. The best action is to allow the client to verbalize the concern and work toward a positive outcome without making the client feel as though the concerns are not valid. The client needs to feel that he or she has some control over the future. The nurse personally provides care to address the client's concerns instead of immediately calling for the chaplain or psychiatrist. The nurse would not jump to conclusions and suggest taking the client off the transplant list, which is the best treatment option
