Genetics Final Exam
How does DNA differ from RNA? Choose all that apply. a. RNA has multiple bases attached to the sugar b. RNA is single stranded while DNA is double-stranded c. RNA contains different sized phosphate groups d. RNA uses a different five-carbon sugar e. RNA has Uracil while DNA has thymine
- RNA is single stranded while DNA is double-stranded - RNA uses a different five-carbon sugar - RNA has Uracil while DNA has thymine
Which of the following is a characteristic/feature of a good cloning vector, such as GFP-plasmid you are using in lab? Choose all that apply. a. origin of replication region b. antisense RNA region c. selectable marker d. cloning site with restriction enzyme sites e. landmarks for gene expression
- origin of replication region - selectable marker - cloning site with restriction enzyme sites - landmarks for gene expression
For the lactose operon, which statements are TRUE. Choose all that apply. a. the lac I protein is a repressor protein b. allolactose is an inhibitory effector, which down regulates expression of the operon's structural genes c. the lac I protein binds to the operator to prevent transcription of the operon's structural genes d. CAP binds to the activator regulatory element to up regulate transcription of the structural genes but only in the absence of glucose e. The promoter region binds RNA polymerase and the sigma factor to initiate transcription
- the lac I protein is a repressor protein - the lac I protein binds to the operator to prevent transcription of the operon's structural genes - CAP binds to the activator regulatory element to up regulate transcription of the structural genes but only in the absence of glucose - The promoter region binds RNA polymerase and the sigma factor to initiate transcription
Tumor-suppressor genes promote cancer when... (Choose all that apply) Select one or more: a. they are expressed at the wrong stage of development b. their function is inactivated c. they are overexpressed d. they are expressed in the wrong cell type
- they are overexpressed - they are expressed in the wrong cell type - they are expressed at the wrong stage of development
If a eukaryotic cell has a 2N=20 and it is in metaphase of meiosis II, how many tetrads are in this cell? a. 0 b. 10 c. 20 d. 40 e. None of the above is an accurate number
0
If a somatic cell with a 2N=6 is in late prophase of mitosis, how many chromatids would it contain? a. 0 b. 3 c. 6 d. 12 e. 24
12
A diploid organism has a total of 10 chromosomes (N=5; 2N=10). Assume all possible chromosome combinations are viable. If a mutant tetraploid version of this organism was created, then how many chromosomes would it have; if a mutant version of the diploid organism was trisomic for Chromosome 1, then how many chromosomes would it have? a. 20; 9 b. 20; 11 c. 40; 9 d. 40; 11 e. None of the above
20; 11
Using Mendel's laws, what is the probability of getting an offspring with both dominant traits from a cross between these two parents: Aabb X AaBb a. 100% b. 3/16 (18.75%) c. 1/16 (6.25%) d. 3/8 (37.5%) e. 1/8 (12.5%) ab. 0%
3/8 (37.5%)
How many different types of histone proteins are there in a complete nucleosome? a. 10 b. 8 c. 7 d. 5 e. 4
5
DNA polymerases add new nucleotides in what direction? a. 5' to 3' b. 3' to 5' c. both directions
5' to 3'
If you perform a testcross Aa X aa, what are the chances of getting offspring with the dominant trait? a. 0% b. 25% c. 50% d. 75% e. 100%
50%
In a mapping cross, you determine that the percent recombination between genes P and Q is 15% and between Q and L is 35%. If gene Q is between genes P and L, then the map units between P and L should be approximately: a. 5% b. 10% c. 15% d. 20% e. 50%
50%
In a dihybrid cross using Mendelian inheritance, if both parents are heterozygous for both traits, what will be the phenotypic ratio of their offspring? a. 1:2:1 b. 3:1 c. 9:3:3:1 d. 1:1 e. 1:2:1:2:4
9:3:3:1
Which of the of the following describes one way that a proto-oncogene can become an oncogene? Select one: a. A change in the structure of the encoded protein causes it to be overly active. b. The encoded protein is expressed in only one type of cell. c. The amount of protein the gene produces is greatly reduced from the healthy state. d. The mutation that produces an oncogene is a loss-of-function mutation.
A change in the structure of the encoded protein causes it to be overly active.
The chromosomes of eukaryotes typically contain which of the following... a. a few hundred to several thousand different genes b. a centromere c. highly repetitive and moderately repetitive DNA regions d. telomeres are the ends e. All of the responses for this question are true
All of the responses for this question are true
Which of the following statements is TRUE about gametogenesis (aka sperm and egg production) a. Two primary spermatocytes are the product of meiosis I b. The first polar body and a primary oocyte are the products of meiosis I c. Spermatids have a diploid chromosome number d. An ootid and the second polar body are the products of meiosis II e. Cells divide by mitosis in both spermatogenesis and oogenesis
An ootid and the second polar body are the products of meiosis II
Prokaryotic cells divide by... a. Mitosis only b. Meiosis only c. Mitosis and meiosis d. Binary fission
Binary fission
In general, the order of the three steps for replicating telomeres is... a. Binding, translocation, polymerization b. Binding, polymerization, translocation c. Polymerization, binding, termination d. Polymerase, translocation, termination
Binding, polymerization, translocation
This structure of the eukaryotic chromosome is constructive heterochromatin and the spindle fiber attachment during cell division... a. Telomere b. Centromere c. Chromosome arm d. G-band
Centromere
CpG islands are associated with which of the following? a. DNA methylation b. nucleosome location c. cAMP pathway d. steroid hormone activity
DNA methylation
Which of the following is NOT a restriction placed on DNA polymerase as it replicates DNA inside the cell? Choose the false statement. a. DNA polymerases must have a template strand to copy from b. DNA polymerase can only synthesize new DNA in the 5' to 3' direction c. DNA polymerase only adds dNTPs to an RNA primers d. DNA polymerase can only add nucleotides to the 3' OH end of the newly synthesizing strand e. DNA polymerase reads the noncoding strand in the 3' to 5' direction
DNA polymerase only adds dNTPs to an RNA primers
This protein prevents supercoiling ahead of the replication fork a. Gyrase b. DNA polymerase c. DNA ligase d. DNA primase e. helicase
Gyrase
Which of the following is defined as "a pair of chromosomes with the same length and order of genes" a. Sister chromatids b. Replicated chromosomes c. Metaphase chromosomes d. Homologous chromosomes
Homologous chromosomes
An individual who has two identical alleles for a trait is said to be __________. a. A variant b. Heterozygous c. Homozygous d. Isozygous
Homozygous
Which of the following correctly describes features of the double-helix of DNA? a. the strands are complementary to each other b. the two polynucleotide strands are antiparallel c. each polynucleotide strand has directionality d. The two polynucleotide strands are held together by hydrogen bonds between bases e. If all answers are correct, pick this response
If all answers are correct, pick this response
Which of the following prokaryotic enzymes is NOT matched to its appropriate function a. Primase manufactures a 10-12 base segment of RNA b. DNA polymerase fills in the gaps created by removing primers c. DNA ligase forms the phosphodiester bond that connects two Okazaki fragments together d. DNA polymerase is the primary enzyme that synthesizes DNA e. Helicase unwinds the DNA at the replication fork ab. If all of these enzymes are appropriately matched up, then choose this response
If all of these enzymes are appropriately matched up, then choose this response
Which of the following statements correctly finishes this statement? DNA that contains actively transcribed genes would most likely contain... a. chromatin in the open configuration b. undermethylated CpG island in the promoter region c. undermethylated histone tails in the region d. acylated histone tails in the region e. If all of these make correct statements, then choose this response
If all of these make correct statements, then choose this response
Which of the following statements is TRUE about the similarities between prokaryotes and eukaryotes for the process of translation. a. In both prokaryotes and eukaryotes, a 7-methyl guanine cap is added to the 5' end of the mRNA as a signal for ribosome binding b. In both prokaryotes and eukaryotes, translation is the process of making a protein from mRNA c. In both prokaryotes and eukaryotes, translation occurs in the cytoplasm of the cell d. In both prokaryotes and eukaryotes, translation begins at the first AUG closest to the 5' end of the mRNA
In both prokaryotes and eukaryotes, translation is the process of making a protein from mRNA In both prokaryotes and eukaryotes, translation occurs in the cytoplasm of the cell
Frizzle fowl is a type of chicken that gets it name from the unusual way its feathers curl. Frizzle fowls do not breed true. When two frizzle fowls are crossed, they always produce progeny that are 50% frizzles, 25% normal, and 25% with peculiar feathers that fall out, leaving birds naked. Males and females display the same phenotypes and phenotypic distribution. What is the best hypothesis regarding how this feathering pattern is inherited? a. Mendelian inheritance pattern b. Codominance c. Sex-influenced d. Sex-linked e. Incomplete dominance
Incomplete dominance
Which of the following is an example of equational division? a. Mitosis only b. Meiosis I only c. Meiosis II only d. Mitosis and Meiosis I e. Mitosis and Meiosis II
Mitosis and Meiosis II
In the Hershey and Chase experiment involving T2 bacteriophage, T2's proteins were labeled with S35 and it's DNA was labeled with P32. After increasingly long blender treatments followed by centrifugation... a. Equal amounts of P32 and S35 were in the supernatant and pellet b. Most of the P32 was in the supernatant and most of the S35 was in the pellet c. Most of the S35 was in the supernatant and most of the P32 was in the pellet d. None of the above are correct
Most of the S35 was in the supernatant and most of the P32 was in the pellet
A mutation that causes a premature stop codon in the mRNA, thereby coding for a shorter protein, is an example of which type of mutation? a. Missense mutation b. Frameshift mutation c. Nonsense mutation d. Silent mutation e. Mismatch
Nonsense mutation
Which of the following is TRUE about oncogenes? Select one: a. Oncogenes tend to function in cell growth signal transduction pathways. b. Oncogenes are typically caused by loss-of-function mutations. c. Oncogenes tend to encode proteins that function to halt cell division. d. The prime example of an oncogene is the p53 gene, which surveys cells for DNA damage.
Oncogenes tend to function in cell growth signal transduction pathways
Which of the following statements is TRUE about a typical strand of DNA? a. Overall, the number of A bases equals the number of T bases in DNA, and the number of G bases equals the number of C bases b. Overall, the number of A bases equals the number of G bases c. The number of pyrimidines is greater than the number of purines on DNA d. The number of a specific base is the same on both polynucleotide strands
Overall, the number of A bases equals the number of T bases in DNA, and the number of G bases equals the number of C bases
Which of the following is a pose-transcriptional modification that stabilizes and increases the life span of a eukaryotic mRNA? a. trimming b. alternative splicing c. RNA editing d. Polyadenylation e. 5' capping using 7mGuanine
Polyadenylation
Which of the following indicates the correct order of these events in mitosis a. Metaphase - prometaphase - prophase - anaphase - telophase b. Telophase - prometaphase - prophase - metaphase - anaphase c. Prophase - prometaphase - metaphase - anaphase - telophase d. Anaphase - telophase - prophase - prometaphase - metaphase
Prophase - prometaphase - metaphase - anaphase - telophase
During which stage of cell division do tetrads form; and when does crossing over occur? a. Prophase of mitosis; prophase of mitosis b. Prophase I of meiosis; prophase II of meiosis c. Prophase I of meiosis; prophase I of meiosis d. Prophase I of meiosis; metaphase I of meiosis e. None of these combinations are correct
Prophase I of meiosis; prophase I of meiosis
Which of the following is a TRUE of the "ras" gene/protein and how it becomes a cancer-causing gene? Select one: a. Ras is involved in turning off cell division. b. Ras is a protein kinase. c. Ras is an example of a tumor-suppressor gene. d. Ras is the most common oncogene in the majority of tumors. e. Increasing the GTPase activity (increasing exchange of GTP for GDP) of ras is a means of converting it to a cancer-causing gene.
Ras is the most common oncogene in the majority of tumors.
A dihybrid cross is made, which produces three phenotypes in the offspring: 924 purple, 281 blue, and 492 white flowers. A chi-square analysis compares these data to a 10:3:3 ratio (P < 5%) and a 9:3:4 ratio (P > 5%). Which of the following are true statements? Choose all that apply. a. Accept the 10:3:3 ratio b. Reject the 10:3:3 ratio c. Accept the 9:3:4 ratio d. Reject the 9:3:4 ratio
Reject the 10:3:3 ratio Accept the 9:3:4 ratio
Which of the following is defined as a "chromosomes that has just finished a S phase of interphase?" a. Chromatids b. Replicated chromosomes c. Metaphase chromosomes d. Homologous chromosomes
Replicated chromosomes
Which of the following is found at the end of a eukaryotic chromosome? a. Kinetochores b. Centromeres c. Origins of replication d. Telomeres
Telomeres
Which of the following statements is FALSE about telomeres and the process of replicating telomeres? a. The enzyme component of telomerase is called TERT, and it is responsible for making DNA using an RNA template b. The telomerase protein contains a piece of RNA that is complementary to the repeating unit of the telomere c. Telomeres are found on eukaryotic chromosomes but not prokaryotic chromosomes d. The 5' end of the telomere is single-stranded, which is called a 5' overhang e. Telomeres are composed of tandemly repeating units
The 5' end of the telomere is single-stranded, which is called a 5' overhang
In lecture 1 we analyzed an image that illustrated some similarities and differences between the DNA of prokaryotes and the DNA of eukaryotes. Which of the following statements is TRUE. a. Prokaryotes have a nucleus b. The chromosomes of both prokaryotes and eukaryotes and linear, which mean the each chromosome has two ends c. The DNA of both prokaryotes and eukaryotes can be described as a double-stranded helix d. The chromosomes of both prokaryotes and eukaryotes are in direct contact with the cytoplasm e. The DNA of both prokaryotes and eukaryotes is packaged with histones to reduce their surface area inside of the cell
The DNA of both prokaryotes and eukaryotes can be described as a double-stranded helix
Which of the following characteristics apply to a Mendelian Inheritance pattern? Choose all that apply a. The Law of Allele Segregation states that two alleles of the same genre are inherited from the same parent b. The Law of Independent Assortment states that two homologous chromosome pairs act independently from each other during meiosis c. A monohybrid cross produces a 9:3:3:1 phenotypic ration d. A dihybrid cross produces a 1:1:1:1 genotypic and phenotypic ratio
The Law of Independent Assortment states that two homologous chromosome pairs act independently from each other during meiosis
In a chi-square test to determine if two genes are linked or assorting independently, what is the default (null) hypothesis that is tested? a. No crossing over occurs b. The genes are linked to one another c. The distance between the genes is very small d. The genes are assorting independently e. The genes are located on the sex chromosomes
The genes are assorting independently
Which of the following is a characteristic of the genetic code? Choose all true statements. a. The genetic code is ambiguous b. The genetic code is nearly universal c. The genetic code is an overlapping code d. The genetic code is non-degenerate e. The genetic code is a triplet code
The genetic code is nearly universal The genetic code is a triplet code
In class, we discussed the outcome of the Hershey and Chase experiment if the isotopes in the pellet had been tracked. Which of the following is the most likely outcome of this version of the experiment? a. The percent of P32 and S35 in pellet would start low but then the percent of S35 would rise well above the percent of P32 with increasing agitation time b. The percent of P32 and S35 in pellet would start low but then the percent of P32 would rise well above the percent of S35with increasing agitation time c. The percent of P32 and S35 would start high but then the percent of S35 in the pellet would fall well below the percent of P32 with increasing agitation time d. The percent of P32 and S35 would start high but then the percent of P32 would fall well below the percent of S35 with increasing agitation time
The percent of P32 and S35 would start high but then the percent of S35 in the pellet would fall well below the percent of P32 with increasing agitation time
Heterochromatic regions of DNA are more compacted than euchromatic regions a. True b. False
True
Viruses cause cancer by: 1) inserting their own version of oncogenes into the genome of their host cell, or 2) altering the regulation of host genes by inserting new promoters ahead of the host genes. Select one: True False
True
Which of the following statements is FALSE about RNA when it forms secondary folding regions? a. Double-stranded regions are formed within RNA by complementary base pairing b. U forms a complementary base pair with G n these double-stranded regions c. The two strands in a double stranded are antiparallel to each other d. hydrogen bonds between bases hold the two regions together e. In the image shown to the right, 2 shows stem looped RNA
U forms a complementary base pair with G n these double-stranded regions
Which of the following is a true statement as it applies to the similarities and difference between viruses, prokaryotes, and eukaryotes? Choose all TRUE statements. a. Viruses, prokaryotes, and eukaryotes are all composed of cells b. Viruses and eukaryotes have a nucleus but prokaryotes do not c. While viruses are quite diverse, the typical prokaryote as a single circular DNA molecule/cell and eukaryotes possess multiple linear chromosomes d. Viruses and prokaryotes are susceptible to antibiotics but eukaryotes are not e. All viruses, prokaryotes, and eukaryotes have DNA as their genetic material
While viruses are quite diverse, the typical prokaryote as a single circular DNA molecule/cell and eukaryotes possess multiple linear chromosomes
Which of the following statements is TRUE? Choose all that apply. a. an individual who has two different alleles for a trait is homozygous b. a genotype is the observable characteristics of an individual c. the phenotype is the genetic make-up of an individual d. a monohybrid cross is a mating between two individuals who are heterozygous for a single-pair of alleles e. a dihybrid cross is a mating between two individuals who are true-breeding for two different gene pairs
a monohybrid cross is a mating between two individuals who are heterozygous for a single-pair of alleles
Which of the following is a type of genetic change that could produce an oncogene? Select one: a. chromosomal translocation b. missense mutation c. all of the above d. gene amplification
all of the above
Which of the following gene regulation strategies is RARE in prokaryotes but used commonly in eukaryotes? a. operons b. alternative splicing c. antisense RNA d. feedback inhibition e. all of these are common strategies in prokaryotes and eukaryotes
alternative splicing
Which of the following is not an example of euploidy? a. tetraploid b. diploid c. triploid d. polyploid e. aneuploid
aneuploid
Telomeres... a. naturally lengthen as one gets older b. tend to be shorter in cancer cells c. have longer introns than regular genes d. are implicated in the loss of a cell's power of division and growth as they shorten e. If all of the above are TRUE statements, choose this response
are implicated in the loss of a cell's power of division and growth as they shorten
Antisense RNA does which of the following? a. inhibits the formation of the open complex in transcription b. prevents the correct folding of a newly formed peptide c. occupies the A and P sites of the ribosome d. binds to the mRNA and prevents translation
binds to the mRNA and prevents translation
Which term means an environmental agent that causes cancer? Select one: a. indirect mutagen b. invasive mutagen c. mutagen d. spontaneous mutagen e. carcinogen
carcinogen
When wild-type offspring are produced from a cross between parents that both display the same recessive (mutant) phenotype, this illustrates the genetic phenomenon of _____________. a. incomplete dominance b. simple Mendelian recessive alleles c. complementation d. gene dosage e. a spontaneous mutation
complementation
DNA repairs is often a multi-step process where the first step in repairing the mutation is: a. down regulating the mutant gene to inactivate the impact of the mismatches b. nondisjunction of the chromosomes c. detecting irregularity in the DNA structure due to mismatches d. preventing ribosomes from binding to the mRNA that has the mutation
detecting irregularity in the DNA structure due to mismatches
Which region of DNA contains the coding information for a protein in a eukaryote? a. exons b. promoters c. introns d. enhancers
exons
In eukaryotes, activator proteins bind to silencer sequences and repressor proteins bind to enhancer sequences to regulate gene expression a. true b. false
false
The covalent bond that joins amino acids together in a protein is called a phosphodiester bond a. true b. false
false
During sexual reproduction, each parent contributes one set of chromosomes to the egg or sperm. Members of a pair of chromosomes (one form each parent) are called _____________. a. homologs (also called homologous chromosome pairs) b. sister chromatids c. karyotypes d. sex chromosomes
homologs (also called homologous chromosome pairs)
The three stages of transcription, in order, are: a. elongation, ribosome binding, and termination b. initiation, ribosome binding, and termination c. initiation, regulation, and termination d. regulation, initiation, elongation e. initiation, elongation, and termination
initiation, elongation, and termination
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a typical somatic cell from a multi-cellular eukaryotes? a. it divides by meiosis b. it has a diploid chromosome number c. its DNA is not passed on to offspring d. it is involved in asexual reproduction e. chromosomes occur in pairs
it divides by meiosis
Mendel's work with two-factor (dihybrid) crosses led directly to which of the following? a. particulate theory of inheritance b. law of independent assortment c. theory of biological evolution d. chromosomal theory of inheritance e. law of segregation
law of independent assortment
Which of the following is NOT one of Mendel's Laws a. law of dominance b. law of segregation c. law of independent assortment d. law of nondisjunction
law of nondisjunction
Which of Mendel's laws describes how alleles in a parent separate during meiosis into different gemetes? a. law of dominance b. law of segregation c. law of independent assortment d. law of nondisjunction
law of segregation
An allele that produces an inactive enzymes would be classified as what kind of allele? a. gain of function b. these do not occur and have no name c. loss of function d. dominant
loss of function
tRNA genes, genes that code for histones, genes that encode rRNAs and some transposable elements belong to this category of repetitive DNA a. Unique or non-repetitive sequences b. moderately repetitive sequences c. highly repetitive sequences
moderately repetitive sequences
Which of the following is NOT a requirement for the process of gene cloning? a. need a target gene, which is usually isolated by PCR b. need a suitable host cell that is easy to grow and manipulate c. need a self-replicating vector such as a plasmid d. need DNA polymerase and peptidyl transferase to join pieces of DNA together e. All of the above are required
need DNA polymerase and peptidyl transferase to join pieces of DNA together
A mutation in the lac I gene prevents the lac I protein from binding allolactose. What will the expression level of the operon be in the absence of lactose under these conditions? a. no transcription b. positive regulation c. constitutively active d. low level of expression
no transcription
The failure of homologous chromosomes to separate during anaphase of meiosis I is called _________. a. synapsis b. epistasis c. nondisjunction d. maternal effect
nondisjunction
Which of the following is an example of post-translational regulation in prokaryotes? a. phosphorylation of an enzyme by protein kinase b. altering the structure of the mRNA c. blocking the ribosome from binding to the mRNA d. antisense RNA binding to the mRNA
phosphorylation of an enzyme by protein kinase
Which of the following terms is a cell that can form any other cell of the eukaryotic organism except the extra-embryonic tissues a. unipotent b. totipotent c. pluripotent d. multipotent
pluripotent
Which of the following can be defined as "a mRNA containing multiple coding regions"? a. polypeptide b. multigenic c. monocistronic d. polyclonal e. polycistronic
polycistronic
An activator regulatory protein is present and it results in the increase in transcription of the target gene. This is an example of ___________. a. termination b. feedback inhibition c. negative control d. positive control
positive control
Which of the following is NOT a strategy for controlling the function of a regulatory protein in eukaryotes? a. binding of a small effector molecule to the TF b. protein-protein interaction, where 2 subunits unite to form an active the TF c. covalent modifications that alter the shape and function of the TF d. preventing the translation of the TF by binding to the mRNA
preventing the translation of the TF by binding to the mRNA
Where does the process of transcription initiate? a. promoter b. regulation sequences c. transcription factors d. terminator
promoter
Which of the following pairs of sequences is used during transcription? a. promoter and terminator b. ribosome binding site c. start and stop codons d. exons and introns
promoter and terminator
An oncogene is produced from a _______ that has acquired a ____________. Select one: a. tumor-suppressor gene; loss-of-function mutation b. proto-oncogene; gain-of-function mutation c. proto-oncogene; loss-of-function mutation d. tumor suppressor gene; gain-of-function mutation
proto-oncogene; gain-of-function mutation
Which of the following recognizes/binds to regulatory elements in the DNA? a. peptidyl transferase b. RNA polymerase c. regulatory transcription factors d. DNA polymerase
regulatory transcription factors
Which of the following is not a post-transcriptional modification of RNAs in eukaryotes? a. adding a 7methyl-guanine cap to the mRNA b. adding a polyA tail to the mRNA c. removing introns from the mRNA d. removing exons from the mRNA
removing exons from the mRNA
Which of the following statements is FALSE about the selective staining of metaphase chromosomes? a. the banding pattern is constant for a given homologous chromosome pair, but unique between the different chromosome pairs b. the banding pattern distinguishes individual chromosomes from each other c. the banding pattern of chromosomes can reveal evolutionary relationships among the chromosomes of closely related species d. selective staining is not precise enough to detect changes in chromosome structure such as aneuploidy or euploidy
selective staining is not precise enough to detect changes in chromosome structure such as aneuploidy or euploidy
If an allele is dominant in one sex and recessive in another, it is an example of a. simple Mendelain inheritance b. sex-linked inheritance c. sex-influenced inheritance d. incomplete dominance
sex-influenced inheritance
A change/mutation in the DNA that does not change the amino acid sequence of a protein is called.... a. neutral mutation b. silent mutation c. quiet mutation d. nonsense mutation e. spontaneous mutation
silent mutation
A particular gene has a mutation that causes it to bind abnormally tight to histone. What effect would you expect this mutation had on the expression of this gene? a. the expression of the gene would be abnormally high b. the effect on the gene expression is impossible to predict c. the gene would encode a different protein instead d. the expression of the gene would be abnormally low or absent e. the promoter of the gene will be consistently available to transcription factors and RNA polymerase
the expression of the gene would be abnormally low or absent
What occurs during the annealing stage of a PCR reaction? a. the DNA polymerase copies the template DNA b. the reaction stops c. the primers bind to complementary sequences of the template DNA d. the DNA strands separate
the primers bind to complementary sequences of the template DNA
RNA is complementary to... a. the coding strand of DNA b. the template strand of DNA c. regulatory sequence d. termination sequences
the template strand of DNA
A deletion in an operon removes the promoter. How will that affect the transcript that is produced from the operon? a. the transcript will be produced and normal in length b. the transcript will not be produced c. the transcript will be produced, but longer than normal d. the transcript will be produced, but shorter than normal e. the transcript will be produced but it will contain a deletion
the transcript will not be produced
Tumor-suppressor genes promote cancer when... Select one: a. they are expressed at the wrong stage of development b. they are expressed in the wrong cell type c. their function is inactivated d. they are overexpressed
their function is inactivated
What is the origin of restriction endonucleases? a. they are transposable elements of Drosophila b. they are part of DNA repair mechanisms in eukaryotic cells c. they are replication enzymes of yeast d. they are a bacterial defense mechanism against viruses
they are a bacterial defense mechanism against viruses
Which of the following statements is FALSE about nucleotide excision repair? a. this repair process involves Uvr proteins, which detect and remove the mutant region b. this repair process begins with the removal of a single mismatched base c. this repair process involves DNA polymerase to fill in the gap created by the removal of the mutated region d. this repair process removes numerous nucleotides on one polynucleotide strand e. this process repairs many different types of mutations
this repair process begins with the removal of a single mismatched base
RNA is formed by the process of ____________. a. translation b. transcription c. both transcription and translation d. None of the answers are correct
transcription
If CAP could not bind to its CAP site within the lactose operon, then which statement of those listed is true? Assume lactose is present in each scenario. a. transcription would be difficult to activate in the presence of glucose b. transcription would be difficult to repress in the presence of glucose c. transcription would be difficult to activate in the absence of glucose
transcription would be difficult to activate in the absence of glucose
Choose all the terms from this list that apply to the mutation event diagrammed below. Normal Mutant 5' -AAT --> 5' -AAC a. transversion b. transition c. point mutation d. base-pair substitution e. frameshift
transition point mutation base-pair substitution
Nucleosome location may be changed by a process called ATP-dependent chromatin remodeling. a. true b. false
true
Transcription factors are proteins that influence the ability of the RNA polymerase to transcribe a gene a. true b. false
true
Epistasis is _____________. a. when two dominant alleles can be expressed in the same individual b. when one gene can mask the expression of the second gene c. another term for Mendelian complete dominance d. a trait that is only expressed in one sex of the species e. none of the answers are correct
when one gene can mask the expression of the second gene
