hesi image production v2
A finished radiograph has marked quantum mottle. Positioning, collimation, and identification markers are correct. Which action should the radiographer take? A. Repeat the image with an appropriate increase in technical factors. B. Reprocess the image under a different algorithm to improve visual appearance. C. Alter the image window width and level to improve the visual appeal, then approve. D. Approve the image and send it to Picture Archiving and Communication System (PACS).
a
A radiographer is performing a portable abdomen is using an image receptor with an 8:1 grid. The radiographer knows a technique for the abdomen using a 12:1 grid is 80 kilovolts peak (kVp) using 50 milliampere-seconds (mAs). Which would the new technique be in order to maintain image quality? A. 80 kVp @ 40 mAs. B. 80 kVp @ 25 mAs. C. 80 kVp @ 30 mAs. D. 80 kVp @ 60.5 mAs.
a
How does emphysema impact radiographic imaging of the chest? A. Emphysema is a destructive disease, meaning the chest tissue is more radiolucent. B. Emphysema is an additive disease, meaning the chest tissue is more radiopaque. C. Emphysema has no effect on the chest tissue, requiring no technical compensation. D. Emphysema is a destructive disease, but this will not have an effect on the patient's mass.
a
How much compensation is needed for a change to a small focal spot? A. None. B. Add 30% to milliampere-seconds (mAs). C. Add 15% to kilovolts peak (kVp). D. Double milliampere-seconds (mAs).
a
If computed radiography (CR) imaging plates (IP) haven't been used, how often should they be erased? A. 48 hours. B. 72 hours. C. 96 hours. D. 24 hours.
a
In order to increase the number of shades of gray displayed on a digital image what should be done? A. Increase the window width. B. Increase the window level. C. Decrease the window level. D. Decrease the window width.
a
What would a continuous, fine, horizontal white line across the computed radiography image indicate? A. Dirt on the light guide or laser head. B. Backscatter artifact. C. Static electricity. D. A crack in the phosphor layer of the cassette.
a
Which term refers to the process by which digital radiography (DR) systems adjust for exposure errors so that the image is displayed with proper brightness and contrast levels? A. Automatic rescaling. B. Edge enhancement. C. Image inversion. D. Contrast manipulation.
a
How does a radiographer maximize signal to digital image receptors? (Select the three that apply.) A. Shorter source to image receptor distance (SID). B. Lower milliamperage (mA). C. Longer source to image receptor distance (SID). D. Compression of the body part. E. Longer exposure time.
a d e
A breathing technique is planned for a right anterior oblique (RAO) sternum radiograph. The intended exposure is 50 milliampere-seconds (mAs) at 75 kilovolts peak (kVp) at 100 centimeter source to image receptor distance (SID). Which milliampere (mA) station is preferred, assuming the radiographer ensures exposure occurs during the act of inspiration? A. 100 B. 50 C. 25 D. 10
b
An imaging department, having difficulty obtaining acceptable tangential patella images, has opted to have the post processing mode set to "fixed" for all patella images. Why is this a good choice? A. Fixed mode does not recognize collimation borders. B. Fixed mode works well for exams where it is difficult to center the image on the image receptor (IR). C. Fixed mode ignores exposure index (EI) and is useful for body parts with a prosthesis. D. Fixed mode compares acquired data to a histogram and chooses appropriate brightness and contrast.
b
Computed radiography (CR) imaging creates images with poorer resolution than that of film screen. What compensates for this loss of resolution? A. The ability to reprocess images. B. The wide latitude. C. Use of edge enhancement. D. Use of high-pass filtering.
b
Determine the file size for an image with a 512 x 512 matrix and 12 gray scale bit depth. A. 262,144 bytes. B. 393,216 bytes. C. 3,145,748 bytes. D. 25,165,824 bytes.
b
If a radiographer wanted to double image density without doubling the patient's dose, which action should be taken? A. Double kilovolts peak (kVp). B. Increase kilovolts peak (kVp) by 15%. C. Increase milliampere-seconds (mAs) by 15%. D. Double milliampere-seconds (mAs).
b
If all the bucky digital images from one radiographic room seem to appear excessively noisy, what might the radiographer suspect? A. The x-ray room may need recalibration. B. The automatic exposure control (AEC) is set at an inappropriate speed class. C. There is a problem with the digital receptor. D. It could be an anomaly and should continue to be monitored.
b
In conventional tomography, the radiographer is able to control the thickness of the tomographic slice by altering which of the following? A. Fulcrum height. B. Exposure angle. C. Amplitude. D. Tube trajectory.
b
In which way can the radiographer minimize motion due to peristalsis? A. Give the patient explicit instructions. B. Decrease exposure time. C. Expose the radiograph on inspiration. D. Expose the radiograph on expiration.
b
Pelvis routine calls for an anteroposterior (AP) with a perpendicular central ray (CR), and an axial AP with a 40 degree cephalic angle. Using a caliper measurement, the technique chart yields a perfect set of exposure factors for the perpendicular AP. How will the necessary exposure factors for the axial differ from the perpendicular AP? A. Same measurement, but more bone, higher kilovolts peak (kVp) and milliampere-seconds (mAs). B. Greater measurement, higher kilovolts peak (kVp) and milliampere-seconds (mAs). C. Smaller measurement, lower kilovolts peak (kVp) and milliampere-seconds (mAs). D. Same measurement, same technical factors.
b
Which advantage does a 500 milliampere (mA) station have over a 200 mA station? A. Greater visibility of detail. B. Increased photon flux to the image receptor (IR). C. Longer exposure time. D. Higher load on the x-ray tube.
b
Which component of radiographic noise in digital imaging is controlled by the radiographer? A. Structure mottle. B. Quantum mottle. C. Film graininess. D. Electronic noise.
b
Which factor will increase x-ray beam quantity at the image receptor (IR) without increasing heat units produced by the tube? A. Decreased potential difference. B. Decreased filtration. C. Increased grid ratio. D. Increased source-image distance (SID).
b
Which factor would the radiographer choose to maximize recorded detail in the image? A. Low milliampere-seconds (mAs). B. Small focal spot. C. 100 cm source to image receptor distance (SID). D. High kilovolts peak (kVp).
b
Which statement is correct regarding the relationship of patient dose to exposure index (EI)? A. EI gives a very accurate representation of patient dose. B. EI gives an approximation of the patient's dose. C. EI gives an exact measurement of patient dose. D. EI is always greater than the patient's dose.
b
Which will increase the appearance of noise in a digital image, assuming only the named factor in each response is changed? A. Short SID. B. Large matrix. C. Increased mAs. D. High kVp technique.
b
Place the following milliampere-seconds (mAs) selections in order from which will cause the greatest exposure to the image receptors (IR) to the least exposure, if all other factors remain the same. a. 100 mAs. b. 200 mAs. c. 25 mAs. d. 50 mAs.
b a d c
A step-up transformer with 300 turns in the primary coil is supplied with 220 volts to this primary. How many secondary turns are needed to produce a 66,000 volt output? A. 66,000 turns. B. 14 turns. C. 90,000 turns. D. 1 turn.
c
Assuming other exposure factors remain the same, which source-to-image-receptor-distance (SID) causes the greatest reduction in x-ray quantity at the image receptor (IR)? A. 44 inches. B. 60 inches. C. 72 inches. D. 40 inches.
c
At a 50 inch source-to-image-receptor-distance (SID), how closely must the x-ray beam and the light field be aligned? A. 2 inches. B. 0.5 inches. C. 1 inch. D. 5 inches.
c
Digital radiography has the ability to produce 16,000 shades of gray. What appropriate bit depth (dynamic range) does this represent? A. 10 bit depth. B. 12 bit depth. C. 14 bit depth. D. 16 bit depth.
c
What is a method of electronic display resolution quality control testing? A. Detective quantum efficiency (DQE) test. B. Luminescence test. C. Society of Motion Picture and Television Engineers (SMPTE) test pattern. D. Wire mesh test.
c
What is the result if the total lead content of a grid is decreased? A. Greater image contrast. B. Increased scatter absorption. C. Decreased scatter absorption. D. Higher patient dose.
c
What results from utilizing a lower ratio grid? A. Higher contrast and greater latitude in central ray (CR) positioning. B. Higher contrast and less latitude in central ray (CR) positioning. C. Lower contrast, but greater error margin in central ray (CR) placement. D. Lower contrast, but less leeway in positioning the central ray (CR) to the grid.
c
Which function are Radiology information system (RIS) networks are capable of performing? A. Processing laboratory reports. B. Tracking billing information. C. Tracking radiology scheduling information. D. Recording and retrieving diagnostic images.
c
Which is one function of a picture archiving and communication system (PACS) network? A. Holding reports dictated by the radiologist. B. Listing inpatient ordering information. C. Downloading images from different imaging modalities. D. Tracking billing information.
c
Which is the preferred method for indicating the correct anatomic side on a radiographic image? A. Photoflash the marker on a corner of the image after exposure. B. Write the appropriate marker directly on the film after exposure. C. Place a side marker directly on the image receptor (IR) prior to exposure. D. Electronically annotate the correct side prior to exposure.
c
Which material is used on most anode disks and is light, strong, and heat-resistant? A. Chrome vanadium steel alloy. B. Mild steel. C. Molybdenum. D. Lead.
c
Which type of exposure technique chart would allow the radiographer to make small, fine adjustments for orthopedic work? A. Automatic exposure control (AEC). B. Anatomically programmed radiography (APR). C. Variable kilovolts peak (kVp). D. Fixed kilovolts peak (kVp).
c
What could cause a computed radiography image with very noticeable lines uniformly in the same direction over the entire image? (Select the three that apply.) A. Cassette exposed to the wrong side. B. Cassette was exposed to background radiation. C. Grid used with grid frequency equal to the image reader's laser scan lines. D. Grid utilized with grid lines running parallel to the laser scan lines of the image reader device. E. Noise resulting from the plate reader electronics.
c d e
Historically, rhenium was alloyed to the tungsten in the filament of valve tubes to increase electron emission. What is the major reason this isn't used in x-ray tube filaments? A. To maximize the melting point of the filament. B. To increase the working life of the filament. C. To reduce the vaporization of the filament. D. To permit fine control of electron emission by filament heating current.
d
If 7 milliampere-seconds (mAs) provides optimal density without a grid, which mAs should be used with a 12:1 grid? A. 21 B. 42 C. 28 D. 35
d
If a transformer has a greater number of turns in the secondary coil than in the primary coil, how will the output voltage be affected? A. Unable to determine from information given. B. Decreased. C. No change. D. Increased.
d
What is the purpose of shuttering? A. To improve image appearance and replace the need for close collimation. B. Solely to replace the need for close collimation. C. To remove extraneous information from the digital image and not overload the system with unneeded data. D. To black out areas of light and make fine details more visible.
d
Which best describes anode heel effect? A. Absorption of part of the x-ray beam by the target track. B. A phenomenon where x-ray intensity is greater under the anode. C. Absorption of part of the x-ray beam by the focusing cup. D. A phenomenon where x-ray intensity is greater under the cathode.
d
Which component of a diagnostic x-ray tube restricts the primary beam to the area of interest? A. Focusing cup. B. Protective housing. C. Electrostatic lenses. D. Collimator.
d
Which computed radiography (CR) or digital radiography (DR) system produces images with the highest spatial resolution? A. Photostimulable phosphor CR. B. Cesium iodide / amorphous silicon - indirect DR. C. Cesium iodide - indirect capture DR D. Amorphous selenium - direct capture DR.
d
Which description best defines a histogram? A. The quantization of photon data striking the image receptor (IR). B. The visual means for the radiographer to critique the radiographic image. C. The mathematical analysis of the data set received by the image receptor (IR). D. Graph where x-axis is the amount of exposure read, and the y-axis is the number of pixels.
d
Which pathologic condition will result in the greatest attenuation of the beam? A. Emphysema. B. Multiple Myeloma. C. Gout. D. Ascites.
d
Which term refers to unwanted fluctuations in the brightness of an image? A. Static. B. Flux. C. Interference. D. Noise.
d
Why is it important for the radiographer to observe the milliampere seconds (mAs) readout at the end of each exposure when using automatic exposure control (AEC)? A. It provides an indication that the proper amount of exposure was used. B. This value may be used to estimate patient dose. C. It provides a visual cue to release the exposure switch. D. This value may be used as a basis for calculating manual techniques.
d
How can the contrast scale be modified on a digital image? (Select the two that apply.) A. Decrease the kilovolts peak (kVp). B. Increase the kilovolts peak (kVp). C. Alter the window level. D. Collimate more closely. E. Alter the window width.
d e
