I Hate This Class: Part 3

Bacteria protect their own DNA from restriction enzyme damage by adding ___ groups to certain nucleotides. a. methyl b. hydroxyl c. phosphate d. amino e. carboxyl

a. methyl

Which of the following is a eukaryotic cloning vector? a. HinD3 b. OriC c. pBluescript d. YAC e. BAC

d. YAC

Which of the following are molecules used in DNA sequencing? a. Steroid hormones b. cyclins c. CDPK's d. YACs e. Dideoxynucleotides

e. Dideoxynucleotides

Which of the following is NOT an application of PCR? a. amplifying DNA for cloning b. RTPCR, or realtime PCR, for mRNA quantitation c. amplifying DNA for disease diagnosis, sex determination of embryos, or forensic analysis d. both A and B are applications of PCR e. all of the choices listed are applications of PCR technology

e. all of the choices listed are applications of PCR technology

Allelespecific oligonucleotide hybridization tests determine whether an individual is ___ at the disease gene locus a. homozygous normal b. heterozygous c. homozygous mutant d. both B and C are correct e. all of the listed responses are correct

e. all of the listed responses are correct

Which of the following is a critical difference between microarrays and northern blots? a. In a microarray many genes can be analyzed at the same time; northern blots only measure gene probe at a time b. northern blots cannot be used for comparative gene expression analysis but microarrays are designed to do this effectively c. in a northern blot only the expression of mRNAs is determined while a microarray determines nucleotide sequence as well d. both A and B are differences between microarrays and northern blots e. all of the above are correct

a. In a microarray many genes can be analyzed at the same time; northern blots only measure gene probe at a time

Which of the following is not a Hybridization-based technique for measuring the expression of genes? a. Southern blot b. northern blot c. microarray d. real time PCR e. all of the above are hybridization based techniques

a. Southern blot

Choose the correct statement a. Using microarrays all genes in the genome can be measured at the same time using a hybridizationbased technique b. northern blots detect the location of a probe DNA molecule in the genome using PCR c. microarrays are able to measure genomewide gene expression using next generation sequencing d. Both A and B are correct e. all of the above

a. Using microarrays all genes in the genome can be measured at the same time using a hybridizationbased technique

Candidate open reading frames of a genome are identified by searching for: a. a start codon "in frame" with a stop codon b. a start codon c. introns and exons d. a promoter e. all of these

a. a start codon "in frame" with a stop codon

In DNA electrophoresis, fragment separation is based on a. fragment size (length) b. fragment nucleotide content c. fragment sequence d. fragment charge e. all of these

a. fragment size (length)

In DNA electrophoresis, nucleotide fragment separation is based on: a. fragment size (length) b. fragment nucleotide content c. fragment sequence d. fragment charge e. all of these

a. fragment size (length)

A mutation that changes a codon from one that represents an amino acid to one that signals a chain termination is called a: a. nonsense mutation b. missense mutation c. framshift mutation d. point mutation e. nutral mutation

a. nonsense mutation

The best vector in which to clone a 1.2 kb fragment of DNA is a: a. plasmid b. bacteriophage c. YAC d. Both B and C e. all of the above are correct

a. plasmid

Which of the following is an endonuclease isolated from bacteria that cuts double stranded DNA at a specific sequence site: a. restriction enzyme b. enhancer sequence c. oriC d. Both B and C e. all of the above

a. restriction enzyme

Which of the following is a correct statement about polymerase chain reaction, or PCR? a. template DNA of known sequence that is bounded by two primers is amplified in a test tube using a special thermostable DNA polymerase. This technique is useful in a wide variety of molecular genetic strategies b. The DNA polymerase used in PCR is a special mutant form of E. coli DNA polymerase that is thermostable, and thus PCR can be done on E. coli DNA c. A sequence can be amplified by PCR only after it has been inserted into a PCR vector, a requirement that greatly limits the utility of the technique d. It is critical that RNA be used as primers for PCR because DNA polymerases require RNA primers to initiate DNA synthesis, just as DNA polymerase does inside the cell e. None of the above are correct

a. template DNA of known sequence that is bounded by two primers is amplified in a test tube using a special thermostable DNA polymerase. This technique is useful in a wide variety of molecular genetic strategies

A mutation changes an A-T base pair to T-A. This is a ____ mutation. a. transversion b. transition c. translocation d. both A and C are correct e. all of the above are correct

a. transversion

The codon 5'-AAA-3' codes for the amino acid lysine. Which of the following mutations in ths codon is a neutral mutation? a. 5'-ATA-3' to isoleusine b. 5'-AGA-3' to arginine c. 5'-AAG-3' to lysine d. 5'-CAA-3' to glutamine e. 5'-AAC-3' to asparagine

b. 5'-AGA-3' to arginine

Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is a technique for making essentially unlimited amounts of a specific double stranded DNA sequence in a test tube using DNA polymerase. Place the steps of a PCR reaction shown below in the proper sequence. A. use the thermostable DNA polymerase to extend the DNA strand from the primer. B. Separate the strands of the template DNA by heating the reaction to a relatively high temperature in a thermocycler. C. Reduce the temperature and allow the forward and reverse primers that are complementary to the two strands to anneal at their respective complementary sequence. a. A --> B --> C b. B --> C --> A c. C --> B --> A d. C --> A --> B e. since this is a cycle, all of the above are correct

b. B --> C --> A

In addition to restriction enzymes, which of the following enzymes is required to insert a fragment of DNA into a cloning vector? a. DNA polymerase b. DNA ligase c. RNA polymerase d. Both A and B are correct e. All of the above are correct

b. DNA ligase

In addition to restriction enzymes, which of the following enzymes is required to insert a fragment of DNA into a cloning vector? a. DNA polymerase b. DNA ligase c. RNA polymerase d. reverse transcriptase e. topoisomerase

b. DNA ligase

Which of the following is an endonuclease isolated from bacteria that cuts double stranded DNA at a specific sequence site? a. EcoRI b. OriC c. pBluescript d. YAC e. dideoxynucleotides

b. OriC

A screening procedure used to identify specific genomic DNA fragments is: a. PCR b. Southern blot c. RFLPs d. Northern blot e. Electrophoresis

b. Southern blot

Which of the following techniques is best suited to study protein interactions? a. PCR b. The yeast twohybrid system c. restriction mapping d. RTPCR e. Southern Blotting

b. The yeast twohybrid system

Which of the following CANNOT be used to quantitate gene expression? a. a northern blot b. a southern blot c. RTPCR d. Realtime vector e. an expression vector

b. a southern blot

Successful insertion of a DNA fragment into the polylinker region of pBluescript II is detected by a. production of the enzyme B-galactosidase b. absence of the enzyme B-galactosidase c. the increase size of the plasmid d. autoradiography e. none of these

b. absence of the enzyme B-galactosidase

Successful insertion of a DNA fragment into the polylinker region of pBluescriptII is detected by a. production of the enzyme B-galactosidase b. absence of the enzyme B-galactosidase or blue color c. the increased size of the plasmid d. autoradiography e. none of the above

b. absence of the enzyme B-galactosidase or blue color

Fusing a gene with a gene for green fluorescent protein can be utilized to a. identify the protein in a cell b. localize the place in a cell where the protein normally functions c. overcome a number or technical barriers d. both A and B are correct e. none of the above

b. localize the place in a cell where the protein normally functions

Studies of gene function often use the approach of systematically inactivating or silencing genes. These "knockouts" are termed ____ mutations. a. debilitating b. loss-of-function c. transcriptome d. silencing e. none of the above are correct

b. loss-of-function

Accurate diagnostic analyses of the expression of a large number of genes is routinely possible using: a. northern blots b. microarrays c. RT-PCR d. real-time PCR e. none of the above

b. microarrays

A mutation that changes a codon from one amino acid to another is called a: a. nonsense mutation b. missense mutation c. framshift mutation d. point mutation e. nutral mutation

b. missense mutation

A polylinker region in a cloning plasmid is characterized by: a. multiple methyl groups b. multiple unique restriction cut sites c. multiple reporter genes d. multiple replication origins e. multiple cloning targets

b. multiple unique restriction cut sites

The _______ genome was the first eukaryotic genome to be completely sequenced a. Neurospora crassa b. saccharomyces cerevisiae c. caenorhabditis elegans d. drosophila melanogaster e. human

b. saccharomyces cerevisiae

Which of the following does not occur during a PCR reaction? a. Denaturing of DNA at high temperatures b. synthesis of oligonucleotide primers c. annealing of oligonucleotide primers d. Extension of primers by DNA polymerase e. changes in the reaction temperature by a thermocycler

b. synthesis of oligonucleotide primers

Proteomics is: a. the characterization of all of the genes of an organism b. the characterization of all of the proteins made by an organism c. the sequence of all genes in an organism d. the primary structure of all the proteins found in a particular tissue or organ e. none of the above

b. the characterization of all of the proteins made by an organism

The number of mRNA transcrips in a cell fluctuate over time as the pattern of gene expression changes. These transcripts are collective referred to as a. regulatory transcripts b. the transcriptome c. the expresstome d. the proteome e. the genome

b. the transcriptome

A vector that contains a selectable marker gene, an origin of replication, a multiple cloning, and a Shine-Dalgarno sequence between a promoter and a terminator would likely be called a(n) a. cloning vector b. transcribable vector c. PCR vector d. expression vector e. none of the above are correct

b. transcribable vector

_______ is a method that systematically examines the interaction between 2 proteins a. mass spectrometry b. yeast 2hybrid c. gene cloning d. recombinant DNA cloning e. none of the above

b. yeast 2-hybrid

More than 2000 peptides can be separated on the basis of molecular size and charge using a. agarose gel electrophoresis b. sDNA sequencing c. 2 dimensional gel electrophoresis d. mass spectrometry e. none of the above

c. 2 dimensional gel electrophoresis

When DNA is cut with a restriction enzyme, the resulting fragments are most useful if they have a. 5' carboxyl groups b. 5' hydroxyl groups c. 3' hydroxyl groups d. 5' phosphate groups e. sticky ends

c. 3' hydroxyl groups

Which of the following best describes BLAST? a. BLAST is a small noncoding human RNA b. BLAST is an artificially introduced DNA c. BLAST searches for sequence matches in a nucleotide or protein database d. BLAST is a fluorescent dye e. Transcripts that have a steam and loop are BLAST

c. BLAST searches for sequence matches in a nucleotide or protein database

Once a raw genome sequence is obtained, several techniques are utilized to produce annotation of the genome. Which of the following is (are) not common steps in the annotation of a genome? A. Using computer algorithms to identify promoters, ORFs, introns and exons, and terminator regions B. producing, sequencing, and characterizing cDNA libraries that are used to identify the functions of specific expressed genes C. producing haplotype maps of SNPs found in the genome D. identifying all AUG and UAA, UAG, UGA codons in the raw genomic sequence a. A is not a critical step in annotating a genome b. A and B are not critical steps in annotating a genome c. C is not a critical step in annotating a genome d. D is not a critical step in annotating a genome e. all of the above can be critical steps in annotating genes

c. C is not a critical step in annotating a genome

The wholegenome shotgun method has emerged as the most frequently used method for sequencing genomes. What is the correct order of the steps involved in wholegenome sequencing? I. separate DNA fragments by electrophoresis, and isolate fragments between 1600 and 2000 nucleotides in length II. assemble the sequences from fragments into continuous sequences, ultimately generating the whole genome sequence III. Fragment the genomic DNA into small pieces using mechanical shear IV. make a clone fragment library of the genomic fragments V. Sequence the cloned fragments using efficient highthroughput robotic sequencers a. B → E → D → A → C b. D → A → C → E → B c. C → A → D → E → B d. C → D → A → B → E e. None of the above are correct

c. C → A → D → E → B

In a sequenced genome, proteinencoding genes are identified using computers to search for: a. STRs b. VNTRs c. ORFs d. ESTs e. SNPs

c. ORFs

A small circular fragment of DNa capable of autonomous replication in a host cell, usually a bacterium is called a(n) a. restriction enzyme b. ARS c. Plasmid d. YAC e. Dideoxynucleotides

c. Plasmid

Posttranscriptional control of gene expression does NOT occur at which of the following levels? a. Alternative polyadenylation b. Alternative splicing c. Ribosome selection d. Gene silencing

c. Ribosome selection

Total mRNA was prepared from wild type yeast cells growing on galactose as the sole carbon source. This mRNA was then used to prepare a cDNA library in E. coli. The plasmid DNA was extracted from the E. coli cells containing the library, and transformed into mutant gal1 yeast cells (unable to grow on galactose as the sole carbon source). Yease cells able to grow on galactose were selected and the inserts in the plasmids born by such cells were examined. In order for this experiment to work, the cDNA library must have been built in which type of vector? a. an expression vector b. a shuttle vector c. a shuttle-expression vector d. a PCR vector e. any vector that could be screened using blue/white selectioin in E. coli

c. a shuttle-expression vector

Choose the correct answer: a. humans possess approximately 25,000 genes, but are estimated to have between 200,000 and 2 million unique proteins b. the exact proteins that are expressed at any given moment in a particular cell type of tissue depends on a person's age, health, and environmental stimuli c. both A and B are correct d. Neither A nor B is correct

c. both A and B are correct

A mutation that causes an addition or deletion of one or two base pairs in a gene is called a: a. nonsense mutation b. missense mutation c. framshift mutation d. point mutation e. nutral mutation

c. framshift mutation

The recognition sequences for many restriction enzymes are most often a. tandem repeats b. ssr's c. identical on both strands d. both B and C e. all of the above

c. identical on both strands

The recognition sequences for many restriction enzymes are a. terminal repeats b. tandem repeats c. palindromic d. inverted repeats e. dual repeats

c. palindromic

A sensitive way of measuring gene expression that relies on primers specifically binding to cDNA sequences and amplifying the sequence between the primers is a. northern blot b. gene chip microarray c. real-time PCR d. spotted microarrays

c. real-time PCR

Which technique is NOT a technique used to identify specific clones in a cDNA library? a. immunoscreening using antibodies against a protein of interest b. Using a heterologous probe for the gene of interest from a related species c. screening using a probe consisting of an intron from a gene of interest d. both B and C e. all of the above

c. screening using a probe consisting of an intron from a gene of interest

Vectors capable of entering two or more different host organisms are known as: a. dual vectors b. omnivectors c. shuttle vectors d. parity vectors e. universal vectors

c. shuttle vectors

Which of the following statements about a Northern blot is INCORRECT? a. In a Southern blot, DNA fragments are separated on the basis of size and blotted to a membrane filter; by contrast, in a Northern blot RNAs are separated on the basis of size and blotted to a membrane filter b. the size of the band on the membrane produced by the reaction of the probe with the mRNAs on the blot indicates the relative amount of mRNA in a cell to which the specific probe hydrolyzes c. the probes used to identify the mRNA of interest in a Northern blot must be made by PCR d. In each lane of a Northern blot, the mRNAs of different treatments to be compared are placed, but only a single probe is used to react with the entire blot. Thus, the results of one blot only relate information about a single gene e. all of the above

c. the probes used to identify the mRNA of interest in a Northern blot must be made by PCR

The goal of genome wide expression analysis is a. to measure all of the genes in the genome of an organism b. to determine the protein make by all of the genes in the genome of an organism c. to measure the mRNA level for all genes in the genome of an organism d. develop a use for microarrays e. none of the above

c. to measure the mRNA level for all genes in the genome of an organism

The complete set of mRNA transcripts in a cell is known as the: a. proteome b. interactome c. transcriptome d. replication e. none of the above

c. transcriptome

Homologous recombination is the critical process used to construct a gene knowckout in which organism(s)? a. human and cat b. bacteria c. yeast d. arabidopsis thaliana and rice e. mouse f. both C and E are correct g. all of the above are correct

c. yeast

In gel electrophoresis, which of the following DNA fragments would travel the fastest distance from the sample well? a. ATCCCGAT b. ATCCCG c. ATCC d. AT e. ATCCCGATTGCACGTT

d. AT

The Archaea are best known for the extremophiles, those cells that "love" extreme environments, such as very high temperature, high pressure, extreme pH, high metal ion concentration, and high salt. Members of the Archaea resemble Bacteria morphologically, occurring with shapes such as spheres, rods, and spirals. However, genome sequencing of a number of archaean genomes revealed some key differences. Which of the following is an INCORRECT statement about Archaea? a. Genes for DNA replication machinery more closely resemble those of Eukarya than those of bacteria b. Genes for RNA transcription machinery more closely resemble those of Eukarya than those of Bacteria c. Genes for protein synthesis machinery more closely resemble those of Eukarya than those of Bacteria d. As in Eukaryotes, there are introns in proteincoding genes and tRNA genes of Archaea e. none of the above are correct

d. As in Eukaryotes, there are introns in protein-coding genes and tRNA genes of Archaea

Spotted microarrays can be made using which of the following methods: a. Photochemic synthesis of a DNA probe in place b. Spotting of DNA using a robot and pins that deliver a nanodrop of DNA to a specific location on a solid support c. Spotting of DNA using inkjet printing technology d. B and C are both correct e. all of the above are correct

d. B and C are both correct

Choose the correct answer. a. DNA markers are DNA polymorphisms that are useful for genetic mapping b. RTPCR is a PCR technique used in amplifying DNA copies of mRNA c. Somatic cell gene therapy can result in a cure for a genetic disease in an individual as well as any progeny produced by the individual d. Both A and B e. all of the above are correct

d. Both A and B

The latest type of automated DNA sequencers provide which of the following advantages: a. Pyrosequencers are much faster than older capillary DNA sequencers b. Pyrosequencers can sequence more samples simultaneously because they record images of light produced when nucleotides are added to a sequence c. Pyrosequencers are much more accurate than the older capillary DNA sequencers d. Both A and B are correct e. All of the above

d. Both A and B are correct

Bacterial artificial chromosomes or BACs are useful cloning vectors for: a. cDNAs b. mRNAs c. large pieces of genomic DNA d. Both A and C e. All of the above

d. Both A and C

Choose the best answer a. Cloning vectors generally possess unique restriction sites and dominant selectable markers b. a circular DNA molecule with the two restriction enzyme cut sites will yield three fragments on digestion c. a linear DNA molecule with two restriction enzyme cut sites will yield three fragments on digestion d. Both A and C are correct e. All of the above are correct

d. Both A and C are correct

Which of the following statements is (are) correct? a. There are approximately 13 million SNP polymorphic genetic markers available in the human genome to use for mapping genes associated with phenotypes of interest b. In average there is at least 1 SNP marker every 1000 base pairs. This makes SNP marker density too great, so they are not very useful for marking genes c. All types of polymorphic genetic markers, including SNPs, RFLPs, STRs, and VNTRs, have been successfully used in the human genome sequencing project d. Both A and C are correct e. All of the above are correct

d. Both A and C are correct

A plasmid used as a cloning vector in E. coli must have a. a yeast ARS sequence b. selectable marker c. unique restriction site d. Both B and c e. all of these

d. Both B and c

Which bacterium was the first cellular genome sequenced? a. Escherichia coli b. Carsonella ruddi c. Agrobacterium tumefaciens d. Haemophilus influenza e. Mycoplasma genitalium

d. Haemophilus influenza

_____ is a screening procedure used to assay mRNA sequences a. PCR b. Southern blot c. RFLPs d. Northern blot e. Electrophoresis

d. Northern blot

Which technique is the most recent technique developed to estimate global levels of gene expression? a. northern blots b. quantitative or real-time-PCR c. microarrays d. SAGE e. MPSS

d. SAGE

____ blots are used to study DNA fragments, while ______ blots are used to study RNA fragments a. Western, northern b. Southern, western c. Eastern, northern d. Southern, northern e. Western, Southern

d. Southern, northern

Which of the following is a vector for cloning DNA in a eukaryotic organism? a. pUC 19 b. pBluescript c. plasmid d. YAC e. all of the above

d. YAC

Which of the following mutations potentionally has the greatest effect on gene expression? a. a mutation in an intron b. a mutation in the 3rd base position of one of the codons c. a mutation in the 3' flanking region of the gene d. a mutation in the promoter e. all of the above will have equal effect

d. a mutation in the promoter

Candidate open reading frames of a genome are identified by searching for a. a start codon "in frame" with a stop codon b. a start codon c. introns and exons d. a stop codon in the same reading frame with the start codon e. both A and B are correct f. all of the above are correct

d. a stop codon in the same reading frame with the start codon

Northern blots a. are the oldest hybridization-based technique for measuring the expression b. measure the expression of one gene at a time c. can measure the expression of one gene but in several treatments simultaneously d. both A and B are correct e. all of the above are correct

d. both A and B are correct

Which of the following is NOT a method for measuring global gne expression that is directly based on DNA hybridization? a. SAGE b. MPSS c. microarrays d. both A and B are not hybridization based methods e. none of the above are hybridization based methods

d. both A and B are not hybridization based methods

Choose the best answer a. A DNA copy of a transfer RNA molecule is called complementary DNA or cDNA b. The human genome consists mostly of noncoding DNA c. cloning vectors are used to introduce novel DNA into cells d. both B and C e. all of the above

d. both B and C

In the genetic disease sickle cell anemia, the diseasecausing mutation creates a(n) _____ that is used as a DNA marker that disease. a. SSR b. RFLP c. SNP d. both B and C e. All of the above

d. both B and C

In a northern blot, a. mRNA molecules are separated on the basis of size using agarose gel electrophoresis b. the mRNA molecules are transferred in relative position onto a membrane such as nitrocellulose c. the blot is probed with a DNA probe complementary to a specific mRNA d. both B and C are correct e. none of the above are correct

d. both B and C are correct

A vector that contains a selectable marker gene, an origin of replication, a multiple cloning, and a ShineDalgarno sequence between a promoter and a terminator would likely be called a(n): a. cloning vector b. transcribable vector c. PCR vector d. expression vector e. none of the above

d. expression vector

Gene knockout mutations have been investigated in several organisms as a way to investigate gene _____. Two models for doing gene knockouts that use ____ ______ as a way to do knockouts are _______ and ________. a. function; heterologous; mouse; yeast b. expression; homologous recombination; E. coli; mouse; yeast c. function; homologous recombination; E. coli; yeast d. function; homologous recombination; mouse; yeast e. all of the above have only 3 correct responses out of 4

d. function; homologous recombination; mouse; yeast

Now that we have sequenced the genomes of a wide array of Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukarya, we have more thorough information on the relationship between genome size and complexity and organismal complexity. Which of the following genomic characteristics is the best predictor of organismal complexity? a. amount of DNA per haploid genome b. number of genes per haploid genome c. amount of DNA per cell correct d. gene density e. all of the above

d. gene density

Which of the following is not used in PCR amplification of DNA? a. double-stranded DNA template b. oligonucleotide primers c. DNA polymerase d. nucleotide triphosphates e. dNTPs

d. nucleotide triphosphates

Which of the following is not used in PCR amplification of DNA? a. doublestranded DNA template b. Oligonucleotide primers c. DNA polymerase d. nucleotide triphosphates e. dNTPs

d. nucleotide triphosphates

A mutation that causes a change in a single base pair is called a: a. nonsense mutation b. missense mutation c. framshift mutation d. point mutation e. nutral mutation

d. point mutation

The first complete nonrival genome sequenced was that of: a. Escherichia coli b. Methanococcus c. Saccharomyces cerevisiae d. the human mitochondrion e. Mus musculus

d. the human mitochondrion

Which of the following is not a type of protein modification regulating the activity of the protein a. Methylation b. Proteolytic cleavage c. Phosphorylation d. Acetylation e. All of the above are correct

e. All of the above are correct

Which of the following is (are) NOT applications of bioinformatics A. finding genes within a genomic sequence B. aligning sequences in databases to determine how similar they are (or their degree of similarity), predicting the structure and function of gene products C. describing the interactions between genes and gene products at a global level within the cell D. using polymerase chain reaction to determine the function of a set of genes in the genome E. postulating relationships for sequences from different species a. A and B are not bioinformatics b. C and D are not bioinformatics c. A and D are not bioinformatics d. D only is not bioinformatics e. E only is not bioinformatics

e. E only is not bioinformatics

The plasmid pUC19 is useful for cloning because it has a: a. high copy number b. multiple cloning site c. amp^R selectable marker d. ori sequence e. all of the above

e. all of the above

______ is a technique that can be utilized to identify specific peptide fragment sequence proteins extracted from 2D gels a. MALDI b. time of flight spectrometry c. Mass spectrometry d. Electroscopy ionization e. all of the above

e. all of the above

mRNA levels for a specific gene can vary in response to which of the following: a. cell type b. developmental stage c. external stimuli d. A and B only e. all of the above

e. all of the above

A comparison of the sequence of a genomic clone versus a cDNA clone for a specific gene will demonstrate: a. the 3'UTR of the gene b. the 5'UTR of the genes c. the location of introns in the gene d. both A and B are correct e. all of the above are all correct

e. all of the above are all correct

Expressed sequence tags or ESTs: a. are genetic markers generated from cDNA b. pertain to expressed genes only c. oligonucleotides derived from mRNA d. A and C e. all of the above are correct

e. all of the above are correct

What are the different methods by which we can assign function to particular genes? a. by searching for sequence homology using BLAST searches b. by interfering with the gene by making knockouts and studying the phenotypes produced c. by interfering with the gene through gene silencing by RNA interference and studying the phenotypes produced d. both A and C e. all of the above are correct

e. all of the above are correct

Which of the following is a desirable feature common to all types of vectors? a. one or more unique restriction sites b. one or more selectable markers c. a high cope number d. both A and C e. all of the above are correct

e. all of the above are correct

A plasmid used as a cloning vector in E. coli must have a. an ori sequence b. a selectable marker c. unique restriction sites d. B and C e. all of these

e. all of these

A DNA copy of an mRNA molecule is called: a. dDNA b. rDNA c. mDNA d. shDNA e. cDNA

e. cDNA

Choose the best answer a. DNA molecules, regardless of size, have a net positive charge b. In a partial restriction digestion, all available restriction sites will be cut c. the quality of an assembled sequence does not depend on the sequence coverage d. both B and C e. none of the above

e. none of the above