Immuno Quizzes
"Original antigenic sin" is best described as a phenomenon in which _____. A) a highly mutable virus gradually escapes from immunological memory and interferes with compensatory immune responses. B) latent viruses periodically activate effector T cells specific for the original antigen recognized in the primary immune response. C) the persistence of antigen is necessary to sustain maintenance of immunological memory. D) memory T cells no longer express the same profile of adhesion molecules and cytokine receptors compared with the original profile of the naive precursor T cell.
a highly mutable virus gradually escapes from immunological memory and interferes with compensatory immune responses.
_____ express FcεRI and contain granules containing inflammatory mediators. (Select all that apply) macrophages activated eosinophils mast cells natural killer cells basophils
activated eosinophils mast cells basophils
A genetic defect in _____ results in the accumulation of toxic levels of nucleotide metabolites and loss of T-cell function. NADPH oxidase glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase myeloperoxidase SH2D1A adenosine deaminase (ADA)
adenosine deaminase (ADA)
The antigens that provoke hypersensitivity reactions are referred to as T-independent antigens superantigens subunit vaccines attenuated vaccines allergens
allergens
As time progresses following an organ transplant, the alloreactive T-cell response shifts from a(n) _____ pathway to a(n) _____ pathway of allorecognition. exogenous; endogenous inflammatory; cytotoxic hyperacute; suppressive autologous; heterologous direct; indirect
direct; indirect
Following a hematopoietic stem cell transplant, T-cell responses will be activated by dendritic cells of _____ origin. donor recipient both donor and recipient
donor
All of the following are associated with the ability of influenza virus to escape from immunity except _____. age error-prone replication of its DNA genome co-infection with avian and human influenza viruses recombinant strains the phenomenon of 'original antigenic sin.'
error-prone replication of its DNA genome
A conjugate vaccine is one that couples _____ to _____ so as to stimulate T-dependent antibody responses. polysaccharide; a protein carrier a protein carrier; irradiated DNA protein carrier; toxoids adjuvant; toxoids polysaccharide; filamentous hemagglutinin
polysaccharide; a protein carrier
Myeloablative therapy is carried out in bone marrow transplantation in order to _____. (Select all that apply) prevent graft-versus-host disease prevent host-versus-graft disease suppress autoreactive T cells in the graft disable the patient's hematopoietic stem cells but not their circulating leukocytes provide space for colonization of transplanted stem cells in bone marrow stroma destroy tumors of immune-system cells
prevent host-versus-graft disease provide space for colonization of transplanted stem cells in bone marrow stroma destroy tumors of immune-system cells
_____ results when a gene affecting the immune system mutates, thereby compromising the body's defense against infection. gene conversion epidemics primary immunodeficiency disease secondary immunodeficiency disease seroconversion
primary immunodeficiency disease
What type of hypersensitivity reaction would result from a mismatched blood transfusion? Type I Type II Type III Type IV
Type II
George Cunningham was diagnosed with Crohn's disease when 23 years old. He was experiencing acute abdominal pain, diarrhea, rectal bleeding, anemia and weight loss. He did not respond to conventional immunosuppressive therapies and was given a course of infliximab, an anti-TNF-α monoclonal antibody that suppresses inflammation by blocking TNF-α activity. On day 12 after receiving his first infusion, he developed a mild fever, generalized vasculitis, swollen lymph glands, swollen joints and joint pain. Traces of blood and protein were detected in his urine. Which of the following is the most likely cause of these recent symptoms? Type I hypersensitivity involving anaphylaxis. Type II hypersensitivity leading to hemolytic anemia. Type III hypersensitivity caused by immune complex deposition in blood vessels. Type IV hypersensitivity involving CD8 T-cell cytotoxicity. Type II hypersensitivity leading to thrombocytopenia.
Type III hypersensitivity caused by immune complex deposition in blood vessels.
In routine blood transfusions, which of the following must be matched correctly? (Select all that apply) A and B antigens O antigens Rhesus D antigen MHC class I molecules MHC class II molecules
A and B antigens Rhesus D antigen
Which genetic event can convert a HIV macrophage tropic virus to a lymphocyte tropic virus? A gene conversion in the proviral DNA A point mutation in the gp120 protein The process of virus latency The recombination of different HIV strains
A point mutation in the gp120 protein
Forty-four-year old Danielle Bouvier is on the waiting list for a kidney transplant and is receiving weekly dialysis. Her HLA type is: HLA-A: 0101/0301; HLA-B: 0702/0801; HLA-DRB1: 0301/0701. Today, Danielle's physician informed her that several potential kidney donors are available. Which of the following would be the most suitable? A: 0301/0201; B: 4402/0801; DRB1: 0301/0403 A: 0301/2902; B: 1801/0801; DRB1: 0301/0701 A: 2902/0201; B: 0702/0801; DRB1: 0301/13011 A: 0101/0101; B: 5701/0801; DRB1: 0701/0701 A: 0101/0301; B: 0702/5701; DRBA: 0403/0301
A: 0101/0101; B: 5701/0801; DRB1: 0701/0701
Herpesviruses include all of the following except _____. varicella-zoster Epstein-Barr virus herpes simplex virus cytomegalovirus All of the above are herpesviruses.
All of the above are herpesviruses.
All of the following are biological effects mediated by the products of mast cells except _____. chemotaxis of neutrophils, eosinophils, and effector T cells growth factor secretion smooth muscle contraction connective tissue remodeling All of the above are mediated by mast cells
All of the above are mediated by mast cells
Which of the following is an Elite neutralizer of HIV? An individual making broadly neutralizing antibodies after exposure to several HIV strains An individual who suppresses their infection so effectively that HIV RNA is not detectable and the individual has a certain HLA-B genotypes An individual who has cardiovascular disease and is hence in chronic inflammatory state that helps to defend against HIV An individual who loses expression of the CCR5 co-receptor when they are exposed to HIV
An individual making broadly neutralizing antibodies after exposure to several HIV strains
Anita Garcia, 17 years old, and her roommate Rosa Rosario were celebrating a friend's birthday at a dessert buffet at a local restaurant when Anita developed acute dyspnea, and angioedema. She complained of an itchy rash, and then had difficulty swallowing. Rosa drove Anita to the emergency room two blocks away rather than wait for an ambulance. As they approached the hospital, Anita lost consciousness. Anita was suffering from _______ likely caused by _____ present in the cake. Food poisoning; bacterial toxins Contact dermatitis: plant oils Anaphylaxis; nuts Type III hypersensitivity; preservative compounds
Anaphylaxis; nuts
_____ cause(s) mild and limited disease, whereas _____ cause(s) more severe disease and higher mortality. Antigenic drift; antigenic shift Antigenic shift; antigenic drift Epidemics; pandemics Pandemics; epidemics
Antigenic drift; antigenic shift
Epstein-Barr virus infects and establishes latency in _____, gaining entry by binding to _____. B cells; CR2 T cells; CD4 T cells; CD8 neurons; MHC class I B cells; EBNA-1
B cells; CR2
The only single receptor that can activate NK cells without the need for a second activating receptor is _____. NKG2D CD56 2B4 CD94:NKG2A CD16
CD16
Adaptive immune responses targeted at infections by helminth worms and other parasitic multicellular animals employ all of the following except _____. CD8 T cells IgE eosinophils mast cells CD4 TH2 cells basophils IL-4
CD8 T cells
_____ results from alloreactions mediated by donor T cells in the graft subsequent to hematopoietic stem-cell transplantation. Acute rejection Chronic rejection Graft-versus-host disease (GVHD) Serum sickness Hyperacute rejection
Graft-versus-host disease (GVHD)
T cells are positively selected to recognize "self" while NK cells are often described as recognizing "missing self." Which process is NOT involved in how NK cells avoid killing other cells in the body? Some NK cells express CD94:NKG2A, which binds HLA-E presenting peptides from the leader sequences of HLA-A, HLA-B and HLA-C During development, NK cells lacking inhibitory receptors that recognize HLA class I molecules become anergic During development, NK cells expressing activating receptors that recognize self HLA class I molecules become anergic During development, NK cells capable of recognizing HLA class I molecules presenting self-peptides undergo apoptosis and are eliminated
During development, NK cells capable of recognizing HLA class I molecules presenting self-peptides undergo apoptosis and are eliminated
Indicate whether the following statement is true (T) or false (F): Antithymocyte globulin (ATG) is a monoclonal antibody specific for T-cell surface antigens. True False
False
Indicate whether the following statement is true (T) or false (F): Immunosuppressive xenogeneic antibodies can be used repeatedly for multiple episodes of transplant rejection without complication. True False
False
Indicate whether the following statement is true: ABO or Rhesus antigen mismatches stimulate cytotoxic T-cell responses. True False
False
Indicate whether the following statement is true: Lymphocytes and erythrocytes express HLA class I and II molecules. True False
False
The CD45RA isoform is associated with stronger signals in response to antigen. True False
False
Which of the following is NOT an inactivated virus vaccine? Flumist Salk Polio vaccine Hepatitis A Influenza
Flumist
Which of the following statements about human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) are correct? (Select all that apply) HIV has a DNA genome. HIV must synthesize reverse transcriptase immediately after infecting a cell. HIV infects cells expressing CD4. HIV requires the CXCR4 co-receptor for internalization by T cells. NFκB is a transcription factor that facilitates the transcription of proviral RNA.
HIV infects cells expressing CD4. HIV requires the CXCR4 co-receptor for internalization by T cells. NFκB is a transcription factor that facilitates the transcription of proviral RNA.
Which of the following genetic polymorphisms is associated with a predisposition to asthma? (Select all that apply) promoter variants of IL-5 structural variant of IgG receptor HLA class II allotypes β2-adrenergic receptor variant ACOX5 (5-lipoxygenase)
HLA class II allotypes β2-adrenergic receptor variant ACOX5 (5-lipoxygenase)
During the course of a successful desensitization process, the patient's antibodies will change from an _____isotype to an _____ isotype. IgG4:IgE IgE:IgM IgA:IgM IgG1:IgG4 IgE:IgG4
IgE:IgG4
Which of the following is FALSE regarding an inactivated or killed virus vaccine? It elicits a strong B cell response It elicits a strong T cell response Usually is injected intramuscularly Usually elicits a humoral response
It elicits a strong T cell response
A stressed cell will express.... NKG2D HLA-E MIC glycoproteins Cytotoxins
MIC glycoproteins
Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding memory B cells? Memory B cells are maintained for life. In secondary responses, the number of pathogen-specific B cells is about 10-100-fold that seen in primary responses. The sensitivity of memory B cells is improved compared with naive B bells because affinity maturation has occurred. Memory B cells express lower levels of MHC class II and B7 than do naive B cells. Memory B cells differentiate into plasma cells more rapidly than do naive B cells.
Memory B cells express lower levels of MHC class II and B7 than do naive B cells.
Which of the following statements regarding inherited immunodeficiency diseases is correct? Affected individuals are less susceptible to infection. Mortality rates are reduced by the administration of antibiotics to affected individuals. Most deficiency syndromes are caused by dominant gene defects. Women are more likely than men to inherit X-linked immunodeficiencies. Extracellular bacterial infections are common in deficiency syndromes with T-cell defects.
Mortality rates are reduced by the administration of antibiotics to affected individuals.
All NK cells express _____. CD3 MIC NKG2D KIR2DL1
NKG2D
Which of the following is incorrectly matched? Neisseria gonorrhoeae: sexually transmitted disease Salmonella typhimurium: food poisoning Neisseria gonorrhoeae: Variant pilin protein expression Salmonella typhimurium: Coating its surface with human proteins
Salmonella typhimurium: Coating its surface with human proteins
Reverse transcriptase is a _____ encoded by _____. DNA-dependent DNA polymerase; HIV DNA-dependent DNA polymerase; influenza virus RNA-dependent DNA polymerase; HIV RNA-dependent DNA polymerase; influenza virus RNA-dependent RNA polymerase; HIV
RNA-dependent DNA polymerase; HIV
Severe combined immune deficiency (SCID) describes a condition in which neither _____ nor _____ are functional. classical; alternative pathways of complement T-cell-dependent antibody responses; cell-mediated immune responses innate; acquired immune responses MHC class I; MHC class II molecules
T-cell-dependent antibody responses; cell-mediated immune responses
Which property of HIV renders the virus difficult to eradicate by the body's immune defenses and also limits the efficacy of drug therapies? The NFkB transcription factor initiates transcription of mRNA molecules with high rate of mutations Activation-induced deaminase introduces point mutations with the proviral DNA The HIV reverse transcriptase will splice RNA into random combinations resulting in surface glycoproteins with varied epitopes The HIV reverse transcriptase is an error-prone DNA polymerase resulting in increased protein mutations.
The HIV reverse transcriptase is an error-prone DNA polymerase resulting in increased protein mutations.
During a primary immune response IgM sometimes switches to IgE. Which of the following best describes the consequence of this early switch? The B cell would switch again to IgG3. The B cell would remain in the germinal center but would not differentiate into a plasma cell. The B cell would die by apoptosis. The IgE produced would have low affinity for antigen.
The IgE produced would have low affinity for antigen.
In which ways do memory B cells active in a secondary immune response differ from the naive B-cell population activated in a primary immune response? (Select all that apply.) The antibody produced is of higher affinity in a secondary immune response. The frequency of antigen-specific B cells is lower in a secondary immune response. The level of somatic hypermutation is higher in a secondary immune response. Higher levels of IgM are produced in secondary immune responses. B cells do not require T-cell help in secondary immune responses. Memory B cells express higher levels of MHC class II molecules. Naive B cells express higher levels of co-stimulatory molecules.
The antibody produced is of higher affinity in a secondary immune response. The level of somatic hypermutation is higher in a secondary immune response. Memory B cells express higher levels of MHC class II molecules.
Which of the following is TRUE regarding the evolution of the immune system? Innate immune system developed after the appearance of the adaptive immune system The innate immune system is found only in invertebrates The adaptive immune system is absent in sharks The appearance of the RAG genes is associated with the appearance of the adaptive immune system
The appearance of the RAG genes is associated with the appearance of the adaptive immune system
Which of the following characterizes immunological memory? (Select all that apply.) The host retains the capacity to mount a secondary immune response. The host retains the ability to respond to pathogen many years after primary exposure. Naive T cells are activated more quickly when exposed to pathogen. Memory B cells produce higher-affinity antibody than naive B cells. Memory T cells undergo somatic hypermutation. Memory T cells express CD45RA.
The host retains the capacity to mount a secondary immune response. The host retains the ability to respond to pathogen many years after primary exposure. Memory B cells produce higher-affinity antibody than naive B cells.
Indicate whether the following statement is true (T) or false (F): A possible side-effect of using antilymphocyte globulin (ALG) is serum sickness. True False
True
Indicate whether the following statement is true: There are polymorphic antigens other than ABO and Rhesus antigens that can cause type II hypersensitivity reactions True False
True
Some people are resistant to HIV infection because a primary infection cannot be established in macrophages or memory T cells. What is the likely reason for this? They have a specific type of HLA polymorphism They are homozygous for a mutant form of CCR5 that cannot be used by HIV as a co-receptor They generate antibodies against the GP41 protein They have previously been infected with simian immunodeficiency virus
They are homozygous for a mutant form of CCR5 that cannot be used by HIV as a co-receptor
Identify which of the following is NOT a characteristic of γ:δ T cells. (select all that apply) They do not express CD28. They are subject to MHC restriction. Most do not express either CD4 or CD8. Most circulating cells do not enter secondary lymphoid tissue. They undergo gene rearrangement.
They are subject to MHC restriction.
Which of the following statements regarding NK cells is false? They express either inhibitory receptors or activating receptors, but not both. Their inhibitory receptors are necessary to prevent killing of healthy cells. They all express CD56. Because NK cells express diverse combinations of receptors, no single NK cell expresses them all. Some of their activating and inhibitory receptors use MHC class I ligands.
They express either inhibitory receptors or activating receptors, but not both.
Memory B cells differ from memory T cells in the following ways. (Select all that apply.) They suppress naive antigen-specific lymphocytes during secondary immune responses. They recirculate only through secondary lymphoid organs. They secrete their antigen receptors throughout their life-span. They generate long-lived clones of memory cells during the primary immune response.
They suppress naive antigen-specific lymphocytes during secondary immune responses. They recirculate only through secondary lymphoid organs.
What medical condition does a Staphylococci infection result in? Toxic shock syndrome from the action of superantigens Dysentry from the action of superantigens Toxic shock syndrome from disabling of macrophages Cold sores from the infection of the trigeminal neurons
Toxic shock syndrome from the action of superantigens
Which of the following are potential means by which type I allergic reactions can be managed or treated? (Select all that apply) Use antihistamines to block histamine binding to H1 histamine receptors. Use corticosteroids to suppress inflammation. Desensitize the patient by feeding them allergen and skewing the immune response from an IgE to an IgA response. Anergize allergen-specific T cells through vaccination with allergen-derived peptides. Administer Il-4, IL-5, or IL-1β to promote TH1 responses. Block high-affinity IgE receptors to prevent mast-cell degranulation.
Use antihistamines to block histamine binding to H1 histamine receptors. Use corticosteroids to suppress inflammation. Anergize allergen-specific T cells through vaccination with allergen-derived peptides. Block high-affinity IgE receptors to prevent mast-cell degranulation.
Blood transfusions mismatched for ABO and/or rhesus antigens are associated with _____. (Select all that apply) type III hypersensitivity reactions alloreactive immune responses lysis of recipient red blood cells laboratory errors in the cross-matching procedure activation of host complement and destruction of donor cells
alloreactive immune responses laboratory errors in the cross-matching procedure activation of host complement and destruction of donor cells
The wheal-and-flare inflammatory reaction is an example of an immediate type I allergic response a late-phase type I allergic response a late-phase type IV allergic response an immediate type III allergic response a late-phase type III allergic response
an immediate type I allergic response
During infection with HIV, a person is said to undergo seroconversion when _____. HIV variants convert from macrophage-tropic to lymphocyte-tropic late in infection anti-HIV antibodies are detectable in their blood serum cellular transcription favors the production of HIV-encoded RNA HIV is transferred from an infected person to an uninfected recipient the initial phase of infection is followed by clinical latency
anti-HIV antibodies are detectable in their blood serum
For infectious HIV virions to be made, the infected cell must _____. (Select all that apply) be CD4-positive express low levels of CCR5 express functional NFκB be latent be polyreactive
be CD4-positive express functional NFκB
Identify which of the following is not a characteristic of CD94:NKG2A. prevents killing of self cells is an inhibitory NK-cell receptor binds to carbohydrate ligands is a disulfide-linked heterodimer contains an immunoreceptor tyrosine-based inhibitory motif (ITIM)
binds to carbohydrate ligands
Alloantibodies to blood-vessel endothelium on solid organ grafts _____. are specific for HLA class I and class II antigens cause hyperacute rejection cause acute rejection target endothelium for attack by NK cells are IgA and do not fix complement
cause hyperacute rejection
Hematopoietic stem cell transplantation is appropriate for all of the following conditions except _____. thalassemia major Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome Fanconi's anemia cirrhosis of the liver sickle-cell anemia non-Hodgkin's lymphoma
cirrhosis of the liver
By which process are fetal erythrocytes destroyed in hemolytic anemia of the newborn? lysis of erythrocytes by cytotoxic T cells lysis of erythrocytes by complement activation clearance of antibody-coated erythrocytes by macrophages in the fetal spleen lysis of erythrocytes by NK cells via antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity cytotoxicity caused by major basic protein released from eosinophils.
clearance of antibody-coated erythrocytes by macrophages in the fetal spleen
An adjuvant enhances the effectiveness of vaccines by inducing the expression of _____ on ________. co-stimulatory molecules; macrophages and dendritic cells CD28; macrophages MHC class II molecules; T cells T-cell receptor; T cells immunoreceptor tyrosine-based activation motifs; dendritic cells
co-stimulatory molecules; macrophages and dendritic cells
Aspirin (acetyl salicylate) inhibits prostaglandin synthesis by binding irreversibly to prostaglandin synthase, the first enzyme in the _____ pathway. cyclooxygenase carboxypeptidase metalloprotease lipooxygenase peroxidase
cyclooxygenase
Acute rejection of a kidney graft involves the activation of recipient T cells by _____ of _____ origin. dendritic cells; recipient B cells; recipient dendritic cells; donor macrophages; recipient B cells; donor
dendritic cells; donor
Reasons complicating the development of vaccines to combat chronic diseases include _____. (Select all that apply.) evasion of the host's immune system by the pathogen the polymorphic diversity of MHC class I and class II molecules the generation of inappropriate immune responses that do not eradicate the pathogen survival of the infectious agent for long periods inside the host high mutation rates in the pathogen
evasion of the host's immune system by the pathogen the polymorphic diversity of MHC class I and class II molecules the generation of inappropriate immune responses that do not eradicate the pathogen survival of the infectious agent for long periods inside the host high mutation rates in the pathogen
Residual leukemia cells persisting in a patient after they have received chemotherapy, irradiation, and a bone-marrow transplant are sometimes eliminated by a _____ effect which involves the action of _____. (Select all that apply) graft-versus-leukemia; alloreactive T cells haploidentical; regulatory T cells acute minor histocompatibility; recipient NK cells myeloablation; mature T cells graft-versus-leukemia; alloreactive NK cells
graft-versus-leukemia; alloreactive T cells graft-versus-leukemia; alloreactive NK cells
Family members who donate their bone marrow to a transplant patient and who share one out of the two HLA haplotypes are providing a(n) _____ transplant. autologous HLA-matched haploidentical chimeric cross-matched
haploidentical
A primary immune response against influenza virus produces antibodies that bind to _____. hemagglutinin and neuraminidase variable surface glycoproteins EBNA-1 protein toxins gp41 and gp120.
hemagglutinin and neuraminidase
Shingles is associated with infection by _____. Epstein-Barr virus Staphylococcus aureus herpes zoster Candida albicans Listeria monocytogenes
herpes zoster
Inactivation of viruses for vaccine use can be achieved by _____. (select all that apply) irradiation heat treatment mutation formalin treatment
irradiation heat treatment formalin treatment
Prednisone is a steroid used in transplantation that _____. (Select all that apply) binds to a cell-surface receptor and inhibits the function of NFκB is combined with cytotoxic drugs to improve its efficacy decreases the synthesis of IκBα causes a decrease in production of inflammatory cytokines can lead to bone demineralization as an unwanted side-effect
is combined with cytotoxic drugs to improve its efficacy causes a decrease in production of inflammatory cytokines can lead to bone demineralization as an unwanted side-effect
The pol gene of HIV produces all of the following except _____. integrase protease matrix protein reverse transcriptase
matrix protein
Males engrafted with HLA-identical bone marrow from their sisters develop graft-versus-host disease because _____. T cells develop in the male thymus that are not tolerant to minor histocompatibility antigens expressed by the sister mature T cells in the graft have specificity for male-specific minor histocompatibility antigens there are differences between the sexes in how self proteins are modified post-translationally NK-cell alloreactions occur residual female hormones in the graft cause upregulation of HLA class I on male dendritic cells presenting minor histocompatibility antigens
mature T cells in the graft have specificity for male-specific minor histocompatibility antigens
Graft-versus-host disease (GVHD) is a consequence of _____. mature T lymphocytes from the donor mounting an immune response against tissue of the recipient mature T lymphocytes from the recipient mounting an immune response against tissue of the donor mismatching A, B, and O antigens between donor and recipient mismatching Rhesus antigen between donor and recipient antibodies of the donor stimulating NK cell antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC) of tissues of the recipient
mature T lymphocytes from the donor mounting an immune response against tissue of the recipient
Which of the following is associated with type III hypersensitivity? nickel recombinant human insulin plant oil mouse-derived monoclonal antibody helminth infection
mouse-derived monoclonal antibody
All of the following are characteristics of blood donations and transfusions that enable their extensive use for transplantation purposes except _____. individuals can donate on a regular basis without any deleterious effects erythrocytes do not express MHC class I or class II molecules the blood components only need to function for a few weeks only the ABO antigens need to be compatible between donor and recipient blood transfusion is a straight forward and inexpensive process.
only the ABO antigens need to be compatible between donor and recipient
For the patient's new immune system to function effectively in bone marrow recipients, some HLA allotypes must be shared because _____. (Select all that apply) professional antigen-presenting cells are host-derived professional antigen-presenting cells are donor-derived otherwise an autoimmune disease would develop newly generated T cells are positively selected on the recipient's thymic epithelium if all HLA molecules were mismatched, acute rejection of the grafted cells would occur
professional antigen-presenting cells are donor-derived newly generated T cells are positively selected on the recipient's thymic epithelium
In a mixed lymphocyte reaction the donor cells are irradiated to ensure that they do not _____. stimulate recipient cells become anergic alter their level of expression of HLA molecule proliferate undergo apoptosis
proliferate
Which viral targets for HIV therapy is involved in processing of long viral polypeptides into shorter peptides (select ONE that applies): reverse transcriptase matrix protein gp120 CD4 protease
protease
Which of the following are consequences of anaphylactic shock? (Select all that apply) smooth muscle contraction immune complex deposition on blood vessels loss of blood pressure constriction of airways complement activation
smooth muscle contraction loss of blood pressure constriction of airways
Deficiencies in complement components C5-C9 and properdin (factor P) are associated with _____. immune-complex disease susceptibility to Neisseria secondary immunodeficiency diseases hereditary angioedema leukocyte adhesion deficie
susceptibility to Neisseria
A characteristic of the human eye that enables the cornea to be transplanted with a 90% success rate is that _____. (Select all that apply) antigen-presenting cells in the eye do not express the co-stimulatory molecule B7 the cornea is not vascularized anterior-chamber-associated immune deviation (ACAID) establishes a state of tolerance in the eye only regulatory T cells express the adhesion molecules necessary to enter the cornea the aqueous humor of the anterior chamber contains TGF-β, which downregulates CD40 and inhibits IL-12 secretion
the cornea is not vascularized anterior-chamber-associated immune deviation (ACAID) establishes a state of tolerance in the eye the aqueous humor of the anterior chamber contains TGF-β, which downregulates CD40 and inhibits IL-12 secretion
Listeria monocytogenes replicates in _____ of macrophages after _____. the phagosome; inhibition of fusion of the phagosome with the lysosome the cytosol; escaping from the phagosome a specialized membrane-bound vesicle; infection of the cell extracellular spaces; coating itself with human proteins nucleus; fusion with the nuclear membrane
the cytosol; escaping from the phagosome
The Human Papilloma Virus (HPV) vaccine is controversial because of which association? the implicit association with adolescent sexual activity association with higher rates of cervical cancer low levels of efficacy in eliminating HPV high rates of side effects
the implicit association with adolescent sexual activity
Alloantibody production after organ transplantation involves _____. a mixed lymphocyte reaction the indirect pathway of allorecognition by CD4 T cells activation of regulatory CD4 T cells the transfusion effect a switch from a chronic to an acute state of organ rejection
the indirect pathway of allorecognition by CD4 T cells
All of the following are characteristic of NK cells except _____. they express Toll-like receptors they are tolerant of healthy cells they circulate in a partly activated state they all express the same selection of activating and inhibitory NK-cell receptors they can be activated by FcγRIIIA (CD16a).
they all express the same selection of activating and inhibitory NK-cell receptors
Which of the following are associated with soluble antigen? (Select all that apply) type I hypersensitivity type II hypersensitivity type III hypersensitivity type IV hypersensitivity mast-cell activation
type 1 hypersensitivity type III hypersensitivity type IV hypersensitivity mast-cell activation
Which of the following are matched correctly? (Select all that apply) type I hypersensitivity: IgE type II hypersensitivity: IgG type III hypersensitivity: immune complexes type IV hypersensitivity: IgG type IV hypersensitivity: delayed-type hypersensitivity
type I hypersensitivity: IgE type II hypersensitivity: IgG type III hypersensitivity: immune complexes type IV hypersensitivity: delayed-type hypersensitivity
Which of the following is not mediated by antibodies? type I hypersensitivity type II hypersensitivity type III hypersensitivity type IV hypersensitivity
type IV hypersensitivity
Genes encoding _____ rearrange in trypanosomes permitting replication and survival of the pathogen until the host produces an antibody response against the altered gene product. pilin flagellin variable surface glycoproteins (VSGs) hemagglutinin
variable surface glycoproteins (VSGs)
