Immunology Internals
For a molecule to be antigenic, it should have all of the following properties except a) Rigid conformation* b) Foreign c) Large size d) Complex structure e) None of these
a) Rigid conformation*
The molecular weight of a complete Antigen Select one: a. 9000 K.D b. 5000 K.D c. 7000 K.D d. Morethan 10,000 K.D
a. 9000 K.D
T-cell epitope will encounter all except: Select one: a. Antibody b. MHC c. Antigen-presenting cell d. TCR
a. Antibody
A living microbe with reduced virulence that is used for vaccination is considered: Select one: a. Attenuated b. Denatured c. Dormant d. Virulent e. A toxoid
a. Attenuated
B cells mature in the........... while T cells mature in the Select one: a. Bone marrow and GALT/Thymus b. Thymus/bone marrow and gut-associated lymphoid tissue (GALT) c. Spleen/bone marrow and GALT d. Liver/Kidneys
a. Bone marrow and GALT/Thymus
Immunogen will stimulate: Select one: a. Both B and T cells b. Platelets c. Neither B nor T cell d. T cell only e. B cell only
a. Both B and T cells
Cytokines always act: Select one: a. By binding to specific receptors b. In an autocrine fashion c. Synergistically with other cytokines d. Antagonistically with other cytokines e. At long range
a. By binding to specific receptors
The ____ T cell-APC interaction is MHC ____-restricted, and the ____ T cell-target cell interaction is MHC ____-restricted. Select one: a. CD4+; Class II; CD8+; Class I b. CD8+; Class I; CD4+; Class II c. CD4+; Class I; CD8+; Class II d. CD8+; Class II; CD4+; Class I
a. CD4+; Class II; CD8+; Class I
In the germinal center, B-cells become memory cells under the influence of: Select one: a. CD40 b. TGF² c. CD23 d. IL-4 e. IL-1±
a. CD40
Stem cells that can differentiate into all cell lineages is: Select one: a. Embryonic stem cell b. platelets c. Progenitor cell
a. Embryonic stem cell
B cell recognizes: Select one: a. Epitopes b. Surface epitopes c. Internal epitopes d. Agretope e. Hydrophobic epitopes
a. Epitopes
The most effective complement activating antibody is: Select one: a. IgM b. IgE c. IgG4 d. IgA
a. IgM
Acute inflammation characteristically involves: Select one: a. Influx of neutrophils b. Influx of mast cells c. Constriction of arterioles d. Influx of macrophages e. Capillary endothelial cell enlargement
a. Influx of neutrophils
Which of the following statements is TRUE of interferons? Select one: a. Interferons induce enzyme synthesis in the target cell b. Interferons are found only in mammalian species c. Interferons are divided into five main families d. Interferons are specific for individual viruses e. Interferons only affect infected cells
a. Interferons induce enzyme synthesis in the target cell
The size of antigenic determinants is approximately: Select one: a. 40 amino acid residues b. 20 amino acid residues c. 3 amino acid residues d. 7 amino acid residues
d. 7 amino acid residues
Non-sequential antigenic determinants are usually recognized by: Select one: a. None of these b. T cells c. Dendritic cell d. B cells e. Macrophages
d. B cells
Complement component C3 is cleaved by: Select one: a. Factor H b. Factor D c. Factor B d. C3bBb e. C3b
d. C3bBb
Which of the following is NOT an acute phase protein? Select one: a. Fibrinogen b. Mannose-binding lectin c. C-reactive protein d. Chondroitin sulfate e. Serum amyloid P componen
d. Chondroitin sulfate
If a person had a genetic defect affecting perforin production, which cells and immune function would be affected? Select one: a. Macrophages and neutrophils/phagocytosis b. Mast cells/fusion of granules to cell membrane c. Dendritic cells/antigen presentation d. Cytotoxic T cells and natural killer cells/cell killing e. Eosinophils and basophils/granule production
d. Cytotoxic T cells and natural killer cells/cell killing
Which of the following does the mononuclear phagocyte system NOT include? Select one: a. Kidney mesangial cells b. Lymph node medullary macrophages c. Kupffer cells d. Endothelial cells e. Monocytes
d. Endothelial cells
Which of the following does the mononuclear phagocyte system NOT include? Select one: a. Monocytes b. Kupffer cells c. Lymph node medullary macrophages d. Endothelial cells e. Kidney mesangial cells
d. Endothelial cells
Which of the following immune cells/molecules are most effective at destroying intracellular pathogens? Select one: a. B cells b. T helper cells c. Antibodies d. Complement e. T cytolytic cells
e. T cytolytic cells
Which of the following components of the innate immune system involves the release of histamine? Select one: a. Macrophage b. Eosinophil c. Neutrophil d. natural killer cells e. neutrophil
e. neutrophil
Antigen binding is associated with a) Framework region b) Hypervariable region* c) Immunoglobulin fold d) Immunoglobulin domain
b) Hypervariable region*
A person develops a viral infection and both T and B cells become activated to fight the infection. In which way is antigen recognition by B cells different from antigen recognition by T cells? Select one: a. The antigen receptors on a single B cell have a broad specificity, and are able to recognize several chemically unrelated antigens b. B cells utilize membrane immunoglobulin molecules to bind to antigen in its natural state c. B cells recognize the antigens that have been processed and presented by follicular dendritic cells d. B cells undergo receptor editing to change receptors that fail to bind to an antigen e. B cells home to the paracortex of lymph nodes where they recognize the antigens trapped by helper T cells
b. B cells utilize membrane immunoglobulin molecules to bind to antigen in its natural state
Humoral immunity is mediated by antibodies from ____ and is involved in the elimination of ____ pathogens. Cell mediated immunity is mediated by ____ and is Select one: a. B lymphocytes; Intracellular; T lymphocytes; Extracellular b. B lymphocytes; Extracellular; T lymphocytes; Intracellular c. T lymphocytes; Extracellular; B lymphocytes; Intracellular d. Involved in the elimination of ____ pathogens. e. T lymphocytes; Intracellular; B lymphocytes; Extracellular
b. B lymphocytes; Extracellular; T lymphocytes; Intracellular
The origin and development of Immune cells from the following Select one: a. Kidney b. Bone marrow and Thymus c. Gastrointestional Tract d. Liver
b. Bone marrow and Thymus
The membrane attack complex consists of: Select one: a. C3bBb3b b. C5b,6,7,8,9 c. Colicins d. OH e. Properdin
b. C5b,6,7,8,9
Which of the following components of the adaptive immune system causes lysis of virally infected cells and the release of cytokines? Select one: a. CD4+ activated T cell b. CD8+ cytotoxic T cell (CTL) c. Resting lymphocytes (B cell, CD4+ T cell, CD8+ T cell) d. Activated B cell (plasma cell)
b. CD8+ cytotoxic T cell (CTL)
A polymorphonuclear neutrophil (PMN): Select one: a. Has granules that stain with eosin b. Contains microbicidal cytoplasmic granules c. Is not a professional phagocytic cell d. Is a bone marrow stem cell e. Is closely similar to a mast cell
b. Contains microbicidal cytoplasmic granules
Macrophages recognize microorganisms through the interaction of microbial substances with what type of receptors on macrophages? Select one: a. Pattern recognition receptors b. Membrane immunoglobulin c. Complement receptors d. Antigen receptors e. Fc receptors
a. Pattern recognition receptors
B cells that produce and release large amounts of antibody are called: Select one: a. Plasma cells b. Basophils c. Killer cells d. Memory cells e. Neutrophils
a. Plasma cells
The least antigenic substance among those given below is: Select one: a. Protease b. Nuclease c. Nucleic acid d. Non of these e. Glycoprotein
a. Protease
CD3 complex is normally expressed on: Select one: a. T cells b. NK cells c. Lymphocytes d. Granulocytes e. B cells
a. T cells
Which of the following statements is the best example of a primary lymphoid organ? Select one: a. Thymus b. Tonsil c. Spleen d. Lymph nodes e. Peyer's patch
a. Thymus
Natural killer (NK) cells are excellent killers of cells infected by some ____. They also have an additional role of stimulating the ____ immune response. Select one: a. Viruses; Adaptive b. Bacteria; Adaptive c. Bacteria; Innate d. Viruses; Innate
a. Viruses; Adaptive
In agglutination reactions, the antigen is a.........in precipitation reactions, the antigen is a............... Select one: a. whole cell/soluble molecule b. Soluble molecule/whole cell c. Protein/carbohydrates d. Protein/Antibody e. Bacterium/virus
a. whole cell/soluble molecule
Activation of the complement system, directly results in which one of the following outcomes? Select one: a. Interaction of Fc receptors with antibodies bound to antigens on the pathogen cell surface b. Enhanced phagocytosis c. Enhancement of immune-mediated neutralization d. Expression of Toll-like receptors on phagocyte cell surface e. Proliferation of T cells
b. Enhanced phagocytosis
Which of the following is characteristically produced by the Th2 CD4 cells which provide help for antibody production, but not by Th1 cells? Select one: a. Lymphotoxin (TNF²) b. IL-4 c. Granulocyte-macrophage colony-stimulating factor (GM-CSF) d. IFN³ e. IL-1
b. IL-4
Parasitic worm eggs are resistant to low pH and proteolytic digestion in the stomach. Adult worms living inside the lower gut are protected from many of the components of the immune response. Mast cells respond to worms. What immunoglobulin activates these mast cells, leading to degranulation? Select one: a. IgD b. IgE c. IgM d. IgG e. IgA
b. IgE
Prior to class switching, B-cells express: Select one: a. IgD alone b. IgM and IgD c. IgA and IgG d. No surface Ig e. IgA alone
b. IgM and IgD
Which one of the following cells is the major source of tumor necrosis factor alpha (TNF-±), interleukin-1, and interleukin-12? Select one: a. B cells b. Macrophages c. Th2 cells d. Mast cells e. Th1 cells
b. Macrophages
Antigen presenting cells (APCs) are required for T-cell recognition of specifi c antigen and activation. APCs accomplish this task by presenting antigen in the context of which of the following molecules? Select one: a. Fc receptor (FcR) b. Major histocompatibility complex (MHC) c. T-cell receptor (TCR) d. Toll-like receptor (TLR) e. Killer inhibitory receptor (KIR)
b. Major histocompatibility complex (MHC)
Which of these cells are usually found in the tissues? Select one: a. Platelets b. Mast cells c. Neutrophils d. Eosinophils e. Red blood cells
b. Mast cells
Tissue macrophages are mature: Select one: a. None of these b. Monocytes c. NK cells d. T cells e. B cells
b. Monocytes
Adjuvant increase all of the following, except: Select one: a. Processing of antigen b. Number of antigen molecules c. Time of exposure of immunogen d. Inflammatory response
b. Number of antigen molecules
Granulocytes that cannot phagocytose are: Select one: a. Neutrophils b. Platelets c. Dendricytes d. Basophils e. Eosinophils
b. Platelets
Which of the following does NOT protect body surfaces? Select one: a. Skin b. Salivary amylase c. Gut microflora d. Gastric acid e. Mucus
b. Salivary amylase
Superantigen activates: Select one: a. Antigen-presenting cell b. T cell c. NK cell d. B cell
b. T cell
Which cells express MHC class I molecules in a patient? Select one: a. antigen-presenting cells only b. all nucleated cells c. red blood cells d. neutrophils only e. dendritic cells only
b. all nucleated cells
Naturally acquired active immunity would be most likely acquired through which of the following processes? Select one: a. vaccination b. infection with disease-causing organism followed by recovery. c. natural birth d. drinking colostrum
b. infection with disease-causing organism followed by recovery.
Which of the following components of the adaptive immune system secretes immunoglobulin (Ig)? Select one: a. CD8+ cytotoxic T cell (CTL) b. CD4+ activated T cell c. Activated B cell (plasma cell) . Resting lymphocytes (B cell, CD4+ T cell, CD8+ T cell)
c. Activated B cell (plasma cell)
Dendritic cells, macrophages, and what other cell types are considered "professional antigen presenting cells," capable of antigen presentation to T helper cells? Select one: a. Eosinophils b. Neutrophils c. B cells d. Mast cells e. Basophils
c. B cells
B and T cells are produced by stem cells that are formed in: Select one: a. The spleen b. The lymph nodes c. Bone marrow d. The circulatory system e. The liver
c. Bone marrow
Polymorphonuclear neutrophils attack bacteria: Select one: a. By secreting interferon b. Exclusively by oxygen-dependent mechanisms c. By phagocytosis d. By secreting complement e. Exclusively by oxygen-independent mechanisms
c. By phagocytosis
Which of the following statements is TRUE of C3b? Select one: a. C3b is the inactive form of C3 b. C3b is chemotactic for neutrophils c. C3b opsonizes bacteria d. C3b directly injures bacteria e. C3b is an anaphylatoxin
c. C3b opsonizes bacteria
Which of the following statements is TRUE of C3b? Select one: a. C3b is the inactive form of C3 b. C3b is chemotactic for neutrophils c. C3b opsonizes bacteria d. C3b is an anaphylatoxin e. C3b directly injures bacteria
c. C3b opsonizes bacteria
Which of the following is a complement component that is strongly chemotactic for neutrophils? Select one: a. C3 b. C9 c. C5a d. C3b e. C5b
c. C5a
The movement of neutrophils towards or away from chemical stimuli is an example of: Select one: a. Neutrophilia b. Diapedesis c. Chemotaxis d. Chemokines e. Chemoattraction
c. Chemotaxis
Peptides antigens generated in the cytosolic compartment (intracellular infection, e.g. virus) bind to ____ MHC molecules for presentation to ____ T cells. Peptide antigens generated in vesicles (extracellular infection, e.g. bacteria) bind to ____ MHC molecules for presentation to ____ T cells. Select one: a. Class I; CD4+; Class II; CD8+ b. Class II; CD8+; Class I; CD4+ c. Class I; CD8+; Class II; CD4+ d. Class II; CD4+; Class I; CD8+
c. Class I; CD8+; Class II; CD4+
A polymorphonuclear neutrophil (PMN): Select one: a. Has granules that stain with eosin b. Is not a professional phagocytic cell c. Contains microbicidal cytoplasmic granules d. Is closely similar to a mast cell e. Is a bone marrow stem cell
c. Contains microbicidal cytoplasmic granules
What response of T cells plays a role in the pathogenesis of shock following the binding of TSST-1 and similar molecules? Select one: a. Apoptosis b. Memory cell differentiation c. Cytokine secretion d. Cell cytotoxicity e. Anergy
c. Cytokine secretion
Plasma cell formation is initiated in the: Select one: a. Primary follicle b. Secondary follicle c. Germinal centre d. reproduction centre e. Marginal zone
c. Germinal centre
A young woman with acute myeloblastic leukemia is treated with intensive chemotherapy and achieves remission of her symptoms. Because the prognosis for relapse is relatively high, a bone marrow transplant is undertaken in her first remission. Which of the following cytokines administered with the bone marrow cells would have the beneficial result of stimulating lymphoid-cell development from the grafted stem cells? Select one: a. IL-3 b. IL-2 c. IL-7 d. IL-6 e. Interleukin (IL )-1
c. IL-7
Which antibody class would best protect respiratory epithelial cells from viral infection? Select one: a. IgD b. IgM c. IgA d. IgE e. IgG
c. IgA
Acute inflammation characteristically involves: Select one: a. Capillary endothelial cell enlargement b. Influx of macrophages c. Influx of neutrophils d. Influx of mast cells e. Constriction of arterioles
c. Influx of neutrophils
Pattern recognition receptors (PRR) include which of the following? Select one: a. Unmethylated CpG sequences b. Lipopolysaccharide (LPS) c. Lectin-like molecules d. Pathogen-associated molecular patterns (PAMPs) e. Lipoteichoic acid
c. Lectin-like molecules
Vaccination operates to generate a humoral immune response to the immunogen(s). Which one of the following represents the critical function of the resultant humoral response in protecting vaccinated patients from future infections by targeted pathogenic agents? Select one: a. Antibody-dependent cell cytoxicity (ADCC) b. Complement activation c. Neutralization d. Extravasation e. Opsonization
c. Neutralization
Which of the following does NOT protect body surfaces? Select one: a. Gastric acid b. Skin c. Salivary amylase d. Gut microflora e. Mucus
c. Salivary amylase
Eosinophils do NOT: Select one: a. Contain peroxidase b. Give a respiratory burst on activation c. Stain with basic dyes d. Have C3b receptors e. Contain a major basic protein
c. Stain with basic dyes
The ____ immune system uses ____ as well as molecules (e.g. complement components). The ____ immune system uses ____ as well as antigen recognition molecules. Select one: a. Innate; Lymphocytes; Adaptive; Phagocytes b. Adaptive; Lymphocytes; Innate; Phagocytes c. Adaptive; Phagocytes; Innate; Lymphocytes d. Innate; Phagocytes; Adaptive; Lymphocytes
d. Innate; Phagocytes; Adaptive; Lymphocytes
Which of the following components of the innate immune system involves cytokines produced by macrophages, which are produced during infection? Select one: a. Oxygen dependent and independent killing b. Acute phase proteins c. Complement system d. Interferons e. Natural killer (NK) cells
d. Interferons
Acute inflammation can be initiated by: Select one: a. Influx of neutrophils b. An increase in vascular permeability c. Lysozyme d. Mast cell activation e. C3
d. Mast cell activation
A lymphocyte that is not antigen-specific is: Select one: a. T cell b. Macrophage c. Detrictic Cell d. NK cell e. B cell
d. NK cell
Which of the following convey the longest-lasting immunity to an infectious agent? Select one: a. None of these b. All of these c. Naturally acquired passive immunity d. Naturally acquired active immunity e. Artificially acquired passive immunity
d. Naturally acquired active immunity
The given cells are antigen-reactive lymphocytes, except: Select one: a. NK cell b. T cell c. Macrophage d. Neutrophils e. B cell
d. Neutrophils
Neutrophil defensins are: Select one: a. Glycolipids b. Enzymes c. Anti-toxins d. Peptide antibiotics e. Oxygen-dependent
d. Peptide antibiotics
The specificity of an antibody is due to Select one: a. The heavy chains b. The Fc portion of the molecule c. its valence d. The variable portion of the heavy and light chain
d. The variable portion of the heavy and light chain
A patient with advanced metastatic melanoma decides to join an experimental treatment protocol in the hope that it will cause regression of his tumor masses. Malignant cells are aspirated from several of his lesions and transfected in vitro with the gene encoding IL-3 production. The transfected tumor cells are then reinfused into the patient. Mobilization of which of the following cells from the bone marrow would be likely to result from this treatment? Select one: a. NK cells b. T lymphocytes c. B lymphocytes d. antigen presenting cells e. plasma cells
d. antigen presenting cells
What types of cell is class II MHC found on? Select one: a. a. B cells b. c. Dendritic cells c. d. Essentially all cells d. e. Mainly on A, B, & C e. b. Macrophages
d. e. Mainly on A, B, & C
The membrane attack complex consists of: Select one: a. Colicins b. OH c. Properdin d. C3bBb3b e. C5b,6,7,8,9
e. C5b,6,7,8,9
Dendritic cells can be driven from a resting state to an activated state by the T-cell surface molecule: Select one: a. B7 b. CD40 c. TCR d. CD28 e. CD40L
e. CD40L
Which of the following substances will not stimulate an immune response unless they are bound to a larger molecule? Select one: a. Virus b. Antibody c. Miligen d. Antigen e. Hapten
e. Hapten
Which of the following is the cytokine that is most involved in the class switch to IgE production? Select one: a. IL-1 b. TGF² c. IL-2 d. IL-5 e. IL-4
e. IL-4
Which of the following is NOT true when comparing innate to adaptive immunity Select one: a. Innate response is non-specific and adaptive is very specific b. Innate responds quickly and adaptive responds slowly b c. Innate has few pathogen (non-self) recognition mechanisms and adaptive has many d. Innate does not show response improvements over time and adaptive does e. Innate has immunologic memory and adaptive does not
e. Innate has immunologic memory and adaptive does not
Which of the following cytokines supports proliferation and differentiation of developing lymphocytes in the primary lymphoid tissue? Select one: a. Interleukin-4 b. Interleukin-12 c. Interleukin-1 d. Interleukin-18 e. Interleukin-7
e. Interleukin-7
Natural killer (NK) cells do NOT: Select one: a. Contain serine proteases b. Respond to interferon c. Contain tumor necrosis factor (TNF) d. Contain perforin e. Kill only by damaging the target cell outer membrane
e. Kill only by damaging the target cell outer membrane
Which of the following statements is TRUE of lysozyme? Select one: a. Lysozyme is a proteolytic enzyme b. Lysozyme is a cytoplasmic organelle c. Lysozyme is released by mast cells d. Lysozyme activates complement e. Lysozyme splits peptidoglycan
e. Lysozyme splits peptidoglycan
Which of the following statements is TRUE of lysozyme? Select one: a. Lysozyme is a proteolytic enzyme b. Lysozyme is released by mast cells c. Lysozyme activates complement d. Lysozyme is a cytoplasmic organelle e. Lysozyme splits peptidoglycan
e. Lysozyme splits peptidoglycan
T cytotoxic cells recognize epitopes only when the latter are held by Select one: a. B cells. b. interleukin 2. c. MHC proteins. d. granzyme. e. MHC I
e. MHC I
A 4-year-old child has atopic dermatitis due to severe allergies to dust, animal dander, and many kinds of pollens. Mediators released from which cell type are responsible for the clinical manifestations immediately following exposure to these substances? Select one: a. Th2 cells b. Macrophages c. B cells d. Th1 cells e. Mast cells
e. Mast cells
Which of the following is NOT produced following activation of the NADPH oxidase microbicidal pathway? Select one: a. O2 b. H2O2 c. OH d. O2 e. NO
e. NO
Which of the following is NOT produced following activation of the NADPH oxidase microbicidal pathway? Select one: a. O2 b. O2 c. H2O2 d. OH e. NO
e. NO
A blood sample from an individual with systemic lupus erythematosus was studied in a research project mapping T-cell receptor specifi cities. Many T cells were discovered to express receptors specific for autologous antigens. Failure of which process in the thymus leads to the large number of autoreactive T cells in the patient's blood? Select one: a. Receptor editing b. Hematopoiesis c. Affinity maturation d. Antigen processing e. Negative selection
e. Negative selection
Patients with MHC class II (or class I) antigen deficiency would exhibit which of the following? Select one: a. Systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS, sepsis) b. Acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) c. Human immuno-deficiency virus (HIV) infection d. Coagulation disorders (hemophilia) e. Persistent bacterial and viral infections
e. Persistent bacterial and viral infections
The thymic education of T cells ensures the elimination of cells Select one: a. Antibodies b. that are reactive towards: c. Foreign antigen d. Foreign MHC e. Foreign antigen + self-MHC f. Self-MHC + MHC
f. Self-MHC + MHC
