ITS-345: Database Management
The Microsoft Access 2016 data type of AutoNumber is used when there is a specific need for a: A - foreign key. B - primary key. C - surrogate key. D - spare key. E - secondary key.
C - surrogate key.
Slowly changing dimensions are handled by a(n): A - operational database. B - dimensional database. C - structured storage. D - Either operational database or dimensional database E - All of these
B - dimensional database.
Hadoop is a(n): A - OODBMS. B - distributed file system (DFS). C - Web server. D - print system. E - RDMBS.
B - distributed file system (DFS).
When distributed databases break the database into sections and store the sections on different servers, this is known as: A - replication. B - partitioning. C - disbursing. D - distributed two-phase locking. E - None of these
B - partitioning.
As far as Microsoft Access is concerned, there are no: A - N:M relationships. B - recursive relationships. C - N:1 relationships. D - 1:N relationships. E - 1:1 relationships.
A - N:M relationships.
What is the least restrictive isolation level that will prevent nonrepeatable reads? A - Repeatable Read B - Read Uncommitted C - Atomic Read D - Serializable E - Read Committed
A - Repeatable Read
SQL stands for: A - Structured Query Language. B - Standard Question Language. C - Structured Question Language. D - Structural Question Language. E - Standard Query Language.
A - Structured Query Language.
Snowflake schemas have normalized: A - fact tables. B - dimension tables. C - map tables. D - reduce tables. E - None of these
B - dimension tables.
Star schemas have a ________ at the center of the star. A - fact table B - dimension table C - map table D - reduce table E - None of these
A - fact table
Ensuring that each SQL statement independently processes consistent rows is known as: A - statement level consistency. B - serializable consistency. C - transaction level consistency. D - independent consistency. E - process level consistency.
A - statement level consistency.
Dimensional databases are used to track historical data and therefore must have a: A - time dimension. B - customer dimension. C - sales dimension. D - Either time dimension or customer dimension E - Both time dimension and customer dimension
A - time dimension.
Data warehouses use a(n): A - operational database. B - dimensional database. C - structured storage. D - Either operational database or dimensional database E - All of these
B - dimensional database.
When Microsoft Access 2013 compiles VBA code in a database, the database file will be a(n): A - *.accdb file. B - *.accdc file. C - *.accde file. D - *.mdb file. E - *.mdw file.
C - *.accde file.
Microsoft Access 2016 database files are stored using the file extension: A - .adb. B - .asp. C - .accdb. D - .mdb. E - .sql.
C - .accdb.
Business Intelligence (BI) systems do which of the following? A - Analyze current and past activities B - Predict future events C - Record and process transactions D - Both Analyze current and past activities and Predict future events E - All of these
D - Both Analyze current and past activities and Predict future events
Business Intelligence (BI) reporting systems can do which of the following operations? A - Filter data B - Group data C - Modify data D - Both Filter data and Group data E - All of these
D - Both Filter data and Group data
In the MapReduce process, the first step is the ________ step. A - reduce B - column C - super column D - map E - column family
D - map
A data mart differs from a data warehouse in that: A - it has a smaller database. B - it deals with a particular component or functional area of the business. C - data mart users do not have the data management expertise of data warehouse employees. D - Both it has a smaller database and it deals with a particular component or functional area of the business E - All of these
E - All of these
Business Intelligence (BI) systems obtain their data by which of the following means? A - Read and process data from an operational database B - Process extracts from operational databases C - Process data purchased from data vendors D - Both Read and process data from an operational database and Process extracts from operational database. E - All of these
E - All of these
Data mining applications are used to accomplish which of the following tasks? A - Perform what-if analysis B - Make predications C - Facilitate decision making D - Both Perform what-if analysis and Make predications E - All of these
E - All of these
Which of the following is a reason that operational data are difficult to read? A - Dirty data B - Missing values C - Non-integrated data D - Both Dirty data and Missing values E - All of these
E - All of these
To create an OLAP report for an Access 2013 database, we can build a PivotTable in: A - Microsoft PowerPoint 2013. B - Microsoft Access 2013. C - Microsoft Visio 2013. D - Microsoft Word 2013. E - Microsoft Excel 2013.
E - Microsoft Excel 2013.
To arrange the PivotTable columns and rows in Excel 2013, we use the: A - PivotTable Wizard. B - PivotTable dialog box. C - PivotTable command tab. D - PivotTable Control. E - PivotTable Field List.
E - PivotTable Field List.
Which symbol is used in standard SQL as a wildcard to represent a series of one or more unspecified characters? A - % (percent sign) B - ! (exclamation mark) C - ? (question mark) D - _ (underscore) E - ; (semi-colon)
A - % (percent sign)
What concurrent processing problem occurs when a transaction reads a changed record that has not been committed to the database? A - Dirty reads B - Serialized reads C - Phantom reads D - Nonrepeatable reads E - Unlocked reads
A - Dirty reads
Which SQL keyword is used to apply conditions to restrict groups that appear in the results of a SELECT query that uses GROUP BY? A - HAVING B - LIKE C - SORT D - WHERE E - DISTINCT
A - HAVING
Which SQL keyword can be used in conjunction with wildcards to select partial values? A - LIKE B - SEARCH C - SELECT D - FIND E - SUBSTRING
A - LIKE
Which of the following is not one of the five SQL built-in functions? A - MODE B - SUM C - MAX D - COUNT E - AVG
A - MODE
The statement SELECT STUNDENT.StudentNumber,STUDENT.StudentName, FROM STUDENT WHERE STUDENT.StudentNumber=S12345678; is an example of: A - SQL B - C++ C - QLE D - QBE E - Java
A - SLQ
Given the table STUDENT(StudentID, Name, Advisor), which of the following SQL statements would be used to change the value of the Advisor field to 'Smith' for all rows in the STUDENT table? A - UPDATE STUDENT SET Advisor = 'Smith'; B - SET STUDENT Advisor = 'Smith'; C - MODIFY STUDENT SET Advisor = 'Smith'; D - UPDATE Advisor = 'Smith'; E - MODIFY Advisor SET STUDENT = 'Smith';
A - UPDATE STUDENT SET Advisor = 'Smith';
A use case can be used to perform which of the following tasks? A - Validate the data model B - Develop applications C - Implement business rules D - Transform the data model into the database design E - Fill the database with data
A - Validate the data model
In crow's foot style E-R diagrams, a circle across the relationship line near an entity indicates: A - a minimum cardinality of zero. B - a minimum cardinality of one. C - a maximum cardinality of one. D - a maximum cardinality of many. E - Both a minimum cardinality of one and a maximum cardinality of one
A - a minimum cardinality of zero.
The Microsoft Access 2013 report editor is a(n): A - banded report editor. B - ASCII report editor. C - Web-based report editor. D - WYSIWYG report editor. E - wizard-based report editor.
A - banded report editor.
Each attribute of an entity becomes a(n) ________ of a table. A - column B - primary key C - foreign key D - alternate key E - primary key or alternate key
A - column
The number of entity classes involved in a relationship is known as the relationship's: A - degree. B - class. C - ordinality. D - maximum cardinality. E - minimum cardinality.
A - degree.
The purpose of concurrency control is to: A - ensure that one user's work does not interfere with another's. B - ensure that triggers do not invoke stored procedures. C - ensure that each form has a corresponding report. D - ensure that ASPs do not duplicate JSPs. E - ensure that stored procedures do not invoke triggers.
A - ensure that one user's work does not interfere with another's.
In the Entity-Relationship data model, all instances of an entity of a given type are grouped into: A - entity classes. B - entity objects. C - class objects. D - identifiers. E - entity attributes.
A - entity classes.
Whether a lock applies to data at the record level, page level, table level, or database level is referred to as: A - lock granularity. B - serializable locking. C - lock phasing. D - lock exclusivity. E - lock sharing.
A - lock granularity.
In relational database design, ID-dependent entities are used to ________. A - represent N:M relationships B - eliminate the need for weak entities being converted to tables. C - represent 1:N relationships D - represent 1:1 relationships E - handle recursive relationships
A - represent N:M relationships
Preventing multiple applications from obtaining copies of the same record when the record is about to be changed is called: A - resource locking. B - concurrent processing. C - lost updating. D - block factoring. E - serialized reading.
A - resource locking.
In Microsoft Access, standard SQL table creation syntax items not supported by Access SQL can generally be implemented by: A - setting the field properties in Access table Design View. B - setting the Data Types in Access table Design View. C - setting the referential integrity properties in the Edit Relationship dialog box. D - running an ALTER TABLE query in Access SQL. E - setting the relationship properties in the Edit Relationship dialog box.
A - setting the field properties in Access table Design View.
In Microsoft Access, the relationship between two tables is not actually created until: A - the Create button in the Edit Relationships dialog box is clicked. B - the Create button in the Create Relationships dialog box is clicked. C - the OK button in the Create Relationships dialog box is clicked. D - the Join button in the Edit Relationships dialog box is clicked. E - the OK button in the Edit Relationships dialog box is clicked.
A - the Create button in the Edit Relationships dialog box is clicked.
In the normalization process, if you find that every determinant in a relation is a candidate key then you have determined that: A - the relation is well formed. B - the relation needs to have foreign keys added in order to be correctly linked to other relations. C - surrogate keys in the relation may not be correctly linked to other relations. D - referential integrity constraints concerning the relation need to be established. E - the relation needs to be broken into two or more new relations.
A - the relation is well formed.
Today almost every commercial database is based on: Selected Answer: A - the relational model. B - the hierarchical model. C - lists. D - the object-oriented model. E - the linked-list model.
A - the relational model.
When Microsoft Access 2013 creates a signed package with a digital signature, the database file will be a(n): A - *.accdb file. B - *.accdc file. C - *.accde file. D - *.mdb file. E - *.mdw file.
B - *.accdc file.
Which of the following is true about a relation? A - A relation may have multiple names. B - All entries in any column must be of the same kind. C - The order of the columns in a relation must go from largest to smallest. D - A relation may have duplicate column names. E - A relation may have duplicate rows.
B - All entries in any column must be of the same kind.
Which of the following is true about a shared lock? A - It allows only two transactions to update a record simultaneously. B - It allows reads to the locked item. C - It is more restrictive than an implicit lock. D - It locks the item from all access. E - It must use a two-phase locking scheme.
B - It allows reads to the locked item.
Given the below functional dependency, MedicineCode → (MedicineName, ShelfLife, Manufacturer, Dosage)which of the following statements is not known to be true? A - MedicineCode is a candidate key of the relation MEDICINE (MedicineName, ShelfLife, Manufacturer, Dosage, MedicineCode). B - MedicineName is a determinant. C - ShelfLife is functionally dependent on MedicineCode. D - MedicineCode is a determinant. E - Manufacturer is functionally dependent on MedicineCode.
B - MedicineName is a determinant.
Which of the following is not true about null values? A - A null value can mean that no value for the field is appropriate. B - Null values cannot be avoided. C - A null value can mean that the value is known to be blank. D - A null value is ambiguous. E - A null value can mean that the value is unknown.
B - Null values cannot be avoided.
Which of the following would not be an example of database metadata? A - Properties of tables in a database B - Queries against records in the database tables C - Names of tables in a database D - Names of columns in a database and their associated tables E - Properties of columns
B - Queries against records in the database tables
Which of the following is not a standard data type used in SQL? A - Char B - Text C - Integer D - Varchar E - Numeric
B - Text
To open a new Microsoft Access Query window: A - click the Create Query button on the Create command tab. B - click the Query Design button on the Command tab. C - click the New Query in Design view button on the Create command tab. D - click the New Query button on the Home command tab. E - click the New button on the Home command tab.
B - click the Query Design button on the Command tab.
The first step in transforming an extended E-R model into a relational database design is to ________. A - evaluate the entities against the normalization criteria B - create a table for each entity C - create a table for each relationship D - document referential integrity constraints E - remove any recursive relationships
B - create a table for each entity
The representation of the content, relationships, and constraints of the data needed to support the system requirements is the: A - relation design. B - data model. C - data view. D - implementation. E - application program.
B - data model.
Microsoft SQL Server is an example of a: Selected Answer: A - database. B - database management system. C - list manager. D - data manipulation system. E - table.
B - database management system.
In the normalization process, it is not necessary to: A - identify all the determinants of a relation. B - identify all the foreign keys of a relation. C - identify all the candidate keys of a relation. D - identify all the functional dependencies of a relation. E - determine if every determinant is a candidate key.
B - identify all the foreign keys of a relation.
In Microsoft Access, tables are added to a Query window by: A - selecting the tables from the Use Table dialog box. B - selecting the tables from the Show Table dialog box. C - selecting the tables from the Queries section of the Navigation Pane. D - selecting the tables from the Relationships window. E - selecting the tables from the Tables section of the Navigation Pane.
B - selecting the tables from the Show Table dialog box.
Ensuring that each SQL statement independently processes consistent rows is known as: A - transaction level consistency. B - statement level consistency. C - independent consistency. D - process level consistency. E - serializable consistency.
B - statement level consistency.
Which of the following would not be contained in a use case? A - Inputs provided to the system to perform a task B - A description of a task the user wants to perform C - A prototype of the system performing a given task D - Outputs generated by the system in performing a given task E - All of these would be contained in a use case.
C - A prototype of the system performing a given task
Which of the following would not be contained in a use case? A - Inputs provided to the system to perform a task B - A description of a task the user wants to perform C - A prototype of the system performing a given task D - Outputs generated by the system in performing a given task E - All of these would be contained in a use case.
C - A prototype of the system performing a given task
Which of the following is the correct technique for representing a M:N relationship using the relational model? A - An intersection relation is created, and the key of either entity is placed as a key in both the intersection relation and in the other relation. B - An intersection relation is created with a surrogate key, which is placed in each of the parent entities. C - An intersection relation is created, and the keys of both parent entities are placed as a composite key in the intersection relation. D - The key from either relation is placed as a foreign key in the other relation. E - None of these
C - An intersection relation is created, and the keys of both parent entities are placed as a composite key in the intersection relation.
Which of the following is a function of the database application in a database system? A - Update database data B - Create tables C - Create and transmit queries D - Backup and restore data E - Maintain database structures
C - Create and transmit queries
Which of the following SQL commands would be used to remove both the data and the table structure of a table named STUDENT? A - SELECT * FROM STUDENT THEN DROP; B - DELETE FROM STUDENT; C - DROP TABLE STUDENT; D - REMOVE TABLE STUDENT; E - DELETE TABLE STUDENT;
C - DROP TABLE STUDENT;
Which SQL keyword can be used in conjunction with wildcards to select partial values? A - SELECT B - SEARCH C - LIKE D - SUBSTRING E - FIND
C - LIKE
Which type of lock assumes that no conflicts will occur? A - Granular locks B - Shared locks C - Optimistic locks D - Explicit locks E - Open locks
C - Optimistic locks
What relationship pattern is illustrated in the following schema? (EMPLOYEEID, OfficePhone, Manager) Underlined^ Italic^ A - Association relationship B - Intersection relationship C - Recursive relationship D - Strong entity relationship E - Supertype/subtype relationship
C - Recursive relationship
Which of the following is not true of database recovery through reprocessing? A - Reprocessing makes use of a database save. B - Reprocessing takes the same amount of time as did processing in the first place. C - Reprocessing will always return the database to its exact previous state. D - Reprocessing requires a record of all transactions since the last time the database was saved. E - All of these are true of reprocessing.
C - Reprocessing will always return the database to its exact previous state.
What is the least restrictive isolation level that will prevent phantom read problems? A - Read Committed B - Repeatable Read C - Serializable D - Read Uncommitted E - Atomic Read
C - Serializable
Which of the following is true about identifiers of entities? A - An identifier in the E-R model is equivalent to a key in the relational model. B - Identifiers are not normally used in a naming role. C - The value of an identifier may identify a set of entity instances. D - Identifiers must be unique. E - Identifiers may not be more than two attributes.
C - The value of an identifier may identify a set of entity instances.
Which of the following is true about identifiers of entities? Selected Answer: A - Identifiers may not be more than two attributes. B - Identifiers must be unique. C - The value of an identifier may identify a set of entity instances. D - Identifiers are not normally used in a naming role. E - An identifier in the E-R model is equivalent to a key in the relational model.
C - The value of an identifier may identify a set of entity instances.
Which of the following is not true of surrogate keys? A - They are usually generated by the DBMS. B - They are usually hidden on forms and reports. C - They are meaningful to the users. D - They are numeric. E - They are unique.
C - They are meaningful to the users.
Which of the following activities is not performed during the implementation phase of developing a database system? A - Creating reports B - Creating forms C - Transforming the data model into a database design D - Writing application programs E - Filling the database with data
C - Transforming the data model into a database design
A dashed line between entities indicates: A - a minimum cardinality of zero. B - a unique identifier. C - a nonidentifying relationship. D - a minimum cardinality of one. E - an identifying relationship.
C - a nonidentifying relationship.
During the normalization process, the remedy for a relation that is not well formed is to: A - create a functional dependency. B - create a surrogate key. C - break it into two or more relations that are well formed. D - convert it into a list. E - combine it with another relation that is well formed.
C - break it into two or more relations that are well formed.
A key that contains more than one attribute is called a(n): A - n-key. B - complex key. C - composite key. D - multi-key. E - candidate key.
C - composite key.
The component of a database that makes it self-describing is the: A - library. B - applications. C - metadata. D - data set. E - related tables.
C - metadata.
Microsoft Access is a personal database system, and a personal database system is characterized by: A - the DBMS removing the metadata from the database. B - the DBMS not supporting indexes. C - the DBMS product taking the role of the DBMS and the database application generator. D - the DBMS product being limited to a maximum of ten tables in any given database. E - the database being stored inside the DBMS.
C - the DBMS product taking the role of the DBMS and the database application generator.
When transforming an ID-dependent E-R data model relationship into a relational database design and the child entity is designed to use a surrogate key, then ________. A - the parent entity must also use a surrogate key B - the relationship remains an ID-dependent relationship C - the relationship changes to a non-ID-dependent relationship D - the parent entity must also use a surrogate key and the relationship remains an ID-dependent relationship E - the parent entity must also use a surrogate key and the relationship changes to a non-ID-dependent relationship
C - the relationship changes to a non-ID-dependent relationship
When Microsoft Access 2013 uses user-level security with an Access 2003 file, the database is stored in a(n): A - *.accdb file. B - *.accdc file. C - *.accde file. D - *.mdb file. E - *.mdw file.
D - *.mdb file.
Microsoft Access is a good tool for creating mock-ups of forms and reports because: A - Access has a version of Microsoft Excel built into it to allow easy exporting of data to spreadsheets. B - Access forms and reports are very simplistic. C - the form and report generators do not exist within Access itself. D - Access wizards make it easy to create the forms and reports. E - Access has a version of Microsoft PowerPoint built into it to allow easy creation of PowerPoint slide shows.
D - Access wizards make it easy to create the forms and reports.
Although Microsoft Access is a personal database, it is still subject to the following modification problem(s): A - problems adding data. B - problems changing data. C - problems deleting data. D - All of these E - None of these
D - All of these
In the normalization process, if you find a candidate key that is not a determinant then you should: A - place the columns of the functional dependency in a new relation. B - make the determinant of the functional dependency the primary key of the new relation. C - leave a copy of the determinant as a foreign key in the original relation. D - All of these E - None of these
D - All of these
Which of the following cannot be done using the CONSTRAINT phrase? A - Create a single attribute primary key. B - Define a foreign key. C - Establish a referential integrity constraint. D - All of these can be done using the CONSTRAINT phrase. E - None of these can be done using the CONSTRAINT phrase.
D - All of these can be done using the CONSTRAINT phrase.
Which of the following SQL commands would be used to remove only the data from a table named STUDENT while leaving the table structure intact? A - DELETE TABLE STUDENT; B - REMOVE TABLE STUDENT; C - DROP TABLE STUDENT; D - DELETE FROM STUDENT; E - SELECT * FROM STUDENT THEN DROP;
D - DELETE FROM STUDENT;
Which of the following SQL commands would be used to remove only the data from a table named STUDENT while leaving the table structure intact? A - REMOVE TABLE STUDENT; B - DROP TABLE STUDENT; C - DELETE TABLE STUDENT; D - DELETE FROM STUDENT; E - SELECT * FROM STUDENT THEN DROP;
D - DELETE FROM STUDENT;
Microsoft Access does not create N:M relationships because: A - Microsoft Access cannot implement association relationships. B - Microsoft Access creates databases based on data models instead of database designs. C - Microsoft Access cannot implement recursive relationships. D - Microsoft Access creates databases based on database designs instead of data models. E - Microsoft Access cannot implement supertype/subtype relationships.
D - Microsoft Access creates databases based on database designs instead of data models.
Which of the following is not true about primary keys? A - Primary keys cannot be null. B - Primary keys must be unique. C - Primary keys can be defined using an SQL CONSTRAINT phrase. D - Primary keys must be a single attribute. E - Primary keys are used to represent relationships.
D - Primary keys must be a single attribute.
Which SQL keyword is used to specify a condition that rows must meet to be included in the results of an SQL SELECT query? A - ORDER BY B - SELECT C - FROM D - WHERE E - GROUP BY
D - WHERE
In crow's foot style E-R diagrams, a crow's foot mark on the relationship line near an entity indicates: A - a minimum cardinality of zero. B - a minimum cardinality of one. C - a maximum cardinality of one. D - a maximum cardinality of many. E - Both a minimum cardinality of one and a maximum cardinality of one
D - a maximum cardinality of many.
In crow's foot style E-R diagrams, a single entity together with a related set of entities that each contain specific sets of attributes related to the single entity represent: A - a strong entity relationship. B - a recursive entity relationship. C - an ID-dependent weak entity relationship. D - a supertype / subtype relationship. E - a non-ID-dependent weak entity relationship.
D - a supertype / subtype relationship.
When a transaction functions in such a way that either all of the transaction actions are completed or none of them will be, the transaction is said to be: A - isolated. B - consistent. C - logical. D - atomic. E - locked.
D - atomic.
The Microsoft Access application generator is not responsible for: A - creating forms. B - storing queries. C - creating queries. D - creating tables. E - creating reports.
D - creating tables.
When the primary key of one relation is placed into a second relation, it is called a: A - candidate key. B - referential integrity. C - relocated key. D - foreign key. E - field key.
D - foreign key.
A relational database stores data in the form of: Selected Answer: A - forms. B - columns. C - lists. D - tables. E - spreadsheets.
D - tables.
A candidate key is: A - required to be unique. B - used to represent rows in relationships. C - a candidate to be the primary key. D - Both required to be unique and used to represent rows in relationships E - All of these
E - All of these
A database may be used to help people: A - track which student is assigned to a particular advisor. B - know the current inventory levels of products their company sells. C - check on the estimated arrival time of an incoming flight at an airport. D - look up their checking account balance over the Internet. E - All of these
E - All of these
Additional DBA responsibilities include: A - problem and error reporting. B - requests of changes to existing systems. C - controlling database configuration. D - maintaining appropriate documentation. E - All of these
E - All of these
Computer systems fail for which of the following reasons? A - Hardware breaks. B - Electrical power fails. C - Programs have bugs. D - People make mistakes. E - All of these
E - All of these
Which of the following is not a means of processing databases? A - Internet applications using ASP B - Internet applications using JSP C - Applications invoking stored procedures D - Programs coded in C# E - All of these are means of processing a database.
E - All of these are means of processing a database.
Which of the following is not a source for user requirements during the requirements analysis stage of developing a database system? A - Business rules B - User interviews C - Forms D - Use cases E - All of these are sources for user requirements.
E - All of these are sources for user requirements.
Conditions after the WHERE keyword require single quotes around the values for columns that have which data type? A - Char B - VarChar C - Integer D - Numeric E - Both Char and VarChar
E - Both Char and VarChar
A surrogate key may be appropriate under which of the following circumstances? A - The available candidate keys would produce a lot of data duplication when representing relationships. B - The primary key is numeric. C - The available candidate keys would be prone to typographical errors. D - The available candidate keys have little meaning to the users. E - Both The available candidate keys would produce a lot of data duplication when representing relationships and The available candidate keys would be prone to typographical errors
E - Both The available candidate keys would produce a lot of data duplication when representing relationships and The available candidate keys would be prone to typographical errors
An ID-dependent entity is: A - a special type of weak entity. B - an entity in which the identifier of the entity includes the identifier of another entity. C - a strong entity. D - an entity with a maximum cardinality of one. E - Both a special type of weak entity and an entity in which the identifier of the entity includes the identifier of another entity
E - Both a special type of weak entity and an entity in which the identifier of the entity includes the identifier of another entity
Which of the following is not a function of the database application in a database system? A - Execute application logic B - Create and process forms C - Create and process reports D - Create and transmit queries E - Control concurrency
E - Control concurrency
The creation of a database and its tables is a function of which component of the database system? A - Database B - Application C - Users D - Web server E - DBMS
E - DBMS
A table that meets the requirements of a relation is said to be in which normal form? A - Second normal form B - Relational normal form (RNF) C - Domain/key normal form D - Boyce-Codd normal form E - First normal form
E - First normal form
Given the table STUDENT(StudentID, Name, Advisor), which of the following SQL statements would be used to add new student data to the STUDENT table? A - INPUT DATA STUDENT SET StudentID=123, Name=' Jones', Advisor='Smith'; B - INSERT DATA STUDENT SET StudentID=123, Name='Jones', Advisor='Smith'; C - INPUT INTO STUDENT (123, 'Jones', 'Smith'); D - INSERT INTO STUDENT (New Student Data) VALUES (123, 'Jones', 'Smith'); E - INSERT INTO STUDENT VALUES (123, 'Jones', 'Smith');
E - INSERT INTO STUDENT VALUES (123, 'Jones', 'Smith');
In the normalization process, if you find a candidate key that is not a primary key then you should: A - place the columns of the functional dependency in a new relation. B - make the determinant of the functional dependency the primary key of the new relation. C - leave a copy of the determinant as a foreign key in the original relation. D - All of these E - None of these
E - None of these
Which type of join, although not included in standard SQL, was created to allow unmatched rows to appear in the result of a join operation? A - ODD JOIN B - INNER JOIN C - COMBINE JOIN D - OPEN JOIN E - OUTER JOIN
E - OUTER JOIN
Which of the following is true when representing a 1:1 binary relationship using the relational model? A - The key of the entity with the highest minimum cardinality must be placed in the other entity as a foreign key. B - Both entities must have the same primary key. C - The key of the entity with the most attributes must be placed in the other entity as a foreign key. D - The key of each entity must be placed in the other as a foreign key. E - The key of either entity is placed in the other as a foreign key.
E - The key of either entity is placed in the other as a foreign key.
In a relational database design, all relationships are expressed by ________. A - creating a supertype B - creating a subtype C - creating a line between entities D - creating a primary key E - creating a foreign key
E - creating a foreign key
One important relational design principle is that: A - every primary key must be functionally dependent on every determinant. B - every candidate key must not be a determinant. C - every determinant must be functionally dependent on the primary key. D - every primary key must be a surrogate key. E - every determinant must be a candidate key.
E - every determinant must be a candidate key.
The first step of the normalization process is to: A - identify all the functional dependencies of a relation. B - identify all the determinants of a relation. C - split the relation into two or more new relations. D - identify all the foreign keys of a relation. E - identify all the candidate keys of a relation.
E - identify all the candidate keys of a relation.
The recovery technique in which the database is returned to a known state and then all valid transactions are reapplied to the database is known as: A - transaction logging. B - rollback. C - checkpointing. D - reprocessing. E - rollforward.
E - rollforward.
In Microsoft Access, standard SQL table creation syntax items not supported by Access SQL can generally be implemented by: A - setting the relationship properties in the Edit Relationship dialog box. B - setting the Data Types in Access table Design View. C - setting the referential integrity properties in the Edit Relationship dialog box. D - running an ALTER TABLE query in Access SQL. E - setting the field properties in Access table Design View.
E - setting the field properties in Access table Design View.
The ideal primary key is ________. A - short B - numeric C - fixed D - short and numeric E - short, numeric, and fixed
E - short, numeric, and fixed
In many-to-many relationships in a relational database design, ________. A - the intersection table is ID-dependent on one of the parents B - the intersection table is ID-dependent on both of the parents C - the minimum cardinality from the intersection table to the parents is always M D - the intersection table is ID-dependent on one of the parents and the intersection table is ID-dependent on both of the parents E - the intersection table is ID-dependent on both of the parents and the minimum cardinality from the intersection table to the parents is always M
E - the intersection table is ID-dependent on both of the parents and the minimum cardinality from the intersection table to the parents is always M
In many-to-many relationships in a relational database design, ________. A - the intersection table is ID-dependent on one of the parents B - the intersection table is ID-dependent on both of the parents C - the minimum cardinality from the intersection table to the parents is always M D - the intersection table is ID-dependent on one of the parents and the intersection table is ID-dependent on both of the parents E - the intersection table is ID-dependent on both of the parents and the minimum cardinality from the intersection table to the parents is always M
E - the intersection table is ID-dependent on both of the parents and the minimum cardinality from the intersection table to the parents is always M
