NASM-CPT 7

Initially, how many sets of SAQ drills are recommended for older adults?

1 or 2 sets

Current sports nutrition guidelines from the International Society of Sports Nutrition recommend what range of protein for most exercising individuals?

1.4 to 2.0 g/kg of body weight

According to the NASM Code of Professional Conduct, for how long must a fitness professional maintain accurate financial, contract, appointment, and tax records?

4 years

Which scheme would be the most ideal to achieve maximal strength adaptations?

5 sets, 5 repetitions, 85% 1RM

What is the recommendation of minutes per week for cardiorespiratory training, if participating in vigorous-intensity exercise (e.g., jogging or running)?

75 minutes per week

If Joe takes a 6-second heart rate count on his client and notes 8 beats, what would his client's heart rate be?

80 bpm

How many Essential Amino Acids (EAAs) are there?

9 (can't be created in body) 20 total aminos

Which of the following exercises provides the most challenge for the antirotational stabilizing muscles?

: Kettlebell RDL

What is a primary difference between a food label and a supplement label?

A supplement label only needs to list what is present, not specific amounts.

Which muscles may be overactive with knee valgus during the single-leg squat?

Adductor complex

What is sarcopenia?

Age-related loss of muscle tissue

Which of the following statements most accurately reflects ventilatory threshold one (VT1)?

An intensity where continuous talking becomes challenging

Competitive athletes who performed balance training exercises reduced the risk of which injury by 46%?

Ankle sprains

Which of the following is a component of quickness training?

Assessment of visual stimuli

What term would be used to describe the starting point of an individual's fitness level directly after an assessment has been conducted?

Baseline value

What are two contraindications for self-myofascial techniques?

Cancer and bleeding disorders

Which of these exercises targets the triceps musculature?

Close grip bench press

Which exercise primarily targets the transverse abdominis?

Drawing-in maneuver

Which of the following modality/exercise combinations provides the most freedom of movement in the transverse plane?

Elastic band woodchop

Which type of scoliosis is influenced by improper muscle balance?

Functional (nonstructural) scoliosis

Which of the following would make a person better at oxidizing fat?

Having more mitochondria in their muscle

Which muscle would be considered overactive, leading to the low back arching during the overhead squat assessment?

Hip flexor complex

Stage 3 balance exercise should include what types of motion?

Hopping motions with a single-leg stance landing

What behavior change technique is a specific plan that drives behavior by identifying cues toward action?

Implementation intention

A new client has indicated that they are exercising due to advice from their physician, but they are generally amotivated. What would be the best choice for the personal trainer in their initial meeting?

Inquire further about what their motives are for participating.

What component of breathing improves blood flow back to the heart?

Inspiration with a decrease in intrathoracic pressure

Which of the following would be the appropriate progression for a core training program to optimize function?

Intervertebral stability, lumbopelvic stability, movement efficiency

If someone specifically wanted to burn a lot of fat (not necessarily total calories), what type of exercise should they do?

Low- to moderate-intensity exercise for 30 to 60 minutes

The development of muscular endurance of the legs requires light weights and high repetitions when performing leg-related exercises. What is this an example of?

Mechanical specificity

Which of the following parts of the body is not subject to increases in density through resistance training?

Nerves

How many pages are most appropriate for a resume?

One to two pages

Which of these is one of the major curvatures of the spine?

Posterior lumbar curve

Which of the following tests is used to measure lateral acceleration, deceleration, agility, and control?

Pro shuttle

Ambivalent people may be reluctant to start an exercise program. What should the fitness professional focus on when helping a potential client overcome this barrier?

Probe further to determine other barriers they are experiencing and possible motives to participate.

Research has demonstrated that moderate-intensity exercise is best for which of the following?

Psychological benefits

Improved performance during a plyometric jump is dependent upon which of the following?

Rapid amortization phase

What is the scientific term that describes the nervous system's role in the contract/relax relationship between agonists and antagonists?

Reciprocal inhibition

Which of the following nutrition professionals is nationally recognized by the Commission on Dietetic Registration to provide clinical, community, food service, and nutrition education?

Registered dietician nutrition (blah blah blah)

Which of the following is a component of total daily energy expenditure (TDEE)?

Resting metabolic rate (RMR)

What is the practice of identifying a negative inner narrative and replacing it with positive statements?

Reverse listening

What are the two primary actions of the muscle spindle?

Sense the change in muscle length and the speed of length change

Which exercise would be most appropriate for a maximal strength movement in Phase 4 (Maximal Strength Training)?

Shoulder/military press

What training tip would enhance the benefits of resistance training by helping increase growth hormone, testosterone, and epinephrine?

Slowing down the speed of contractions during the eccentric and concentric phases. Slow down

What type of resistance training exercise best describes a kettlebell bottoms-up movement?

Stabilization-focused exercise

What are the three pathways through which the body can produce ATP?

The ATP-PC system, glycolysis, and oxidative phosphorylation

What is end-diastolic volume?

The amount of blood in the ventricle before contraction

What is end-systolic volume?

The amount of blood remaining in the ventricle after contraction

Which of the following examples describes a muscle that is functioning as an antagonist?

The biceps brachii being active during elbow extension

Which of the following does not meet the criteria for exercise or activity to be considered aerobic?

The exercise is intense.

A client is performing a barbell squat exercise. How should the fitness professional spot their client?

The fitness professional should spot underneath the client's armpits.

What is the general adaptation syndrome?

The general adaptation syndrome describes the way in which the body responds and adapts to stress.

The pathway for hormones secreted by the endocrine system may be described by which of the following?

The gland secretes the hormone, which travels through the bloodstream to reach a target cell, where it binds to a receptor and influences a particular action.

What is the ventilatory threshold 2 (VT2)?

The point at which the body shifts almost entirely to using carbohydrates for fuel

What is atherosclerosis?

The processes by which plaque is formed in arteries leading to reduced blood flow

If pyruvate is being created via glycolysis faster than oxygen can be delivered to the muscle, what will happen to the pyruvate?

The pyruvate will be converted to lactate.

What is glycogen?

The storage form of carbohydrate in animals and humans

Shorter reaction times during amortization may help reduce which of the following?

Tissue overload

Which exercise is a total-body power-focused movement?

Two arm push-press

Core and balance exercises are a component of which part of an OPT workout?

activation

What are the components of ATP?

adenine, ribose, 3 phosphate groups

During the cable rotation exercise, which position of the hip will help to decrease stress to the low-back?

hip extension

Excessive anterior pelvic tilt would lead to this posture of the lumbar spine.

increased lordosis

What term is used to describe muscle tension that is created without a change in muscle length and no visible movement of the joint?

isometric

Extension of the shoulder is common in many pulling movements. Which of the following muscles is involved?

latissimus dorsi

What is a client-centric coaching style that helps enhance their desire to change by resolving ambivalence?

motivational interviewing

A person walks differently when they move from a sidewalk onto the sand. This is regulated by what function?

motor function

What is the name of the specialized cell that is the functional unit of the nervous system?

neuron

Which term best describes observable movement of the limbs?

osteokinematics

Omega-3 fatty acids do not include which of the following fatty acids?

palmitic acid

What scientific term is used to describe the concept whereby a loaded eccentric contraction prepares the muscles for a rapid concentric contraction?

stretch-shortening cycle

Which muscle would you be targeting for SMR if you placed the roller along the front and slightly lateral (outside) part of the upper thigh (just below the pelvis)?

tensor fascia latae

Agility plus which of the following concepts are separate but related concepts that both fit underneath the umbrella of agility training?

to change direction

During normal walking, the pelvis rotates in what plane to facilitate the necessary momentum for the swing phase?

transverse

In what plane of movement do shoulder horizontal adduction and abduction occur?

transverse

Which synergist would assist the upper-body pectoral muscles to enhance chest stabilization, strength, or power?

triceps brachii

Which of the following protein structures is important for muscular contractions by providing a binding site?

troponin

If someone engages in a short, intense burst of activity lasting less than 30 seconds, which energy system will contribute the most to ATP production?

ATC-PC System

Which muscles are typically underactive in association with lower crossed syndrome?

Abdominals

What percentage of alpha-linolenic acid (ALA) converts to a biologically available form called eicosapentaenoic acid (EPA)?

About 5-15%

Which of the following is a ketone body?

Acetoacetic acid

What is the correct order of fascia, starting with the most superficial?

Epimysium, perimysium, endomysium

Which of the following is considered a benefit of performing a warm-up prior to cardiorespiratory training?

Increased respiratory rate and tissue temperature

Why is it important for clients to learn how to accelerate, decelerate, and stabilize in all planes of motion?

Injuries often occur when rotating or moving laterally.

Which type of exercise accommodates effort whereby the harder the individual pushes or pulls, the more resistance they feel, despite the movement speed remaining constant?

Isokinetic

Which type of cholesterol tends to increase the risk of cardiovascular disease?

LDL (low density lipoprotein)

Which modality allows for movements to occur as explosively as possible without the need for eccentric deceleration?

Medicine ball

Which of the following modalities is most likely to allow for strength and/or power development in the transverse plane?

Medicine balls

Which muscle would be considered underactive, leading to arms falling forward in the overhead squat assessment?

Middle and lower trapezius

The intensity and direction of someone's effort describes which of the following?

Motivation

Repeat squat jumps are a progression for which of the following exercises?

Multiplanar jump with stabilization

Which postural distortion is characterized by flat feet, knee valgus, and adducted and internally rotated hips?

Pes planus distortion syndrome

In which phase of the OPT model would suspended bodyweight training be the most desirable for optimal outcomes?

Phase 2

Resistance band exercises are best utilized in which phases of the OPT model?

Phase 2 and 5

The TRX Rip Trainer should be most beneficial to which of the following phases of the OPT model?

Phases 1, 2, and 5

What three joint actions comprise triple extension?

Plantar flexion, knee extension, and hip extension

Which of the following muscle groups work eccentrically in the sagittal plane during the lowering phase of the squat?

Quadriceps

What are the three movements performed during the ball combo II exercise?

Row, shoulder external rotation, and shoulder press

Which of the following would be considered a process goal?

Run three times a week

Performing a hop-training program on a firm surface would be an example of which type of balance?

Semi-dynamic balance

What phase of the OPT model aims to enhance stabilization endurance and simultaneously increase prime-mover strength?

Strength Endurance

What type of diabetes occurs when specialized cells in the pancreas (called beta cells) stop producing insulin?

Type 1

Which sense provides information to the central nervous system about where the body is in space?

Visual system

In what training zone would you be exercising at a vigorous to very hard intensity, where talking is limited to infrequent, short phrases?

Zone 3

When observing sprint mechanics, which joint action should you see occurring in the rear leg if proper form is used?

ankle plantar flexion

Which division of the skeleton is made up of the arms, legs, and pelvic girdle?

appendicular

Which term best describes motion at the joint surface?

arthrokinematics

What is the process called that prepares fatty acid substrates to enter the citric acid cycle?

beta oxidation

Which of the following muscles is primarily targeted when performing a biceps curl exercise with the thumb up?

brachioradialis

The number of sidewalks available in a community is an example of which of the following?

built environment

Which of the following is a behavior change technique where clients list potential barriers and make plans to overcome them?

coping responses

Which benefit listed is not correct regarding resistance training?

decrease metabolic rate

Which of the following is considered a superficial muscle of the core?

erector spinae

Strength-training machines provide training primarily in which planes of motion?

frontal, sagittal

Which muscle would be considered underactive, leading to the low back arching during the overhead squat assessment?

gluteus maximus

What is best defined as the action of expanding the diameter of a blood vessel near the surface of the skin, which helps remove heat from the body?

peripheral vasodilation

What location on the body does NASM recommend for measuring the resting heart rate?

radial pulse

Active and dynamic stretching utilize which physiological action?

reciprocal inhibition

What is the process by which bone is constantly renewed?

remodeling

Which essential component of an OPT workout is beneficial for developing stability, muscular endurance, hypertrophy, strength, power, and athleticism?

resistance training

Where in the heart is the sinoatrial node located?

right atrium

Most exercises and motions of the body regularly occur in which plane of motion?

sagittal

Which two electrolytes are most commonly supplemented by athletes to replace those lost in sweat?

sodium and potassium

Training power for 2 days before moving on to 2 days of strength training would be an example of what kind of periodization?

undulating periodization