Nasm CPT practice exam 1
What is a body composition assessment technique that estimates body fat percentage by measuring the resistance to the flow of electrical currents introduced into the body? Select one: a. Body mass index (BMI) b. Anthropometry c. Skinfold measurements d. Bioelectrical impedance analysis (BIA)
Bioelectrical impedance analysis (BIA)
What population is the VT2 talk test appropriate for? Select one: a. Elderly individuals b. Deconditioned individuals c. Individuals with performance goals d. Individuals recovering from an injury
Individuals with performance goals
What is the primary adaptation for the Muscular Development phase of the OPT model? Select one: a. Speed b. Power c. Stabilization d. Hypertrophy Feedback
d. Hypertrophy
What type of fitness professional has advanced knowledge, training, and experience in designing and implementing strength and conditioning programs for competitive athletes? Select one: a. Strength and conditioning coach b. Group fitness instructor c. Certified Personal Trainer d. Physical therapist
Strength and conditioning coach
What do you visualize to detect the movement impairment shoulder elevation? Select one: a. The arms falling forward b. The scapula protruding excessively from the back c. The trunk leaning forward d. The shoulders moving upward toward the ears
The shoulders moving upward toward the ears
Which answer best represents the timeframe when delayed-onset muscle soreness (DOMS) occurs after strenuous exercise? Select one: a. 36 to 72 hours after strenuous exercise b. 24 to 72 hours after strenuous exercise c. 4 to 12 hours after strenuous exercise d. 2 to 4 hours after strenuous exercise
a. 24 to 72 hours after strenuous exercise
What is the high-energy compound used by the body to do work? Select one: a. ATP b. Glucose c. ADP d. Fat
a. ATP
What stage of change is a person in if they have been exercising but for less than 6 months? Select one: a. Action b. Contemplation c. Maintenance d. Precontemplation
a. Action
What is defined as the level of commitment to a behavior or plan of action? Select one: a. Adherence b. Hypertrophy c. Overtraining d. Goals
a. Adherence
How is steady-state aerobic exercise best defined? Select one: a. Aerobic exercise that remains at a relatively constant intensity, including a stable heart rate and oxygen consumption b. An exercise training method that is unstructured and combines low-, moderate-, and high-intensity efforts into one workout c. An exercise training method defined by intervals of near-maximal intensity, broken up by relatively short rest periods d. An exercise training method where the client performs a maximal effort interval lasting 20 seconds, followed by only 10 seconds of rest for a total of 4 minutes
a. Aerobic exercise that remains at a relatively constant intensity, including a stable heart rate and oxygen consumption
Which of the following would be an appropriate Phase 2 superset? Select one: a. Bench press and stability ball push-ups b. Single-leg hops and ball push-ups c. Deadlifts and squats d. Power step-ups and ice skaters
a. Bench press and stability ball push-ups
Which of the following is true about body image? Select one: a. Body image may not match reality, and people may view their bodies in a negative way and evaluate themselves inaccurately. b. Body image is a very stable variable and, once established, rarely changes for an individual. c. Body image is measured accurately based on an individual evaluating a picture of themselves. d. Body image is more positive in individuals who regularly exercise in a group setting.
a. Body image may not match reality, and people may view their bodies in a negative way and evaluate themselves inaccurately.
Which is involved in frontside mechanics? Select one: a. Lead leg b. Knee extension c. Ankle plantar flexion d. Rear leg
a. Lead leg
Which postural distortion is characterized by anterior pelvic tilt and excessive lordosis (extension) of the lumbar spine? Select one: a. Lower crossed syndrome b. Excessive pronation c. Pes planus distortion syndrome d. Upper crossed syndrome
a. Lower crossed syndrome
What is a progression for the box jump-down with stabilization? Select one: a. Multiplanar jump with stabilization b. Box jump-up with stabilization c. Squat jump with stabilization d. Tuck jump with stabilization
a. Multiplanar jump with stabilization
What is defined as the ability to produce and maintain force production for prolonged periods of time? Select one: a. Muscular endurance b. Rate of force production c. Stabilization d. Muscular hypertrophy
a. Muscular endurance
What is the name of the specialized cell that is the functional unit of the nervous system? Select one: a. Neuron b. Axon c. Spindles d. Nucleus
a. Neuron
What must older adults complete prior to initiating an exercise program with a Certified Personal Trainer? Select one: a. PAR-Q+ b. An annual physical c. Dietary assessment d. Overhead squat assessment
a. PAR-Q+
What phase of the OPT model would hypertrophy fall under? Select one: a. Phase 3 b. Phase 2 c. Phase 1 d. Phase 5
a. Phase 3
Contraction of the hamstring and rectus abdominis muscles create what motion of the pelvis in the sagittal plane? Select one: a. Posterior pelvic tilt b. Lateral pelvic tilt c. Medial pelvic tilt d. Anterior pelvic tilt
a. Posterior pelvic tilt
Susan's quadriceps have been identified as overactive. What type of flexibility training should be used first to help improve this muscle imbalance? Select one: a. SMR and static stretching of the quadriceps b. Dynamic stretching of the quadriceps c. SMR and static stretching of the hamstrings d. Active stretching of the hamstrings
a. SMR and static stretching of the quadriceps
If a Certified Personal Trainer helps a client improve their technique by using guided practice to enhance confidence, what determinant of behavior are they targeting? Select one: a. Self-efficacy b. Intention c. Outcome expectations d. Self-regulation
a. Self-efficacy
f a Certified Personal Trainer helps a client make an action plan to enhance their confidence that they can exercise on their own, what determinant of behavior are they targeting? Select one: a. Self-efficacy b. Outcome expectations c. Intention d. Attitudes
a. Self-efficacy
The upper trapezius works with what muscle as a force couple to create upward rotation of the scapula? Select one: a. Serratus anterior b. Deltoid c. Rhomboids d. Rotator cuff muscles
a. Serratus anterior
What are the three levels of the OPT model? Select one: a. Stabilization, Strength, and Power b. Strength Endurance, Maximal Strength, and Power c. Stabilization, Muscular Development, and Power d. Stabilization, Strength, and Maximal Strength
a. Stabilization, Strength, and Power
What type of resistance training exercise best describes a kettlebell bottoms-up movement? Select one: a. Stabilization-focused exercise b. Strength-focused exercise c. Plyometric exercise d. Balance exercise
a. Stabilization-focused exercise
Which of the following blood pressure values would be classified as normal according to the American Heart Association? Select one: a. Systolic <120 and diastolic <80 b. Systolic 120 to 129 and diastolic <80 c. Systolic 130 to 139 or diastolic 80 to 89 d. Systolic >180 and/or diastolic >120
a. Systolic <120 and diastolic <80
Which activity best demonstrates evidence-based practice? Select one: a. Referring to a colleague's practical knowledge b. Referencing peer-reviewed research c. Referencing a social media post d. Reading information presented in a blog article
b. Referencing peer-reviewed research
What is the concentric motion of the shoulder blades during the standing cable row exercise? Select one: a. Upward rotation b. Retraction c. Elevation d. Protraction
b. Retraction
What is the practice of identifying a negative inner narrative and replacing it with positive statements? Select one: a. Stopping b. Reverse listing c. Imagery d. Cognitive fusion
b. Reverse listing
Which test would you select as the most appropriate when attempting to measure the overall fitness level of a fit college-aged athlete who competes on the school's rugby team? Select one: a. The talk test b. The 1.5-mile (2.4-km) run test c. YMCA 3-minute step test d. Rockport 1-mile walk test
b. The 1.5-mile (2.4-km) run test
Which physiological systems comprise the human movement system (HMS)? Select one: a. These are not the physiological systems that comprise the HMS. b. The muscular, skeletal, and nervous systems c. The vision, vestibular, and somatosensory systems d. The sight, hearing, and taste systems
b. The muscular, skeletal, and nervous systems
What measurement is dependent upon the length of the lever arm and the angle between the force application and the lever arm? Select one: a. Arthrokinematics b. Torque c. Force velocity d. Force
b. Torque
Which type of muscle fiber has a large number of capillaries? Select one: a. Type IIa b. Type I c. Type III d. Type IIx
b. Type I
Current sports nutrition guidelines from the International Society of Sports Nutrition recommend what range of protein for most exercising individuals? Select one: a. 1.5 to 2.5 g/kg of body weight b. 1.0 to 2.0 g/kg of body weight c. 1.4 to 2.0 g/kg of body weight d. 1.6 to 2.2 g/kg of body weight
c. 1.4 to 2.0 g/kg of body weight
What is the recommended recovery time between bouts of plyometric training for novice clients? Select one: a. 1 week b. 24 hours c. 48 to 72 hours d. 12 hours
c. 48 to 72 hours
What most correctly identifies the purpose of a resume? Select one: a. A resume allows a job candidate to highlight their expertise in a particular field. b. A resume allows a job candidate to express a personal statement about their passion. c. A resume allows a job candidate to present their job skills to a potential employer. d. A resume allows a job candidate to identify athletic accomplishments.
c. A resume allows a job candidate to present their job skills to a potential employer.
Which of the following best defines cholesterol? Select one: a. A narrowing of arteries to the heart b. A raising of blood pressure c. A waxy, fatlike substance found in bodily cells d. A substance that attaches itself to muscles and tendons
c. A waxy, fatlike substance found in bodily cells
Davis's law describes what type of changes within the cumulative injury cycle? Select one: a. Adhesions can occur after strenuous exercise that breaks down muscle fibers and joint cartilage. b. Tight muscles may cause synergistic dominance from pattern overload. c. Adhesions may begin to form structural changes in the soft tissue. d. Adhesions may begin due to lack of physical activity and poor flexibility.
c. Adhesions may begin to form structural changes in the soft tissue.
What key term would best describe an overactive hip flexor complex decreasing neural drive to the hip extensor complex? Select one: a. Reciprocal inhibition b. Synergistic dominance c. Altered reciprocal inhibition d. Altered length-tension relationship
c. Altered reciprocal inhibition
SAQ programs for youth have been found to decrease what? Select one: a. Power b. Sports participation c. Athletic injuries d. Strength
c. Athletic injuries
When a muscle is held during a stretch for a prolonged period, the GTO is activated, which results in the muscle relaxing. What is this action called? Select one: a. Stretch reflex b. Isometric contraction c. Autogenic inhibition d. Reciprocal inhibition
c. Autogenic inhibition
Which joint is the most mobile, able to move in all three directions? Select one: a. Saddle b. Pivot c. Ball-and-socket d. Hinge
c. Ball-and-socket
Having an informal role in an exercise group is demonstrated by which example? Select one: a. Setting the time for the group to meet b. Planning social gatherings for the group c. Planning the workout for the group d. Providing modifications during the workout
c. Planning the workout for the group
Which of the following is not considered a component of fitness? Select one: a. Muscular strength b. Aerobic fitness c. Power d. Flexibility
c. Power
Which of the macronutrients has the highest thermic effect of food (TEF)? Select one: a. Glucose b. Carbohydrates c. Protein d. Lipids
c. Protein
Horizontal adduction is most common during what type of movement? Select one: a. Squatting b. Pulling c. Pushing d. Hip hinge
c. Pushing
Which of the following foods is the most likely to be a good source of omega-3 fatty acids? Select one: a. Beef b. Milk c. Salmon d. Grilled chicken
c. Salmon
What is the ability to move the body in one direction as fast as possible? Select one: a. Power b. Agility c. Speed d. Quickness
c. Speed
What is defined as the number of strides taken in a given amount of time or distance? Select one: a. Stride length b. Agility c. Stride rate d. Power
c. Stride rate
Which of the following describes attitude? Select one: a. The belief that an important person or persons will support a behavior b. A construct that captures motivational factors that influence behavior c. The degree to which a person has a favorable or unfavorable evaluation of a behavior d. A person's confidence in their ability to meet their goal
c. The degree to which a person has a favorable or unfavorable evaluation of a behavior
What is the leading cause of death and disability for both men and women? Select one: a. Coronary heart disease b. Diabetes c. Cancer d. COPD
a. Coronary heart disease
Which of the following muscles are responsible for normal resting state (quiet) breathing? Select one: a. Diaphragm b. Abdominals c. Scalenes d. Internal intercostals
a. Diaphragm
When NASM recommends relying on the current best information in making decisions about client care, what is it referring to? Select one: a. Evidence-based practice b. Peer-observed procedure c. Traditional compliance d. Popular theories and methods posted on online fitness forums Feedback
a. Evidence-based practice
Compared to water-soluble vitamins, which of the following is true about fat-soluble vitamins? Select one: a. Fat-soluble vitamins take longer to accumulate in and deplete from the body. b. Fat-soluble vitamins are better for improving overall health. c. Fat-soluble vitamins are not as healthy because fat is unhealthy. d. Fat-soluble vitamins accumulate in and deplete quickly from the body.
a. Fat-soluble vitamins take longer to accumulate in and deplete from the body.
What are common tools used for self-myofascial techniques? Select one: a. Foam rollers, handheld rollers, and massage balls b. Stretching straps, stability balls, and BOSU balls c. BOSU balls, air-filled discs, and stability balls d. Stretching straps, battle ropes, and sandbags
a. Foam rollers, handheld rollers, and massage balls
Which of the following benefits may occur as a result of exercises that comprise only eccentric muscle actions that are appropriately loaded? Select one: a. Increased anabolic hormone stimulation b. Increased catabolic hormone stimulation c. Decreased anabolic hormone stimulation d. Decreased catabolic hormone stimulation
a. Increased anabolic hormone stimulation
Which of the following is considered a benefit of performing a warm-up prior to cardiorespiratory training? Select one: a. Increased respiratory rate and tissue temperature b. Decreased rate of muscle contraction and metabolic rate c. Decreased oxygen exchange capacity d. Increased parasympathetic nervous activity
a. Increased respiratory rate and tissue temperature
Which of the following best defines the base of support of the body? Select one: a. The area beneath a person that consists of all points of contact between the body and the support surface b. The location of where one foot touches the ground c. The approximate midpoint of the body d. The area within which an individual can move their center of gravity without changing the base of support
a. The area beneath a person that consists of all points of contact between the body and the support surface
Why is continued education required for NASM Certified Personal Trainers? Select one: a. To ensure that fitness professionals stay current on the latest understandings and research findings within the industry b. To promote economic prosperity for the fitness industry and certifying organizations c. To elevate the fitness professional's status and reputation within the fitness community d. To abide by federal guidelines that require continuing education units for allied health professionals
a. To ensure that fitness professionals stay current on the latest understandings and research findings within the industry
What does BMI (body mass index) assess for? Select one: a. Whether a person's weight is appropriate for their height b. Overall level of physical fitness c. An accurate measure of obesity status for all individuals d. Body fat and lean mass composition
a. Whether a person's weight is appropriate for their height
Starting at what percentage of bone density loss does the risk of hip fracture increase by 2.5 times? Select one: a. 30% b. 10% c. 20% d. 5%
b. 10%
What rate of oxygen utilization defines one metabolic equivalent (MET), a value representing the amount of oxygen utilized at true rest? Select one: a. 7.0 mL/kg/min b. 3.5 mL/kg/min c. 2.5 mL/kg/min d. 5.0 mL/kg/min
b. 3.5 mL/kg/min
In which phase of the OPT model would suspended bodyweight training be the most desirable for optimal outcomes? Select one: a. Phase 3 b. Phase 2 c. Phase 5 d. Phase 4
b. Phase 2
How would age and overall health affect testosterone levels among men? Select one: a. A reduction in testosterone levels occurs with age, and overall health does not contribute to the change. b. A reduction in testosterone levels occurs with age, and overall health may affect the degree of change. c. Age and overall health do not affect testosterone levels. d. Testosterone levels are not affected by age, as overall health is the primary reason for a decline.
b. A reduction in testosterone levels occurs with age, and overall health may affect the degree of change.
Which of the following is an example of an exercise that targets the global muscles of the core? Select one: a. Medicine ball overhead throw b. Back extension c. Plank d. Dead bug
b. Back extension
Which regions of the spine demonstrate lordotic curves? Select one: a. Cervical and thoracic b. Cervical and lumbar c. Thoracic and lumbar d. Cervical and sacral
b. Cervical and lumbar
n what phase of plyometric exercise does preloading or stretching of the agonist muscle occur? Select one: a. Acceleration b. Eccentric c. Amortization d. Concentric
b. Eccentric
A long-term client has recently indicated that she wants to start training for a fitness competition and, due to her competitive nature, she indicates that she wants to win. Which type of motivation is driving her? Select one: a. Affiliation motivation b. Extrinsic motivation c. Autonomy motivation d. Intrinsic motivation
b. Extrinsic motivation
Scoliosis refers to deviations of the spine in which plane of motion? Select one: a. Horizontal plane b. Frontal plane c. Transverse plane d. Sagittal plane
b. Frontal plane
When compared to machines, free weights provide which of the following benefits to users? Select one: a. Increased user safety b. Increased multiplanar movement c. Decreased opportunities to perform full-body movements d. Decreased challenges to balance and stability
b. Increased multiplanar movement
What is a physical benefit of resistance training? Select one: a. Decreased bone remodeling b. Increased muscular hypertrophy c. Increased resting heart rate d. Decreased muscular hypertrophy
b. Increased muscular hypertrophy
What structure in the heart transfers the electrical signal from the sinoatrial (SA) node to the atrioventricular (AV) node? Select one: a. Intercalated discs b. Internodal pathway c. Left bundle branch d. Right bundle branch
b. Internodal pathway
In order to optimally load muscle during the eccentric phase, the fitness professional should recommend which of the following? Select one: a. Reduce the resistance so it is less than it was in the concentric phase, and lower the weight faster to reduce time under tension b. Lower the weight more slowly to increase time under tension c. Reduce the resistance so it is less than it was in the concentric phase, and lower the weight more slowly to increase time under tension d. Lower the weight faster to reduce time under tension
b. Lower the weight more slowly to increase time under tension
Training to enhance the size of muscle, or an increase in muscle mass, is an example of which improvement of the body? Select one: a. Muscle power b. Muscle hypertrophy c. Muscle strength d. Muscle endurance
b. Muscle hypertrophy
Human movement is accomplished through the functional integration of three systems within the human body: the nervous system, the skeletal system, and what other system? Select one: a. Coronary b. Muscular c. Vascular d. Digestive Feedback
b. Muscular
What is the correct order of segments for the spine, starting at the top? Select one: a. Thoracic, cervical, and lumbar b. Lumbar, cervical, and thoracic c. Cervical, thoracic, and lumbar d. Cervical, lumbar, and thoracic Feedback
c. Cervical, thoracic, and lumbar
Which of the following core exercises best suits stabilization training? Select one: a. Deadlifts b. Repeat step-ups c. Floor bridge d. Barbell chest press
c. Floor bridge
Which pressing exercise would be appropriate for someone who has high levels of upper-body strength but has no equipment because they are traveling? Select one: a. Sit-ups b. Chin-ups c. Handstand push-up d. Leg press
c. Handstand push-up
Which of the following global muscles' primary action is hip flexion? Select one: a. Latissimus dorsi b. Erector spinae c. Iliopsoas d. Rectus abdominis
c. Iliopsoas
SAQ training among seniors may help prevent which of the following conditions? Select one: a. There is no evidence to show that SAQ programs for seniors may prevent this condition. b. Arthritis c. Osteopenia d. Lung cancer
c. Osteopenia
Which regions of the spine demonstrate kyphotic curves? Select one: a. Cervical and thoracic b. Cervical and sacral c. Thoracic and sacral d. Thoracic and lumbar
c. Thoracic and sacral
n which BMI category would you classify Mary if she has a BMI of 17.5? Select one: a. Obese b. Healthy weight c. Underweight d. Class II obesity Feedback
c. Underweight
What step height is used for the YMCA 3-minute step test? Select one: a. 10 inches b. 14 inches c. 16 inches d. 12 inches
d. 12 inches
What are the end products of the electron transport chain? Select one: a. ATP and oxygen b. ADP and hydrogen ions c. ADP and water d. ATP and water
d. ATP and water
hat is the main role of a personal trainer? Select one: a. Teach, lead, and motivate individuals through large-group exercise classes b. Provide nutritional advice, therapy, and counseling to a wide range of clients c. Provide advanced strength and conditioning programs for competitive athletes d. Assess clients and make recommendations for exercise programming and other lifestyle changes
d. Assess clients and make recommendations for exercise programming and other lifestyle changes
For what is vitamin D most important? Select one: a. Hair growth b. Eyesight c. Skin pigmentation d. Bone health Feedback
d. Bone health
Which of the following would be an example of nonexercise activity thermogenesis (NEAT)? Select one: a. Running for 5 miles b. Sleeping c. Doing 20 minutes of resistance training d. Cleaning the house
d. Cleaning the house
Which of the following is the best example of a complete protein source? Select one: a. Legumes b. Grains c. Beans d. Dairy foods
d. Dairy foods
How is Fartlek training best described? Select one: a. Fartlek training is an exercise method defined by intervals of near-maximal intensity broken up by relatively short rest periods. b. In Fartlek training, the total duration of the workout is 4 minutes long and performed at 170% of VO2max. c. Fartlek training is aerobic exercise that remains at a relatively constant intensity, including a stable heart rate and oxygen consumption. d. Fartlek training targets many different physiological systems by combining different formats into one workout.
d. Fartlek training targets many different physiological systems by combining different formats into one workout.
Which muscle would be considered overactive, leading to arms falling forward during the overhead squat assessment? Select one: a. Posterior deltoid b. Middle and lower trapezius c. Rhomboids d. Latissimus dorsi
d. Latissimus dorsi
According to the integrated performance paradigm, which of the following is a requirement for the safe control of movement during plyometrics? Select one: a. Speed b. Power c. Strength d. Neuromuscular stabilization
d. Neuromuscular stabilization
What stage of change is a person in if they are planning to begin exercising soon and have taken steps toward it? Select one: a. Precontemplation b. Maintenance c. Action d. Preparation
d. Preparation
How often should elastic resistance bands be checked? Select one: a. Once a day b. Once a week c. Only when there are signs of wear d. Prior to every use
d. Prior to every use
Which two electrolytes are most commonly supplemented by athletes to replace those lost in sweat? Select one: a. Magnesium and sodium b. Potassium and manganese c. Sodium and calcium d. Sodium and potassium
d. Sodium and potassium
If someone engages in a short, intense burst of activity lasting less than 30 seconds, which energy system will contribute the most to ATP production? Select one: a. The citric acid cycle b. Glycolysis c. Oxidative phosphorylation d. The ATP-PC system
d. The ATP-PC system
What is bioenergetics? Select one: a. The study of weight loss b. The study of metabolism during exercise c. The study of aerobic metabolism d. The study of the ways in which food is turned into energy
d. The study of the ways in which food is turned into energy
Rotational movement of the torso should primarily occur where? Select one: a. Lumbar spine b. Frontal plane c. Sagittal plane d. Thoracic spine
d. Thoracic spine
What is the purpose of a professional personal training certification? Select one: a. To ensure gyms and health clubs follow rules established by OSHA b. To demonstrate that an individual is committed to the field of personal training c. To abide by federal guidelines that require certification for fitness professionals d. To ensure that individual job candidates can demonstrate the ability to perform the tasks required for this job category
d. To ensure that individual job candidates can demonstrate the ability to perform the tasks required for this job category
Which of the following would be the recommended source of hydration after 40 to 45 minutes of exercise with minimal perspiration? Select one: a. Fruit juice b. An isotonic sports drink c. A hypertonic sports drink d. Water
d. Water
