nasm practice exam
What is Bernadette's waist-to-hip ratio (WHR) if she is measured with a waist circumference of 28 inches and a hip circumference of 33 inches? Select one: a. 0.85 b. 1.18 c. 0.97 d. 1.04
.85
What is the acceptable macronutrient distribution range (AMDR) for fat in the diet? Select one: a. 10 to 35% of total calories b. 20 to 35% of total calories c. 45 to 65% of total calories d. 5 to 20% of total calories
20 to 35% of total calories
Which physiological systems comprise the human movement system (HMS)? Select one: a. The vision, vestibular, and somatosensory systems b. The sight, hearing, and taste systems c. The muscular, skeletal, and nervous systems d. These are not the physiological systems that comprise the HMS.
c. The muscular, skeletal, and nervous systems
Which of the following components of total daily energy expenditure (TDEE) is responsible for the most energy expenditure throughout the day? Select one: a. Resting metabolic rate (RMR) b. Exercise activity thermogenesis (EAT) c. Nonexercise activity thermogenesis (NEAT) d. Thermic effect of food (TEF)
resting metabolic rate
Catecholamines are responsible for which of the following actions? Select one: a. Increased stroke volume and decreased heart rate b. Increased heart rate and decreased stroke volume c. Increased lipogenesis d. Increased lipolysis
d. Increased lipolysis
What component of breathing improves blood flow back to the heart? Select one: a. Expiration with a decrease in intrathoracic pressure b. Inspiration with an increase in intrathoracic pressure c. Expiration with an increase in intrathoracic pressure d. Inspiration with a decrease in intrathoracic pressure
d. Inspiration with a decrease in intrathoracic pressure
Which type of support describes the actions that a person takes to help another person engage in exercise? Select one: a. Informational support b. Emotional support c. Companionship support d. Instrumental support
d. Instrumental support
What BMI score is considered overweight? Select one: a. 25 to 29.9 b. 35 to 39.9 c. 18.5 to 24.9 d. 30 to 34.9
a. 25 to 29.9
Which of the following has been used specifically as part of a protocol to improve balance? Select one: a. Biomechanical ankle platform system b. Weight training c. Stable floor environment d. Aqua therapy
a. Biomechanical ankle platform system
Agility plus which of the following concepts are separate but related concepts that both fit underneath the umbrella of agility training? Select one: a. Change of direction b. Speed c. Strength d. Power
a. Change of direction
What is the fibrous tissue that connects bone to bone? Select one: a. Ligament b. Elastin c. Tendon d. Collagen
a. Ligament
What are two signs of a muscle being overstretched? Select one: a. Prolonged joint or muscle pain lasting more than 24 hours and swelling in the muscle b. Increased muscle strength and speed c. Increased mobility and balance d. Prolonged increases in flexibility and joint range of motion
a. Prolonged joint or muscle pain lasting more than 24 hours and swelling in the muscle
Which plane of movement can be described as an imaginary line that bisects the body into right and left sides? Select one: a. Sagittal b. Transverse c. Frontal d. Extension
a. Sagittal
what is a proper regression if a client cannot perform the lunge exercise correctly? Select one: a. Step-ups b. Depth jump c. Single-leg squat d. Barbell clean
a. Step-ups
What plyometric term relates to a rapid eccentric motion followed by an explosive concentric motion? Select one: a. Stretch-shortening cycle b. Muscular-power phase c. Explosive-shortening phase d. Stretching phase
a. Stretch-shortening cycle
If someone engages in a short, intense burst of activity lasting less than 30 seconds, which energy system will contribute the most to ATP production? Select one: a. The ATP-PC system b. Glycolysis c. Oxidative phosphorylation d. The citric acid cycle
a. The ATP-PC system
At her annual physical, Claire found out her blood pressure was 110/70 mm Hg. According to this information, which statement is true? Select one: a. Her systolic pressure is 70. b. Her diastolic pressure is 70. c. She needs to modify her diet to bring down her blood pressure. d. She has hypertension.
b. Her diastolic pressure is 70.
In which phase of training would a person want to spend more time if they were looking to become better at beach volleyball and already has adequate leg strength? Select one: a. Stabilization Endurance Training b. Power Training c. Muscular Development Training d. Strength Endurance Training
b. Power Training
The goal of the Certified Personal Trainer in utilizing machines in Phase 1 of the OPT model should be to do what? Select one: a. Prepare their clients to perform 1RM before moving on to dumbbells or other advanced modalities b. Progress their clients to more proprioceptively enriched exercises c. Increase muscle size before moving their clients to Phase 2 d. Regress their clients to less-challenging movements and utilize more dumbbells
b. Progress their clients to more proprioceptively enriched exercises
Which component of SAQ involves the ability to react to a stimulus (i.e., reaction time) and appropriately change the motion of the body in response to that stimulus (such as hitting a baseball)? Select one: a. Agility b. Quickness c. Stride rate d. Speed
b. Quickness
What is the complete transition from eccentric to concentric muscle actions known as? Select one: a. Loading phase b. Stretch-shortening cycle c. Amortization phase d. Unloading phase
b. Stretch-shortening cycle
Along with muscle protein synthesis, which of the following is an important function of protein? Select one: a. Padding of vital internal organs b. Synthesis of hormones c. Regulation of body temperature d. Insulation of internal organs
b. Synthesis of hormones
What is the most appropriate response from a Certified Personal Trainer if a client insists on using a steroid or other harmful substance? Select one: a. Provide them with a plan and all the information they may need for use. b. Tell them no, and refer them to a licensed medical professional for further advice. c. Tell them no. d. Tell them it could help with their training.
b. Tell them no, and refer them to a licensed medical professional for further advice.
What is the general adaptation syndrome? Select one: a. The general adaptation syndrome describes how humans evolve over time. b. The general adaptation syndrome describes the way in which the body responds and adapts to stress. c. The general adaptation syndrome describes how an individual emotionally adapts to positive reinforcement. d. The general adaptation syndrome describes how traits are handed down from parents to offspring.
b. The general adaptation syndrome describes the way in which the body responds and adapts to stress.
Which of the following is characterized as a local muscle of the core? Select one: a. Erector spinae b. Transverse abdominis c. Latissimus dorsi d. Rectus abdominis
b. Transverse abdominis
What is the most valid measurement of aerobic fitness? Select one: a. 1.5-mile (2.4-km) run test b. V̇O2max c. YMCA 3-minute step test d. Rockport walk test
b. VO2 max
which vitamin has an increased risk of causing toxicity? Select one: a. Vitamin C b. Vitamin A c. Vitamin B6 d. Vitamin B12
b. Vitamin A
Where is it most common to take an individual's circumference measurement to assess health risk? Select one: a. Hips b. Waist c. Arm d. Thigh
b. Waist
In what training zone are you exercising at a challenging to hard intensity, where continual talking would become challenging? Select one: a. Zone 1 b. Zone 2 c. Zone 3 d. Zone 4
b. Zone 2
What is the minimum weekly goal of energy expenditure from combined physical activity and exercise for obese clients? Select one: a. 500 kcal b. 5,000 kcal c. 1,200 kcal d. 12,000 kcal
c. 1,200 kcal
You are working with an intermediate client on SAQ drills. From the choices provided, what would be the best choice for drills per session? Select one: a. 4 to 5 drills b. 9 or 10 drills c. 6 to 8 drills d. 2 to 4 drills
c. 6 to 8 drills
How is lower crossed syndrome characterized? Select one: a. Anterior pelvic tilt and excessive kyphosis of the lumbar spine b. Posterior pelvic tilt and excessive lordosis of the lumbar spine c. Anterior pelvic tilt and excessive lordosis of the lumbar spine d. Flat feet, knee valgus, and internally rotated and adducted hips
c. Anterior pelvic tilt and excessive lordosis of the lumbar spine
Posture of the spine is primarily controlled by which muscles of the core? Select one: a. Global muscles b. Local and global muscles c. Local muscles d. Back muscles only
local muscles
What phase of the OPT model aims to improve movement patterns and enhances stabilization of the system? Select one: a. Muscular Development Training b. Power Training c. Stabilization Endurance Training d. Maximal Strength Training
c. Stabilization Endurance Training
Which muscle would you be targeting for SMR if you placed the roller along the front and slightly lateral (outside) part of the upper thigh (just below the pelvis)? Select one: a. Piriformis b. Thoracic spine c. Tensor fascia latae d. Adductors
c. Tensor fascia latae
The body can adapt to new demands while becoming stronger and more resilient through which exercise programming approach? Select one: a. Systematic approach b. SAID principle c. Progressive overload d. All-or-nothing principle
progressive overload
Which chronic disease is the leading cause of death in the world today? Select one: a. Coronary artery disease b. Cancer c. Diabetes d. Dementia
a. Coronary artery disease
What is excess postexercise oxygen consumption (EPOC)? Select one: a. EPOC is the increase in aerobic metabolism above baseline that occurs for a period after exercise. b. EPOC is the increase in breathing rate that occurs during rest periods between exercise intervals. c. EPOC is the increase in protein breakdown that occurs after exercise. d. EPOC is the faster rate of glycolysis that occurs after exercise.
a. EPOC is the increase in aerobic metabolism above baseline that occurs for a period after exercise.
What are two ways to best improve the timely passage of food through the intestinal tracts and prevent constipation? Select one: a. Ensure adequate water intake, and engage in an exercise program that is inclusive of both aerobic and resistance training b. Ensure adequate water consumption, and avoid higher levels of physical activity c. Ensure adequate water and protein intake, and engage in an exercise program that is inclusive of resistance training d. Perform a daily program of aerobic activity, and ensure increased protein consumption
a. Ensure adequate water intake, and engage in an exercise program that is inclusive of both aerobic and resistance training
What parameter of Muscular Development Training would be most associated with this style of training? Select one: a. Growth and volume b. Strength and volume c. Growth and stabilization d. Strength and stabilization
a. Growth and volume
Which of the following is the initial assessment that should be completed prior to starting any exercise or training program? Select one: a. Health risk assessment b. Anthropometric assessment c. Postural assessment d. Cardiorespiratory assessment
a. Health risk assessment
Stage 3 balance exercise should include what types of motion? Select one: a. Hopping motions with a single-leg stance landing b. Little motion c. No motion d. Moving only the balance leg through a full range of motion
a. Hopping motions with a single-leg stance landing
A client who has been training consistently for over a year has indicated that he wants to find more efficient ways to exercise at home. Which type of social support does he need? Select one: a. Informational support b. Emotional support c. Instrumental support d. Companionship support
a. Informational support
Which of the following force couples is accurately linked to the movement created by their combined action? Select one: a. Internal and external obliques functioning to create trunk rotation b. The gastrocnemius and soleus functioning to create ankle dorsiflexion c. Upper trapezius and serratus anterior functioning to create downward rotation of the scapula d. Deltoid and rotator cuff functioning to create shoulder adduction
a. Internal and external obliques functioning to create trunk rotation
Which option is an inaccurate description of the Valsalva maneuver? Select one: a. It is a recommended technique for those with hypertension. b. It increases intra-abdominal pressure and spinal stability. c. It can raise an individual's heart rate and blood pressure. d. It involves expiring against a closed glottis.
a. It is a recommended technique for those with hypertension.
What anatomical term is used to describe something that is relatively closer to the midline of the body? Select one: a. Medial b. Posterior c. Lateral d. Anterior
a. medial
According to the text, what percentage of Americans older than the age of 20 years are either overweight or obese? Select one: a. 0.92 b. 0.72 c. 0.62 d. 0.22
b. 0.72
What are the recommended training variables for self-myofascial rolling? Select one: a. 2 to 5 sets, hold each tender area for 5 minutes b. 1 to 3 sets, hold each tender area for 30 seconds c. 1 to 3 sets, hold each tender area for 2 minutes d. 5 to 10 sets, hold each tender area for 5 seconds
b. 1 to 3 sets, hold each tender area for 30 seconds
How many Essential Amino Acids (EAAs) are there? Select one: a. 3 b. 9 c. 11 d. 7
b. 9
When family members are not supportive of exercise-related behaviors, it can be viewed as which of the following? Select one: a. An influence on exercise b. A barrier to exercise c. Ambivalence toward exercise d. Amotivation to exercise
b. A barrier to exercise
What statement best describes the main benefit for establishing a brand identity? Select one: a. A brand identity provides more opportunities for being featured in magazines. b. A brand identity establishes a top-of-mind presence. c. A brand identity allows a fitness professional to design a colorful logo that attracts attention. d. A brand identity could make it easier to create a social media profile.
b. A brand identity establishes a top-of-mind presence.
What statement best describes a premium health club? Select one: a. A private health club offered only at luxury resorts and golf courses b. A health club that features multiple group-fitness studio options and provides a selection of high-end amenities c. A health club that offers a low-price membership, often including very few amenities other than access to exercise equipment d. A health club that uses revenue from fitness programs and memberships to cover operational costs, improve facilities, and fund a wide range of community-based initiatives
b. A health club that features multiple group-fitness studio options and provides a selection of high-end amenities
What key term would best describe an overactive hip flexor complex decreasing neural drive to the hip extensor complex? Select one: a. Synergistic dominance b. Altered reciprocal inhibition c. Altered length-tension relationship d. Reciprocal inhibition
b. Altered reciprocal inhibition
What are the building blocks of body proteins? Select one: a. Triglycerides b. Amino acids c. Glucose d. Ketone bodies
b. Amino acids
What is the most appropriate way to conclude a sales presentation with a potential client? Select one: a. Agreeing to call the potential client in 2 days to follow up b. Asking for the sale and scheduling the first session c. Swapping social media handles so the trainer and client can follow each other d. Asking the member for a personal phone number to use to follow up via texting
b. Asking for the sale and scheduling the first session
What is the main role of a personal trainer? Select one: a. Teach, lead, and motivate individuals through large-group exercise classes b. Assess clients and make recommendations for exercise programming and other lifestyle changes c. Provide advanced strength and conditioning programs for competitive athletes d. Provide nutritional advice, therapy, and counseling to a wide range of clients
b. Assess clients and make recommendations for exercise programming and other lifestyle changes
What are two contraindications for self-myofascial techniques? Select one: a. Young children and older adults b. Cancer and bleeding disorders c. Pregnancy and diabetes d. Hypertension that is controlled and varicose veins
b. Cancer and bleeding disorders
Which of the following muscles are responsible for normal resting state (quiet) breathing? Select one: a. Abdominals b. Diaphragm c. Scalenes d. Internal intercostals
b. Diaphragm
How is nonexercise activity thermogenesis (NEAT) best defined? Select one: a. The amount of energy required to maintain the body at rest b. Energy expenditure through daily activities outside of structured exercise, such as walking, completing household chores, and taking the stairs c. The rate at which the body expends energy (calories) when fasted and at complete rest, such as asleep or lying quietly d. Energy expenditure through structured exercise alone, such as strength training and cardiorespiratory exercise
b. Energy expenditure through daily activities outside of structured exercise, such as walking, completing household chores, and taking the stairs
Which governmental agency regulates dietary supplements in the United Kingdom? Select one: a. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) b. European Food Safety Authority (EFSA) c. Dietary Supplement Health and Education Act (DSHEA) d. Therapeutic Goods Administration (TGA)
b. European Food Safety Authority (EFSA)
What is a common cause of chronic hypertension? Select one: a. Vigorous exercise b. Excess weight c. A low-fat diet d. 1,500 mg of sodium per day
b. Excess weight
Which of the following is not a purpose of an effective cool-down? Select one: a. Provide a transition period b. Increase breathing rate c. Reduce body temperature d. Reduce heart rate
b. Increase breathing rate
Which of the following should be considered when determining if a client is ready to undertake plyometric training? Select one: a. Sports skills b. Injury history c. Height d. Body composition
b. Injury history
During balance training, gluteal muscles should remain in which state to hold the body stable? Select one: a. Concentrically contracted b. Isometrically contracted c. Eccentrically contracted d. Relaxed
b. Isometrically contracted
identify a movement limitation for an individual who walks or runs on a treadmill if he or she presents with an anterior pelvic tilt. Select one: a. Limitations to hip extension may reduce low-back extension which can decrease ventilation. b. Limitations to hip flexion may require hyperextension in the low-back, placing increased stress on the low-back. c. Limitations to hip extension may require hyperextension in the low-back, placing increased stress on the low-back. d. Limitations to hip flexion may reduce low-back extension which can decrease ventilation.
b. Limitations to hip flexion may require hyperextension in the low-back, placing increased stress on the low-back.
Which muscle would be considered underactive, leading to shoulder elevation during the pushing assessment? Select one: a. Serratus anterior b. Lower trapezius c. Upper trapezius d. Cervical extensors
b. Lower trapezius
What is defined as the ability to produce and maintain force production for prolonged periods of time? Select one: a. Muscular hypertrophy b. Muscular endurance c. Stabilization d. Rate of force production
b. Muscular endurance
Which postural distortion is characterized by flat feet, knee valgus, and adducted and internally rotated hips? Select one: a. Knee valgus b. Pes planus distortion syndrome c. Upper crossed syndrome d. Lower crossed syndrome
b. Pes planus distortion syndrome
Which statement is an accurate reflection of exercise and physical activity as it relates to arthritis? Select one: a. Physical activity tends to aggravate arthritic symptoms. b. Plyometric training alleviates arthritic symptoms. c. Cardiorespiratory training should begin at a low to moderate intensity (40 to 65% HRmax). d. High-intensity resistance training is appropriate to improve joint integrity.
c. Cardiorespiratory training should begin at a low to moderate intensity (40 to 65% HRmax).
Which of the following is an example of a client's intrinsic motivation for exercise? Select one: a. Exercising because they want to look better for others when on vacation b. Exercising because a doctor tells them to c. Exercising because it is fun d. Exercising because they feel guilty
c. Exercising because it is fun
Which is very important as a prenatal vitamin? Select one: a. Pantothenic acid b. Vitamin C c. Folate d. Niacin
c. Folate\
Why is a jump-down exercise considered more advanced than a jump-up exercise? Select one: a. Jumping down lessens force deceleration. b. Jumping down limits eccentric contractions. c. Jumping down challenges landing mechanics. d. Jumping down requires more concentric force control.
c. Jumping down challenges landing mechanics.
Squat, push, pull, press, hip hinge, and multiplanar movement are all known as what? Select one: a. Sports skills b. Exercises c. Movement patterns d. Phases
c. Movement patterns
why is it important for fitness professionals to pay attention to their personal grooming when working in a fitness facility? Select one: a. Paying attention to personal grooming will make it easier to make new friends while working. b. Personal grooming can help personal trainers appear more in shape, which is important for attracting clients. c. Personal trainers are professionals. Having a professional appearance can help ensure that clients treat personal trainers as the professionals they are. d. Personal grooming is critical for creating engaging social media posts.
c. Personal trainers are professionals. Having a professional appearance can help ensure that clients treat personal trainers as the professionals they are.
If the concentric phase of a plyometric exercise doesn't use all the stored elastic energy from the eccentric phase, what occurs? Select one: a. The unused energy is stored for the next jump. b. The unused energy builds up and causes muscular pain. c. The unused energy is dissipated as heat. d. The attempt at jumping will fail.
c. The unused energy is dissipated as heat.
The posterior oblique subsystem includes which of the following muscle groups? Select one: a. Adductors (inner thigh) and hip external rotators b. Adductors (inner thigh) and contralateral quadratus lumborum c. Thoracolumbar fascia and contralateral gluteus maximus d. Hamstrings and erector spinae
c. Thoracolumbar fascia and contralateral gluteus maximus
Accumulating too much of a vitamin or mineral in the body may lead to what? Select one: a. Improved performance b. Deficiency c. Toxicity d. Better outcomes
c. Toxicity
What is defined as the specific outline created by a fitness professional that details the form of training, length of time, and specific exercises to be performed? Select one: a. Periodization b. Macrocycle c. Training plan d. Acute variables
c. Training plan
Which disease is associated with normal aging and is attributable to a lower production of estrogen and progesterone, both of which are involved with regulating the rate at which bone is lost? Select one: a. Type 1 diabetes b. Type 2 (secondary) osteoporosis c. Type 1 (primary) osteoporosis d. Type 2 diabetes
c. Type 1 (primary) osteoporosis
Which of the following waist-to-hip ratios (WHRs) places Amy (a female) in the high-risk category for cardiovascular disease? Select one: a. WHR of 0.72 b. WHR of 0.83 c. WHR of 0.88 d. WHR of 0.78
c. WHR of 0.88
Approximately what percentage of Americans aged 20 years and older are obese? Select one: a. 0.6 b. 0.8 c. 0.2 d. 0.4
d. .04
Which of the following conditions would produce nutritional ketosis in the body? Select one: a. A low-protein diet b. High-intensity exercise c. A caloric surplus d. A very low-carbohydrate die
d. A very low-carbohydrate diet
What is defined as the state of elevated glucose in the bloodstream? Select one: a. Hypotension b. Hypertension c. Hypoglycemia d. Hyperglycemia
d. Hyperglycemia
Which of the following would occur during intermittent exercise? Select one: a. Carbohydrates would not be a major energy source. b. A steady-state intensity would be used. c. Fat would be the main energy source. d. All three energy systems would be used at some point during the activity.
d. All three energy systems would be used at some point during the activity
Contraction of the erector spinae and hip flexor muscles creates what motion of the pelvis in the sagittal plane? Select one: a. Posterior pelvic tilt b. Medial pelvic tilt c. Lateral pelvic tilt d. Anterior pelvic tilt
d. Anterior pelvic tilt
When it comes to barriers to exercise, which statement is correct? Select one: a. All individuals have "lack of time" as a barrier. b. Barriers never change; therefore, individuals need to focus on motives. c. It is impossible to ever fully overcome all barriers. d. Barriers to exercise are often cited by people who are sedentary or infrequently active.
d. Barriers to exercise are often cited by people who are sedentary or infrequently active.
Which of the following is true about the biologically active forms of vitamins? Select one: a. Biologically active forms are less efficient. b. Biologically active forms lead to toxicity. c. Biologically active forms lead to deficiency. d. Biologically active forms are most effective for augmenting body levels.
d. Biologically active forms are most effective for augmenting body levels.
What term is used for a condition that would make it unsafe for the client to participate in any type of flexibility exercise? Select one: a. Psychological concern b. Precaution c. Cardiovascular precaution d. Contraindication
d. Contraindication
Which exercise primarily targets the transverse abdominis? Select one: a. Bracing b. Medicine ball throw c. Back squat d. Drawing-in maneuver
d. Drawing-in maneuver
How is upper crossed syndrome characterized? Select one: a. Excessive forward lean and arms fall forward b. Anterior pelvic tilt and excessive lordosis of the lumbar spine c. Flat feet, knee valgus, and internally rotated and adducted hips d. Forward head and protracted shoulders
d. Forward head and protracted shoulders
Which heart chamber gathers oxygenated blood coming to the heart from the lungs? Select one: a. Right atrium b. Left ventricle c. Pulmonary veins d. Left atrium
d. Left atrium
Training to enhance the size of muscle, or an increase in muscle mass, is an example of which improvement of the body? Select one: a. Muscle endurance b. Muscle power c. Muscle strength d. Muscle hypertrophy
d. Muscle hypertrophy
What causes initial improvements in strength when youths engage in a resistance training program? Select one: a. Muscle hypertrophy b. Sarcopenia c. Muscle atrophy d. Neural adaptations
d. Neural adaptations
What type of communication includes posture, hand gestures, proximity to others, and facial expressions? Select one: a. Motivational interviewing b. Verbal communication c. Reflective listening d. Nonverbal communication
d. Nonverbal communication
Extrinsic motivation is characterized by which of the following? Select one: a. A drive to be good at something b. Being motivated by a fear of failure c. Being motivated by the process of changing behaviors d. Participating in an activity or behavior for some type of reward or recognition from others
d. Participating in an activity or behavior for some type of reward or recognition from others
A Certified Personal Trainer is speaking with a client who is not currently doing any consistent aerobic training. They ask how ready the client is to do aerobic training once a week for 30 minutes, using a scale of 1 to 10, with 1 representing "not at all ready" and 10 representing "completely ready." If the client is at a 9, what stage of change are they in? Select one: a. Action b. Maintenance c. Precontemplation d. Preparation
d. Preparation
What type of fitness professional has advanced knowledge, training, and experience in designing and implementing strength and conditioning programs for competitive athletes? Select one: a. Group fitness instructor b. Physical therapist c. Certified Personal Trainer d. Strength and conditioning coach
d. Strength and conditioning coach
When a client makes a statement that supports their current behavior, what is this called? Select one: a. An affirmation b. Change talk c. A collecting summary d. Sustain talk
d. Sustain talk
What is bioenergetics? Select one: a. The study of weight loss b. The study of aerobic metabolism c. The study of metabolism during exercise d. The study of the ways in which food is turned into energy
d. The study of the ways in which food is turned into energy
What is a characteristic of type I muscle fibers? Select one: a. Type I fibers are "fast twitch." b. Type I fibers have a lower concentration of capillaries than type II fibers. c. Type I fibers have a lower concentration of mitochondria than type II fibers. d. Type I fibers are "slow twitch."
d. Type I fibers are "slow twitch."