Neuro Combined
one axon and one dendrite arising from the soma
A bipolar neuron has
norepinephrine
A catecholamine
Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)
A class of medications responsible for blocking the enzyme that degrades serotonin, dopamine, norepinephrine and epinephrine
Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)
A class of medications responsible for blocking the reuptake of 5 hydroxytryptophan
Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs)
A class of medications responsible for blocking the reuptake of 5 hydroxytryptophan and norepinephrine
Cluster Breathing
A cluster of breaths has a disordered sequence with irregular pauses between breaths.
Spinal shock
A complete loss of reflex function in skeletal muscles, bladder, bowel, sexual function and automic control below the level of the lesion
Norepinephrine
Neurotransmitter released by adrenergic nerve terminals in the autonomic and possibly the central nervous system, that has such effects as constricting blood vessels, raising blood pressure, and dilating bronchi
Serotonin
Neurotransmitter, derived from tryptophan, that is involved in sleep, depression, memory, and other neurological processes
either excite or inhibit the post synaptic neuron
Neurotransmitters are molecules that cross the synaptic cleft and
c.withdrawal reflex
A nurse pricks your finger to type your blood. You flinch at the pain, pulling your hand back. This is called the a. pain reflex b. stretch reflex c.withdrawal reflex d.tendon reflex e. crossed extensor reflex
visceral; referred
A pain that radiates along the left shoulder and medial side of the arm may not indicate a pain specifically in that area. This may indicate a heart attack, which causes ___ pain, and the phenomenon is called ___.
Aura
A partial seizure that immediately precedes the onset of a generalized tonic-clonic seizure.
Gasping breathing pattern
A pattern of deep "all-or-none" breaths is accompanied by a slow respiratory rate.
Central
A person experiences a traumatic brain injury and has herniation of the brain that is straight downward through the tentorial notch. Which of the following types of herniation is this? ◦Supratentorial ◦ Central ◦Cingulate ◦Uncal
true
Not all synapses employ neurotransmitters
If mom is in a trauma and is hemorrhaging, how is perfusion going to be to the brain? How is tissue oxygenation going to be to the fetus?
Not good
Guillan-Barre
A person experiences demyelination of the peripheral nerves with sparing of the axons. Of which of the following diseases is this a characteristic? ◦ Alzheimer ◦Guillain-Barré ◦Myasthenia gravis ◦Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
pathophysiology involves an increased ventilatory response
A person is diagnosed with Cheyne-Stokes respirations (CSR). Which of the following is a TRUE statement? A.Pathophysiology involves an increased ventilatory response. B.There is hypocapnia and increased ventilatory stimulus. C.Changes in PaO2 produce irregular breathing. D.The PaCO2 level increases when overbreathing occurs.
Apneusis
A prolonged inspiratory cramp (a pause at full inspiration) occurs; a common variant of this is a brief end-inspiratory pause of 2 or 3 sec, often alternating with an end-expiratory pause.
Posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD)
A psychologic disorder in individuals who have experienced or witnessed a terrifying or life-threatening event characterized by recurrent flashbacks of the event, nightmares, irritability, anxiety, fatigue, forgetfulness, and social withdrawal.
Panic disorder
A psychologic disorder that is characterized by recurrent attacks of anxiety or terror and usually results in the development of one or more phobias.
Schizophrenia
A psychotic disorder characterized by delusions, hallucinations, loosening of associations, disturbances in mood and sense of self and relationship to the external world, and bizarre, purposeless behavior.
Electroencephalogram
A record of the electrical activity of the brain is called a/an
contralateral
A reflex where the sensory input and motor output are on opposite sides of the spinal cord is called a ____ reflex arc.
the membrane potential has been reestablished
A second nerve impulse cannot be generated until ___.
Partial seizure (focal seizure)
A seizure caused by focused excessive electrical activity secondary to a lesion in a particular brain region.
Generalized seizure
A seizure occurring bilaterally with no local focal point that involves the entire body, resulting in muscle rigidity, violent muscle contractions, and impaired or lost consciousness.
Aura
A sensory experience that precedes the onset of a migraine or epileptic seizure.
Meningioma
A slow-growing, often encapsulated mass of cells derived from arachnoid tissue in the dural membrane that is usually benign but increases intracranial pressure.
Saccular aneurysm (berry aneurysm)
A slowly progressinganeurysm that affects only a portion of the circumference of the arterial wall and may be the result of congenital anomalies or degeneration.
Parasympathetic reduction of heart rate and sympathetic dilation of blood vessels
A sudden increase in blood pressure detected by baroreceptors in the walls of large arteries near the heart will cause
Central neurogenic hyperventilation
A sustained, deep, rapid, but regular pattern (hyperpnea) occurs, with a decreased PaCO2 and a corresponding increase in pH and PO2.
Autonomic hyperreflexia (dysreflexia)
A syndrome resulting from afferent stimuli which causes intense sympathetic discharge originating with spinal cord injury above the major splanchnic outflow characterized by hypertension, bradycardia, sweating of the forehead, severe headache, and piloerection on distention of the bladder and rectum.
+35 mV
A typical neuron will have a membrane voltage of about __ at the time when sodium gates close and potassium ions begin rapidly leaving the cell.
TRPV1
A vanilloid specific TRP that is stimulated by capsaicin.
false
A weak stimulus produces weaker action potentials than a strong stimulus
Direct Excitation
Occurs when the nociceptor responds to a threshold depolarization by the application of heat, radiation, toxic chemicals, or tissue trauma.
spatial summation
Occurs when the postsynaptic cell is stimulated at the same time by multiple terminals.
olfactory cortex; primary motor cortex
Odors like certain perfumes or certain foods stimulate a memory in the ___.
When do benign febrile seizures occur?
Often between ages 6 months and 5 years Peak incidence at 14 to 18 months Brief and self-limited
Parasellar
A woman experiences hormonal failure, optic atrophy, and gradual paraparesis. Which of the following is the most likely site of the meningioma based on these symptoms? ◦Sphenoidal wing ◦ Olfactory groove ◦Parasagittal ◦Parasellar
Social effects of a chronic neurologic disease include (select all that apply) a. divorce b. job loss c. depression d. role changes e. loss of self esteem
A,B,C,D,E
A result of stimulation of the parasympathetic nervous system is (select all that apply) a. constriction of the bronchi b. dilation of skin blood vessels c. increased secretion of insulin d. increased blood glucose levels e. relation of the urinary sphincters
A,B,C,E
Which of the following structures controls the functions of the greatest number of target glands and cells? A. Pituitary gland B. Pancreas C. Thyroid gland D. Adrenal cortex
A. Pituitary gland
Which one of the following blood tests reflects the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) and is used to estimate renal function? A. Serum creatinine B. Blood urea nitrogen C. Blood protein D. Serum ammonia
A. Serum creatinine
What happens to APP and BAP in Alzheimer's disease?
APP is cut on both sides of BAP leaving BAP intact, causing plaques to form. (Normally, APP is cleaved in the middle of BAP so both segments are degraded).
Which neurotransmitters does the Parasympathetic nervous system contain?
Acetylcholine. this attaches to cholinergic receptors
Guillain-Barré syndrome
Acute, inflammatory, autoimmune disease triggered by a preceding bacterial or viral infection that causes demyelination of neurons resulting in denervation and atrophy of muscle with numbness, pain, parasthesis or weakness
Of the following patients, the nurse recognizes that the one with the highest risk for a stroke is a. an obese 45 year old native american b. a 35 year old asian american woman who smokes c. a 32 year old white woman taking oral contraceptives d. a 65 years old African American man with hypertension
D
Paralysis of lateral gaze indicates a lesion of cranial nerve a. II b. III c. IV d.VI
D
The most recent assessment of a patient with a diagnosis of type 1 diabetes indicates a heightened risk of diabetic nephropathy. Which of the following assessment findings is most suggestive of this increased risk? A. Hematuria B. Orthostatic hypotension C. Diabetic retinopathy D. Microalbuminuria
D. Microalbuminuria
analyzes sensory information, stores information, makes decisions
Describe the integrative function of the nervous system.
Schizophrenia
Describes a collection of illnesses characterized by thought disorders (breaks from reality). Psychotic episodes (+/-), genetic predisposition, neuroanatomical and neurotransmitter alterations.
Na+ is entering the neuron
During the rising phase of an action potential
Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)
An anxiety disorder characterized by repetitive, intrusive thoughts and compulsive actions, such as cleaning, checking, or counting.
Huntington disease (HD)
An autosomal dominant disease causing a progressive increase in involuntary, jerky, dykinetic movements, mental deterioration, and premature death. Associated with a depletion of gamma-aminobutyric acid.
Prodomo
An early manifestation that may occur hours or days before a seizure
not open voltage-regulated gates and not fire an action potential
An excitatory local potential reaches the trigger zone at the axon hillock and causes a depolarization to -60 millivolts. The trigger zone will most likely
Glutamate
An excitatory neurotransmitter prevalent in neurons in the brain and spinal cord.
acetylcholine
An excitatory neurotransmitter secreted by motor neurons innervating the skeletal muscle.
synapse
An impulse from one nerve cell is communicated to another nerve cell via the ___.
Grade I is treated with surgery and then follow-up CT scans for recurrence. Grade II is treated surgically if accessible and then followed with radiation. Grades III and IV are treated with surgery. Grade III is well circumscribed
Astrocytoma
rod
At normal daylight intensities, the ___ cells are nonfunctional because all their rhodopsin is bleached.
b. nondecremental
At the distal end of a nerve fiber, action potentials have the same voltage as they had at the beginning. That is to say they are a. saltatory b. nondecremental c. refractory d. irreversible e. self-propagating
Nondecrimential
At the distal end of a nerve fiber, action potentials have the same voltage as they had at the beginning. That is to say, they are
What causes thrombotic shock?
Atheroscelorsis of large vessels (involves internal carotid, basilar, or vertebral arteries)
What causes embolic stroke?
Atherosclerotic patch in carotid artery from any arterial problem--especially L side of heart. Involves the middle cerebral artery.
three weeks
During which week of gestation does the endoderm form the neural plate*? *which invaginates, forming the neural groove, flanked on either side by neural folds.
What is the abnormal response for the Caloric Ice Water Test?
Dysconjugate or asmmetric eye movement.
secretory zone
Axon terminals release neurotransmitters.
47. Dr. Stern is a neuroscientist who is collecting data for a new research study. He uses techniques for monitoring the amount of glucose in various areas of the brain. Which of the following methods is Dr. Stern using in this study? A. Brain lesioning B. Staining C. Positron emission tomography (PET) D. Electroencephalogram (EEG)
C
Cluster Breathing Injury
Dysfunction in lower pontine and high medullary areas.
What is the location of injury for Cluster breathing?
Dysfunction in lower pontine and high medullary areas.
67. The major function of the _____ is to amplify vibrations and pass them on to the inner ear. A. pinnae B. hammer, anvil, and stirrup C. papillae D. olfactory epithelium
B
68. _____ plays an important role in the production of speech, whereas _____ plays an important role in the comprehension of language. A. Wernicke's area / Broca's area B. Broca's area / Wernicke's area C. The occipital lobe / the hippocampus D. The hippocampus / the occipital lobe
B
69. Katy was in a car accident and sustained serious brain damage. Since the accident Katy can speak only one word. This is an example of _____. A. amnesia B. aphasia C. multiple sclerosis D. epilepsy
B
7. Information from the brain and spinal cord to the muscles is sent through __________, thus enabling the body to move. A. afferent nerves B. efferent nerves C. hormones D. interpathway nerves
B
70. One criticism of place theory is that it _____. A. adequately explains low-frequency sounds but not high-frequency sounds. B. adequately explains high-frequency sounds but not low-frequency sounds. C. doesn't explain findings from split-brain research. D. can't explain the different functions of rods and cones.
B
73. The process of facial recognition is governed primarily by ______. A. the left hemisphere of the brain B. the right hemisphere of the brain C. the peripheral nervous system D. the endocrine system
B
While completing an admission history for a 73-year-old man with osteoarthritis admitted for knee arthroplasty, the nurse asks about the patient's perception of the reason for admission. The nurse expects the patient to relate which of the following responses to this question? A) a. Recent knee trauma B) b. Debilitating joint pain C) c. Repeated knee infections D) d. Onset of "frozen" knee joint
B
47. Gestalt psychologists emphasize that _____. A. perception is the same as sensation B. we learn to perceive the world through experience C. the whole is more than the sum of its parts D. perception is a neurological process
C
What happens if mom is deficient in folic acid? What is the baby at risk for?
Baby is at risk for nervous problems Spina Bifida Preg women are given daily folic acid in hospital you will notice in rotations to help prevent this from happening
Where does the pain usually radiate with a herniated disk?
Back of lower leg and over sole of foot.
2 types of Meningitis
Bacterial meningitis or viral meningitis: needs IV fluids and supportive therapy. Lumbar puncture to check CSF, CBC
Borrelia burgdorferi
Bacterial spirochete that causes Lyme disease transmitted by ticks
33. A _____ is a tiny space between the axon of one neuron and the dendrites or cell body of another neuron. A. glial cell B. reticular formation C. synapse D. basal ganglia
C
51. Which part of the nervous system regulates breathing? A. The hypothalamus B. Wernicke's area C. The medulla D. The forebrain
C
55. Steven was in a serious automobile accident that caused a severe injury to his hippocampus. What type of deficiency will Steven likely experience as a result of this brain damage? A. He will probably be unable to speak. B. He will probably be unable to comprehend language. C. He will probably have difficulties with memory formation. D. He will probably be paralyzed.
C
57. A door is still perceived as a rectangle even after we view it from different angles. This is due to _____. A. depth cues B. retinal disparity C. shape constancy D. linear constancy
C
58. Body temperature, emotional states, and coping with stress are functions controlled by the _____. A. corpus callosum B. hippocampus C. hypothalamus D. amygdala
C
58. _____ is the perceptual interpretation of the frequency of a sound. A. Amplitude B. Loudness C. Pitch D. Sound wave
C
34. Your relative is experiencing memory loss related to Alzheimer disease. Research suggests that there may be insufficient production of the neurotransmitter _______ in this individual's brain. A. serotonin B. gamma-amino butyric acid (GABA) C. acetylcholine D. dopamine
C
36. As light enters the eye, eventually it reaches the light-sensitive ____ at the back of the eye. A. blind spot B. lens C. retina D. cornea
C
36. _____ inhibits the firing of neurons in the central nervous system, but it excites the heart muscle, intestines, and urogenital tract. A. Serotonin B. Dopamine C. Norepinephrine D. GABA
C
4. Plasticity best reflects which of the following characteristics of the nervous system? A. Complexity B. Integration C. Adaptability D. Electrochemical transmission
C
40. Visual information is processed primarily in the visual cortex, which is located in the _____. A. parietal lobes B. temporal lobes C. occipital lobes D. hippocampus
C
46. Which of the following statements about research on color blindness is true? A. Most individuals who are color-blind literally see the world in black and white. They are unable to perceive any colors other than black or white. B. Color blindness is more common among women than among men. C. The nature of color blindness depends on which of the three kinds of cones (green, red, and blue) is inoperative. D. Research on color blindness does not support the trichromatic theory of vision.
C
65. Which of the following regions of the brain is involved in spatial skills, attention, and motor control? A. The hypothalamus B. The hippocampus C. The parietal lobes D. The amygdala
C
66. The eardrum is located in the ______. A. auditory cortex B. inner ear C. middle ear D. outer ear
C
7. Which of the following classes of sensory receptors play an important role in detecting pressure, vibration, movement, touch, and hearing? A. Chemoreception B. Photoreception C. Mechanoreception D. Endorphins
C
70. Roberto has a sever case of epilepsy. His doctor surgically severed his corpus callosum. Roberto's condition is referred to as _____. A. Alzheimer disease B. aphasia C. a split brain D. multiple sclerosis
C
74. The endocrine system _____. A. consists of the brain and the spinal cord B. connects the brain and the spinal cord to the rest of the body C. consists of glands that regulate the activities of certain organs by releasing hormones into the bloodstream D. communicates through the release of neurotransmitters
C
75. Newborns can ______ better than they can ______. A. see / feel touch, hear, or taste B. hear / feel touch, see, or taste C. feel touch / see, hear, or taste D. taste / see, hear, or feel touch
C
76. The _____ is sometimes referred to as the "master gland" because it controls growth and it releases the hormones that regulate other glands in the endocrine system. A. pineal gland B. adrenal gland C. pituitary gland D. thymus gland
C
77. Ellie has recently experienced irregular mood swings. Her energy level has decreased and she seems to have greater difficulty coping with stress. Based on her symptoms, it seems as though Ellie may have problems with her ______ glands. A. pituitary B. pineal C. adrenal D. thymus
C
83. George is very afraid of needles but needs to have blood drawn for a medical procedure. When he is about to get the shot he tries to not watch or think about the needle but instead tries to focus and read the poster on the wall. Which of the following pain management techniques did George use? A. Counterstimulation B. Focused breathing C. Distraction D. Electrical stimulation
C
83. The term ______ refers to a process by which new neurons are generated. A. collateral sprouting B. substitution of function C. neurogenesis D. lobotomy
C
85. The lining of the nasal cavity that contains a sheet of receptor cells for smell is known as the _____. A. semicircular canal B. papillae C. olfactory epithelium D. cochlea
C
Thermal effectors
Cells whose activity is regulated to control the heat content of the body.
hypothalamus
Centers for hunger, thirst and thermoregulation are found in a part of the brain called the ___
What kind of pain is caused by a lesion or dysfunction in the CNS?
Central pain
Which type of herniation is associated with consciousness, pupils, respiration, and posturing?
Central transtentorial hernation
What is Cerebral Death?
Cerebral death, or irreversible coma, is death of the cerebral hemispheres exclusive of the brain stem and cerebellum.
longitudinal fissure
Cerebral hemispheres are separated along the midline by the
transverse cerebral fissure
Cerebral hemispheres are separated from the cerebellum along the
What does the cerebral peduncle do?
Cerebral peduncle carries nerve fibers from the cerebrum to the hindbrain
Where does cerebrospinal fluid lie in the brain and what does it do to the brain?
Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) lies under the arachnoid to cushion the brain.
archnoid villi
Cerebrospinal fluid is absorbed by these cauliflower like structures
lateral and medial apertures
Cerebrospinal fluid leaves the fourth ventricle of the brain by way of the ___.
c. the arachnoid villi
Cerebrospinal fluid returns to the bloodstream by way of a. the central canal of the spinal cord b. the choroid plexuses of the brain c. the arachnoid villi d. the cauda equine e. the pia mater
arachnoid villi
Cerebrospinal fluid returns to the bloodstream by way of the
E, to help cool the brain
Cerebrospinal fluid serves all of the following functions except A. to support the weight of the brain, B. to cushion the brain from blows, C. to remove metabolic wastes from the central nervous system, D. to provide a stable chemical environmental for the nervous tissue, E. to help cool the brain.
What is the location of injury for Posthyperventilation apnea?
Cerebrum; associated with diffuse bilateral metabolic or structural disease.
depolarizations; hyperpolarizations
Changes in membrane potential relative to resting membrane potential can either be ___ or ___.
divirging (amplifying) circuits
Characterized by an incoming fiber that trigger responses in ever-increasing numbers of fibers along the circuit.
reverberating (oscillating) circuits
Characterized by feedback by axon collaterals to previous points in the pathway, resulting in ongoing stimulation of the pathway.
converging circuits
Characterized by reception of input from many sources, and a funneling to a given circuit, resulting in strong stimulation or inhibition.
What are some respiratory responses to altered level of consciousness?
Cheynes stokes, neurogenic hyperventilation, apneustic breathing
Muscarinic receptors
Cholinergic receptors on ANS effectors are called
Nicotinic receptors
Cholinergic receptors on skeletal muscles and postganglionic neurons in the ANS are called
What are involuntary movements of distal muscles?
Chorea
Dementia
Chronic long-term intellectual difficulties in areas such as memory, concentration, and judgment, resulting from a disease or disorder of the brain.
Multiple sclerosis
Chronic, autoimmune, demyelinating disease of the central nervous system that causes inflammation, axonal degeneration and scarring of myelin sheaths.
Which type of herniation is the least harmful?
Cingulate herniation--very little brain tissue involved
"Jet-lag disorder." Altered sleep scheduled with an advance or delay of 3 hours or more.
Circadian rhythm sleep disorder
converging circuits
Circuits common in sensory and motor pathways.
divirging (amplifying) circuits
Circuits common in sensory and motor pathways.
Which type of hydrocephalus is due to diminished reabsorption of CSF from arachnoid villi?
Communicating
a. has more local specific effects
Compared to the endocrine system the nervous system usually a. has more local specific effects b. reacts more slowly to a stimulus c. does not employ chemical messengers d. continues to respond long after the stimulus ceases e secretes chemical messengers into the bloodstream
has more local, specific effects
Compared to the endocrine system, the nervous system usually
29. Resting potential is the ______. A. amount of time a signal travels through the central nervous system B. amount of time a neuron must "rest" in between firing episodes C. stable, positive charge of an inactive neuron D. stable, negative charge of an inactive neuron
D
32. When you can tell the difference between candy apple red and fire engine red, it is partly because the light stimuli differ in their _____. A. visual acuity B. cone density C. X rays D. wavelengths
D
35. You try to note the incredibly fine details of a computer microchip through a magnifying glass. On which area of the retina should you be focusing this image? A. Optic chiasm B. Rods C. Periphery D. Fovea
D
42. The simultaneous distribution of sensory information across different neural pathways is called _____. A. binding B. bottom-up processing C. top-down processing D. parallel processing
D
44. Neuroscientists who surgically remove, destroy, or eliminate the brain tissue of laboratory animals are using which of the following techniques for studying the brain? A. Electroencephalogram (EEG) B. Positron emission tomography (PET) C. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) D. Brain lesioning
D
48. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is a technique that _____. A. measures the rate at which brain cells use glucose B. constructs a three-dimensional image from X rays C. examines the effects of lesions in brain tissue D. involves creating a magnetic field around a person's body and using radio waves to construct images of a person's tissues and biochemical activities
D
49. Functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI) is a technique that _____. A. allows scientists to see what is happening in the brain while it is working B. relies on monitoring changes in blood oxygen that occur in association with brain activity C. generates very clear pictures of the brain's interior D. All of these
D
50. If a person's cerebellum were damaged in an accident, you would expect the person to have a problem with _____. A. breathing and heart rate B. seeing and hearing C. talking and understanding D. balance and muscle coordination
D
52. Perceptual constancy refers to our ability to _____. A. switch back and forth between the figure and the ground in a figure-ground problem. B. have all of our sensory systems working on overload in a highly stressful situation. C. adjust to the amount of light in the room even if that requires light or dark adaptation. D. see an object as the same size even though we move closer to it or farther from it.
D
53. Which depth cue accounts for why parallel lines appear to grow closer together the farther away they are? A. Texture gradient B. Superposition C. Vertical position D. Linear perspective
D
54. Discrimination of objects that are necessary for survival (such as appropriate food) as well as emotional awareness and expression involves the _____. A. hippocampus B. occipital lobe C. medulla D. amygdala
D
60. Which of the following is the unit of measurement for assessing loudness? A. Pitch B. Saturation C. Hue D. Decibel
D
62. The three-foot-spike that damaged Phineas Gage's frontal lobe resulted in _____. A. hearing loss B. reduced ability to interpret visual information C. reduction in immunity to common diseases D. changes in personality
D
62. Your ability to distinguish a trumpet and a trombone or your mother's voice from your sister's voice is due to the _____ of these stimuli. A. saturation B. amplitude C. decibels D. timbre
D
66. The association cortex _____. A. integrates sensory input and motor output B. makes up 75 percent of the cerebral cortex C. is the region of the brain where the highest intellectual functions such as thinking and problem solving occur D. All of these
D
69. Place theory states that _____. A. in vision, depth perception occurs because of a combination of binocular and monocular cues B. in vision, color perception occurs because of different types of cones C. in hearing, a cluster of neurons "volley" neural impulses in rapid succession. D. in hearing, each frequency produces vibrations at a particular spot on the basilar membrane.
D
71. Neurosurgeons can reduce the unbearable seizures some epileptics experience by severing the _____. A. hypothalamus B. cerebellum C. amygdala D. corpus callosum
D
72. You and a group of friends are hiking in the woods when you suddenly become separated from the rest of the group. You know you aren't far from one another so you call out your friends' names and they call out back to you. According to research on hearing, what kind of information will you and your friends need to localize sound and find one another? A. The timing of the sound B. The intensity of the sound C. The intensity of the sound in the right ear compared to that in the left ear D. All of these
D
74. The cutaneous senses consist of sensory receptors that provide information about _____. A. touch B. temperature C. pain D. All of these
D
78. Pain receptors ______. A. are dispersed widely throughout the body B. have a much higher threshold for firing than receptors for temperature and touch C. are all anatomically similar, although they differ in the type of physical stimuli to which they most readily respond D. All of these
D
79. The perception of pain is influenced by _____. A. the presence of endorphins B. cultural context C. motivation and expectation D. All of these
D
80. Which of the following glands plays an important role in insulin production, metabolism, and body weight? A. The testes and ovaries B. The adrenal glands C. The pituitary gland D. The pancreas
D
82. Your sister and brother-in-law are expecting their first child. They have chosen to attend Lamaze classes to prepare for the labor and birth. The Lamaze method of childbirth is based on which of the following approaches to pain management? A. Acupuncture B. Counterstimulation C. Distraction D. Focused breathing
D
86. Which of the following methods do researchers use to study genetics? A. Molecular genetics B. Selective breeding C. Behavior genetics D. All of these
D
How does the anticholinesterase test work?
Endorphonium (short acting acetylcholinesterase inhibitor) is given --> decreased breakdown of Ach --> temporary improvement in muscle function
Hyperalgesia
Enhanced responsiveness to painful stimuli.
One of the first renal manifestations of diabetic nephropathy is hypertension. True False
False
c. the thalamus
Fibers of the optic nerve terminate mainly in a. the frontal lobes b.the occipiital lobes c.. the thalamus d. the midbrain e. the optic chiasma
l (perineurium)
Fibrous sheath enclosing a nerve
epineurium
Fibrous sheath inclosing a nerve.
frontal, parietal, temporal, occipital, insular
Five lobes of the brain separated by specific sulci.
What will a patient with midbrain dysfuntion pupil's look like?
Fixed and in midposition.
What does hypothermia cause to pupils?
Fixed pupils.
What are the symptoms of Conus Medullaris syndrome?
Flaccid bowel, bladder, and sexual function. Motor function may be affected.
In UMN lesions, spasticity is greater in what muscles?
Flexor muscles of upper extremity and extensor muscles of lower extremity.
wernice's area
Fluent aphasia is associated with the destruction of this area
basilar membrane
Hair cells of the cochlea are stimulated as a result of the up-and-down vibrations of the
What are clinical manifestations of schizophrenia?
Hallucinations Delusions Disorganized behavior Disorganized speech Disorganized behavior Negative symptoms Affective flattening Anhedonia, alogia, and avolition
Positive Symptoms of Schizophrenia
Hallucinations, delusions, illusions, agitation, paranoia, associational disturbances, insomnia, ideas of reference.
a (postentral gyrus)
Has an upside-down sensory map of the opposite side of the body
cerebral cortex
Has several motor areas located in the frontal lobes, which control voluntary movement.
Individuals with recurrent patterns of depression and mania, characterized by extreme levels of energy and euphoria
Having a bipolar illness
Tension headache
Headache caused by emotional strain or overwork that tends to be focused in the occipital region and can be continuous for months.
Cluster headache
Headache characterized by unilateral severe pain over the eye and forehead that lasts 30 minutes to 2 hours, several attacks per day can occur over a period of days followed by long periods of remission
Migraine
Headache that usually begins in the temporal region unilaterally after vascular changes of cranial arteries and may cause irritability, nausea, vomiting, constipation or diarrhea, and photophobia.
Collapse resulting from prolonged high body core
Heat exhaustion
Leath consequence of breakdown in control of an overstressed thermoregulatory center.
Heatstroke
Which type of stroke is more dangerous?
Hemorrhagic (bleeding in brain tissue)
Extradural Hematoma
Hemorrhaging usually from an artery most commonly associated with a skull fracture after a head injury
Persons with metabolically induced comas generally retain ocular reflexes even when other signs of brainstem damage are present. Name two exceptions.
Persons in comas with barbiturate-hypnotic and phyenytoin poisoining, do not retain ocular reflexes.
Oculomotor responses in coma
Persons with metabolically induced coma, except with barbiturate-hypnotic and phenytoin poisoning, generally retain ocular reflexes.
Diaphoresis
Perspiration
What kind of pain would an individual feel in an amputated limb after the residual stump as been healed?
Phantom limb pain
Severe barbiturate intoxications may do what to pupils?
Produce fixed pupils.
Amyotrophy
Progressive wasting of muscle tissue frequently caused by diabetes mellitus or motor neuron disease.
Apneusis
Prolong inspiratory cramp (pause at full inspiration); common variant is brief end-inspiratory 2-3 second pause.Alternates with EE pause.
Dysfunction caused by alterations of any level of the nervous system
Proprioceptive dysfunction
Amyloid-beta
Protein responsible for producing senile plaques in Alzheimer Disease.
Bipolar disorder
Psychiatric disorder characterized by alternating mania or hypomania and depression, often with periods of normal mood in between, and changes in energy and behavior according to mood.
What is unusual about psychogenetic alterations in arousal?
Psychogenetic alterations in arousal seems unconscious, but is actually physiologically awake; the person does not respond.
Withdrawal
Pulling the arm back from a hot pan is an example of a ______ reflex.
o ( choroid plexus)
Source of cerebrospinal fluid
neurons
Specialized cells that conduct messages in the form of electrical impulses throughout the body.
chemical synapses
Specialized for release and reception of chemical neurotransmitters.
c. the temporal lobe
The cerebral cortex concerned with hearing is in a. the insula b. the occipital lobe c. the temporal lobe d. the pariental lobe e. the frontal lobe
temporal lobe
The cerebral cortex concerned with hearing is in the
Senile plaque
The excessive accumulation of proteins that forms neurofibrillary tangles and prevents intracellular transport and neurotransmission.
photopic vision has higher resolution than scotopic vision
The fact that cone cells exhibit less neuronal convergence than rod cells do is part of the reason that ___.
the efflux of K+
The falling phase of an action potential results from
calcium ions enter the synaptic knob
The first event that occurs when a nerve signal reaches a synaptic knob is
solitary nucleus in the medulla oblongata
The first-order neurons of taste project to the ___.
(1) level of consciousness (LOC), (2) pattern of breathing, (3) size and reactivity of pupils, (4) eye position and reflexive response, and (5) skeletal muscle motor responses
The five categories that are critical for the evaluation process for neurologic function include
C. Somatic motor neurons that connect the CNS to the digestive tract
The nerve plexuses of the enteric nervous system receive contributions from all of the following except A. Enteric neurons of the enteric plexuses / B. ANS neurons that connect the CNS to the digestive tract / C. Somatic motor neurons that connect the CNS to the digestive tract / D. Sensory neurons that connect the digestive tract to the CNS
Cauda equina
The nerves arising from the inferior lumbosacral enlargement form the
the prosencephalon (forebrain), mesencephalon (midbrain), and rhombencephalon (hindbrain)
The neural tube develops constrictions that divide into which three primary brain vesicles?
neural folds
The neural tube is formed by fusion of the
d. nerve signals pass from neuron to neuron over junctions called synapses
The neuron doctrine refers to the fact that a. action potentials are all or none b. neurons do not fire unless they reach threshold c. neurons are organized into functional groups called neuronal pools d. nerve signals pass from neuron to neuron over junctions called synapses e. once4 an action potentials begins it cannot be stopped
ectoderm; mesoderm
The neurons and all glial cells except microglia are derived from ___; the microglia are derived from ____.
central nervous system; form the myelin sheath
The oligodendrocyte is found in the ___ and functions to
If the UMN lesion is above the pyramids, what is affected?
The opposite side.
optic chiasma
The optic nerve becomes the optic tract when it reaches the
dura mater; dura sinuses
The outer double meningeal layer around the brain is called the ___, and in some places the two layers are separated by ___.
axon
The part of a neuron that conducts impulses away from its cell body.
Visible light
The part of the electromagnetic spectrum that can be detected by the human eye is
absolute refractory period
The period after an initial stimulus when a neuron is not sensitive to another stimulus.
What do the superior colliculi ad inferior colliculi do?
Superior colliculi control reflex eye movements = Visual startle reflex. Inferior colliculi control reflex reactions to sound = Auditory startle reflex.
semicircular ducts
Suppose you were sitting in a rotating chair in a hair salon with your eyes closed, and the chair was rotated. You could sense this by means of your ___.
What controls the timing of the sleep-wake cycle and coordinates this cycle with the circadian rhythm?
Suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN)
What are supratentorial disorders?
Supratentorial disorders are disorders above the tentorial plate.
b (Medulla oblongata)
Swallowing and gag reflexes
Organs in the thoracic cavity
Sympathetic postganglionic nerves that form sympathetic nerves supply
Skeletal muscle B. Smooth muscle and glands in the skin
Sympathetic postganglionic nerves that run with spinal nerves will serve
What kind of pain occurs after peripheral nerve injury and is characterized as severe continuous burning
Sympathetically maintained pain
TRUE
T/F: A postsynaptic potential is a graded potential that is the result of a neurotransmitter released into the synapse between two neurons.
TRUE
T/F: A stimulus traveling toward a synapse appears to open calcium ion channels at the presynaptic end, which in turn promotes fusion of synaptic vesicles to the axonal membrane.
TRUE
T/F: Cell bodies of sensory neurons may be located in ganglia lying outside the central nervous system.
TRUE
T/F: During depolarization, the inside of the neuron's membrane becomes less negative.
TRUE
T/F: Efferent nerve fibers may be described as motor nerve fibers.
TRUE
T/F: Enkephalins and endorphins are peptides that act like morphine.
TRUE
T/F: If bacteria invaded the CNS tissue, microglia would migrate to the area to engulf and destroy them.
TRUE
T/F: In myelinated axons the voltage-regulated sodium channels are concentrated at the nodes of Ranvier.
TRUE
T/F: Large-diameter nerve fibers conduct impulses much faster than small-diameter fibers.
TRUE
T/F: Myelination of the nerve fibers in the central nervous system is the job of the oligodendrocyte.
TRUE
T/F: Neurons in the CNS are organized into functional groups.
TRUE
T/F: Reflexes are rapid, automatic responses to stimuli.
FALSE
T/F: Strong stimuli cause the amplitude of action potentials generated to increase.
FALSE
T/F: The all-or-none phenomenon is applied to nerve conduction states that the whole nerve cell must be stimulated for conduction to take place.
FALSE
T/F: The nodes of Ranvier are found only on myelinated, peripheral neuron processes.
TRUE
T/F: The oligodendrocytes can myelinate several axons.
TRUE
T/F: Unipolar neurons have axons structurally divided into peripheral and central processes.
Referred pain from upper abdominal disease involves:
T8, L1, and L2
circumvallate
Taste buds are found on all the lingual papillae except the ___ type.
spicy
Taste cells produce all of the following sensations except
lacrimal glands
Tears are produced by the ___.
Apnea
Temporaray suspension of breathing
Mild concussion
Temporary axonal disturbances without the loss of consciousness in response to a violent blow, jarring, shaking, or other closed head injury.
lamellated corpuscles
The receptors for deep pressure in the dermis and subcutaneous tissue are ___.
microvilli on the epithelial cells
The receptors for taste are located on the ___.
hair receptors
The receptors most likely to detect an ant crawling on your back are ___.
Central Sensitization
The reduction of pain threshold mediated by the activity of NMDA receptors.
cannot be fired again regardless of the stimulus
The refractory period represents the time period when a region of the axon
b. the neurilemma and endoneurium
The regeneration tube of a peripheral nerve fiber consists of a. the axolemma and neurilemma b. the neurilemma and endoneurium c. the myelin sheath and neurilemma d. schwann cells and astrocytes e. satellite cells and oligodendrocytes
premotor cortex
The region controlling learned motor skills.
true
The repetitive muscle contractions of walking are controlled by neuronal pools in the spinal cord
Behind the retina
The result of hyperopia is an image focused
What system of the brain is usually damaged in infratentorial disorders?
The reticular activating system and/or its pathways, or the entire brainstem.
diencephalon
The retinas originate as outgrowths of the ___.
corpus callosum
The right and left cerebral hemispheres are joined mainly by the
a. corpus callosum
The right and left cerebral hemispheres are joined mainly by the a. corpus callosum b. thalamus c. pons d. decussation e. association tracts
Convergence
The rotation of the eyes medially to view a close object is called
true
The sacral segments of the spinal cord are not found within the sacral vertebrae
Sacral
The sciatic nerve comes from the _________ plexus.
cerebellum; coordinate skeleltal muscles. *
The second-largest region of the brain is the ___, whose function is to
endolymph
The semicircular ducts are filled with
the membranous labyrinth
The semicircular ducts lie within
tectorial membrane
The sensory cells of hearing are stimulated by the ___ resting on their stereocilia.
ipsilateral
To describe a reflex arc as ___ means that its receptors and effectors are on the same side of the body
Herniation
To protrude abnormally from an enclosed cavity
tactile (Merkel) discs; Ruffini corpuscles
Tonic receptors for light touch, textures, edges, and shapes are ___, and tonic receptors for heavy touch, pressure, stretching of the skin and joint movements are ___.
Sympathetic nervous stimulation is likely to result in decreased renal blood flow. True False
True
True or False: The combination of antidepressants and psychotherapy works the best for treatment of mood disorders?
True
Extramedullary tumors
Tumor originating from tissues outside the spinal cord including the meninges, epidura tissue or vertebral structures
Intramedullary tumors
Tumor originating within neural tissue
facial (VII) and glossopharyngeal (IX)
Two cranial nerves involved in taste are
c. the thoracic region
The ventral rami of the spinal nerves form nerve plexuses in all regions except a. the cervical region b. the brachial region c. the thoracic region d. the lumbar region e. the sacral region
motor; sensory
The ventral root carries ___ neurons, while the dorsal roots carries ___ neurons.
What are Ependymal cell?
The ventricles of the brain and the central canal of the spinal cord are lined with ependymal cells. Their functions are: 1. Producing the central spinal fluid (CSF). 2. As sensory functions, such as monitoring the composition of the CSF.
cerebrospinal fluid
The ventricles of the brain are filled with a fluid called
Occipital
The visual cortex is located in the _______ lobe.
arbor vitae
The white matter of the cerebellum constitutes its ___.
Arbor vitae
The white matter of the cerebellum is called the
Cerebral medulla
The white matter of the cerebrum is the
What happens when mom has Rubella when she is pregnant?
Then the baby is placed at risk for congenital problems
ependymal cells and astrocytes
There are two barrier systems to the blood supply of the brain: the blood-brain barrier (BBB) and the blood-CSF barrier. Two glial cells that are critical to the formation of these barriers are
What are seizures?
They are unpredictable explosion of intermittent nervous system firing (of neurons)—uncontrollable
enkephalins
This chemical is released by injured tissues and is the most potent pain stimulus known.
vestibulocochlear (VIII)
This cranial nerve controls hearing and equilibrium
Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
This disease is marked by degeneration of motor neurons, and in most cases, neurons are destroyed by the inability of astrocytes to reabsorb glutamate, which allows this neurotransmitter to reach toxic levels.
Dysmnesia is a disorder of the declarative memory network.
This disorder is a loss of past memories with an inability to form new memories.
spina bifida
This is a congenital defect resulting from the failure of one or more vertebrae to form a complete vertebral arch for enclosure of the spinal cord.
What are manifestations of an infratentorial mass of destruction that could cause a coma?
Vomiting, headache, hemiparesis, ocular signs, seizures, coma. Rostal to Caudal Dysfunction progression.
Vomiting, yawning, and hiccups are complex reflex-like motor responses integrated by what and from where?
Vomiting, yawning, and hiccups are complex reflex-like motor responses integrated by neural mechanisms in the lower brain stem.
sodium ions diffuse into the outer segment
When light is absorbed by a rod cell ___.
cauda equina
What is a bundle of nerve roots within vertebrae L2-S5 which innervate the pelvic organs and legs?
Nerve impulse
What is a change in the difference in positive and negative ions on the outer and inner surfaces of the neuron membrane? A change that opens adjacent channels and propagates its flow?
an automatic, involuntary response
What is a reflex action?
myelin sheath
What is a whitish, fatty, segmented covering that protects, insulates, and increases conduction velocity of axons?
spinal reflexes
What is an example of serial processing?
stimulus intensity
What is coded in the frequency of action potentials?
current
What is dependent on voltage and resistance?
Cochlear duct
What is found between the vestibular membrane and the basilar membrane of the cochlea?
Cerebrospinal fluid
What is found in the subarachnoid space?
Vitreous humor
What is found in the vitreous chamber of the eye?
resting membrane potential
What is generated by differences in ionic makeup of intracellular and extracellular fluids, and differential membrane permeability to solutes?
neurotransmitters
What is one of the ways neurons communicate?
neuron cell membrane
What is polarized, being more negatively charged inside than outside?
synaptic delay
What is related to the period of time required for release and binding of neurotransmitters?
the refractory period of an axon
What is related to the period of time required so that a neuron can generate another action potential?
Na+ gates opening; K+ gates opening; Na+ gates closing
What is the correct sequence of voltage-regulated gates opening and closing in an action potential?
carry impulses toward a cell body
What is the function of dendrites?
Killing bacteria
What is the function of lysozyme in the eyes?
Equalizes pressure on tympanic membrane in the middle ear
What is the function of the auditory tube?
Constriction of airways
What is the function of the parasympathetic division?
Stops the sound waves from reflecting back toward the cochlear canal
What is the function of the round window?
Dilate the pupil
What is the function of the sympathetic division?
generates and conducts nerve impulses away from the cell body to the axon terminal
What is the purpose of the single axon of neurons?
destroy ACh a brief period after its release by the axon endings
What is the role of acetylcholinesterase?
ATP-dependent "motor" proteins such as kinesin, dynesin, and myosin.
What mechanism is responsible for axon transport?
Mandibular branch of the trigeminal nerve
What nerve is generally used for dental anesthesia of the lower jaw?
neuromodulation
What occurs when a neurotransmitter acts via slow changes in target cell metabolism, or when chemicals other than neurotransmitter modify neuronal activity?
a single type of channel will open, permitting simultaneous flow of sodium and potassium
What occurs when an excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP) is being generated on the dendritic membrane?
motor neuron
What part of a simple reflex takes the message away from the CNS?
Habenular
What part of the diencephalon is involved with emotional and visceral responses to odors?
Mammillary bodies
What part of the hypothalamus are involved in emotional responses to odors, olfactory reflexes and memory?
Choroid plexuses
What produces cerebrospinal fluid?
an enhanced release of neurotransmitter
What results after synaptic potentiation occurs?
synaptic potentiation
What results when a presynaptic cell is stimulated repeatedly or continuously?
presynaptic inhibition
What results when another neuron inhibits the release of excitatory neurotransmitter from a presynaptic cell?
Cerebral aqueduct
What structure connects the third and fourth ventricles?
Ampulla of the semicircular canals
What structure is associated with dynamic balance?
Reticular activating system
What structure plays a major role in consciousness and sleep-wake cycles?
Lacrimal apparatus
What structure produces tears?
Central
What structure separates the frontal from the parietal lobe?
Tympanic membrane
What structure separates the outer ear from the middle ear?
Filum terminale and denticulate ligaments
What structures help to anchor the spinal cord within the subarachnoid space?
Limbic system
What system is involved in basic survival functions and emotions?
peripheral nervous system
What system is outside the central nervous system?
Beta
What type of brain waves are observed when a person is mentally very active?
Projection fibers
What type of fibers are continuations of the fibers in the spinal cord?
Commissural fibers
What type of fibers connect one hemisphere to the other?
Free nerve endings
What type of general sense receptors are the simplest and most common?
Sensory memory
What type of memory lasts for less than a second while the brain is receiving and evaluating input?
Nociceptors
What type of receptors respond to painful stimuli?
Thermoreceptors
What type of receptors respond to temperature changes?
Somatic general senses
What type of senses are found in the skin, muscles and joints?
REM (rapid eye movement) sleep
What type of sleep allows the brain to analyze events or eliminate meaningless information?
NREM (non-rapid eye movement) sleep
What type of sleep is considered restorative?
Retinal
What visual pigment is found combined with opsin in cones?
axons
When a finger or other appendage is severed in an accident, it is possible to surgically rejoin most tissues (bone, skin, etc.) and most will grow back together. However, in a cut through an appendage nerve, it is currently more difficult to reconnect what are primarily severed
Voltage-regulated Na+ gates open
When a neuron is depolarized to threshold,
Vegetative State (VS)
When a person loses cerebral function. The reticular activating system and brain stem maintains a crude waking state.
true
When a pregnant woman takes folic acid she decreases the chance that her baby will have spina bifida
generator potential
When a sensory neuron is excited by some form of energy, the resulting graded potential is called a(n) ___.
potassium
When a tip link opens the ion channel on a cochlear stereo-cilium, ___ ions rapidly enter and depolarize the hair cell.
Posthyperventilation Apnea
When consciousness decreases, lower brain stem centers regulate the breathing pattern by responding only to changes in PaCO2 levels.
parallel processing
When information is delivered within the CNS simultaneously by different parts of the neural pathway.
temporal
When one or more presynaptic neurons fire in rapid order it produces a much greater depolarization of the postsynaptic membrane than would result from a single EPSP; this event is called ___ summation.
What is a herniated/slipped disk?
When the nucleus polpus goes through the annulus fibrosis due to torn fibers, caused by trauma, aging, lifting, slipping, falling.
tympanic membrane
When the stapes pushes in an creates pressure on the endolymph, the __ bulges out to relieve the pressure.
What is the main compensation for volume change in the brain?
When volume increases in 1 compartment, it decreases in the other. If this does not occur, pressure increases.
accommodation
When you view objects close to the eye, the eye makes an adjustment called ___.
Arachnoid granulations into the dural sinuses
Where does cerebrospinal fluid return to the blood supply?
threshold
Whether or not a neuron fires depends on whether it is depolarized to a voltage called its
Eyebrows
Which accessory structure of the eyes protect the eyes by preventing perspiration from getting into the eyes?
axons with larger diameters
Which axons conduct impulses faster: axons with larger diameters, or axons with smaller diameters?
unmyelinated axons
Which axons conduct impulses relatively slowly?
myelinated axons
Which axons have a high conduction velocity?
Scala vestibuli
Which cochlear chamber is connected to the oval window into the middle ear?
Wernicke's area
Which cortical area is necessary for understanding and formulating coherent speech?
A. Trigeminal
Which cranial nerve is NOT involved with taste? A. Trigeminal / B. Glossopharyngeal / C. Vagus / D. Facial
Facial
Which cranial nerve is the major motor nerve for facial expressions?
Trigeminal
Which cranial nerve is the major sensory nerve from the face?
Vagus
Which cranial nerve leaves the head and neck region to supply the internal viscera?
vestibulocochlear
Which cranial nerves carries equilibrium messages?
Reticulospinal
Which descending tract carries impulses for posture adjustment and walking?
Sympathetic
Which division of the ANS has a more generalized effect in the body?
motor (efferent)
Which division of the peripheral nervous system carries impulses from the central nervous system to effector organs, which are muscles and glands?
sensory (or afferent)
Which division of the peripheral nervous system carries impulses toward the central nervous system from sensory receptors located throughout the body?
Myopia
Which eye disorder results in clear vision of close objects and blurry vision of distant objects?
interneurons (association neurons)
Which functional class of neuron conduct impulses between sensory and motor neurons, or in CNS integration pathways?
motor (efferent)
Which functional class of neuron conduct impulses from the CNS to effectors?
sensory (afferent)
Which functional class of neuron conduct impulses toward the CNS from receptors?
B. sensory neuron-delivers signals to control sensory organs such as eye movement
Which is NOT a correct association of structure and function? A. axons-outgoing signals B. sensory neuron-delivers signals to control sensory organs such as eye movement C. cell body-nucleus and organelles D. interneuron- sums up input before sending signals to muscle or gland
cerebellum
Which is most concerned with motor coordination and equilibrium?
occipital lobe
Which lobe of the cerebrum is most concerned with vision?
somatic
Which nerve fibers innervate the skin and skeletal muscles?
somatic nervous system
Which nervous system allows conscious control of motor activities?
somatic nervous system
Which nervous system consists of somatic nerve fibers that conduct impulses from the CNS to skeletal muscles?
autonomic nervous system
Which nervous system consists of visceral motor nerve fibers that regulate the activity of smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glands?
autonomic nervous system
Which nervous system is an involuntary system?
score of 3 to 8
Which of the following BEST describes a severe TBI in terms of the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)? .score of 13 to 15 .score of 12 to 13 . score of 9 to 12 . score of 3 to 8
e. vestibulocochlear
Which of the following cranial nerves carries equilibrium messages a. facial b. abducens c. trigeminal d. glossopharyngeal e. vestibulocochlear
B. Hypoglossal nerve
Which of the following cranial nerves does NOT carry taste impulses to the brain? A. Facial nerve / B. Hypoglossal nerve / C. Glossopharyngeal nerve / D. Vagus nerve
A. Vestibulospinal
Which of the following descending tracts is NOT a direct pathway to muscles for conscious, skilled movements? A. Vestibulospinal / B. Anterior corticospinal / C. Corticobulbar / D. Lateral corticospinal
D. CNS - always excitatory; ANS - always inhibitory
Which of the following differences between the central nervous system and the autonomic nervous system is incorrect? A. CNS - one neuron to effector; ANS - two neurons to effector / B. CNS - innervates skeletal muscle; ANS - innervates smooth and cardiac muscles and glands / C. CNS - axons myelinated; ANS - preganglionic axons myelinated, postganglionic axons unmyelinated / D. CNS - always excitatory; ANS - always inhibitory
C. All sympathetic postganglionic neurons
Which of the following does NOT release acetylcholine? A. All sympathetic preganglionic neurons / B. All parasympathetic preganglionic neurons / C. All sympathetic postganglionic neurons / D. All parasympathetic postganglionic neurons
e. cell walls
Which of the following does not pertain to neurons? A. sodium pumps B. Schwann cells C. myelin D. nodes of Ranvier E. cell walls
D. Blood vessels
Which of the following effectors are NOT cholinergic? A. Sweat glands / B. Heart / C. Large intestines / D. Blood vessels
C. Mammillary bodies
Which of the following is NOT a basal nucleus? A. Substantia nigra / B. Caudate nucleus / C. Mammillary bodies / D. Lentiform nucleus
B. Vascular
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the cornea? A. Transparent / B. Vascular / C. Refracts light / D. Allows light to enter the eye
e. nucleic acid
Which of the following is NOT a chemical class of neurotransmitters? a. acetylcholine b. amino acid c. biogenic amine d. ATP and other purines e. nucleic acid
Pleuritic
Which of the following is NOT a classification of acute pain? A.Acute visceral B.Pleuritic C.Referred D.Acute somatic
unresponsive come
Which of the following is NOT a criterion when determining brain death? A.Unresponsive coma B. No spontaneous respiration C.Isoelectric EEG D.Ocular response to head turning
E. provide the defense for the CNS
Which of the following is NOT a function of astrocytes? A. support and brace neurons B. anchor neurons to blood vessels C. guide the migration of young neurons, synapse formation, and helping to determine capillary permeability D. control the chemical environment around neurons E. provide the defense for the CNS
D. innervation of skeletal muscle
Which of the following is NOT a function of the autonomic nervous system? a. innervation of smooth muscle of the digestive tract b. innervation of cardiac muscle c. innervation of glands d. innervation of skeletal muscle
C. Origin of impulses to skeletal muscle
Which of the following is NOT a function of the cerebellum? A. Controls balance and eye movements / B. Controls posture, locomotion and fine motor coordination / C. Origin of impulses to skeletal muscle / D. Planning, practicing and learning complex movements
D. All of the choices are correct
Which of the following is NOT a function of the hypothalamus? A. Body temperature control / B. Autonomic nervous system control / C. Mood and emotions / D. All of the choices are correct
B. Auditory relay center
Which of the following is NOT a function of the medulla oblongata? A. Regulate heart rate / B. Auditory relay center / C. Regulate blood vessel diameter /D. Regulate breathing
D. Visual relay center
Which of the following is NOT a function of the pons? A. Controls chewing and salivation / B. Aides the medulla oblongata in controlling breathing, swallowing and balance / C. Relay between the cerebellum and cerebrum / D. Visual relay center
D. Control of the autonomic nervous system
Which of the following is NOT a function of the thalamus? A. Regulation of skeletal muscles / B. Limbic system and emotions / C. Perception of pain / D. Control of the autonomic nervous system
B. Phrenic
Which of the following is NOT a main nerve of the brachial plexus? A. Median, B. Phrenic, C. Musculocutaneous, D. Ulnar, E. Radial
c. they are mitotic
Which of the following is NOT a special characteristic of neurons? A. they conduct impulses B. they have extreme longevity C. they are mitotic D. they have an exceptionally high metabolic rate
C. Increased secretions in the digestive tract
Which of the following is NOT a typical "flight or fight" response by the sympathetic division of the ANS? A. Vasoconstriction of abdominal blood vessels / B. Dilation of air passageways / C. Increased secretions in the digestive tract / D. Increased fat break down for energy
B. Cochlea
Which of the following is NOT an auditory ossicle? A. Incus, B. Cochlea, C. Stapes, D. Malleus
A. Thalamus
Which of the following is NOT part of the brainstem? A. Thalamus / B. Pons / C. Medulla oblongata / D. Midbrain
B. Midbrain
Which of the following is NOT part of the diencephalon? A. Hypothalamus / B. Midbrain / C. Thalamus / D. Subthalamus
B. Pigment cells
Which of the following is NOT part of the neural layer of the retina? A. Bipolar neurons / B. Pigment cells / C. Photoreceptors / D. Ganglionic neurons
D. It decreases the speed of nerve impulse conduction
Which of the following is NOT true about the myelin sheath? A. It is composed of layers of cellular membrane containing myelin around nerve fibers. B. It gives nerve fibers their white glistening appearance. C. It provides a pathway for new fiber growth if the axon is severed. D. It decreases the speed of nerve impulse conduction E. It is formed from Schwann cells.
edema occurs in the gray matter
Which of the following is NOT true regarding a secondary spinal cord injury? .Secondary injury of the cord begins within a few minutes after injury. .Edema occurs in the gray matter. .Microscopic hemorrhages appear in the central gray matter. .Oxygen tension in the tissue at the injury site is decreased
Which cranial nerves does the midbrain responsible for?
Gives rise to cranial nerves III-oculomotor nerve, and IV-trochlear nerve , controlling eye movement (III exits from front of mid brain, IV from back of mid brain, their nuclei are in the midbrain).
Intraocular pressures above the normal range of 12 to 20 mmgm.
Glaucoma
ependymal cells
Glia cells which resemble a cuboidal epithelium without the basement membrane and produce cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) are called
ependymal cells
Glial cells of the CNS that line the central cavities of the brain and spinal cord and help circulate cerebrospinal fluid.
microglia
Glial cells of the CNS that monitor health and perform defense functions for neurons.
astrocytes
Glial cells of the CNS that regulate the chemical environment around neurons and exchange between neurons and capillaries.
oligodendrocytes
Glial cells of the CNS that wrap around neuron fibers, forming myelin sheaths.
schwann cells (neurolemmocytes)
Glial cells of the PNS that surround nerve fibers, forming the myelin sheath.
satellite cells
Glial cells of the PNS whose function is largely unknown. They are found surrounding neuron cell bodies within ganglia.
What is glutamate's normal pathway?
Glutamate + NMDA receptors open Ca2+ channels --> Na+ and Ca2+ enter cells, K+ exits --> generation of AP
AMPA receptors
Glutamate receptors that active quickly to tranmit sensory information.
excitatory neurotransmitters
Glutamate, aspartate, and amino acid precursors
from 20 to 20,000 Hz
Humans can hear sounds ranging in frequency from ___ to ___.
Farsightedness
Hyperopia
Convex lens
Hyperopia can be corrected with
Neurofibrillary tangles
Hyperphosphorylation of the tau protein causes proteins to aggregate within neurons (Alzheimer disease)
IPSP
Hyperpolarization of a dendrite by a neurotransmitter
Excessive daytime sleepiness associated with voluntary sleep deprivation.
Hypersomnia
Hemorrhagic stroke (intracranial hemorrhage)
Hypertension or ruptured aneurysms that result in bleeding in the brain, typically increases intracranial pressure and may lead to death.
Decreased taste sensation
Hypogeusia
Impaired sense of smell
Hyposmia
What can cause acidosis to develop?
Hypotermia
What controls body temperature?
Hypothalamus
What slows chemical reactions, increases blood viscosity, slows blood flow, and stimulates vasoconstriction?
Hypothermia
Is the brain tolerate to ischemia or hypoxia?
Hypoxia
What are some metabolic alterations in arousal?
Hypoxia, electrolyte inbalances, hypoglycemia, drugs, and toxins.
the impulse would spread bidirectionally
If a motor neuron in the body were stimulated by an electrode placed about midpoint along the length of an axon...
the stimulus was stronger
If a nerve fiber is firing 300 times per second at time A and 500 times per second at time B, it probably means that at time B
true
If a neuron becomes hyperpolarized it is less likely to fire
c. it is a sensory pathway
If the name of a spinal tract begins with the root spino- a. it consists of descending fibers b. it is a motor pathway c. it is a sensory pathway d its fibers do not extend beyond the spinal cord e it fibers form a spinal nerve
Which type of hematoma is inside the brain tissue?
Intracerebral
Ependymoma
Intracranial tumor that is most commonly found in children and typically arises from the inner lining of the fourth ventricle and the spinal canal.
Fasciculation
Involuntary muscular twitching
diverging circuit
Involved in activating fibers of a skeletal muscle such as the biceps muscle.
reverberating circuit
Involved in control of rhythmic activities such as breathing.
Brain death (brainstem death)
Irreversible brain damage- individual is unresponsive to all stimuli and lacking in muscle activity such as that required for respiration and heart activity.
Cerebral death
Irreversible brain damage- individual is unresponsive to all stimuli but able to maintain the necessary respiratory and cardiovascular functions of life.
Sclera
Is part of the fibrous tunic of the eye
What will severe ischemia and hypoxia do to pupils?
Ischemia and hypoxia usually produces dilated, fixed pupils.
Which type of stroke is most common?
Ischemic (interruption of blood flow in cerebral vessels)
One preganglionic neuron synapses with many postganglionic neurons; The secretion of epinephrine and norepinephrine can effect many organs
Why does the sympathetic division of the ANS have a more generalized effect in the body?
true
Within one tract of the spinal cord all nerve fibers have the same function
OCD is
a chronic illness that requires long-term treatment consisting of CBT and drug medication, such as SSRIs
Treatment of GAD usually involves
a combination of behavioral therapy and drug medications, especially serotonin/norepinephrine reuptake blockers
nerve
a cordlike organ consisting of parallel bundles of peripheral axons enclosed by connective tissue wrappings
What are the main neurotransmitters for the autonomic nervous system?
acetylcholine and the catecholamines, epinephrine and norepinephrine, which control neural function by selectively causing excitation or inhibition of action potentials.
how is Acetylcholine removed?
acetylcholine removed from synapse by acetylcholinesterase
d. substance p
Long term memories occur when there are more of these receptors a. NMDA b. dopamine c. acetylcholine d. substance p e. nicotine
Describe what happens when ATP is lost.
Loss of ATP --> loss of Na+K+pump --> Na+ and water enter cell --> swelling of neurons; Ca2+ enters cells --> excessive stimulation and release of enzymes --> destruction of proteins and DNA --> cell death
Confusion
Loss of ability to think rapidly and clearly; impaired judgement and decision making.
Confusion
Loss of ability to think rapidly and clearly; impaired judgment and decision making.
How does Parkinson's affect dopamine and acetylcholine?
Loss of dopamine, increases acetylcholine action
Paraplegia
Loss of lower extremity motor function on both sides
Amensia
Loss of memory, may e mild or severe.
Quadriplegia
Loss of motor function in all four extremities
What are the symptoms of anterior cord syndrome?
Loss of motor function, pain and temperature sensation.
Retrograde amnesia
Loss of past memories
Dysmnesia
Loss of past memories and inability to form new memories
Retrograde amnesia
Loss of past personal history memories or past factual memories.
What are the symptoms of Brown Sequard syndrome?
Loss of same side motor function, same side vibration and position, opposite side pain and temperature sensation
Hemiplegia
Loss of upper and lower extremity motor function on one side
Paralysis
Loss of voluntary muscle function
Flaccid paralysis
Loss of voluntary muscle movement
What is mania?
Lot's of energy.
undergo mitosis
Mature neurons lack centrioles. You would expect these neurons to be unable to
parallel after-discharge circuits
May be involved in complex activities, and are characterized by stimulation of several neurons arranged in parallel arrays by the stimulating neuron.
parallel after-discharge circuit
May be involved in complex, exacting types of metal processing.
Selective Attention Deficit
May be temporary, permanent, or progressive. An isolated Selective Attention Deficit rarely occurs clinically.
presynaptic inhibition
May prevent a neuron from releasing it neurotransmitter
Central neurogenic hyperventilation injury
May result from CNS damage or disease that involves midbrain and upper pons; seen after increased intracranial pressure and blunt head trauma.
Metabolic induced altered arousal manifestations are typically _____, while strutually induced altered arousal manifestations are typically ______.
Metabolic induced altered arousal manifestations are typically symmetric, while strutually induced altered arousal manifestations are typically asymmetric.
Characteristics of Dementia
Memory impairment with 1+ of: aphasia, apraxia, agnosia, impaired social or occupational function. Gradual onset with continuing decline.
Babinski sign abormalities
Metabolic: Absent/symmetric response Structure: Present
Vestibular disorder caused by proprioceptive dysfunction. May b unable to walk or stand. Affects cochlear function, hense equilibrium.
Meniere disease
A patient LoC is altered from a metabolic imbalance. His pupils will be:
Metabolic imbalances often creates small, reactive and regular pupils.
Pupils, cranial nerves II, III abnormalities
Metabolic: Equal and reactive, may by dilated, pinpoint, midpositioned and/or fixed. Structure: Asymmetric/nonreactive. May be midpositioned.
Optic Discs, cranial nerves II abnormalities
Metabolic: Flat, good pulsation. Structural: Papilledema.
Extraocular movements, cranial nerves III, IV, VI abnormalities
Metabolic: Roving eye movements, normal doll's eyes/calorics. Structural: Gaze paresis, nerve palsy.
Corneal reflex, cranial nerves V, VII abnormalities
Metabolic: Symmetric Structure: Asymmetric
Deep tendon Reflexes
Metabolic: Symmetric Structure: Asymmetric
Grimace to pain, cranial nerve VII
Metabolic: Symmetric Structure: Asymmetric
Motor function movement abnormaities
Metabolic: Symmetric Structure: Asymmetric
Sensation abnormalities
Metabolic: Symmetric Structure: Asymmetric
Posture abnormalities
Metabolic: Symmetric Structure: Decorticate or decerebrate, symmetric.
Muscle tone abnormalities
Metabolic: Symmetric Structure: Paratonic, spastic, flaccid, especially asymmetric
Affective flattening
Near absence of emotional or facial expression
What are two types of alterations associated with Schizophrenia?
Neuroanatomic and Neurotransmitter alterations.
25. Regarding light, wavelength corresponds with the ______ and amplitude corresponds with the ______. A. hue; brightness B. brightness; hue C. hue; saturation D. brightness; saturation
A
27. Rods and cones are located in the _____. A. retina B. lens C. cornea D. occipital lobe
A
3. As you walk barefoot in the park, your nose conveys to your brain the smell of the freshly cut grass, your skin sends information about the feel of the gentle breeze, and your ears transmit the sound of children laughing on the playground to your auditory cortex. This process of acquiring "raw data" about the stimuli in the environment is called _____. A. sensation B. selective attention C. sensory adaptation D. cognition
A
30. The major purpose of the sclera is to _____. A. help maintain the shape of the eye and protect it from injury B. control the size of the pupil C. focus light on the retina D. record what we see and convert it to neural impulses for processing in the brain
A
32. ____ are chemical substances that carry information across the synaptic gap to the next neuron. A. Neurotransmitters B. Axons C. Synapses D. Dendrites
A
34. Jane is having trouble sleeping. As she sits in bed looking around the darkened room, she notices that her peripheral vision seems to be better than her central vision. This is because vision in low light conditions _____. A. depends on the rods B. depends on the cones C. doesn't require the use of the pupil D. doesn't require the retina
A
35. Acetylcholine is a neurotransmitter that plays an important role in ______. A. motor function, learning, and memory B. sexual function C. mood regulation D. All of these
A
39. Which of the following neurotransmitters plays an important role in the experience of love and social bonding? A. Oxytocin B. Acetycholine C. GABA D. Norepinephrine
A
alzheimer disease
Neurofibrillary tangles and the destruction of parts of the hippocampus are characteristic of __________
4. The process of ______ involves organizing and interpreting incoming sensory information. A. perception B. sensation C. transduction D. inhibition
A
Dopamine
Neurotransmitter in the brain that regulates movement and emotion including reward-driven learning
How is a neurotransmitter removed?
Neurotransmitter is removed from synapse by reuptake or degraded by enzymes
How does the cerebrospinal fluid pass throught to return to the heart?
Passes through arachnoid villi into blood in the dural sinuses and is returned to the heart
41. An ____ is a drug that mimics or increases a neurotransmitter's effects. An ____ is a drug that blocks a neurotransmitter's effect. A. agonist / antagonist B. antagonist / agonist C. axon / endorphin D. endorphin / axon
A
42. The antidepressant drug Prozac works by increasing brain levels of serotonin. This means that Prozac is considered _____. A. an agonist B. an antagonist C. a hormone stimulant D. All of these
A
43. The purpose of parallel processing is to _____. A. allow sensory information to travel rapidly through the brain B. allow rods and cones to function simultaneously C. prevent the misinterpretation of colors D. use binocular cues to perceive depth
A
46. Electrical activity in the brain can be captured by placing multiple electrodes on the scalp and then measuring the underlying electrical activity. This method of studying the brain's activity is called a(n)_____. A. electroencephalogram (EEG) B. positron emission tomography (PET) C. magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) D. functional MRI (fMRI)
A
49. Depth perception involves ______. A. perceiving three dimensions B. seeing in three colors C. the pinna D. the papillae
A
52. The medulla, cerebellum, and pons are parts of the _____. A. hindbrain B. midbrain C. forebrain D. corpus callosum
A
third order neurons
carry information to the sensory cortex and reticular and limbic systems for pain processing and interpretation
normal brain functions
results from continuous electrical activity of neurons
parkinson's disease
results from deterioration of dopamine-secreting neurons of the substantia nigra, and leads to a loss in coordination of movement and a persistent tremor
Deafferentiation pain
results from tumor infiltration of nerve tissue; trauma, or chemical injury to the nerve
controls the emotional and affective response to pain
reticular formation and limbic system
The clinical effects of drugs used in the treatment of mood disorders often take
several weeks to develop.
Which neurotransmitter is for most postganglionic sympathetic neurons?
catecholamine
What basal ganglia structures does the forebrain contain?
caudate nucleus, putamen, globus pallidus
central pain
caused by a lesion or dysfunction in the CNS (brain or spinal cord).
learning
causes changes in neuronal RNA, dendritic branching, deposition of unique proteins at LTM synapses, increase of presynaptic terminals, increase of neurotransmitter, and development of new neurons in the hippocampus.
Tumors of the pelvis tend to metastasize to the
cerebellum and pons
What is a Static encephalopathy?
cerebral palsy.
what does the mesencehalon (midbrain) consist of?
cerebral peduncles, cerebral aqueduct, colliculi.
What does the prosencephalon (forebrain) consist of?
cerebrum, thalamus, hypothalamus.
cerebellar peduncles
communicate between the cerebellum and the brain stem
afferent system
composed of nociceptors, A and C fibers (first-order neurons), the dorsal horn of the spinal column (second-order neurons), and afferent neurons in the spinothalamic tract (third-order neurons)
midbrain
comprised of the cerebral peduncles, corpora quadrigemina, and substantia nigra
Functional alterations in the dorsolateral prefrontal cortex, such as reduced blood flow and metabolism,
compromise the ability to engage in goal-directed and cognitive problem-solving behavior
Grade III is
confusion and retrograde amnesia present from impact.
encapsulated dendritic endings
consist of a dendrite enclosed in a connective tissue capsule and detect discriminatory touch, initial, continuous, and deep pressure, and stretch of muscles, tendons, and joint capsules
basal nuclei
consist of a group of subcortical nuclei, which play a role in motor control and regulating attention and cognition.
functional brain systems
consist of neurons that are distributed throughout the brain but work together
What do alpha one receptors do?
constrict blood vessels
What symptoms does a stroke affecting the middle cerebral artery cause?
contralateral hemiplegia, sensory loss, aphasia
lumbar plexuses
contribute to the sacral plexus via the lumbosacral trunk
anterior and posterior lobes
coordinate body movements
gate control theory of pain
describes the modulation of pain in the dorsal horn of the spinal cord by sensory afferent stimulation and central descending impulses that influence the "pain gate" within the substantia gelatinosa of the spinal cord
nociceptors
detect a wide range of stimuli and respond to chemical, mechanical, and thermal stimulation
Grade IV involves
diffuse cerebral disconnection from the brainstem. There is immediate loss of consciousness, which lasts less than 6 hours
ALS is a degenerative disorder
diffusely involving lower and upper motor neurons resulting in progressive muscle weakness.
Vomiting with no associated nausea indicates
direct involvement of the central neural mechanisms.
Conduction is heat loss by
direct molecule-to-molecule transfer.
What are the two types of structures where neurons communicate with each other though?
electrical synapses and chemical synapses
dorsal root and a ventral root
each spinal nerve connects to the spinal cord by a
afferent pathway
eexcitatory impulse carried to the brain
Pharmacotherapy involving the use of MAOIs, TCAs, SSRIs, and atypical antidepressants is
effective in the treatment of mood disorders
Radiation is heat loss through
electromagnetic waves.
Individuals with major depression commonly have
elevated levels of the stress hormone cortisol
consciousness
encompasses conscious perception of sensations, voluntary initiation and control of movement, and capabilities associated with higher mental processing.
Environmental triggers such as psychosocial stress appear to
facilitate the onset of depression in individuals with a genetic vulnerability.
endogenous opioids
family of morphine like neuropeptides that inhibit transmission of pain impulses in the spinal cord, brain, and periphery
Myelinated A δ receptor transmission
fast and conveys mechanical and thermal sharp,localized pain.
What are the symptoms of bacterial meningitis?
fever (108-149), chills, HA, stiff neck, N/V +Kernig and +Burdzinski signs
unencapsulated dendritic endings
free, or naked, nerve endings, and detect temperature, pain, itch, or light touch
Contusions in general are most commonly found in the
frontal lobes, particularly at the poles and along the inferior orbital surfaces
Intracerebral disorders
function primarily as masses.
Convection is transfer of heat through currents of
gases or liquids
simple receptors
general senses, and may be unencapsulated or encapsulated dendritic endings
chronic pain
generally lasts at least 3 months and may be persistent, for example, low back pain or intermittent migraine headache
In early development environmental factors (viral infection, nutritional deficiencies, or prenatal birth complications) may interfere with
genetically programmed neural development leading to alterations in brain structure and function
cerebrospinal fluid
gives buoyancy to the brain, protects the brain and spinal cord from impact damage, and is a delivery medium for nutrients and chemical signals.
Severe cramps in abdomen due to prolonged sweating and sodium loss
heat cramps
Evaporation is the transfer of
heat with conversion of liquid to gas.
The intense occurrence of autonomic responses is accompanied by
heightened fear and anxiety that often continue between panic attacks.
Encephalocele
herniation of brain and meninges through a defect in the skull
Uncal herniation occurs when the
hippocampal gyrus shifts from the middle fossa through the tentorial notch into the posterior fossa.
12
how many pairs of cranial nerves originate from the brain?
four
how many stages are in non-rapid eye movement sleep (NREM)?
The most common cause of hemorrhagic stroke is
hypertension. Hemorrhages can be massive, small, slit, or petechial.
Guillain-Barré is an
idiopathic polyneuritis with acute inflammatory demyelinating characteristics. There is demyelination of the peripheral nerves with relative sparing of the axons.
cut or compressed axons can regenerate
if damage to a neuron occurs to the axon and the cell body remains in tact
phrenic nerves
if the ___ of the cervical plexus were severed, it would have a life-threatening effect.
What symptoms does a stroke affecting the basilar or vertebral arteries cause?
imbalance, gait problems, visual disturbances
efferent pathway
impulse sent from the brain
Where does the cerebrospinal fluid circulate in the brain and spine through?
in the subarachnoid space
multiple sclerosis
in this disorder, oligodendrocytes and myelin sheaths of the CNS deteriorate and are replaced by hardened scar tissue.
chronic pain conditions
include myofascial pain syndromes, chronic postoperative pain, low back pain, and chronic pain associated with cancer
epithalamus
includes the pineal gland, which secretes melatonin and regulates the sleep-wake cycle.
physiological responses to pain
increased heart rate, respiratory rate, and blood pressure; pallor or flushing; dilated pupils; and diaphoresis. Blood sugar is elevated; gastric secretion and motility are decreased; and blood flow to the viscera and skin is decreased
Vasogenic edema is caused by the
increased permeability of the capillary endothelium.
Increased serum levels of epinephrine increase body temperature by:
increasing heat production by causing glycolysis and increasing metabolic rates
BZs are used as an adjunct or augmentation therapy for
individuals who are nonresponsive to SSRIs or TCAs.
3 types of unclassified epileptic seizures
infantile spasms, lennox-gastaut syndrome, juvenile myoclonic epilepsy
Ischemic edema occurs after
infarction and has components of vasogenic and cytotoxic edema
The four classifications of neurotransmitters are
inflammatory, pain excitatory, pain inhibitory, and modulators of pain.
Endogenous opioids
inhibit pain transmission and are present in varying concentrations in the neurons of the brain, spinal cord, and GI tract
GABA and glycine are
inhibitory.
somatosensory association cortex
integrates sensory information and produces an understanding of the stimulus being felt.
Panic disorder consists of panic attacks characterized by
intense autonomic arousal that occurs spontaneously and may last for up to 1 hour
Schizophrenic symptoms are generally classified
into positive and negative symptoms.
visceral association area
involved in conscious visceral sensation.
limbic system
involved with emotions, and is extensively connected throughout the brain, allowing it to integrate and respond to a wide variety of environmental stimuli.
prefrontal cortex
involved with intellect, cognition, recall, and personality, and is closely linked to the limbic system.
somatic sensory system
involves the receptor level, the circuit level, and the perpetual level
OCD is characterized by
irrational thoughts and ritualized acts that impair normal functioning and cause severe distress
Schizophrenia
is a collection of symptoms characterized by thought disorders.
multiple sclerosis
is a demyelinating disorder of the CNS and affects the peripheral nervous system. It is relatively common and affects the myelin
What is the CPP in brain ischemia?
less than 40 mmHg
rami
lie distal to and are lateral branches of the spinal nerves that carry both motor and sensory fibers
During a panic attack the individual experiences multiple symptoms including
lightheadedness, a pounding heart, and difficulty breathing
Pathophysiology in the basal ganglia-frontocortical circuitry and serotonin and dopamine functions is
linked to OCD
A reduction in brain monoamine neurotransmission is
linked to depression
Manic and bipolar individuals are treatable with
lithium or mood stabilizers
Pain in older adults is influenced by:
liver and renal function, including alterations in metabolism of drugs and metabolites
Supporting cells of the nervous system, such as Schwann cells, satellite cells, and types of glial cells, function to provide neurons with __________?
local protection
What does a lesion to a lower motor neuron cause?
loss of reflex, decreased muscle tone, flaccid paralysis
What would the CSF in viral meningitis show?
moderately elevated protein, increased lymphocytes, normal sugar
Grade I is consistent with
momentary confusion and disorientation.
Grade II is
momentary confusion and retrograde amnesia that develops after 5 to 10 minutes.
glial cells; blood-brain barrier
most adult brain tumors are composed of ___ and cannot be treated by chemotherapy because of the ___.
the dorsal horns of the spinal cord
most lower motor neurons are located in
Tonic Phase
muscle contraction with increased muscle tone and is associated with loss of consciousness.
What is the sequence of symptoms in LMN lesions?
muscle fasiculations --> muscle paralysis --> muscle atrophy
accessory nerves (cranial nerve XI)
nerves that have a relationship with the vagus nerves
hypoglossal nerves (cranial nerve XIII)
nerves that innervate muscles of the tongue
synapses
nervous signals pass from neuron to neuron over junctions called
Nonnociceptor pain
neuropathic pain. Results from nerve trauma and leads to abnormal peripheral and central pain processing.
What is Anencephaly?
no formation of cortex
Initiation of pain stimulus
nocicepetive receptors
Glutethimide is a?
sedative, may cause pupillary midposition or moderately dilated, unequal, and fixed to light.
Status epilepticus
seizing over 20-30 minutes
Epilepsy
seizure activity for which no underlying correctable cause for the seizure can be found.
Impairment of the organ of corti and its hearing receptors or its central connections
sensorineural hearing loss
Extinction is when an individual with
sensory inattentiveness ignores sensory input from the dysfunctional side
Extinction is when an individual with
sensory inattentiveness ignores sensory input from the dysfunctional side.
What are the three main neurons?
sensory, motor, and inter-neurons (It connects the sensory and motor neurons together.)
brachial plexus
situated partly in the neck and partly in the axilla and gives rise to virtually all the nerves that innervate the upper limb
What happens to the muscle in denervation atrophy?
skeletal muscle --> no neural domination --> fibrillation --> loss of contractile protein --> degeneration of muscle fibers --> loss of muscle function --> muscle weakness
Drug or alcohol abuse
sleep breathing disorder
Obstructive apnea
sleep breathing disorder
Insomnia
sleep initiated disorder
Depressed vigilance
sleep-wake schedule disorder
unmyelinated polymodal C fiber transmission
slower and conveys diffuse burning and aching sensations
What is microcephaly?
small brain.
sensory receptors
specialized to respond to changes in their environment called stimuli
What do beta one receptors do?
speed and strengthen heart
hinton's law
states that any nerve serving a muscle that produces movement at a joint also innervates the joint and the skin over the joint
Central herniation is the
straight downward shift of the diencephalon through the tentorial notch.
What basal ganglia structures does the midbrain contain?
substantia nigra
What basal ganglia structures does the diancephalon contain?
subthalamus
true
t/f: a reverberating circuit produces repeated output in response to a single input.
What is the treatment for ischemic stroke?
tPA (administer within 3 hours)
Alzheimer is a form of dementia caused by
tangles.
dorsal rami
the back is innervated by the ______, with each innervating the muscle in line with the point of origin from the spinal column
What is the outermost part of the spinal canal?
the epidural space. In the head, the epidural space is known as a potential space, which means that normally it does not exist. In rare circumstances, a torn artery (e.g. the middle meningeal artery) may cause bleeding which is sufficient to create epidural space; this is an epidural hematoma.
cerebrospinal fluid
the fluid found within the ventricles of the brain and surrounding the brain and spinal cord
In PTSD structural and/or functional alterations exist in
the hippocampus, amygdala, and prefrontal cortex, which are neural components of a fear-based memory system
pia mater
the innermost layer that clings tightly to the brain
somatic sensory system
the part of the sensory system serving the body wall and limbs
A reduction in GABAA-BZ receptor binding also may contribute to
the pathophysiology of panic disorder.
Fear and anxiety are
normal emotional states that reflect individuals' evolutionary heritage.
Benign febrile seizures
normal in children, will grow out of it
An infarct is a type of
occlusive stroke.
cerebrovscular accidents (CVAs) or strokes
occur when blood supply to the brain is blocked, resulting in tissue death
sympathetic pain
occurs after a peripheral nerve injury and is characterized as continuous and severe with a burning quality
The parasellar area demonstrates evidence
of chiasmatic compression, urinary incontinence, dementia, gradual paraparesis, hormonal failure, optic atrophy, and bitemporal hemianopia. Involvement of the sphenoidal wing results in ophthalmoplegia and mild proptosis.
Structural brain abnormalities are
present in schizophrenia
Bacterial meningitis is caused by
primary infection of the pia mater and arachnoid
Reye syndrome
problem with liver (given aspirin when child has flu) and can go into full blown coma. Has 4 stages and could be from lead poisoning or drug induced
receptor level
processing at this level involves a stimulus that must excite a receptor in order for sensation to occur
perceptual level
processing at this level involves interpretation of sensory input in the cerebral cortex
circuit level
processing at this level is involved with delivery of impulses to the appropriate region of the cerebral cortex for stimulus localization and perception
What are some common symptoms of Myasthenia Gravis?
ptosis, diplopia, problems chewing and swallowing, difficulty climbing the stairs
What are the first things to examine in a severe head injury?
pupils and rectal tone
What can you do for a child with PKU?
put them on a special diet.
above level c5
quadriplegia (or paralysis of all 4 limbs) results from lesions on what part of the spine?
posterior association area
receives input from all sensory areas, integrating signals into a single thought.
simple or complex
receptor may be classified according to structural complexity and may be
mechanoreceptors, thermoreceptors, photoreceptors, chemoreceptors, nociceptors
receptors may be classified according to their location or location of stimulus, and include
Individuals with PTSD experience
recurring thoughts and flashbacks and nightmares of the terrifying event
Thought disorders
reflect a break between the cognitive and the emotional sides of one's personality.
Huntington disease is also called chorea.
relatively rare and is a hereditary degenerative disorder. It most commonly affects those between the ages of 25 and 45.
Severe OCD may
require neurosurgery to disconnect the basal ganglia from the frontal cortex.
cerebral white matter
responsible for communication between cerebral areas and the cerebral cortex and lower CNS centers.
vestibular cortex
responsible for conscious awareness of balance
efferent pathways
responsible for modulation or inhibition of afferent pain signals.
Substance P is contained in neurons that synapse with GABA and glycine,
and they inhibit pain.
4 defects of neural tube closure
anencephaly, encephalocele, meningocele, myelomeningocele
The olfactory groove will demonstrate
anosmia, personality change, and visual failure.
complex regional syndrome
another name for reflex sympathetic dystrophy and causalgia
somatic pain
arises from connective tissue, muscle, bone, and skin and is sharp and localized
An elevated monoamine level is
associated with mania
Which system contains sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system?
autonomic nervous system
What type of genetic inheritance is Huntington's disease?
autosomal dominant
What are some causes of secondary brain injury?
brain swelling, infection, cerebral hypoxia
What can cause changes in intracranial volume?
brain tissue problems (tumor, edema, bleed), blood (vasodilation, obstruction in circulation), CSF (excessive production, decreased absorption, obstruction in circulation)
What makes up ICP?
brain tissue volume (89%), blood volume (10%), CSF volume (10%)
What do beta two receptors do?
bronchodilation
which part of nervous system does the somatic nervous system (SoNS) provide sensory and motor innervation for?
the peripheral nervous system. The SoNS consists of efferent nerves responsible for stimulating muscle contraction, including all the non sensory neurons connected with skeletal muscles and skin.
how can pain be modulated by segmental inhibition?
the peripheral stimulation of nociceptors by touch, vibration, or pressure resulting in closure of the spinal cord pain gate
Interstitial edema is caused by
transependymal movement of CSF from the ventricles into the extracellular spaces of the brain tissues
a high emotional state, repetition, association of new information with old, or the automatic formation of memory while concentrating on something else.
transfer of information from short-term to long-term memory can be affected by
visceral pain
transmitted by sympathetic afferents and is poorly localized
concussion, contusion, and subdural or subarachnoid hemorrhage
traumatic head injuries can lead to which brain injuries
True or fault: the arachnoid mater is water-proof.
true
Deafferentiation pain results from
tumor infiltration of nerve tissue; trauma, or chemical injury to the nerve
Major depression and bipolar disorder are
two common mood disorders
Supratentorial herniation is a general category that includes
uncal, central, and cingulate herniation.
Aseptic meningitis is most commonly caused by a
virus
What symptoms does a stroke affecting the posterior cerebral artery cause?
visual defects, loss of sensory modalities
midbrain, pons, medula oblongata
what 3 parts does the brain stem consist of?
The higher body temperature decreases serum levels of iron, zinc, and copper, all of which are needed for bacterial replication. It switches from burning glucose to lipolysis and proteolysis, thus depriving bacteria of a food source. There is increased lymphocytic transformation, increasing the immune response. There is increased phagocytosis
what are the benefits of fever
dorsal root ganglia
where cell bodies of primary order neurons or pain-transmitting neurons reside
central pattern generators
which groups of neurons in the spinal cord controls walking?
left
which hemisphere of the brain often dominates language abilities, math, and logic?
right
which hemisphere of the brain often dominates visual-spatial skills, intuition, emotion, and artistic and musical skills?
A reduction in the volume of the thalamus
which may disrupt communication among cortical brain regions, and the temporal lobe, which may be responsible for the manifestations of positive symptoms
intercostal nerve
which nerve is most important in relaying motor signals bringing about ventilation?
cervical
which nerve is sensory only?
touch
which sensory function involves neurons in the dorsal root ganglia?
coccygeal ligament
which structure anchors the spinal cord to L2?
What have major inhibitory effects in the spinal cord and brain to inhibit pain?
Gaba and Glycine
j (muscle spindle)
Location of intrafusal fibers
microglia
Macrophages of the central nervous system
Deviation of one eye from the other.
Strabismus
What are the pathogens of bacterial meningitis?
Streptococcus pneumoniae, H. influenza, N. meningitiditis, gram - bacilli and streptococci
Spondylolisthesis
Stress factor allowing the vertebra to slide forward I relation to the vertebra below
Embolic stroke
Stroke caused by blockage of cerebral vessels.
Lacunar stroke
Strokes caused by the occlusion (microinfarct) of a small branch of a larger blood vessel associated with smoking, diabetes and hypertension
How are Structural Alterations of Arousal divided?
Structural Alterations of Arousal are Divided by location above or below tentorial plate.
The babinski sign is present in which one: Metabolic or structually induced altered arousal?
Structurally induced altered arousal presents the babinski sign.
What % regeneration is considered success in a cutting injury?
50%
receptor potentials
Meissner's, or tactile, corpuscle in your fingers respond to the texture by causing graded voltage changes across their plasma membranes. These voltages are called ___.
Injury to what part of the brain causes impaired cold caloric stimulation?
Pons
What area may create a disorder in vigilance?
Prefrontal areas.
What does pupillary changes indicate?
Presence and level of brain stem dysfunction; brain stem areas control arousal are adjacent to areas that control pupil.
Referred pain
Present in an area removed or distant from its point of origin.
cerebellum
Processes inputs from several strutters and coordinates skeletal muscle contraction to produce smooth movement.
What is a form of neglect?
Sensory inattentiveness; person may recognize sensory input from dysfunction side when asked, but ignores sensory input from dysfunctional side when stimulated from both sides.
Results from airway obstruction during sleep?
Sleep apnea
What may result from disease affecting superior colliculi?
Slowness in orienting attention.
Bradykinesia
Slowness of voluntary muscle movement
A patient has diencephalic dysfunction. His pupils will look:
Small and reactive.
Cheyne-Stokes Respirations
Smooth crescendo in rate and depth of breathing, peaks. Breath decrescendos in rate and depth to apnea. Cycle repeats.
fovea centralis
The most finely detailed images are produced by the _____.
Parkinson disease
Tremor is often the first symptom to appear. This progresses to include gait, postural instability, and inability to walk. The symptoms are often unilateral and then become bilateral
Potassium
What ion produces depolarization in the stereocilia of the macula?
What is a Encephalocele?
a bulging of the meninges
Anencephaly
missing part of the brain and skull; lack of folic acid
4 types of Epilepsy
partial seizures, generalized seizures, unclassified epileptic seizures, status epilepticus
brain waves
patterns of electrical activity
HIV in children
perinatally through placenta, exposure to infected maternal blood and vaginal secretions (vaginal birth 10x higher risk of infant getting HIV), postpartum ingestion of breast millk. An acquired immunodeficiency: keep getting sick
Opiates (heroin and morphine) cause
pinhole pupils
What will a patient with pontine dysfunction pupils look like?
pinpoint.
What causes loss of memory in Alzheimer's?
plaques and neurofibrillary tangles in the hippocampus and amygdala + decrease in acetyltransferase --> decrease in acetylcholine
thalamus
plays a key role in mediating sensation, motor activities, cortical arousal, learning, and memory
sacral and lumbar plexuses
plexuses that overlap
Vomiting associated with CNS injuries involves
the vestibular nuclei. It can be caused by impingement on the fourth ventricle. It can cause an increase in intracranial pressure.
Reticular fiber
thin, short collagen-like fiber that is found in the stroma of lymphatic organs and some other organs and tissues.
Cytotoxic edema occurs when
toxic factors cause active transport systems to fail. The cells lose control of their potassium and sodium. Water follows into the cells and causes them to swell.
65. The cochlea is part of the ______. A. pinnae B. inner ear C. middle ear D. outer ear
B
dendrites
Cell processes that are the receptive regions of the cell.
Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)
"Degeneration upper and lower motor neurons in the cerebral cortex, brainstem, and spinal cord characterized by progressive muscle weakness leading to respiratory failure and death (2 to 5 years from symptom onset). Person has normal intellectual and sensory function until death
norepinephrine
"Feel-good" neurotransmitter.
the action potential jumps from node to node
"Saltatory" conduction occurs when
Intracerebral is a term that means
"within the brain tissue."
The following are ways to classify seizures:
(1) clinical manifestations, (2) site or origin, (3) EEG correlates, and (4) response to therapy
What is the main characteristic of Supratentorial disorders?
An alteration of arousal, produced by diffused or local dysfunction.
Unequal curvature of cornea
Astigmatism
Glaucuma is _______ and results from _______
-increased intraocular pressure -decreased aqueous humor drainage
What is the normal ICP?
0 mmHg
How are nociceptors categorized?
1. By the stimulus to they respond to. 2. The properties of the axons associted with them (like lightly myelinated, medium-sized, etc)
What is the criteria for Brain Death?
1. Completion of all appropriate and therapeutic procedures with no possibility of brain function recovery. 2. Unresponsive coma (absence of motor and reflex responses). 3. No spontaneous respirations (apnea). 4. No ocular responses. 5. Isoelectric EEG. 6. Persistence 6 to 12 hours after onset.
What five categories of neurologic functioning are critical to evaluation?
1. Level of Consciousness 2. Pattern of Breathing 3. Pupilary Changes 4. Oculomotor Responses 5. Motor Responses
What are the three neuron secretions?
1. Neurotransmitters (amino acids, peptides, monoamines). 2. Neuromodulators (responding to neurotransmitters). 3. Neurotrophic factors (Neuron survival and to develop connections between neurons).
What constitutes Cerebral Death?
1. No behavioral or environmental responses. 2. The brain can continue to maintain internal homeostasis.
What are the four types of pain?
1. Nociceptive pain 2. Nonnociceptor pain 3. Acute Pain 4. Chronic pain
Tests for newborns required by state of Cali to be immediately done
1. PKU 2. Tay-Sachs
What are the Astrocytes' functions?
1. Physical support to keep neurons in place. 2. Phagocytosis. 3. Providing nourishment to neurons.
Newborns Reflexes
1. Rudding reflex: Their reflex is early on to get nipple and move over there for nutrition 2. Grasping reflex: 2 fingers in newborns hand they hold on 3. Stepping reflex: to try and put their feet on the ground 4. Final reflex that is important-testable one- Babinski: stroke foot from bottom towards top up to the great tow- their great toe goes up (positive Babinski) this reflex gets exstinguished as an adult-it goes away However, if someone has neurologic damage like a stroke- goes up (positive) Should be neg in adults- and if positive that is abnormal
What are the 3 classes of second-order cell bodies found on the dorsal horn.
1. Projection cells-relation info to the higher brain areas. 2. Excitatory interneurons- relay nociceptive transmissions to projection cells. 3. Inhibitory interneurons- modulate nociceptive tranmission.
What does the hindbrain do? (the cerebellum, pons, and medulla oblongata)
1. Reflex centers for heart and respiration rates, coughing, swallowing, vomiting, etc. 2. Gives rise to cranial nerves 5-12 controlling viscera, hearing, facial, and mouth/throat functions. 3. Cerebellum allows fine motor coordination.
What are the Functions of the Forebrain?
1. Thalamus: "switchboard" or relay station for impulses going to and coming from the cerebrum 2. Hypothalamus: homeostatic control Cerebrum 3. Gives rise to cranial nerves I and II, for smell and sight
What are the Microglial cell's functions?
1. phagocytes cleaning up CNS debris 2. Most serve as representatives of the immune system in the brain (Microglia protect the brain from invading microorganisms and are thought to be similar in nature to microphages in the blood system)
When does hyperthermia occur?
106. Death follows 109.
A patient is being treated in the ER for a possible sprained ankle after a fall. The Xray ruled out a fracture. Before sending the patient home, the nurse plans to teach the client to avoid which of the following in the next 24 hours? 1.Resting the foot 2.Applying a heat pad 3.Applying an elastic compression bandage 4.Elevating the ankle on a pillow while sitting or lying down
2
A plaster splint is applied with an elastic bandage to the leg of a patient hospitalized with a fractured tibia in preparation for open reduction and internal fixation of the fracture. The patient complains of increasing pain in the affected leg and foot that is not relieved by loosening of the elastic bandage. The most appropriate action by the nurse is to 1.Elevate the leg on two pillows. 2.Perform neurovascular assessment of the foot. 3.Notify the health care provider. 4.Apply ice over the fracture site.
2
A nurse caring for a patient diagnosed with osteoarthritis. The nurse performs an assessment, knowing that which of the following is a clinical manifestation associated with the disorder? 1.Morning stiffness 2.A decreased sedimentation rate 3.Joint pain that diminishes after rest 4.Elevated antinuclear antibody levels
3
A nurse is conducting health screening for osteoporosis. Which of the following patients is at greatest risk of developing osteoporosis? 1.A 25-year-old woman who jogs 2.A 36-year-old man with asthma 3.A 70-year-old man who consumes excess alcohol 4.A sedentary 65-year-old woman who smokes
4
A patient with a hip fracture asks the nurse why the Buck's traction is being applied before surgery. The nurse explains that Buck's traction primarily: 1.Allows bony healing to begin before surgery 2.Provides rigid immobilization of the fracture site 3.Lengthens the fractured leg to prevent severing blood vessels 4.Provides comfort by reducing muscle spasms and provides fracture immobilization.
4
What is the normal range of CPP?
70-100 mmHg
How much blood supplies to the brain? (ml/min)
800-1000 ml/min
Tubercular meningitis has a
90% recovery rate with an early diagnosis and treatment.
10. Michael, a famous musician, is designing a new apartment that will serve as both his residence and his recording studio. Since the music studio shares a wall with his bedroom, Michael wants to be sure that the recording studio is soundproof. This means that Michael wants to be sure that sound from the studio is well under his _____ while he is in his bedroom. A. absolute threshold B. difference threshold C. papillae D. minimum threshold
A
10. _____ nerves carry information to the brain and spinal cord. ______ nerves carry information from the brain and spinal cord to the rest of the body. A. Afferent / Efferent B. Efferent / Afferent C. Glial cells / Afferent D. Efferent / Glial cells
A
12. ______ refers to the detection of sensory information that occurs below the level of conscious awareness. A. Subliminal perception B. Perceptual set C. Top-down processing D. Bottom-up processing
A
15. The minimal change in stimulation that is required to detect whether one stimulus differs from another is the _______. A. difference threshold B. absolute threshold C. perceptual constant D. vestibular sense
A
21. Corticosteroids are _____. A. stress hormones B. sex hormones C. neurotransmitters that regulate mood D. neurotransmitters that regulate memory
A
23. Axons are ____. A. the part of the neuron that is responsible for sending or carrying information away from the cell body toward other cells B. the branch-like part of the neuron that is responsible for receiving information from other neurons C. located inside the cell body D. the layer of fat cells that encase and insulate the neuron
A
54. Looking at a quarter in your hand casts a different image on your retina compared to looking at a quarter across the room, yet we know that the quarter is the same and retains the same dimensions. This phenomenon is known as ______. A. constancy B. figure-ground C. the Ponzo illusion D. Gestalt closure
A
56. If we see a German shepherd standing thirty feet from us, we perceive that it is just as big as it was when it was much closer to us. This is primarily due to _____. A. size constancy B. shape constancy C. proximity D. figure-ground
A
56. The _____ is a small forebrain structure that monitors pleasurable activities (e.g. eating, drinking, and sex), emotion, stress, and reward. A. hypothalamus B. neocortex C. corpus callosum D. medulla
A
57. One of the pleasure centers of the brain is found in the _____. A. hypothalamus B. corpus callosum C. hippocampus D. thalamus
A
59. The pitch of a sound is a function of the sound wave's _____, whereas the loudness of a sound is a function of the sound wave's _____. A. frequency / amplitude B. amplitude /frequency C. decibel level / melodic waveform D. melodic waveform / decibel level
A
60. Sonal had a stroke. Doctors told her she sustained substantial damage to the occipital lobes. What type of deficiencies will Sonal likely experience as a result of this brain damage? A. She may be blind or unable to see clearly. B. She will probably be unable to comprehend language. C. She will probably have difficulties with memory function. D. She will probably suffer from impaired cognitive functioning (planning, reasoning, and self-control will be negatively impacted).
A
63. The _____ is the part of the cerebral cortex that controls voluntary muscle movement. A. motor cortex B. sensory cortex C. limbic system D. temporal lobe
A
63. When sound waves enter the ear canal, they first cause _____. A. the eardrum to vibrate B. the oval window to move C. the cochlea to vibrate D. the hammer to vibrate
A
67. The corpus callosum _____. A. is the large bundle of axons that connects the brain's two hemispheres and relays information between the two sides B. is the region of the brain that is primarily responsible for managing our emotions C. is the region of the brain that is primarily responsible for managing our thinking, reasoning, and logic skills D. plays an important role in the production of speech
A
68. Tina loves listening to her favorite music on her iPod. Most of the time she plays her iPod at 90 percent volume. According to research on "safe sound," what should Tina do to increase the odds that her love of loud music does not cause hearing damage? A. She should limit her exposure to loud music. In fact, she shouldn't listen to music that loud for more than 90 minutes. B. She should stop listening to heavy metal music and switch to classical music instead. Loud Mozart songs are not as damaging as loud Metallica songs. C. She should use headphones instead of earbuds, because earbuds are more dangerous to hearing. D. She should always keep the volume low on her iPod and instead pump up the volume of her music when she's listening to her home stereo.
A
71. ______ best explains the perception of low-frequency sounds (below 1,000 times per second), whereas _____ best explains those high-frequency sounds (above 1,000 times per second). A. Frequency theory / a combination of frequency and place theory B. Place theory / a combination of frequency and place theory C. Frequency theory / decibel theory D. Place theory / decibel theory
A
72. The left hemisphere of the brain plays an important role in managing or regulating _____. A. speech and grammar B. spatial perception C. visual recognition D. movement in the left side of the body
A
76. You touch your baby's forehead and realize that he feels warm and must have a fever. What type of sensory receptors relayed information about your baby's temperature to your brain? A. Thermoreceptors B. Endorphins C. Rods D. Cones
A
77. When something warm touches your skin, you feel warmth. When something cold touches your skin, you feel coldness. If things both warm and cold touch your skin, stimulating adjacent thermoreceptors for warmth and cold, you will feel _____. A. hotness B. coldness C. both hotness and coldness D. neither hotness nor coldness
A
79. ______ are secreted by the adrenal glands. A. Epinephrine and norepinephrine B. Estrogen and testosterone C. Estrogen and epinephrine D. Acetylcholine and testosterone
A
81. Endorphins are _____. A. neurotransmitters that function as natural opiates in producing pleasure and pain B. believed to be released mainly in the synapses of the fast pathway C. hormones that are involved the kinesthetic sense D. hormones that are involved in the vestibular sense
A
81. When the axons of healthy neurons adjacent to damaged cells grow new branches, _____ has occurred. A. collateral sprouting B. substitution of function C. neurogenesis D. synaptic pruning
A
84. Taste buds, the sensory receptors for taste, are located in the _____. A. papillae B. pinna C. salivary glands D. olfactory epithelium
A
84. The human brain shows the most plasticity during which developmental lifespan period? A. Early childhood B. Early adulthood C. Middle adulthood D. Late adulthood
A
87. The Human Genome Project studies genetics and behavior through the use of _____. A. molecular genetics B. selective breeding C. behavior genetics D. twin studies
A
88. The _____ senses provide information about movement, posture, and orientation, whereas the _____ senses provide information about balance and movement. A. kinesthetic; vestibular B. vestibular; kinesthetic C. limbic; thalamic D. thalamic; limbic
A
9. You are studying in your dorm room, but your neighbor is blasting the television in the adjacent room. When you gently request that your neighbor turn the volume down until you cannot hear it, you are asking your neighbor to make the volume less than your _____. A. absolute threshold B. difference threshold C. minimum transduction level D. basilar level
A
90. Molly's natural hair color is brown but she has had it dyed blonde. Molly changed her _________. A. phenotype B. genotype C. chromosomes D. genetic heritage
A
A 50 year old man complains of recurring headaches. He describes these as sharp, stabbing, and located around his left eye. He also reports that his eye seems to swell and get teary when these headaches occur. Based on this history you suspect that he has a. cluster headaches b. tension headaches c. migraine headaches d. medication overuse headaches
A
A patient is scheduled for an arthrocentesis. The nurse explains that this diagnostic test involves a. incision or puncture of the joint capsule b. measurement of heat from muscle contractions c. administration of a radioisotope before the procedure d. placement of skin electrodes to record muscle activity
A
A patient is suspected of havbiong a cranial tumor. The signs and symptoms include memory deficits, visual disturbances, weakness of right upper and lower extremities, and personality changes. The nurse recognizes that the tumor is most likely located in the a. frontal lobe b. parietal lobe c. occipital lobe d. temporal lobe
A
A patient with a fracture of the pelvis should be monitored for a. changes in urinary output b. petechiae on the abdomen c. a palpable lump in the buttock d. sudden decrease in blood pressure
A
A patient's eyes jerk while the patient looks to the left. You will record this finding as a.nystagmus b. CN VI palsy c. oculocephalia d. ophthalmic dyskinesia
A
Computed tomography of a 68-year-old male patient's head reveals that he has experienced a hemorrhagic stroke. Which of the following is a nursing priority intervention in the emergency department? A) a. Maintenance of the patient's airway B) b. Positioning to promote cerebral perfusion C) c. Control of fluid and electrolyte imbalances D) d. Administration of tissue plasminogen activator (tPA)
A
Data regarding mobility, strength, coordination, and activity tolerance are important for the nurse to obtain because a. many neurologic diseases affect one or more of these areas b. patients are less able to identify other neurologic impairments c. these are the first functions to be affected by neurologic disease d. aspects of movement are the most important function of the nervous system
A
During admission of a patient with a severe head injury to the emergency department, the nurse places the highest priority on assessment for a. patency of airway b. presence of a neck injury c. neurologic status with the glasgow coma scale d. cerebrospinal fluid leakage from the ears or nose
A
During the postoperative period, the nurse instructs the patient with an above the knee amputation that the residual limb should not be routinely elevated because this position promotes a. hip flexion contractures b. skin irritation and breakdown c. clot formation at the incision site d. increased risk of wound dehiscence
A
For a 65 year old woman who has lived with a T1 spinal cord injury for 20 years, which of the following health teaching instructions should the nurse emphasize? a. a mammogram needed every year b. bladder function tends to improve with age c. heart disease is not common in persons with spinal cord injury d. as a person ages the need to change body position is less important
A
Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) has revealed the presence of a brain tumor in a patient. The nurse would recognize the patient's likely need for which of the following treatment modalities? A) a. Surgery B) b. Chemotherapy C) c. Radiation therapy D) d. Pharmacologic treatment
A
Musculoskeletal assessment is an important component of care for patients on long-term therapy of A) a. Corticosteroids. B) b. Antiplatelet aggregators. C) c. b-Adrenergic blockers. D) d. Calcium-channel blockers.
A
Teach the patient with ankylosing spondylitis the importance of a. regular exercise and maintaining proper posture b. continuing with physical activity during flare ups c. avoiding extremes in environmental temperatures d. applying cool compresses for relief of local symptoms
A
The increased risk for falls in the older adult is most likely due to a. changes in balance b. decreased in bone mass c. loss of ligament elasticity d. erosion of articular cartilage
A
The nurse explains to a patient with a distal tibial fracture who is returning for a three week checkup that healing is indicated by a. formation of callus b. complete bony union c. hematoma at fracture site d. presence of granulation tissue
A
The nurse is caring for a 76-year-old man who has undergone left knee arthroplasty with prosthetic replacement of the knee joint to relieve the pain of severe osteoarthritis. Postoperatively the nurse expects which of the following will be included in the care of the affected leg? A) a. Progressive leg exercises to obtain 90-degree flexion B) b. Early ambulation with full weight bearing on the left leg C) c. Bed rest for 3 days with the left leg immobilized in extension D) d. Immobilization of the left knee in 30-degree flexion for 2 weeks to prevent dislocation
A
When assessing a patient with a traumatic brain injury, the nurse notes uncoordinated movement of the extremities. The nurse would document this as A) a. Ataxia. B) b. Apraxia. C) c. Anisocoria. D) d. Anosognosia.
A
Which of the following modifiable risk factors for stroke would be most important for the nurse to include when planning a community education program? A) a. Hypertension B) b. Hyperlipidemia C) c. Alcohol consumption D) d. Oral contraceptive use
A
Which of the following nursing actions should be implemented in the care of a patient who is experiencing increased intracranial pressure (ICP)? A) a. Monitor fluid and electrolyte status astutely. B) b. Position the patient in a high Fowler's position. C) c. Administer vasoconstrictors to maintain cerebral perfusion. D) d. Maintain physical restraints to prevent episodes of agitation.
A
Which of the following signs and symptoms in a patient with a T4 spinal cord injury should alert the nurse to the possibility of autonomic dysreflexia? A) a. Headache and rising blood pressure B) b. Irregular respirations and shortness of breath C) c. Decreased level of consciousness or hallucinations D) d. Abdominal distention and absence of bowel sounds
A
While obtaining subjective assessment data related to the musculoskeletal system, it is particularly important to ask a patient about other medical problems such as a. hemophilia b. hypertension c. thyroid problems d. pulmonary disease
A
A patient who has a neurologic disease that affects the pyramidal tract is likely to manifest which of the following signs? A) a. Impaired muscle movement B) b. Decreased deep tendon reflexes C) c. Decreased level of consciousness D) d. Impaired sensation of touch, pain, and temperature
A Among the most important descending tracts are the corticobulbar and corticospinal tracts, collectively termed the pyramidal tract. These tracts carry volitional (voluntary) impulses from the cortex to the cranial and peripheral nerves. Dysfunction of the pyramidal tract is likely to manifest as impaired movement. Diseases affecting the pyramidal tract do not result in changes in LOC, impaired reflexes, or decreased sensation.
Which of the following interventions should the nurse perform in the acute care of a patient with autonomic dysreflexia? A) a. Urinary catheterization B) b. Administration of benzodiazepines C) c. Suctioning of the patient's upper airway D) d. Placement of the patient in the Trendelenburg position
A Because the most common cause of autonomic dysreflexia is bladder irritation, immediate catheterization to relieve bladder distention may be necessary.
Which of the following measures should the nurse prioritize when providing care for a patient with a diagnosis of multiple sclerosis (MS)? A) a. Vigilant infection control and adherence to standard precautions B) b. Careful monitoring of neurologic vital signs and frequent reorientation C) c. Maintenance of a calorie count and hourly assessment of intake and output D) d. Assessment of blood pressure and monitoring for signs of orthostatic hypotension
A Infection control is a priority in the care of patients with MS, since infection is the most common precipitator of an exacerbation of the disease. Decreases in cognitive function are less likely, and MS does not typically result in hypotension or fluid volume excess or deficit.
Which of the following clinical manifestations would the nurse interpret as representing neurogenic shock in a patient with acute spinal cord injury? A) a. Bradycardia B) b. Hypertension C) c. Neurogenic spasticity D) d. Bounding pedal pulses
A Neurogenic shock is due to the loss of vasomotor tone caused by injury and is characterized by hypotension and bradycardia. Loss of sympathetic innervation causes peripheral vasodilation, venous pooling, and a decreased cardiac output.
A patient with a suspected closed head injury has bloody nasal drainage. The nurse suspects that this patient has a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak when observing which of the following? A) a. A halo sign on the nasal drip pad B) b. Decreased blood pressure and urinary output C) c. A positive reading for glucose on a Test-tape strip D) d. Clear nasal drainage along with the bloody discharge
A When drainage containing both CSF and blood is allowed to drip onto a white pad, within a few minutes the blood will coalesce into the center, and a yellowish ring of CSF will encircle the blood, giving a halo effect. The presence of glucose would be unreliable for determining the presence of CSF because blood also contains glucose
absence of eye opening at 24 hours predicts death or severe disability
A 19-year-old woman sustains a nontraumatic brain injury. Which of the following is a TRUE statement regarding prognostic indicators? .She has a 91% death rate if pupils are nonreactive at 24 hours. .She has a 95% death rate when pupillary reflexes are absent at 6 hours. .Prognosis is established later in the course versus the prognosis of traumatic brain injury. .Absence of eye opening at 24 hours predicts death or severe disability
Phenylketonuria (PKU)
A condition where baby cant break down esparitime (the artifical sweetener) and it acts as a toxin to the brain- test this so parents know that if their babies have it than they know that it is a defect in this kind of digestion- then their babies wont have it in their diets and they will be okay
Alzheimer disease
A degenerative disease characterized by amyloid plaques and fibrillary tangles in the cortex and atrophy and widened sulci in the frontal and temporal lobes.
Tay-Sachs
A disease more common in Jewish population, hereditary defect in lipid metabolism storage- can do prenat testing for—has devastating consequences
Punding
A disorder of stereotypic motor behavior in which there is intense fascination with repetitive handling and examining of mechanical objects
Agnosia
A failure to recognize the form and nature of objects using tactile, visual or auditory senses
TRP cation channels
A family of transient receptor channels stimulated by noxious mechanical, chemical, and thermal stimuli.
What is necessary for cognitive cerebral functions?
A functioning reticular activating system.
nucleus
A ganglion is to the peripheral nervous system what a/an __ is to the central nervous system.
node of ranvier
A gap between Schwann cells in the peripheral system.
neuronal pool
A group of neurons that perform one particular function is called a/an ________
free nerve ending
A heat receptor
synapse
A junction that mediates information transfer between neurons or between a neuron and an effector cell.
reticular formation
A loosely coordinated core of gray matter in the midbrain, pons, and medulla is called the
Frontal
A man has sustained a contusion. He has changes in attention, memory, affect, and emotion. In which region of the brain is the contusion most likely located? .Cerebral .Frontal .Cerebellum .Midbrain
Grade III
A man has symptoms of confusion and retrograde amnesia present after impact with a baseball to his skull. Which of the following grades of concussion does this describe? .Grade I .Grade II Incorrect .Grade III Correct .Grade IV
voltage
A measure of the amount of difference in electrical charge between two points.
Thalamus
A midbrain region important for receiving and processing sensory information.
Hypothalamus
A midbrain region important for receiving and processing thermoregulatory information.
broca's area
A motor speech area that controls muscles involved in speech production.
the long fibers of long axons
A nerve is composed of
choroid plexus; ependymal cells
A network of capillaries in the brain that produces cerebrospinal fluid is called the ___ and is surrounded
Tourette syndrome
A neurological disorder characterized by recurrent involuntary movements, including multiple neck jerks and sometimes vocal tics, as grunts, barks, or words, esp. obscenities
the threshold potential
A neuron fires only when its membrane reaches
association neuron
A neuron that has as its primary function the job of connecting other neurons.
norepinephrine
A neurotransmitter whose function depends on a second messenger
resting potential
A neurotransmitter, such as Glycine, attaches to a ligand receptor and causes hyperpolarization. This neurotranmitter would most likely cause a(n)
The nurse is caring for a patient admitted for evaluation and surgical removal of a brain tumor. The nurse will plan interventions for this patient based on knowledge that brain tumors can lead to which of the following complications (select all that apply)? A) a. Vision loss B) b. Cerebral edema C) c. Pituitary dysfunction D) d. Parathyroid dysfunction E) e. Focal neurologic deficits
A,B,C,E
A patient with osteomyelitis is treated with surgical debridement with implantation of antibiotic beads. In responding to the patient who asks why the beads are used, the nurse answers (select all that apply) a. the beads are used to directly deliver antibiotics to the site of infection b. there are no effective oral or IV antibiotics to treat most cases of bone infection c. the beads are adjunct to debridement and oral and IV antibiotics for deep infections d. The ischemia and bone death that occurs with osteomyelitis are impenetrable to IV antibiotics
A,C
The nurse is discharging a patient admitted with a transient ischemic attack (TIA). For which of the following medications might the nurse expect to provide discharge instructions (select all that apply)? A) a. Clopidogrel (Plavix) B) b. Enoxaparin (Lovenox) C) c. Dipyridamole (Persantine) D) d. Enteric-coated aspirin (Ecotrin) E) e. Tissue plasminogen activator (tPA)
A,C,D
Common psychosocial reactions of the stroke patient to the stroke include (select all that apply) a. depression b. disassociation c. intellectualization d. sleep disturbances e. denial of the severity of the stroke
A,D,E
During assessment of the patient with trigeminal neuralgia, the nurse should (select all that apply) a. inspect all aspects of the mouth and teeth b. assess the gag reflex and respiratory rate and depth c. lightly palpate the affected side of the face for edema d. test for temperature and sensation perception n the face e. ask the patient to describe factors that initiate an episode
A,D,E
In assessing the joints of a patient with rheumatoid arthritis, the nurse understands that the joints are damaged by (select all that apply) a. bony ankylosis following inflammation of the joints b. the deterioration of cartilage by proteolytic enzymes c. the development of heberdens nodes in the joint capsule d. increased cartilage and bony growth at the joint margins e. invasion of pannus into the joint causing a loss of cartilage
A,E
Which nociceptive fiber is quicker?
A-delta fibers occur more quickly than C fibers
Which of the following individuals is experiencing the effects of a primary endocrine disorder? A. A patient who has low calcium levels because of the loss of his parathyroid gland B. A patient who has hypothyroidism as a result of low TSH production C. A patient with adrenal cortical insufficiency due to pituitary hyposecretion of ACTH D. A patient whose dysfunctional hypothalamus has resulted in endocrine imbalances
A. A patient who has low calcium levels because of the loss of his parathyroid gland
A patient has a diagnosis of chronic renal failure secondary to diabetic nephropathy. Which of the following hematologic changes may result from this patient's kidney disorder? A. Anemia B. Leukocytosis C. Thrombocytopenia D. Leukopenia
A. Anemia
The adipocytes in adipose tissue not only serve as a storage sites, they also: A. Synthesize triglycerides B. Increase glucagon release C. Degrade fat-soluble vitamins D. Produce linoleic fatty acid
A. Synthesize triglycerides
The metabolic abnormalities that lead to type 2 diabetes include: A. insulin resistance. B. chronic overeating. C. acute pancreatitis. D. recurrent hypoglycemia.
A. insulin resistance.
The most common cause of thyrotoxicosis is Graves disease, which has the distinguishing characteristic of _____ in addition to a diffuse goiter. A. ophthalmopathy B. decreased cholesterol C. facial myxedema D. muscle fatigue
A. ophthalmopathy
The most damaging effects of urinary obstruction are the result of _____ and unrelieved obstruction of urine outflow. A. urinary stasis B. renal hypertension C. kidney hyperplasia D. concentrated urine
A. urinary stasis
dermatome
A/an __ is a region of the skin that provides sensory input to a particular spinal nerve
Memory
Ability of brain to store and retrieve information.
Selective Attention (Orienting)
Ability to select specific information from available environmental and internal stimuli. Coma may alter selective attention.
Hyperkinesia
Abnormal amount of uncontrolled muscular action (spasm)
Hypervigilance
Abnormal awareness of environmental stimuli
Paroxysmal dyskinesia
Abnormal, involuntary movements that occur as spasms
Hypokinesia
Abnormally diminished muscular function and mobility
What are the symptoms of complete transaction spinal cord injury?
Absence of sensory function below level of injury--loss of bladder/bowel function.
Akinesia
Absence, poverty or lack of control of voluntary muscle movements
Which neurotransmitter is Released from parasympathetic system and from motor neurons?
Acetylcholine
Inhibitory or excitatory
Acetylcholine binding to muscarinic receptors has a/an ______ effect, depending on the effector.
Alpha or beta receptors
Adrenergic receptors on effectors are called
false
Afferent fibers carry message to the muscles
Absence of sense of taste. May follow head injury
Ageusia
Awareness (Content of Thought)
All cognitive functions, including: awareness of self, environment, and affective states/moods underneath interconnected brain areas.
What is the neurochemical action of all antidepressant drugs?
All increase monoamine neurotransmitter levels within the synaptic cleft.
special senses
All receptors for ___ are confined to the head and are innervated by cranial nerves.
Thalamus
All sensory impulses except for smell are relayed through the
dorsal horn
All somatic sensory fibers from the neck down enter this region of gray matter of the spinal cord.
primary motor cortex
Allows conscious control of skilled voluntary movement of skeletal muscles.
thalamus
Almost all sensory signals pass through the ___ on the way to the cerebellum.
b. thalamus
Almost all sensory signals pass through the ___ on the way to the cerebrum a. corpora quadrigemina b. thalamus c. hypothalamus d. corpus callosum e. corticospinal tracts
action potential
Also called a nerve impulse transmitted by axons.
Where may pathological conditions be that alter executive attention deficits?
Alterations in frontal and prefrontal cortex, including anterior cingulate gyrus, supplementary motor area, and portions of basal ganglia.
Clonic phase
Alternating contractions and relaxation of muscles during a seizure
Vision reduction or dimness for unknown reasons
Amblyopia
Negative Symptoms of Schizophrenia
Amotivation, social withdrawal, anhedonia (emotions), alogia (poverty of speech), blunted affect, poor grooming and hygiene
In which type of diabetic neuropathy do you get severe pain in the thigh at night?
Amytrophy (somatic)
Cheyne-Stokes respiration
An abnormal pattern of breathing that alternates between hyperventilation and apnea. Tidal volume gradually increases followed by a gradual decrease and a period of apnea before returning to a normal respiratory pattern. Consequence of decreased blood flow to the respiratory center in the brain stem.
Vasogenic edema
An accumulation of fluid in the cerebrum that is typically caused by an increase in capillary endothelial cell permeability with a disruption in the blood-brain barrier
myelin sheath
An action potential carried in one nerve fiber cannot stimulate adjacent never fibers carried in the same nerve because of the
meningitis
An individual is experiencing a high fever, stiff neck, drowsiness, and intense headache. A spinal tap showed bacteria and white blood cells in the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). The individual most likely has
neurilemma
An individual peripheral nerve axon is covered by Schwann cells which produce a (an)
Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)
An inhibitory neurotransmitter
Gamma amino butyric acid
An inhibitory neurotransmitter present in the brain and spinal cord.
hyperpolarization
An inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP) is associated with ____.
Subthreshold stimulus
An insufficient stimulus.
voltage-gated channel
An ion channel that opens in response to a change in membrane potential and participates in the generation and conduction of action potentials.
What is the treatment for a herniated disk?
Analgesics, muscle relaxants, physical therapy, surgery--if herniation seen on imaging, intolerable pain, neurological deficit
What are Defects of neural tube closure?
Anencephaly Encephalocele Meningocele Myelomeningocele: Arnold-Chiari type II malformation Tethered cord syndrome
Mycotic aneurysm
Aneurysm that is caused by bacterial or fungal growth in the vessel wall or infection of a arteriosclerotic aneurysm.
What is the gold standard for stroke diagnosis?
Angiography
Complete loss of smell
Anosmia
Thoracolumbar division
Another name for the sympathetic division is the
A home care nurse is visiting a diabetic client with a new cast on the arm. On assessment, the nurse finds the client's fingers to be pale, cool, and slightly swollen. What is the nurse's best first action? 1.Elevate the arm above the level of the heart. 2.Withhold the next dose of insulin. 3.Apply heat to the affected hand. 4.Bivalve the cast.
Answer is #1 • Arm casts can impinge circulation when in the dependent position. The nurse should elevate the arm above the level of the heart, ensuring that the hand is above the elbow, and reassess the extremity in 15 minutes. If the
Which of the following clients is most at risk of infection after a fracture? 1.A client with a fractured clavicle 2.A client with an open fracture of the tibia 3.A client with a simple fracture of the wrist 4.A client with a compression fracture of a vertebra
Answer is #2 • Bone infection or osteomyelitis is most common in clients with an open fracture, because skin integrity is lost and organisms gain access easily.
A client with a ORIF of the right femur 4 days ago. The client complains of intense pain, swelling, tenderness, and warmth at the side, chills, malaise, and has a temperature of 102.2F. The data indicates which of the following? 1.Fat embolism 2.Compartment syndrome 3.Osteomyelitis 4.Malunion of bone
Answer is #3 • These are all signs and symptoms of an infection...
Which of the following clients is most at risk for deep vein thrombosis? 1.50-year-old female with a fractured ankle who takes aspirin for rheumatoid arthritis 2.25-year-old male athlete with a fractured clavicle 3.40-year-old female diabetic with fractured ribs 4.60-year-old male smoker with a fractured pelvis
Answer is #4 • Deep vein thrombosis as a complication with bone fractures occurs more often when the fractures are sustained in the lower extremities and the client has additional risk factors for thrombus formation. Other risk factors include obesity, smoking, oral contraceptives, previous thrombus events, advanced age, venous stasis, and heart disease.
The nurse notes that the skin around the client's skeletal traction pin site is swollen, red, and crusty, with dried drainage. What is the nurse's priority action? 1.Decrease the traction weight. 2.Apply a new dressing. 3.Document the finding as the only action. 4.Notify the physician.
Answer is #4 • These clinical manifestations indicate inflammation and possible infection. Infected pin sites can lead to osteomyelitis and should be treated immediately.
Management of the patient with bacterial meningitis includes: 1.Administering antibiotics immediately after collection of specimens for culture. 2.Waiting for results of a CSF culture to identify an organism before initiating treatment. 3.Providing symptomatic and supportive treatment because drug therapy is not effective in treatment. 4.Obtaining skull x-rays and CT scans to determine the extent of the disease before treatment is started.
Answer: 1 Rationale: Bacterial meningitis is a medical emergency. Rapid diagnosis based on history and physical examination is crucial because the patient is usually in a critical state when health care is sought. When meningitis is suspected, antibiotic therapy is instituted after collection of specimens for cultures, even before the diagnosis is confirmed.
Of the following patients, the nurse recognizes that the one with the highest risk for a stroke is 1.An obese 45-year-old Native American 2.A 35-year-old Asian American woman who smokes 3.A 32-year-old white woman taking oral contraceptives 4.A 65-year-old African American man with HTN
Answer: 4 Rationale: Stroke risk increases with age, doubling each decade after 55-years-old. 2/3 of all strokes occur in ages greater than 65. African American men are 4 times more likely....
A patient with a stroke has dysphagia. Before allowing the patient to eat, which of the following actions should the nurse take first? 1. Check the patient's gag reflex. 2. Request a soft diet with no liquids. 3. Place the patient in high-Fowler's position. 4. Test the patient's ability to swallow with a small amount of water.
Answer: 1 Rationale: Before initiation of feeding, assess the gag reflex by gently stimulating the back of the throat with a tongue blade. If a gag reflex is present, the patient will gag spontaneously. If it is absent, defer the feeding, and begin exercises to stimulate swallowing. To assess swallowing ability, elevate the head of the bed to an upright position (unless contraindicated), and give the patient a small amount of crushed ice or ice water to swallow.
A 69-year-old patient is admitted to the hospital with a urinary infection and possible bacterial sepsis. The patient is disoriented and has a disturbed sleep-wake cycle. The nurse administers the Confusion Assessment Method (CAM) tool to differentiate among various cognitive disorders, primarily because: 1.Delirium can be reversed by treating the underlying causes. 2.Depression is a common cause of dementia in older adults. 3.Nursing care should be based on the cause of the cognitive impairment. 4.Drug therapy with antipsychotic agents is indicated in the treatment of dementia.
Answer: 1 Rationale: Delirium, a state of temporary but acute mental confusion, is a common, life-threatening, and possibly preventable syndrome in older adults. Clinically, delirium is rarely caused by a single factor. It is often the result of the interaction of the patient's underlying condition with a precipitating event.
The nurse is called to the patient's room by the patient's spouse when the patient experiences a seizure. Upon finding the patient in a clonic reaction, the nurse should: 1.Turn the patient to the side. 2.Start oxygen by mask at 6 L/min. 3.Restrain the patient's arms and legs to prevent injury. 4.Record the time sequence of the patient's movements and responses as they occur
Answer: 1 Rationale: During the seizure, the nurse should maintain a patent airway, protect the patient's head, turn the patient to the side, loosen constrictive clothing, and ease the patient to the floor, if seated. The patient should not be restrained, and no objects should be placed in the mouth. After the seizure, the patient may require repositioning to open and maintain the airway, suctioning, and oxygen. When a seizure occurs, the nurse should carefully observe and record details of the event because diagnosis and subsequent treatment often rest solely on the seizure description.
An appropriate nursing diagnosis for a patient with advanced Parkinson's disease is 1.Risk for injury related to limited vision. 2.Risk for aspiration related to impaired swallowing. 3.Urge incontinence related to effects of drug therapy. 4.Ineffective breathing pattern related to diaphragm fatigue.
Answer: 2 Rationale: As swallowing becomes more difficult (dysphagia), malnutrition or aspiration may result
A patient with right-sided paresthesias and hemiparesis is hospitalized and diagnosed with a thrombotic stroke. Over the next 72 hours, the nurse plans care with the knowledge that the patient: 1.Is ready for aggressive rehabilitation. 2.Will show gradual improvement of the initial neurologic deficits. 3.May show signs of deteriorating neurologic function as cerebral edema increases. 4.Should not be turned or exercised to prevent extension of the thrombus and increased neurologic deficits.
Answer: 3 Rationale: Ischemic stroke symptoms may progress in the first 72 hours as infarction and cerebral edema increase
A patient with Alzheimer's disease has a nursing diagnosis of impaired memory related to effects of dementia. An appropriate nursing intervention for the patient is to: 1.Let the patient know what behavior is socially appropriate. 2.Assist the patient with all self-care to maintain self-esteem. 3.Maintain familiar routines of sleep, meals, drug administration, and activities. 4.At every encounter with the patient, ask the day, time, and place to promote orientation.
Answer: 3 Rationale: The nurse should maintain familiar routines by identifying usual patterns of behavior for activities such as sleep, medication use, elimination, food intake, and self-care.
A patient experiencing TIAs is scheduled for a carotid endarterectomy. The nurse explains that this procedure is done to 1.Decrease cerebral edema 2.Reduce the brain damage that occurs during a stroke in evolution 3.Prevent a stroke by removing atherosclerotic plaques blocking cerebral blood flow 4.Provide a circulatory bypass around thrombotic plaques obstructing cranial circulation
Answer: 3 Rationale: This is completed to prevent impending cerebral infarction. Atherosclerotic plaques are removed.
The daughter of a patient with early familial Alzheimer's disease (AD) asks how AD can be detected. The nurse describes early warning signs of AD, including: 1.Forgetting a colleague's name at a party. 2.Repeatedly misplacing car keys or a wallet. 3.Leaving a pot on the stove that boils dry and burns. 4.Having no memory of preparing a meal and forgetting to serve or eat it.
Answer: 4
Interferon β-1b (Betaseron) has been prescribed for a young woman who has been diagnosed with relapsing-remitting multiple sclerosis. The nurse determines that additional teaching about the drug is needed when the patient says, 1."I will need to rotate injection sites with each dose I inject." 2."I should report any depression or suicidal thoughts that develop." 3."I should avoid direct sunlight and use sunscreen and protective clothing when out of doors." 4."Because this drug is a corticosteroid, I should reduce my sodium intake to prevent edema."
Answer: 4 Rationale: Interferon β-1b (Betaseron) is an immunomodulator drug (and not a corticosteroid). The drug is given subcutaneously every other day. Patient teaching should include the following: rotate injection sites with each dose; assess for depression and suicidal ideation; wear sunscreen and protective clothing while exposed to the sun; and know that flu-like symptoms are common following initiation of therapy.
While performing health screening at a health fair, the nurse identifies which of the following individuals at greatest risk for experiencing a stroke? 1.A 46-year-old white female with hypertension and oral contraceptive use for 10 years. 2.A 58-year-old white male salesman who has a total cholesterol level of 285 mg/dL. 3.A 42-year-old African American female with diabetes mellitus who has smoked for 30 years. 4.A 62-year-old African American male with hypertension who is 35 pounds overweight.
Answer: 4 Rationale: Option 4: This individual has five risk factors: age, African American, male, hypertension, and overweight.
What areas may cause detection probelsm?
Anterior cingulate gyrus and basal ganglia Right dysfunction.
Threshold stimulus
Any stimulus below this intensity will result in no response in a neuron.
What are the three layers of white matters?
Archi layer: Connects neighboring segments; Contains neurons -> reticular activating system. Paleo layer: Fibers reach to the brain stem. Neo layer: Pathways for bladder control and fine motor skills; Develop by fifth year of life.
Cerebral infarction
Area of the brain loses blood supply because of vascular occlusion
trigger zone
Area where nerve impulse is generated.
L1
Around which vertebra does the spinal cord end?
What is Arousal?
Arousal is the state of awakeness.
Thrombotic stroke (cerebral thrombosis)
Arterial occlusions in vessels supplying the brain or intracranial vessels caused by atherosclerosis or inflammation.
Arteriovenous malformation
Arteries feed directly into veins through a vascular tangle of vessels
What type of muscle weakness does Guillian Barre cause?
Ascending
Posthypperventilation injury
Associated with diffuse bilateral metabolic or structural disease of cerebrum.
Coma
Associated with nonpurposeful movement only on stimulation.
Movement in Coma
Associated with nonpurposeful movement only on stimulation.
Light Coma
Associated with purposeful movement on stimulation.
Deep Coma
Associated with unresponsiveness or no response to any stimulus.
In which type of diabetic neuropathy do you have vasomotor, GI, GU, and cranial nerve function impairment?
Autonomic
Blood pressure, Heart rate, Digestion
Autonomic reflexes are used by the body to help regulate
31. Another term that describes the "firing" of neurons is _____. A. resting potential B. action potential C. graded potential D. polarized potential
B
1. A single cubic centimeter of the human brain consists of well over _____ nerve cells. A. 10 million B. 50 million C. 1 billion D. 100 billion
B
11. The ______ nervous system connects the brain and spinal cord to the rest of the body. A. central B. peripheral C. somatic D. autonomic
B
13. The sympathetic nervous system and parasympathetic nervous system are components of the _____. A. central nervous system B. autonomic nervous system C. somatic nervous system D. endocrine system
B
16. Linda is studying while listening to her iPod. She notices that when she raises the volume 5 decibels when the volume is initially low, the change is very noticeable. However, when the volume is initially high, increasing the volume by 5 decibels doesn't result in as noticeable of a change in sound. This phenomenon is best explained by ______. A. the volley principle B. Weber's law C. perceptual constancy D. selective attention
B
16. You are walking to school when you encounter a strange barking dog. You tense up and contemplate whether you should run away. Which nervous system is responsible for this "fight or flight" reaction? A. Somatic B. Sympathetic C. Parasympathetic D. Efferent
B
17. Emily is selecting a new paint color for her bedroom. She detects a difference between sky blue and midnight blue. Emily's ability to distinguish these two colors from one another can best be explained by the concept of _____. A. sensory adaptation B. a difference threshold C. selective attention D. top-down processing
B
2. The brain's ability to coordinate information from all five senses best reflects which of the following characteristics of the nervous system? A. Complexity B. Integration C. Adaptability D. Electrochemical transmission
B
2. _____ is the process by which the brain actively organizes and interprets sensory information. A. Consciousness B. Perception C. Sensation D. Reception
B
22. Dendrites are ____. A. the part of the neuron that is responsible for sending information away from the cell body toward other cells B. the branch-like part of the neuron that is responsible for receiving information from other neurons C. located inside the cell body D. the layer of fat cells that encase and insulate the neuron
B
22. Jennifer is a chain smoker. When her friend Irene, a non-smoker, gets in the car with Jennifer she is overwhelmed by the smell of smoke. One day she mentioned this fact to Jennifer who was surprised by the comment. Jennifer claims that when she sniffs her hair and clothing she can't sense the smoky scent. Jennifer's inability to detect the smoky scent is an example of _____. A. perceptual redundancy B. sensory adaptation C. the cocktail party phenomenon D. closure
B
24. The existence of extrasensory perception (ESP) _____. A. is strongly supported by the results of scientific research B. is not supported by the results of scientific research C. has never been studied in scientific research D. is supported by the results of experimental MRI studies but not by other experimental studies.
B
25. The cell body contains the ______, which directs the manufacture of substances that a neuron needs for growth and maintenance. A. glial cells B. nucleus C. axon D. dendrite
B
26. ____ is a layer of fat cells that insulates most axons and speeds up the transmission of nerve impulses. A. A dendrite B. The myelin sheath C. Plasticity D. Acetylcholine
B
28. When a neuron is at its resting state, what is the status of the charges on each side of the cell membrane? A. There is a negative charge on the outside of the cell membrane, and a positive charge on the inside. B. There is a negative charge on the inside of the cell membrane and a positive charge on the outside. C. There is a negative charge on both the outside and the inside of the cell membrane. D. There is a positive charge on both the outside and the inside of the cell membrane.
B
29. Cones ______. A. are receptors in the retina that are sensitive to light B. are specialized receptor cells that enable us to see color C. function best at night or under low illumination conditions D. are concentrated in the blind spot
B
3. The term plasticity refers to the ____. A. flexibility of the endocrine system B. brain's special capacity for modification and change C. natural tendency to engage in a fight or flight response D. ability of people to change habits over time
B
31. The iris is the _____. A. clear membrane just in front of the cornea through which light first passes B. colored part of the eye that contains muscles that control the size of the pupil C. white outer part of the eye that helps to maintain the shape of the eye and to protect it from injury D. light-sensitive surface at the back of the eye that records what we see and converts it to neural impulses for processing in the brain
B
33. The _____ is filled with a gelatinous material that helps focus light. A. retina B. lens C. optic nerve D. fovea
B
37. Depression is associated with low levels of what neurotransmitter? A. Acetylcholine B. Serotonin C. Dopamine D. Oxytocin
B
37. The _____, which consists of the axons of the ganglion cells, carries visual information to the brain for further processing. A. fovea B. optic nerve C. retina D. iris
B
38. Toward the center of the retina, there is an area that contains only cones. This area is called the _____. A. cornea B. fovea C. chiasm D. optic nerve
B
38. _____ are natural opiates that shield the body from pain and elevate feelings of pleasure. A. Horomones B. Endorphins C. Acetylcholine D. Chromosomes
B
39. The _____ is the area near the center of the retina where there are no rods and no cones. A. cornea B. blind spot C. fovea D. lens
B
40. Which of the following neurotransmitters play in important role in the regulation of sleep, mood, attention, and learning? A. GABA and oxytocin B. Dopamine and serotonin C. Acetycholine and GABA D. Acetycholine and oxytocin
B
41. __________ is a process that involves coupling of the activity of various cells and pathways and helps integrate information about an object. A. Parallel processing B. Binding C. Depth perception D. Perceptual integration
B
43. Michael has schizophrenia. His psychiatrist prescribed a new drug that blocks or interferes with the activity of dopamine. Michael's doctor is using ______ to treat his disorder. A. an agonist B. an antagonist C. brain lesioning D. a lobotomy
B
44. If a child asks you why we can see colors, and you want to answer according to the trichromatic theory of color vision, you might tell him it is because there are ______ different types of cones in the retina. A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5
B
45. Dr. Becker is interested in identifying the pathways of connectivity in the brain and nervous system. Which of the following techniques will Dr. Becker most likely use in his research? A. Brain lesioning B. Staining C. Positron emission tomography (PET) D. Electroencephalogram (EEG)
B
45. Which of the following theories of vision can best explain the occurrence of afterimages (i.e., sensations that remain after a stimulus is removed)? A. Trichromatic theory B. Opponent-process theory C. Frequency theory D. Place theory
B
48. In order to get a good idea of an object's depth, we rely on a number of binocular and monocular cues. Which of the following would be an example of a binocular cue? A. Texture gradient B. Convergence C. Height in field of view D. Shading
B
5. Melanie is learning how to read Spanish by sounding out each word one letter at a time. Melanie is engaging in _____. A. top-down processing B. bottom-up processing C. sensory adaptation D. subliminal perception
B
5. You are listening to a lecture. Then the bell rings in the hallway. In order to hear this stimulus, ______ neurons must carry electrochemical messages from your ears to your brain. A. indigent B. afferent C. efferent D. indifferent
B
50. _____ depth vision cues depend on the combination of the images in the left and right eyes. A. Monocular B. Binocular C. Gradient D. Parallel
B
51. In depth perception, familiar size, height in field of view, and shading are examples of _____. A. binocular cues B. monocular cues C. stereograms D. feature detectors
B
53. The reticular formation is primarily responsible for _____. A. controlling breathing and regulating reflexes to maintain an upright posture B. stereotyped patterns such as walking, sleeping, or turning to attend to a sudden noise C. control and coordination of balance, hearing, and parasympathetic function D. motor coordination and the integration of complex muscle movements
B
55. The tendency for perceptions of objects to remain relatively unchanged in spite of changes in size, shape, and/or color is called _____. A. monocular constancy B. perceptual constancy C. linear perspective D. the figure-ground principle
B
59. The most complex mental functions, such as thinking and planning, take place in the _____. A. corpus callosum B. cerebral cortex C. cerebellum D. amygdala
B
6. The lecture you were listening to is over. The bell that rang in the hall signaled the end of class. You get up out of your seat, pick up your things, and walk out the classroom door. Which kind of nerves sent the signals from your brain to your muscles to initiate your physical movements? A. Afferent B. Efferent C. Hormones D. Indifferent
B
6. ______ are specialized cells that detect stimulus information and transmit it to afferent nerves and the brain. A. Perceptual sets B. Sensory receptors C. Binocular cues D. Monocular cues
B
61. The ____ are involved in personality, intelligence, and the control of voluntary muscles. A. temporal lobes B. frontal lobes C. occipital lobes D. parietal lobes
B
61. The primary function of the _____ is to collect sounds and channel them into the inner ear. A. cochlea B. pinnae C. cilia D. basilar membrane
B
64. The somatosensory cortex processes information about _____. A. planning and decision making B. bodily sensations C. facial expressions D. voluntary body movement
B
64. When you hear any sound, your eardrum vibrates. These vibrations are then transferred to the inner ear by the hammer, anvil, and stirrup. These three bones are all located in the _____. A. outer ear B. middle ear C. inner ear D. marginal ear
B
73. Which of the following statements about cochlear implants is FALSE? A. A cochlear implant is a small electronic device that is surgically implanted in the ear and head. B. Cochlear implants, like hearing aids, work by amplifying sound. C. Cochlear implants stimulate whatever working auditory nerves the recipient has in his or her cochlea with electronic impulses. D. Cochlear implants work best if they are inserted shortly after hearing loss.
B
75. The chemical messengers produced by the endocrine glands are known as _____. A. neurotransmitters B. hormones C. myelin sheath D. stem cells
B
78. _____ glands help regulate mood, energy, and the ability to cope with stress. A. Pituitary B. Adrenal C. Pancreas D. Gonad
B
8. Which of the following classes of sensory receptors provide information about sight and the detection of light? A. Chemoreception B. Photoreception C. Mechanoreception D. Synaesthesia
B
8. Your brain has instructed your body muscles to move so that you avoid burning your hand on a hot stove. Which type of nerves carried the information from your brain to your muscles so that you could avoid getting burned? A. Afferent nerves B. Efferent nerves C. Glial nerves D. Parasympathetic nerves
B
80. Different neural pathways transmit pain messages to the brain. In the _____ neurons connect directly to the thalamus and then to the motor and sensory areas. This pathway transmits information about sharp, localized pain. A. slow pathway B. fast pathway C. kinesthetic sense D. vestibular sense
B
82. When Charlie was three years old, he fell off the slide at the playground and damaged the left hemisphere of his brain. Despite this injury, as Charlie grew older he still retained some of his language abilities because the right hemisphere of his brain took control over the language function. Which of the following mechanisms of brain damage repair is apparent in this example? A. Collateral sprouting B. Substitution of function C. Neurogenesis D. Lobotomy
B
85. _____ is a term used to describe the influences of multiple genes on behavior. A. The all or none principle B. Polygenic inheritance C. Phenotype D. Genotype
B
86. Smell can elicit more vivid memories than the other senses. What is the reason for this? A. Because smells are often stronger than sights, sounds, and other stimuli. B. Because the sense of smell takes a more direct neural pathway to emotion, and memory centers in the brain than do other senses. C. Because smells are more often associated with stronger emotions, particularly those associated with threat or harm. D. Because the sense of smell is closely related to finding food to eat for survival, it is directly connected to the areas in the brain responsible for primary survival behaviors.
B
9. The brain and spinal cord make up the _____. A. peripheral nervous system B. central nervous system C. autonomic nervous system D. somatic nervous system
B
A 54-year-old patient with acute osteomyelitis asks the nurse how this problem will be treated. Which of the following responses by the nurse is most appropriate? A) a. "Oral antibiotics are often required for several months." B) b. "Intravenous antibiotics are usually required for several weeks." C) c. "Surgery is almost always necessary to remove the dead tissue that is likely to be present." D) d. "Drainage of the foot and instillation of antibiotics into the affected area is the usual therapy."
B
A female patient has left-sided hemiplegia following an ischemic stroke that she experienced 2 weeks earlier. How should the nurse best promote the health of the patient's integumentary system? A) a. Position the patient on her weak side the majority of the time. B) b. Alternate the patient's positioning between supine and side-lying. C) c. Avoid the use of pillows in order to promote independence in positioning. D) d. Establish a schedule for the massage of areas where skin breakdown emerges.
B
A female patient with a long-standing history of rheumatoid arthritis has sought care because of increasing stiffness in her right knee that has culminated in complete fixation of the joint. The nurse would document the presence of which of the following problems? A) a. Atrophy B) b. Ankylosis C) c. Crepitation D) d. Contracture
B
A nursing measure that is indicated to reduce the potential for seizures and increased intracranial pressure in the patient with bacterial meningitis is a. administering codeine for relief of head and neck pain b. controlling fever with prescribed drugs and cooling techniques c. keeping the room darkened and quite to minimize environmental stimulation d. maintaining the patient on strict bed rest with the head of the bed slightly elevated
B
A patient has been diagnosed with osteosarcoma of the femur. He shows an understanding of his treatment options when he states a. I accept that I have to lose my leg with surgery b. the chemotherapy before surgery will shrink the tumor c. this tumor is related to the colon cancer I had 3 years ago d. I'm glad they can take out the cancer with such a small scar
B
During a public health screening day, which of the following assessment findings would alert the nurse to the presence of osteoporosis in a 61-year-old female? A) a. The presence of bowed legs B) b. A measurable loss of height C) c. Poor appetite and aversion to dairy products D) d. The development of unstable, wide-gait ambulation
B
For a patient who is suspected of having a stroke, one of the most important pieces of information that the nurse can obtain is a. time of the patient's last meal b. time at which stroke symptoms first appeared c. patient's hypertension history and management d. family history of stroke and other cardiovascular diseases
B
Which of the following characteristics of a patient's recent seizure is congruent with a partial seizure? A) a. The patient lost consciousness during the seizure. B) b. The seizure involved lip smacking and repetitive movements. C) c. The patient fell to the ground and became stiff for 20 seconds. D) d. The etiology of the seizure involved both sides of the patient's brain.
B
How should the nurse most accurately assess the position sense of a patient with a recent traumatic brain injury? A) a. Ask the patient to close his or her eyes and slowly bring the tips of the index fingers together. B) b. Ask the patient to maintain balance while standing with his or her feet together and eyes closed. C) c. Ask the patient to close his or her eyes and identify the presence of a common object on the forearm. D) d. Place the two points of a calibrated compass on the tips of the fingers and toes and ask the patient to discriminate the points.
B
One major goal of treatment for a patient with huntingtons disease is a. disease cure b. symptomatic relief c. maintaining employment d. improving muscle strength
B
The most common early symptom of a spinal cord tumor is a. urinary incontinence b. back pain that worsens with activity c. paralysis below the level of involvement d. impaired sensation of pain, temperature, and light touch
B
The nurse interprets that which of the following prescribed medications is being used to treat osteomyelitis for a 54-year-old patient admitted to the nursing unit? A) a. Thiamine (vitamin B1) B) b. Gentamicin (Garamycin) C) c. Chlordiazepoxide (Librium) D) d. Oxycodone with acetaminophen (Percocet)
B
The nurse is admitting a patient who is scheduled for knee arthroscopy related to osteoarthritis (OA). Which of the following findings would the nurse expect to be present on examination of the patient's knees? A) a. Ulnar drift B) b. Pain with joint movement C) c. Reddened, swollen affected joints D) d. Stiffness that increases with movement
B
The nurse is caring for a patient admitted with a spinal cord injury following a motor vehicle accident. The patient exhibits a complete loss of motor, sensory, and reflex activity below the injury level. The nurse recognizes this condition as which of the following? A) a. Central cord syndrome B) b. Spinal shock syndrome C) c. Anterior cord syndrome D) d. Brown-Séquard syndrome
B
The nurse is caring for a patient who has osteoarthritis (OA) of the knees. The nurse teaches the patient that the most beneficial measure to protect the joints is to do which of the following? A) a. Use a wheelchair to avoid walking as much as possible. B) b. Eat a well-balanced diet to maintain a healthy body weight. C) c. Use a walker for ambulation to relieve the pressure on her hips. D) d. Sit in chairs that do not cause her hips to be lower than her knees.
B
The nurse is caring for a patient with peripheral neuropathy who is going to have EMG studies tomorrow morning. The nurse should a. ensure the patient has an empty bladder b. instruct the patient that there is no risk of electric shock c. ensure the patient has no metallic jewelry or metal fragments d. instruct the patient that she or he may experience pain during the study
B
The nurse is working with a 73-year-old patient with osteoarthritis (OA). In assessing the patient's understanding of this disorder, the nurse concludes teaching has been effective when the patient describes the condition as which of the following? A) a. Joint destruction caused by an autoimmune process B) b. Degeneration of articular cartilage in synovial joints C) c. Overproduction of synovial fluid resulting in joint destruction D) d. Breakdown of tissue in non-weight-bearing joints by enzymes
B
The nurse plans care for the patient with increased intracranial pressure with the knowledge that the best way to position the patient is to a. keep the head of the bed flat b. elevate the head of the bed to 30 degrees c. maintain patient of the left side with the head supported on a pillow d. use a continuous rotation bed to continuously change patient position
B
The patient has an order for phenytoin (Dilantin) 100 mg q8hr IV. Available is a phenytoin injection containing 50 mg/ml. How many milliliters of solution should the nurse draw up for the dose? A) a. 0.5 B) b. 2 C) c. 5 D) d. 20
B
The patient has been receiving scheduled doses of phenytoin (Dilantin) and begins to experience diplopia. The nurse immediately assesses the patient for which of the following? A) a. An aura B) b. Nystagmus or confusion C) c. Abdominal pain or cramping D) d. Irregular pulse or palpitations
B
Vasogenic cerebral edema increases intracranial pressure by a. shifting fluid in the gray matter b. altering the endothelial lining of cerebral capillaries c. leaking molecules from the intracellular fluid to the capillaries
B
When administering medications to the patient with gout, the nurse would recognize which of the following as a treatment for chronic disease? a. colchicine b. febuxostat c. sulfasalazine d. cyclosporine
B
When assessing the accessory nerve, the nurse would A) a. Assess the gag reflex by stroking the posterior pharynx. B) b. Ask the patient to shrug the shoulders against resistance. C) c. Ask the patient to push the tongue to either side against resistance. D) d. Have the patient say "ah" while visualizing elevation of soft palate.
B
When grading muscle strength, the nurse records a score of 1, which indicates a. no detection of muscular contraction b. a barely detectable flicker of contraction c. active movement against gravity with some resistance d. active movement against full resistance without fatigue
B
When reinforcing health teaching about the management of osteoarthritis (OA), the nurse determines that the patient needs additional instruction after making which of the following statements? A) a. "I should take the Celebrex as prescribed to help control the pain." B) b. "I should try to stay standing all day to keep my joints from becoming stiff." C) c. "I can use a cane if I find it helpful in relieving the pressure on my back and hip." D) d. "A warm shower in the morning will help relieve the stiffness I have when I get up."
B
The nurse is caring for a patient admitted with a subdural hematoma following a motor vehicle accident. Which of the following changes in vital signs would the nurse interpret as a manifestation of increased intracranial pressure? A) a. Tachypnea B) b. Bradycardia C) c. Hypotension D) d. Narrowing pulse pressure
B Changes in vital signs indicative of increased intracranial pressure are known as Cushing's triad, which consists of increasing systolic pressure with a widening pulse pressure, bradycardia with a full and bounding pulse, and irregular respirations.
The nurse would expect to find which of the following clinical manifestations in a patient admitted with a left-brain stroke? A) a. Impulsivity B) b. Impaired speech C) c. Left-side neglect D) d. Short attention span
B Clinical manifestations of left-sided brain damage include right hemiplegia, impaired speech/language aphasias, impaired right/left discrimination, and slow and cautious performance. The other options are all manifestations of right-sided brain damage.
The nurse is caring for a 49-year-old patient admitted to the nursing unit with osteomyelitis. Which of the following symptoms will the nurse most likely find on physical examination of the patient? A) a. Nausea and vomiting B) b. Localized pain and redness C) c. Paresthesia in the affected extremity D) d. Generalized bone pain throughout the leg
B Osteomyelitis is an infection of bone and bone marrow that can occur with trauma, surgery, or extension of nearby infection. Because it is an infection, the patient will exhibit typical signs of inflammation and infection, including localized pain and redness.
Goals of rehabilitation for the patient with an injury at the C6 level include (select all that apply) a. stand erect with leg brace b. feed self with hand devices c. drive an electric wheelchair d. assist with transfer activities e. drive adapted van from wheelchair
B,C,D,E
When caring for a patient with systemic sclerosis, the nurse knows it is important to instruct the patient related to (select all that apply) a. avoiding consumption of high purine foods b. strategies for good dental hygiene and mouth care c. protecting the extremities from hot and cold temperatures d. maintaining joint function and preserving muscle strength e. performing mouth excursion (yawning) exercises on a daily basis
B,C,D,E
A patient with rheumatoid arthritis is scheduled for a total hip arthroplasty. The nurse explains that the purpose of this procedure is to (select all that apply) a. fuse the joint b. replace the joint c. prevent further damage d. improve or maintain ROM e. decrease the amount of destruction in the joint
B,D
The nurse is providing care for a patient who has been admitted to the hospital with a head injury and who requires regular neurologic vital signs. Which of the following assessments will be components of the patient's score on the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) (select all that apply)? A) a. Judgment B) b. Eye opening C) c. Abstract reasoning D) d. Best verbal response E) e. Best motor response F) f. Cranial nerve function
B,D,E
Which of the following residents of a long-term facility is exhibiting signs and symptoms that are indicative of hypothyroidism? A. An 88-year-old man with a history of Alzheimer disease who has become increasingly agitated and is wandering more frequently B. An 80-year-old woman who has uncharacteristically lost her appetite of late and often complains of feeling cold C. A 91-year-old man with a chronic venous ulcer and a sacral ulcer who has developed sepsis D. A 90-year-old woman with a history of atrial fibrillation whose arrhythmia has recently become more severe
B. An 80-year-old woman who has uncharacteristically lost her appetite of late and often complains of feeling cold
A patient with upper body obesity also has central fat distribution. This body fat configuration places the patient at greater risk for _____________ than a patient with lower body obesity. A. chronic anemia B. cardiovascular disorders C. renal disease D. osteoporosis
B. Cardiovascular disorders
A diabetic patient's most recent blood work indicated a decreased glomerular filtration rate and urine testing revealed microalbuminuria. Which of the following self-care measures should the patient's care team suggest to the patient? A. Decreased oral sugar intake B. Measures to lower blood pressure C. Use of over-the-counter diuretics D. Increased fluid intake
B. Measures to lower blood pressure
Which of the following assessment findings is most suggestive of nephrotic syndrome? A. Renal colic and increased serum sodium B. Proteinuria and generalized edema C. Hematuria and anemia D. Increased creatinine with normal blood urea nitrogen
B. Proteinuria and generalized edema
A patient has provided a routine urine sample during a scheduled visit to his primary care provider. Which of the following results is an expected finding in a healthy individual? A. Low to moderate amount of glucose in the urine B. Urine specific gravity of 1.020 C. Presence of moderate amounts of albumin with the absence of other proteins D. Presence of urinary casts
B. Urine specific gravity of 1.020
In addition to regulating body fluids and electrolytes, the kidneys function in maintaining bone calcium levels by: A. excreting bicarbonate. B. activating vitamin D. C. synthesizing erythropoietin. D. stimulating bone marrow.
B. activating vitamin D.
Impaired and delayed healing in a person with diabetes is caused by chronic complications that include: A. ketoacidosis B. chronic neuropathies. C. Somogyi effect. D. fluid imbalances.
B. chronic neuropathies.
Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) more commonly occurs in patients with type 1 diabetes, when the lack of insulin leads to the mobilization of _____ that causes excess ketone production by the liver. A. potassium B. fatty acids C. bicarbonate D. cortisol
B. fatty acids
Diverging circuits
Because of ___, one motor neuron of the brain can ultimately cause thousands of muscle fibers to contract.
endoneurium
Because of the absence of ___, damaged nerve fibers in the CNS cannot regenerate.
true
Because of the decussation of sensory nerve fibers, the right postcentral gyrus monitors sensations from the left side of the body
Disorientation
Beginning loss of consciousness; disorientation to time followed by disorientation to place and impaired memory; lost last is recognition of self.
When does hypothermia occur?
Below 95
Oligodendroglioma
Benign nerve sheath tumor in the central nervous system
Neurofibroma or schwannoma
Benign nerve sheath tumor in the peripheral nervous system
Cheyne-Stokes Respiration injury
Bilateral dysfunction of deep cerebral or diencephalic structures; seen with supratentorial injury and metabolically induced coma states.
in the retina of the eye
Bipolar neurons are commonly found
What are watershed infarcts?
Border zones between adjacent blood supply of major cerebral arteries.
24. The nucleus of a neuron is located in the ____. A. axon hillock B. terminal stub C. cell body D. synapse
C
Inflammation of the eyelids caused by staph infections or dermatitis. Redness, edema, and itching
Blepharitis
astrocytes
Blood capillaries of the brain are enveloped by
Which type of dystrophy is x-linked recessive?
Both--Duchenne and Becker (mother is carrier, passes it down to male offspring)
Which drug works on the presynaptic end?
Botulinum toxin (blocks release of Ach from axon terminal).
Contrecoup
Brain injury resulting from the brain hitting the inside of the skull on the side opposite the site of blunt force trauma.
Coup
Brain injury that occurs on the same side of a blunt force to the head; it results from the rapid acceleration and then deceleration of the brain as it hits the inside of the skull. Injury directly below the point of impact.
Cerebellar astrocytoma
Brain tumor of the right or left cerebellar hemisphere and cause symptoms on the same side as the tumor including head tilt, limb ataxia, and nystagmus.
Most common malignancies in children
Brain tumors and leukemia
Which veins carry blood from the brain across the inner layer of the dura mater to the sinus
Bridging veins (Meningeal veins: drain the underlying neural tissue and puncture the dura mater, empty into these dural sinuses. A rupture of a bridging vein causes a subdural hematoma.)
Transient ischemic attack
Brief episode of neurologic dysfunction, symptoms typically last less than 1 hour, no evidence of infarction
27. _____ allows neurons to speed up the transmission of nerve impulses. A. Resting potential B. Having more than one cell body C. The myelin sheath D. Acetylcholine
C
30. According to the all-or-nothing principle, _____. A. if all the neurons in a network are not integrated, the "message" carried by the neurons will be lost B. the amount of time a neuron must "rest" in between firing episodes is stable C. once the electrical impulse reaches a certain level of intensity (its threshold), it fires and moves all the way down the axon without losing any intensity D. as a person ages, his or her neurological system slows down and the intensity of neural impulses decreases significantly
C
Contusion
Bruise produced by bleeding into the skin or underlying tissues from an insult that did not break the skin but did rupture blood vessels.
How does the brain handle hypoxia?
By undergoing anaerobic metabolism
fourth week
By which week of pregnancy does the neural groove fuse, giving rise to the neural tube, which rapid idly differentiates into the CNS?
1. The process through which the senses detect environmental stimuli and transmit them to the brain is called ____. A. consciousness B. perception C. sensation D. reception
C
11. The _____ marks the point where we can just barely perceive a stimulus. A. just noticeable difference B. difference threshold C. absolute threshold D. just noticeable threshold
C
14. The ______ nervous system mobilizes the body's resources and prepares it for action (i.e., the fight or flight response). A. central B. somatic C. sympathetic D. parasympathetic
C
14. The smallest intensity of a stimulus that you can detect 50 percent of the time is _____. A. Weber's law B. the sensory threshold C. the difference threshold D. the absolute threshold
C
15. The parasympathetic nervous system is part of the _____ nervous system. A. central B. somatic C. autonomic D. sympathetic
C
17. Which division of the peripheral nervous system is responsible for producing physiological symptoms (such as increased heart rate and butterflies in the stomach) under conditions of stress? A. Somatic B. Parasympathetic C. Sympathetic D. Efferent
C
18. After finishing a psychology test, you try to relax by engaging in some meditation techniques. Doing these exercises should increase the response of the ________ nervous system, which results in a slower heart and respiration rate and less muscular tension. A. somatic B. central C. parasympathetic D. sympathetic
C
18. What theory of perception proposes that detection of stimuli depends on a variety of factors including, but not limited to, physical intensity of the stimulus, fatigue of the observer, and expectancy? A. Opponent-process theory B. Multiple perceptual context theory C. Signal detection theory D. Weber's theory
C
19. You are playing a new X-Box game in which you are pretending to train as a police officer. Your task is to correctly identify and shoot the criminals you encounter and to protect the lives of innocent civilians. You begin walking down the street when various individuals come out from behind buildings and around corners. In your first encounter you erroneously shoot an innocent civilian. According to signal detection theory, your response to the stimulus would be classified as a _____. A. hit B. miss C. false alarm D. correct rejection
C
21. You arrive at your friend's apartment for a big party at the end of the semester. When you first arrive, the music is so loud that it almost hurts your ears. After a couple of hours, even though the music is still at the same volume, it no longer bothers you or seems that loud. This change in your sensations describes the process of _____. A. auditory adjustment B. transduction C. sensory adaptation D. sensory deprivation
C
23. When Carlos first jumped into the pool, he thought the water was very cold. Although the actual temperature of the pool remained constant, after a few minutes Carlos no longer complained about feeling cold. This change is his reaction to the temperature of the water is an example of _______. A. sensory deprivation B. a perceptual set C. sensory adaptation D. top-down processing
C
88. Dr. Cardinale is interested in the effects of heredity and environment on intelligence. She compares the similarity of IQ scores of identical twins to the similarity of IQ scores of fraternal twins. Dr. Cardinale is conducting a ______ study. A. human genome B. molecular genetics C. behavior genetics D. selective breeding
C
89. Sensory receptors for the kinesthetic sense are located in what part of the body? A. Spinal cord B. Thalamus C. Muscle fibers and joints D. Small bones in the inner ear
C
A 65 year old woman was just diagnosed with parkinson's disease. The priority nursing intervention is a. searching the internet for educational videos b. evaluating the home for environmental safety c. promoting physical exercise and a well balanced diet d. designing an exercise program to strengthen and stretch specific muscles
C
A male patient with a diagnosis of Parkinson's disease (PD) has been admitted recently to a long-term care facility. Which of the following actions should the health care team take in order to promote adequate nutrition for this patient? A) a. Provide multivitamins with each meal. B) b. Provide a diet that is low in complex carbohydrates and high in protein. C) c. Provide small, frequent meals throughout the day that are easy to chew and swallow. D) d. Provide the patient with a minced or pureed diet that is high in potassium and low in sodium.
C
A patient experiencing TIAs is scheduled for a carotid endarterectomy. The nurse explains that this procedure is done to a. decreased cerebral edema b. reduce the brain damage that occurs during a stroke in evolution c. prevent a stroke by removing atherosclerotic plaques blocking cerebral blood flow d. provide a circulatory bypass around thrombotic plaques obstructing cranial circulation
C
A patient with a C7 spinal cord injury undergoing rehabilitation tells the nurse he must have the flu because he as had a bad headache and nausea. The initial action of the nurse is to a. call the physician b. check the patient's temperature c. take the patient's blood pressure d. elevate the head of the bed to 90 degrees
C
A patient with right sided hemiplegia and asphasia resulting from a stroke most likely has involvement of the a. brainstem b. vertebral artery c. left middle cerebral artery d. right middle cerebral artery
C
A patient's sudden onset of hemiplegia has necessitated a computed tomography (CT) of her head. Which of the following assessments should the nurse complete prior to this diagnostic study? A) a. Assess the patient's immunization history. B) b. Screen the patient for any metal parts or a pacemaker. C) c. Assess the patient for allergies to shellfish, iodine, or dyes. D) d. Assess the patient's need for tranquilizers or antiseizure medications.
C
An indication of a neurovascular problem noted during assessment of the patient with a fracture is a. exaggeration of strength with movement b. increased redness and heat below the injury c.decreased sensation distal to the fracture site d. purulent drainage at the site of an open fracture
C
An obstruction of the anterior cerebral arteries will affect functions of a. visual imaging b. balance and coordination c. judgment, insight, and reasoning d. visual and auditory integration for language comprehension
C
Assessment data in the patient with osteoarthritis commonly include a. gradual weight loss b. elevated WBC count c. joint pain that worsens with use d. straw colored synovial fluid
C
Bladder training in a male patient who has urinary incontinence after a stroke includes a. limiting fluid intake b. keeping a urinal in place at all times c. assisting the patient to stand to void d. catherizing the patient every four hours
C
During neurologic testing, the patient is able to perceive pain elicited by pinprick. Based on this finding, the nurse may omit testing for a. position sense b. patellar reflexes c. temperature perception d. heel-to-shin movements
C
The factor related to cerebral blood flow that most often determines the extent of cerebral damage from a stroke is the a. amount of cardiac output b. oxygen content of the blood c. degree of collateral circulation d. level of carbon dioxide in the blood
C
The nurse explains to the patient with a stroke who is scheduled for aniography that this test is used to determine a. presence of increased ICP b. site and size of the infarction c. patency of the cerebral blood vessels d. presence of blood in the cerebrospinal fluid
C
The nurse is alerted to a possible acute subdural hematoma in the patient who a. has a linear skull fracture crossing a major artery b. has focal symptoms of brain damage with no recollection of a head injury c. develops decreased level of consciousness and a headache within 48 hours of a head injury d. has an immediate loss of consciousness with a brief lucid interval followed by decreasing level of consciousness
C
The nurse is assessing the recent health history of a 63-year-old patient with osteoarthritis (OA). The nurse determines that the patient is trying to manage the condition appropriately when the patient describes which of the following activity patterns? A) a. Bed rest with bathroom privileges B) b. Daily high-impact aerobic exercise C) c. A regular exercise program of walking D) d. Frequent rest periods with minimal exercise
C
The nurse is caring for a patient with osteoarthritis who is about to undergo total left knee arthroplasty. The nurse assesses the patient carefully to be sure that there is no evidence of which of the following in the preoperative period? A) a. Pain B) b. Left knee stiffness C) c. Left knee infection D) d. Left knee instability
C
The nurse is performing a musculoskeletal assessment of an 81-year-old female patient whose mobility has been progressively decreasing in recent months. How should the nurse best assess the patient's range of motion (ROM) in the affected leg? A) a. Perform passive ROM, asking the patient to report any pain. B) b. Ask the patient to lift progressive weights with the affected leg. C) c. Observe the patient's unassisted ROM in the affected leg. D) d. Move both of the patient's legs from a supine position to full flexion.
C
The nurse is providing care for a patient who has been diagnosed with Guillain-Barré syndrome. Which of the following assessments should the nurse prioritize? A) a. Pain assessment B) b. Glasgow Coma Scale C) c. Respiratory assessment D) d. Musculoskeletal assessment
C
The nurse on the clinical unit is assigned to four patients. Which patient should she assess first? a. patient with a skull fracture whose nose is bleeding b. elderly patient with a stroke who is confused and whose daughter is present c. patient with meningitis who is suddenly agitated and reporting a headache of 10 on a zero to ten scale d. patient who had a craniotomy for a brain tumor who is now 3 days postoperative and has had continued emesis
C
Which of the following nursing interventions is most appropriate when communicating with a patient suffering from aphasia poststroke? A) a. Present several thoughts at once so that the patient can connect the ideas. B) b. Ask open-ended questions to provide the patient the opportunity to speak. C) c. Use simple, short sentences accompanied by visual cues to enhance comprehension. D) d. Finish the patient's sentences so as to minimize frustration associated with slow speech.
C
While performing passive pange of motion for a patient, the nurse puts a synovial joint through the movements of a. inversion and eversion b. pronation and supination c. flexion, extension, abduction, and adduction d, flexion, extension, rotation, and circumduction
C
The nurse formulates a nursing diagnosis of impaired physical mobility related to decreased muscle strength for a 78-year-old patient following left total knee replacement. Which of the following would be an appropriate nursing intervention for this patient? A) a. Promote vitamin D and calcium intake in the diet. B) b. Provide passive range of motion to all of the joints q4hr. C) c. Encourage isometric quadriceps-setting exercises at least qid. D) d. Keep the left leg in extension and abduction to prevent contractures.
C Great emphasis is placed on postoperative exercise of the affected leg, with isometric quadriceps setting beginning on the first day after surgery.
A 54-year-old patient admitted with cellulitis and probable osteomyelitis has just received an injection of radioisotope at 9:00 am before a bone scan. The nurse should plan to send the patient for the bone scan at which of the following times? A) a. 9:30 pm B) b. 10:00 am C) c. 11:00 am D) d. 1:00 pm
C A technician usually administers a calculated dose of a radioisotope 2 hours before a bone scan. If the patient was injected at 9:00 am, the procedure should be done at 11:00 am.
Which of the following sensory-perceptual deficits is associated with left-brain stroke (right hemiplegia)? A) a. Overestimation of physical abilities B) b. Difficulty judging position and distance C) c. Slow and possibly fearful performance of tasks D) d. Impulsivity and impatience at performing tasks
C Patients with a left-brain stroke (right hemiplegia) commonly are slower in organization and performance of tasks and may have a fearful, anxious response to a stroke.
A female patient's complex symptomatology over the past year has culminated in a diagnosis of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). Which of the patient's following statements demonstrates the need for further teaching about the disease? A) a. "I'll try my best to stay out of the sun this summer." B) b. "I know that I probably have a high chance of getting arthritis." C) c. "I'm hoping that surgery will be an option for me in the future." D) d. "I understand that I'm going to be vulnerable to getting infections."
C SLE carries an increased risk of infection, sun damage, and arthritis. Surgery is not a key treatment modality for SLE.
The nurse determines that dietary teaching for a 75-year-old patient with osteoporosis has been most successful when the patient selects which of the following highest-calcium meals? A) a. Chicken stir-fry with 1 cup each onions and snap peas, and 1 cup of steamed rice B) b. Ham and Swiss cheese sandwich on whole wheat bread, steamed broccoli, and an apple C) c. A sardine (3 oz) sandwich on whole wheat bread, 1 cup of fruit yogurt, and 1 cup of skim milk D) d. A two-egg omelet with 2 oz of American cheese, one slice of whole wheat toast, and a half grapefruit
C The highest calcium content is present in this lunch containing milk and milk products, and small fish with bones (sardines).
Which of the following nursing diagnoses is likely to be a priority in the care of a patient with myasthenia gravis (MG)? A) a. Acute confusion B) b. Bowel incontinence C) c. Activity intolerance D) d. Disturbed sleep pattern
C The primary feature of MG is fluctuating weakness of skeletal muscle. Bowel incontinence and confusion are unlikely signs of MG, and although sleep disturbance is likely, activity intolerance is usually of primary concern.
The bone cells that function in the resorption and formation of bone tissue are called (select all that apply) a. osteoids b. osteocytes c. osteoblasts d. osteoclasts
C,D
Nursing management of a patient with a brain tumor includes (select all that apply) a. discussing with the patient methods to control inappropriate behavior b. using diversion techniques to keep the patient stimulated and motivated c. assisting and supporting the family in understanding any changes in behavior d. limiting self-care activities until the patient has regained maximum physical functioning e. plan for seizure precautions and teaching the patient and caregiver about antiseizure drugs
C,E
Although an average of ____ glomerular filtrate is formed each minute, only _____ is excreted as urine and the rest is reabsorbed in the tubules. A. 175 mL; 10 mL B. 250 mL; 15 mL C. 125 mL; 1 mL D. 200 mL; 5 mL
C. 125 mL; 1 mL
Chronic inflammation as a result of excess adipose tissue is implicated in the etiology of which of the following health problems? A. Osteoporosis B. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) C. Type 2 diabetes D. Rheumatoid arthritis
C. Type 2 diabetes
Type 1 diabetes mellitus results from destruction of the pancreatic beta cells by two mechanisms. The mechanism for type 1A diabetes is _______ destruction. A. resistant B. idiopathic C. autoimmune D. genetic
C. autoimmune
The primary care provider for a newly admitted hospital patient has added the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) to the blood work scheduled for this morning. The patient's GFR will be extrapolated from serum levels of: A. protein. B. myoglobin. C. creatinine. D. urea.
C. creatinine.
A characteristic manifestation of polycystic kidney disease is: A. renal colic. B. massive proteinuria. C. hypertension. D. alkaline urine.
C. hypertension.
The blood-brain and CSF-brain barriers control the chemical environment of the brain by allowing easy entrance to only a few chemicals that include: A. glutamate. B. protein. C. oxygen. D. potassium.
C. oxygen.
The somatic nervous system provides sensory and motor innervation for: A. smooth muscle. B. abdominal viscera. C. peripheral nerves. D. secretory glands.
C. peripheral nerves.
In people with type 1 diabetes, the beneficial effects of exercise also carry an increased risk of: A. rapid weight loss. B. rebound hyperglycemia. C. profound hypoglycemia. D. respiratory disorders.
C. profound hypoglycemia.
When the glomerular transport maximum for a substance such as blood glucose is exceeded and its renal threshold has been reached, the substance will: A. attach to protein carriers. B. reabsorb quickly. C. spill into the urine. D. counter-transport sodium.
C. spill into the urine.
Panic disorder is generally treatable with
CBT and antidepressants such as TCAs and SSRIs.
What is the location of injury for Central neurogenic hyperventilation?
CNS damage ot midbrain and upper pons disease. Often seen from increased intracranial pressure and blunt head trauma.
What is the equation for cerebral perfusion pressure?
CPP = MAP - ICP MAP = (2*Diastolic) + systolic/ 3
What does the Caloric Ice Water Test for?
Caloric Ice Water Test tests for Oculovestibular Reflexes.
What type of infections does Guillian Barre syndrome follow?
Campylobacter jejuni, CMV, E.B.
Cancer pain
Can be caused by infection and inflammation, increasing pressure of a tumor, or stretching of visceral surfaces, or obstruction of ducts and intestines.
graded potentials
Can either be depolarizations or hyperpolarizations, and are critical to the generation of action potentials.
the nerve contained both sensory and motor neurons
Carpal tunnel results in damage to one medial nerve that resultless in lack of control to the wrist and also numbness. This indicates that
Which neurotransmitters does the sympathetic nervous system contain?
Catecholamines -->Epinephrine, norepinephrine, dopamine. These attach to adrenergic receptors.
Severe ischemia and hypoxia does what to pupils?
Cause dilated, fixed pupils.
What are Neural Tube Defects (NTD) caused by?
Caused by an arrest of the normal development of the brain and spinal cord.
What happens if a mom is an alcoholic during pregnancy?
Cluster of abnormalities that can happen to the fetus
Cluster Breathing
Cluster of breathes with disordered sequence with irregular pauses between breathes.
Chronic paroxysmal hemicrania
Cluster-type headache that occurs with more daily frequency (4 to 12/day) but with shorter duration (20-120 minutes)
Subdural hematoma
Collection of blood between the inner surface of the dura mater and the surface of the brain caused by rupture of veins
ganglia
Collections of nerve cell bodies outside the central nervous system.
Which level of consciousness is associated with an unarousable state and unresponsiveness to external stimuli?
Coma
Somatic pain
Comes from the skin or close to the surface. Is sharp and localized.
Locked-in Syndrome
Complete paralysis of voluntary muscles with the exception of eye movement.
Persistant VS
Complete unawareness of self or enviroment and complete loss of cognitive function. Cerebral function is lost. Recovery is unlikely for over +12 months.
Ataxic Breathing
Completely irregular breathing occurs, with random shallow and deep breaths and irregular pauses. Rate is often slow.
Ataxic Breathing
Completely irregular breathing, random shallow and deep breathes with irregular pauses. Rate is often slow.
Temporal Lobe or Psychomotor Seizures
Complex, with impairment of consciousness. 1. Simple partial onset followed by impaired consciousness 2. Impaired consciousness at onset—with or without automatisms. Secondarily generalized (partial onset evolving to generalized tonic-clonic seizures).
Stupor
Condition of deep sleep or unresponsiveness from which person may be aroused or caused to open eyes only by vigorous and repeated stimulation; response is often withdrawal or grabbing at stimulus.
Stupor
Condition of deep sleep or unresponsiveness from which persons may be arounsed or open eyes only by vigorous/repeated stimuli. Response is often withdrawal or grabbing at stimulus.
Occurs when a change in the outer or middle ears impair sound conduction from the other to the inner ear.
Conductive hearing loss.
Which level of consciousness is associated with impaired ability to think and respond?
Confusion
Which comes first in metabolic alterations of arousal? Confusion and Stupor, or motor signs?
Confusion and Stupor preceds Motor Signs.
Metabolic coma
Confusion and stupor commonly precede motor signs.
28. The crossover point where the right visual field information goes to the left hemisphere is called the ______. A. fovea B. optic nerve C. retina D. optic chiasm
D
What is the normal response for the Caloric Ice Water Test?
Conjugate eye movement.
Inflammation of the mucous membrane that covers the front part of the eyeball
Conjunctivitis
Explain Consciousness.
Consciousness is a State of awareness of oneself and the environment.
pons
Contains fiber tracts that complete conduction pathways between the brain and spinal cord.
What is status epilepticus?
Continuing or recurring seizure activity
false
Contralateral tracts are those that do not decussate
frontal eye field
Controls eye movement
What is coup?
Contusion of the brain at site of external force.
the extrinsic muscles
Convergence of the eyes when focusing on a nearby object is achieved by means of
neural coding
Conversion of information to a meaningful pattern of action potentials
d (central pattern generators)
Coordinators of simple repeated action
reflexes
Coordinators of simple, repeated actions.
What is heat stroke?
Core temperature increases as the regulatory center fails
Discrimination and precision given
Cortex
Mom using cocaine, impact on fetus?
Crosses the placenta
In which type of regeneration injury does the endoneural tube stay intact?
Crushing injury
Which drug acts on the motor end plate to prevent depolarization?
Curare
What is one drug treatment of depression?
Cytamil - T3 anagonist - thyroid drugs.
Endogenous pyrogens
Cytokines produced during the acute phase that promote thermogenesis during an infection.
Which type of cerebral edema is caused by water intoxication, severe ischemia, or lactic acidosis?
Cytotoxic
12. The somatic nervous system and autonomic nervous system are components of the ____. A. somatosensory area B. central nervous system C. limbic system D. peripheral nervous system
D
13. Subliminally presented stimuli _____. A. can sometimes be consciously perceived B. have no significant effects on our preferences or behaviors C. increase our absolute thresholds for visual images D. can influence our thoughts, feelings, and behaviors
D
19. Essential body functions such as heart rate, breathing, and digestion are under the control of the _____. A. somatic nervous system B. cerebral cortex C. interneuron system D. autonomic nervous system
D
20. Just before you went on a job interview your heart was pounding like crazy. You experienced a shortness of breath and felt sick to your stomach. These symptoms were most likely produced by your ________ nervous system. A. central B. somatic C. parasympathetic D. sympathetic
D
20. You are playing a new X-Box game in which you are pretending to train as a police officer. Your task is to correctly identify and shoot the criminals you encounter and to protect the lives of innocent civilians. You begin walking down the street when various individuals come out from behind buildings and around corners. In your first encounter you fail to shoot and the person turns out to be a civilian. According to signal detection theory, your response to the stimuli would be classified as a _____. A. hit B. miss C. false alarm D. correct rejection
D
26. The _____ is the colored part of the eye. A. lens B. pupil C. cornea D. iris
D
87. Why does olfactory information, unlike other sensory information, have a direct route to emotion and memory? A. Smell plays an important evolutionary role in human mating. B. A keen sense of smell is important for distinguishing rotten or unsafe food from fresh food. C. Olfactory information can allow an organism to track threat and danger. D. All of these
D
89. Phenotypes are _____. A. reflected in a person's observable characteristics (e.g., hair color or eye color) B. influenced by genotypes C. influenced by environmental factors D. All of these
D
90. The purpose of semicircular canals in the inner ear is to _____. A. protect the ear from damage B. detect high-frequency sounds C. detect low-frequency sounds D. detect the motion of your head
D
A normal assessment finding of the musculoskeletal system is a. muscle and bone strength of 4 b. ulnar deviation and subluxation c. angulation of bone toward midline d. no tenderness with spine palpation
D
A patient is admitted to the ICU with a C7 spinal cord injury and diagnosed with brown-sequard syndrome. On physical examination, the nurse would most likely find a. upper extremity weakness only b. complete motor and sensory loss below C7 c. loss of position sense and vibration in both lower extremities d.ipsilateral motor loss and contralateral sensory loss below C7
D
A patient is admitted to the hospital with a C4 spinal cord injury after a motorcycle collision. The patient's BP is 83/49 mm Hg, and his pulse is 39 beats/min, and he remains orally intubated. The nurse identifies this pathophysiologic response as caused by a. increased vasomotor tone after injury b. a temporary loss of sensation and flaccid paralysis below the level of injury c.loss of parasympathetic nervous system innervation resulting in vasoconstriction d. loss of sympathetic nervous system innervation resulting in peripheral vasodilation
D
A patient with a comminuted fracture of the femur is to have an open reduction with internal fixation (ORIF) of the fracture. The nurse explains that ORIF is indicated when a. the patient is unable to tolerate prolonged immobilization b. the patient cannot tolerate the surgery of a closed reduction c. a temporary cast would be too unstable to provide normal motility d. adequate alignment cannot be obtained by other nonsurgical methods
D
A patient with a stable, closed fracture of the humerus caused by trauma to the arm has a temporary splint with bulky padding applied with an elastic bandage. The nurse suspects compartment syndrome and notifies the physician when the patient experiences a. increasing edema of the limb b. muscle spasms of the lower arm c. rebounding pulse at the fracture site d. pain when passively extending the fingers
D
A patient with bursitis of the should asks what the bursa does. The nurse's response is based on the knowledge that bursae. a. connect bone to muscle b. provide strength to muscle c. lubricate joints with synovial fluid d. relieve friction between moving parts
D
A patient with intracranial pressure monitoring has pressure of 12 mm Hg. The nurse understands that this pressure reflects a. a severe decrease in cerebral perfusion pressure b. an alteration in the production of cerebrospinal fluid c. the loss of autoregulatory control of intracranial pressure. d. a normal balance between brain tissue, blood, and cerebrospinal fluid
D
Assessment of muscle strength of older adults cannot be compared with that of younger adults because a. stroke is more common in older adults b. nutritional status is better in young adults c. most young people exercise more than older people d. aging leads to a decrease in muscle bulk and strength
D
Drugs or diseases the impair the function of the extrapyramidal system may cause loss of a. sensations of pain and temperature b. regulation of the autonomic nervous system c. integration of somatic and special sensory inputs d. automatic movements associated with skeletal muscle activity
D
During routine assessment of a patient with guillain-barre syndrome, the nurse finds the patient to be short of breath. The patient's respiratory distress is caused by a. elevated protein levels in the CSF b. immobility resulting from ascending paralysis c. degeneration of motor neurons in the brainstem and spinal cord d. paralysis ascending to the nerves that stimulate the thoracic area
D
In a patient with a disease that affects the myelin sheath of the nerves such as multiple sclerosis, the glial cells affected are the a.microglia b.astrocytes c.ependymal cells d.oligodendrocytes
D
In teaching a patient scheduled for a total ankle replacement it is important that the nurse tell the patient that after surgery he should avoid a. lifting heavy objects b. sleeping on the back c. abduction exercises of the affected ankle d. bearing weight on the affected leg for 6 weeks
D
In teaching a patient with SLE about the disorder, the nurse knows that the pathophysiology of SLE includes a. circulating immune complexes formed from IgG autoantibodies reacting with IgG b. an autoimmune T cell reaction that results in destruction of the deep dermal skin layer c. immunologic dysfunction leading to chronic inflammation in the cartilage and muscles d. the production of a variety of autoantibodies directed against component of the cell nucleus
D
In teaching a patient with chronic fatigue syndrome (CFS) about this disorder, the nurse understands that a. palpating tender points is an indicator of CFS severity b. many symptoms are similar to fibromyalgia syndrome c. definitive treatment includes low dose hydrocortisone d. CFS is characterized by progressive memory impairment
D
Information provided by the patient that would help differentiate a hemorrhagic stroke from a thrombotic stroke includes a. sensory disturbance b. a history of hypertension c. presence of motor weakness d. sudden onset of severe headache
D
The nurse assesses a patient for signs of meningeal irritation and observes her for nuchal rigidity. Which of the following indicates the presence of this sign of meningeal irritation? A) a. Tonic spasms of the legs B) b. Curling in a fetal position C) c. Arching of the neck and back D) d. Resistance to flexion of the neck
D
The nurse assesses that a n 87 year old woman with alzheimers disease is continually rubbing, flexing, and kicking out her legs throughout the day. The night shift reports that this same behavior escalates at night, preventing her from obtaining her required sleep. The next step the nurse should take is to a. ask the physician for a daytime sedative for the patient b. request soft restraints to prevent her from falling out of her bed c. ask the physician for a nighttime sleep medication for the patient d. assess the patient more closely, suspecting a disorder such as restless leg syndrome
D
The nurse is caring for a 75-year-old woman who underwent left total knee arthroplasty and has a new physician order to be "up in chair today before noon." Which of the following actions would the nurse take to protect the knee joint while carrying out the order? A) a. Administer a dose of prescribed analgesic before completing the order. B) b. Ask the physical therapist for a walker to limit weight bearing while getting out of bed. C) c. Keep the continuous passive motion machine in place while lifting the patient from bed to chair. D) d. Put on a knee immobilizer before moving the patient out of bed and keep the surgical leg elevated while sitting.
D
The nurse is completing discharge teaching with an 80-year-old male patient who underwent right total hip arthroplasty. The nurse identifies a need for further instruction if the patient states the need to do which of the following? A) a. Avoid crossing his legs. B) b. Use a toilet elevator on toilet seat. C) c. Notify future caregivers about the prosthesis. D) Maintain hip in adduction and internal rotation.
D
The nurse is reinforcing health teaching about osteoporosis with a 72-year-old patient admitted to the hospital. In reviewing this disorder, the nurse explains which of the following to the patient? A) a. With a family history of osteoporosis, there is no way to prevent or slow bone resorption. B) b. Continuous, low-dose corticosteroid treatment is effective in stopping the course of osteoporosis. C) c. Estrogen replacement therapy must be maintained to prevent rapid progression of the osteoporosis. D) d. Even with a family history of osteoporosis, the calcium loss from bones can be slowed by increased calcium intake and exercise.
D
The nurse suspects an ankle sprain when a patient at the urgent care center relates a. being hit by another soccer player during a game b. having ankle pain after sprinting around the track c. dropping a 10 pound weight on his lower leg at the health center d. twisting his ankle while running bases during a baseball game
D
To prevent muscle atrophy, the nurse teaches the patient with a leg immobilized in traction to perform a. flexion contractions b. tetanic contractions c. isotonic contractions d. isometric contractions
D
When planning care for a patient with a C5 spinal cord injury, which nursing diagnosis is the highest priority? A) a. Risk for impairment of tissue integrity caused by paralysis B) b. Altered patterns of urinary elimination caused by quadriplegia C) c. Altered family and individual coping caused by the extent of trauma D) d. Ineffective airway clearance caused by high cervical spinal cord injury
D
Which of the following patient statements most clearly suggests a need to assess the patient for ankylosing spondylitis (AS)? A) a. "My right elbow has become red and swollen over the last few days." B) b. "I wake up stiff every morning and my knees just don't want to bend." C) c. "My husband tells me that my posture has become so stooped this winter." D) d. "My lower back pain seems to be getting worse all the time and nothing seems to help."
D AS primarily affects the axial skeleton. Based on this, symptoms of inflammatory spine pain are often the first clues to a diagnosis of AS. Knee or elbow involvement is not consistent with the typical course of AS. Back pain is likely to precede the development of kyphosis.
The nurse is caring for a patient admitted 1 week ago with an acute spinal cord injury. Which of the following assessment findings would alert the nurse to the presence of autonomic dysreflexia? A) a. Tachycardia B) b. Hypotension C) c. Hot, dry skin D) d. Throbbing headache
D Autonomic dysreflexia is related to reflex stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system reflected by hypertension, bradycardia, throbbing headache, and diaphoresis.
When assessing motor function of a patient admitted with a stroke, the nurse notes mild weakness of the arm demonstrated by downward drifting of the arm. The nurse would most accurately document this finding as A) a. Athetosis. B) b. Hypotonia. C) c. Hemiparesis. D) d. Pronator drift.
D Downward drifting of the arm or pronation of the palm is identified as a pronator drift. Hemiparesis is weakness of one side of the body; hypotonia defines a flaccid muscle tone; and athetosis is a slow, writhing, involuntary movement of the extremities.
motor fibers that conduct nerve impulses from the CNS to smooth muscle, cardiac muscle and glands
Describe the ANS.
A 54-year-old patient is about to have a bone scan. In teaching the patient about this procedure, the nurse will include which of the following information? A) a. Two additional follow-up scans will be required. B) b. There will be only mild pain associated with the procedure. C) c. The procedure takes approximately 15 to 30 minutes to complete. D) d. The patient will be asked to drink increased fluids after the procedure.
D Patients are asked to drink increased fluids after the procedure to aid in excretion of the radioisotope, if not contraindicated by another condition.
A 67-year-old patient hospitalized with osteomyelitis has an order for bed rest with bathroom privileges with the affected foot elevated on two pillows. The nurse would place highest priority on which of the following interventions? A) a. Ambulate the patient to the bathroom every 2 hours. B) b. Ask the patient about preferred activities to relieve boredom. C) c. Allow the patient to dangle legs at the bedside every 2 to 4 hours. D) d. Perform frequent position changes and range-of-motion exercises.
D The patient is at risk for atelectasis of the lungs and for contractures because of prescribed bed rest. For this reason, the nurse should change the patient's position frequently to promote lung expansion and perform range-of-motion exercises to prevent contractures.
The nurse is reinforcing general health teaching with a 64-year-old patient with osteoarthritis (OA) of the hip. Which of the following points would the nurse include in this review of the disorder (select all that apply)? A) a. OA cannot be successfully treated with any current therapy options. B) b. OA is an inflammatory disease of the joints that may present symptoms at any age. C) c. Joint degeneration with pain and disability occurs in the majority of people by the age of 60. D) d. OA is more common with aging, but usually it remains confined to a few joints and does not cause crippling. E) e. OA can be prevented from progressing when well controlled with a regimen of exercise, diet, and medication.
D,E
Cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP) performs which of the following roles in the functioning of the endocrine system? A. Acting as a high-affinity receptor on the surface of target cells B. Inactivating hormones to prevent excess accumulation C. Mediating hormone synthesis by non-vesicle-mediated pathways D. Acting as a second messenger to mediate hormone action on target cells
D. Acting as a second messenger to mediate hormone action on target cells
Body weight should be used in combination with other measurements to establish if a person is underweight or overweight. Obesity is indicated by: A. relative body weight of 70% to 100%. B. abdominal fat/ hip ratio of 0.8 to 1.0. C. female body fat of 20% to 30% D. body mass index (BMI) of 30 to 40.
D. Body mass index (BMI) of 30 to 40.
A large, high-calorie meal has resulted in the intake of far more energy than a person requires. What will the individual's body do with the excess carbohydrates provided by this meal? A. Create structural proteins from some of the carbohydrates and store the remainder as triglycerides B. Convert the carbohydrates into amino acids in preparation for long-term storage C. Excrete most of the excess polysaccharides through the kidneys D. Convert them into glucose and store them in the liver and muscles
D. Convert them into glucose and store them in the liver and muscles
Hormones that cause the subsequent stimulation or release of another hormone, such as thyroid-stimulating hormone and corticotropin-releasing hormone, typically belong to which of the following structural classifications? A. Fatty acid derivatives B. Amines and amino acids C. Steroids D. Peptides and proteins
D. Peptides and proteins
Which of the following statements best describes the relationship between the hypothalamus and the posterior pituitary in the normal functioning of the endocrine system? A. The posterior pituitary gland regulates the release of hypothalamic hormones. B. Posterior pituitary hormones are constituted from components of both the hypothalamus and the pituitary gland itself. C. The hypothalamus regulates the production and release of posterior pituitary hormones by the pituitary gland. D. Posterior pituitary hormones are produced in the hypothalamus but released from the pituitary gland.
D. Posterior pituitary hormones are produced in the hypothalamus but released from the pituitary gland.
Nuclear palsies
Damage to one or cranial nerves produces paresis or paralysis
recognize and name familiar objects
Damage to the temporal lobe would most likely cause the individual to be unable to
Which type of posturing indicates injury at a lower level?
Decebrate (extensor)
Which type of posturing is most dangerous?
Decebrate (lower level) because if there is injury to the pons/medulla it may cause cardiac arrest.
corticospinal
Descending tracts that carry signals from the cerebral cortex for precise coordinated limb movements.
Which type of posturing indicates injury at a higher level (cortex)?
Decorticate (flexion, mummy baby)
Hypotonia
Decreased muscle tone
Gasping Breathing Pattern (Agonal Gasps)
Deep "all or none' breathes accompanied by a slow respiratory rate.
What is Phenylketonuria (PKU)?
Defects in amino acid metabolism
critical minimum (threshold) depolarization
Defined by the amount of influx of Na+ that at least equals the amount of efflux of K+.
Spina bifida occulta
Definition: Vertebral defect that allows the protrusion of the neural tube contents Know that this is what is prevented by giving the prego women folic acid during their pregnancy
Which type of atrophy occurs due to immobilization
Defuse atrophy
Parkinson disease
Degeneration of the basal ganglia dopaminergic nigrostriatal pathway that causes hypokinesia, tremor, and muscular rigidity.
Neuropathy
Degeneration of the nervous system
Myelopathy
Degeneration of the spinal cord
Spondylolysis
Degenerative process of the vertebral column and associated soft tissue
resting membrane potential
Degree of difference in electrical charge inside and outside a neuron.
Which level of consciousness is associated with motor restlessness, hallucinations, delusions, and disorientation?
Delerium
true
Dendrites do not release neurotransmitters
What causes ballistic movements?
Destruction of subthalamus, which results in loss of indirect pathway action (increased direct pathway = stimulates thalamus)
Injury to which part of the brain causes cheyne stroke respiration?
Diencephalon
converging circuit
Different types of sensory input can have the same ultimate effect.
i ( aphasia)
Difficulty producing intelligible speech due to brain injury
Classic cerebral concussion
Diffuse brain injury with cerebral disconnection from the brainstem reticular activating system and is a phenomenon of physiologic, neurologic dysfunction without substantial anatomic disruption. Immediate loss of consciousness for less than 6 hours with retrograde and anterograde amnesia.
Capillary telangiectasis
Dilated capillaries with interspersed brain tissue deep in the brain
Manifestation of spina bifida occulta
Dimple in lumbar area, skin is intact, urinary incontinence, BM incontinence, problems with walking. Ultrasound to determine its presence
a. relative refractory period
During its ___ a neuron responds only to stimuli stronger than a normal threshold a. relative refractory period b. hyperpolarized phase c. period of facilitation d. synaptic delay e. absolute refractory period
Primary Pathophysiology of Altered Awarness
Direct destruction by ischemia/hypoxia or indirected destruction from compression, effects of toxins, and the effects of toxins and chemicals.
Injury to which pathway causes Parkinson's disease?
Direct pathway
Which pathway inhibits GPi?
Direct pathway (causes thalamus to turn on)
What might happen in Parietal lobe disease?
Disengagement or unilateral neglect syndrome.
What does Doll's Eyes Phenomenon test for?
Doll's Eyes Phenomenon tests for oculocephalic reflex.
What are the two root ganglia and fibers that contained in the two roots in the spinal cord?
Dorsal root and ventral root; the dorsal root contains afferent fibers (sensory) and ventral root contains efferent fibers (motor).
Migraines occur most frequently during menses and right before menses. They often decrease with menopause and pregnancy. The diagnosis is made from medical history and physical examination. They are linked to depression.
Drug therapy includes anti-inflammatory medications, ergotamine, magnesium, and the triptans. Narcotics may be used but are not routine
Which type of dystrophy is associated with Gower's sign?
Duchenne MD
Which type of dystrophy is more severe with a faster course?
Duchenne MD
How does laminar necrosis occur?
Due to lack of blood supply supplied by short penetrating arteries.
In coutercoup, why is the contusion on the opposite side of external force?
Due to rebound against inner skull surfaces.
crossed extensor
During a withdrawal reflex of the leg, a ___ reflex also occurs to prevent a person from falling over.
relative refractory period
During its ___, a neuron responds only to stimuli stronger than a normal threshold stimulus
Grand Mal or Drop Attack
E. Tonic-clonic F. Atonic (astatic, akinetic) III. Unclassified epileptic seizures
Prodroma
Early manifestations occurring hours to days before a seizure.
What is the location of injury for Cheyne-Stokes respirations?
Either bilateral dysfunction of deep cerebral or diencephalic structures. Seen with supratentorial injury.
Mania
Elevated levels of euphoria and energy characterized by inflated self esteem and feelings of grandiosity. May result in psychoses such as delusions and hallucinations
What decreases pain sensation?
Endorphins
help to circulate the cerebrospinal fluid
Ependymal cells ___.
Which type of hematoma has a lucid interval?
Epidural
What is the medical word for seizures?
Epilepsy
Blink to threat, cranial nerves II, VII
Equal metabolically induced Asymmetric structure induced
Hydrocephalus
Excess of fluid in the cranial cavity, subarachnoid space or both
Seborrhea
Excessive and abnormal discharge of oil from glands in the skin
What are the generalized occurrences of anxiety disorders?
Excessive and persistent worries Norepinephrine and serotonin abnormalities. GABA-BZ receptor alterations.
What happens to glutamate's pathway when there is cell injury or death?
Excessive glutamate + NMDA receptors --> uncontrolled opening of Ca2+ channels --> excessive Ca2+ in cells --> Ca2+ cascade, release of intracellular enzymes --> proteins and DNA break down --> cell death
serial processing
Exemplified by spinal reflexes, and involves sequential stimulation of the neurons in a circuit.
Which type of aphasia involves the Brocha's area?
Expressive (inability to communicate spontaneously or translate thoughts into speech)
What is the absent response for for Doll's Eyes Phenomenon? What does it indicate?
Eyes move in direction of head movement; indicates brainstem injury.
What is the abnormal response for for Doll's Eyes Phenomenon?
Eyes od not turn in conjugate manner.
What is the normal response for Doll's Eyes Phenomenon?
Eyes turn together to side opposite from turn of head.
Chemical synapses rely on diffusion in order to provide communication between neurons. True False
False
e (gyri)
Folds and wrinkles of the cerebral surface
repolarization
Follows depolarization along the membrane.
Prefrontal area
Forethought, motivation and emotional regulation occurs in the
cerebral hemispheres
Form the superior part of the brain, and are characterized by ridges and groves called gyri and sulci.
dura mater; arachnoid, pia mater
From superficial to deep, the meninges occur in the order
What are the cerebrum functions?
Frontal lobe: motor, anticipation Parietal lobe: somatosensory Temporal lobe: hearing, memory Occipital lobe: vision Limbic system: emotional
In large amounts, what are Atrophin and scopolamine effects on pupils?
Full dilated/fixed pupils.
neuronal pools
Functional groups of neurons that integrate incoming information from receptors.
What phase is prolonged in peripheral nerve injury?
G0 (unable to divide)
inhibitory neurotransmitters
GABA and glycine
cell bodies of neurons in the PNS
Ganglia consist of
What are five pathologic reflexes? What does it indicate?
Gasp Reflex, Snout Reflex, Palmomental Reflex, Suck reflex. The presence of these reflexes indicate loss of cortical inhibition.
Petit Mal
Generalized seizures (bilaterally symmetric and without local onset) A. Absence 1. Typical 2. Atypical B. Myoclonic C. Clonic D. Tonic
A transient increase in Na+ permeability, followed by restoration of Na+ impermeability, and then a short-lived increase in K+ permeability.
Generation of an action potential involves
Epileptogenic Focus
Group of hypersensitive neurons with a paroxysmal depolarization shift.
Image processing
Higher level of memory function; includes ability to use sensory data and language to form concepts, meaning, and abstractions.
Which part of the brain maintains vital functions like breathing, heart rate, and digestion?
Hindbrain (Also known as the brain stem, this is the vasomotor center that controls cardiopulmonary function and digestion)
What are manifestations of an supratentorial mass of destruction that could cause a coma?
History of brain stem dysfunction, sudden onset of coma; includes oculovestibular abnormality (Ice Water Caloric Test). Cranial nerve palsies and bizzare respiratory patterns.
Infratentorial mass of destruction causing coma.
History of preceding brain stem dysfunction or sudden onset of coma, always include oculovestibular abnormality. Cranial nerve palsies usually manifest "bizarre" respiratory patterns that appear at onset.
group c fibers are not capable of saltatory conduction
How are group c neuron fibers classified?
the speed with which sodium ion can be pumped back outside the neuron membrane
How fast a person can type or play the piano is ultimately limited by the number of impulses a person can send to their finger muscles per second. This in turn is limited by
31
How many pairs of mixed spinal nerves arise from the spinal cord and serve the entire body except the head and neck?
beta waves
If we recorded your electroencephalogram while you took this test, it would show predominantly
c. medulla oblongata
If you feel a vibration or a deep touch, the sensory signals would decussate in which structure a. spinal cord b. pons c. medulla oblongata d. midbrain e. not at all
potassium
Immediately after an action potential has peaked, which cellular gates open?
What is Nociceptive Pain perception?
Impulses arising from the skin, muscles, joints, arteries, and visera from sensory nerve endings called nociceptors. These respond to a chemical, mechanical, and thermal stimuli.
Temporal Summation
In ___, several EPSPs occurring in quick succession depolarize a neuron to threshold.
synaptic potentiation
In ___, the additive effects of EPSPs and IPSPs determine whether a neuron fires.
Diverging
In a ___ neuronal circuit, input to one neuron leads to output from multiple neurons.
synaptic vesicles; ligand-regulated gates
In a chemical synapse, the synaptic knobs of the presynaptic neuron contain ___, while the membrane of the postsynaptic neuron contains ___.
true
In a myelinated nerve fiber, action potentials occur only at the nodes of ranvier
sodium ions flowing down the fiber under the axolema to the next adjacent node of Ranvier
In a myelinated neuron carrying an action potential, the next node of Ranvier will be stimulated by
meningeal branch
In addition to the dorsal and ventral rami, each spinal nerve gives rise to a
had been damaged by infection trauma, or stroke
In an autopsy, a pathologist is found an area of brain tissue with very high concentrations of microglia. The area of the brain most likely
Ca; release ACh
In cholinergic synapse, the arrival of a nerve signal at the synaptic knob in the presynaptic neuron triggers the opening of ___ voltage-regulated, which cause
they are mostly myelin sheath made of lipid or fat molecules
In dissection, most nerve fibers appear gray to white because
Sympathetic
In general, stimulation of the posterior hypothalamus produces ____ responses.
Increase digestive functions
In general, the parasympathetic division will
contract; loosen; thickens
In looking at a near object, the ciliary muscles will ___, the suspensory ligaments ____, and the lens ____.
synaptic vesicles fuse with the presynaptic membrane, and neurotransmitters diffuse across the synaptic cleft
In order for transmission across the synapse to occur
intrafusal fibers
In skeletal muscle the stretch receptors are the
rapid eye movement (REM) sleep
In sleep, when does most dreaming occur?
Inability to fall or stay asleep
Insomnia
away from the cell body
In the axon, the nerve impulses travel
cerebrum and cerebellum
In the brain, the ____ and ____ have an outer gray matter layer, which is reduced to scattered gray matter nuclei in the spinal cord.
oran of corti
In the inner ear, the transducer that converts vibrations caused by sound to nerve impulses is the ___.
Long and myelinated and the postganglionic neuron is short and nonmyelinated
In the parasympathetic division, the preganglionic neuron is
contract and the antagonist muscle, the hamstrings, to relax
In the patellar tendon reflex arc, the patellar ligament is stretched, which stretches the quadriceps femoris muscle. This reflex will cause the quadricepts femoris to
nodes of ranvier
In the peripheral nervous system, myelin sheaths have gaps called _____ about 1mm apart
stimulate the intrafusal fibers to contract
In the skeletal muscle, the flower-spray endings' function is to
Short and myelinated and the postganglionic neuron is long and nonmyelinated
In the sympathetic division, the preganglionic neuron is
relatively refractory period
In this period, an exceptionally strong stimulus can trigger a response.
repolarization
In this period, potassium ions diffuse out of the neuron due to a change in membrane permeability.
depolarization
In this period, the interior of the cell becomes less negative due to an influx of sodium ions.
absolute refractory period
In this period, the neuron cannot respond to a stimulus no matter how strong.
from air to the cornea
In vision, most light refraction occurs at the interface where light passes ___.
Degradation by enzymes from the postsynaptic cell or within the synaptic cleft; reuptake by astrocytes or the presynaptic cell; or diffusion away from the synapse.
In what three ways are neurotransmitter effects terminated?
temporal and spatial summation
In what two ways is summation by the postsynaptic neuron accomplished?
the interior is negatively charged and contains less sodium
In what way does the interior surface of a cell membrane of a resting (nonconducting) neuron differ from the external environment?
a.temporal summation
In____ several EPSP's occurring in quick succession depolarize a neuron to threshold a.temporal summation b. spatial summation c. synaptic potentiation d. a reverberating circuit e. recruitment
c. neural integration
In____the additive effects of EPSP's and IPSP's determine whether a neuron fires. a. synaptic potentiation b. facilitation c. neural integration d. neural coding e. neuromodulation
Aphasia
Inability to articulate ideas or comprehend spoken or written language.
Anhedonia
Inability to experience pleasure from things that would normally be pleasurable.
Anterograde amnesia
Inability to form new memories
Executive Attention Deficits
Inability to maintain sustained attention and a working memory deficit. Example: ADHD
Dysphasia
Inability to speak or understand words because of a brain lesion
What does a lesion to an upper motor neuron cause?
Increase in muscle tone
Cerebral Edema
Increase in the fluid (intracellular or extracellular) within the brain
Tonic phase
Increased muscle contraction with increased muscle tone
Hypertonia
Increased rigidity, tension and spasticity of the muscles
histamine
Increases acid secretion in the stomach; blocked by cimetidine.
Apneusis Injury
Indicates damage to respiratory control mechanism located at pontine level; most commonly associated with pontine infarction but documented with hypoglycemia, anoxia, and meningitis.
Gasping Breathing patterns Injury
Indicative of a failing medullary respiratory center.
What is the location of injury for Gasping Breathing pattern (agonal gasps)?
Indicative of a failing medullary respiratory center.
In Parkinson's disease, which pathway is more active?
Indirect pathway
Injury to which pathway causes chorea and ballistic movements?
Indirect pathway
What pathway is affected in Huntington's disease?
Indirect pathway (increase protein causes degeneration of indirect pathway cells)
Which pathway keeps the thalamus turned off?
Indirect pathway (stimulates GPi)
Minimally Conscious State (MSC)
Individuals may follow simple commands, manipulate objects, gestur or give yes/no responses, have intelligible speech, and moves such as blinking or smiling. May be a survivor of Cerebral Death.
Poliomyelitis
Infectious viral disease of the spinal cord produces severe inflammatory reaction in motor neurons
Radiculitis
Inflammation of a spinal nerve root
Encephalitis
Inflammation of the brain usually caused by a virus.
Meningitis
Inflammation of the membranes covering the brain and spinal cord associated with an infection from bacteria, viruses, parasites or toxins
What are infratentorial disorders?
Infratentorial disorders are disorders beneath the tentorial plate.
Which type of herniation is most serious?
Infratentorial--medulla contains cardiac and respiratory centers so when pushed through foramen magnum can cause cardiac and respiratory arrest.
Diffuse brain injury (diffuse axonal injury)
Injury to neuronal axons in many areas of the brain caused by stretching and shearing forces received during brain injury.
Locked-in syndrome
Injury to the ventral pons producing quadriplegia and anarthria, patient is fully conscioud with intact cognitive functio but unable to communicate
Explain the two folds formed by the two layers of the dura mater?
Inner layer bends over to form a fold-falx cerebri- that separates the cerebral hemispheres. It forms a second fold-tentorium-that holds the cerebrum up off the cerebellum.
In which type of cerebral edema do you have movement of CSF across the ventricular wall and Na+ and water enter the perivascular space?
Interstitial
What is ischemia?
Interference with delivery of oxygen, glucose, and accumulation of metabolic wastes resulting in reduced or interrupted blood flow.
What is stimulated by exogenous pyrongens
Interleukin-1
What are the three main cerebral circulation systems?
Internal carotid, and vertebral arteries, circle of willis.
Hemorrhagic stroke is the third most common cause of CVA.
It accounts for 10% of strokes.
Why is the brain not tolerant to ischemia?
It exhausts the brain's energy source within 2-3 mins and ATP in 4-5 mins.
What does the defective dystrophin and Duchenne and Becker MD do?
It fails to provide normal attachment site for contractile proteins.
What does dopamine do in the pathways?
It stimulates the cells of the direct pathway to inhibit GPi and turn on thalamus.
Infection of the cornea caused by bacteria or virus. Can be an ulcer of the cornea.
Keratitis
Nociceptor pain
Known physiologic cause
What is the most common site for herniated disk?
L4-L5 and L5-S1
How do the symptoms of Myasthenia Gravis manifest throughout the day?
Least evident when arising in the morning, worse with effort and as the day proceeds.
Avolition
Lack of desire, motivation, and persistence resulting in the unwillingness to start or complete even simple daily tasks.
In the gate control theory of pain what fibers, when stimulated, closes the gate?
Large A fibers
Fusiform aneurysm (giant aneurysm)
Large aneurysm that stretches to affect the entire circumference of the arterial wall.
Large concentratations of atropine and scopolamine affects pupils. How do the pupils look like?
Large concentrations of atropine and scopolamine fully dilate and fix pupils.
false
Large nerve fibers conduct signals more slowly than small ones
What will a patient with dysfunction of the midbrain tectum pupils look like?
Larged and fixed hippus.
cerebral cortex
Location of the conscious mind, allowing us to communicate, remember, and understand.
How long do TIAs last?
Less than 24 hours (recent definition = less than 1 hr)
paired lateral ventricles
Lie deep within each cerebral hemisphere, and are separated by the septum pellucidum.
fourth ventricle
Lies in the hindbrain and communicates with the third ventricle via the cerebral aqueduct.
Where is the pia mater located and what does it do the brain?
Lies right on the surface of the brain; it Holds the cerebral arteries in place.
third ventricle
Lies within the diencephalon, and communicates with the lateral ventricles via two inter ventricular foramina.
Status epilepticus
Life threatening emergency, ongoing seizure- prolonged seizure that needs pharm intervention to interrupt it quickly otherwise the patient will have brain consequences that are long standing
f (ventral roots)
Location of afferent somas
Lethargy
Limited spontaneous movement or speech; easy arousal with normal speech or touch; may or may not be oriented to time, place, or person.
Lethargy
Limited spontaneous movvement or speech; easy arousal with normal speech or touch. May or may not be oriented to time, place, or person.
ventricles
Lined with ependymal cells, and are filled with cerebrospinal fluid.
they obey all-or-none law
Local potentials differ from action potentials in all of these ways except that
Posthyperventilation apnea
Lower brainstem regulates breathing pattern by responding only to changes in carbon dioxide
What are two disease related to defects in lipid metabolism?
Lysosomal storage diseases Tay-Sachs disease
What two measures are important in assessing level of consciousness?
MMSE and Glasgow coma scale
What is the best way to diagnose multiple sclerosis?
MRI of brain (clinical diagnosis is difficult)
substance p
Mediates pain.
Injury to which part of the brain causes loss of the gag/cough reflex?
Medulla
What parts of the brain mediate Selective Attention?
Midbrain, Thalamus, Right parietal lobe.
Injury to which part of the brain causes coma?
Midbrain, pons, medulla
What does the loss of doll's reflex indicate?
Midbrian injury
Obtundation
Mild to moderate reduction in arousal (awakeness) with limited response to environment; falls asleep unless stimulated verbally or tactilely; answers questions with minimal response.
Obtundation
Mild to moderate reduction in arousal with limited response to enviroment; falls asleep unless stimulated verbally or tactilely; answers questions with minimal response.
olfactory cells
Mitral cells synapse with
Which type of head injury is associated with hemorrhages?
Moderate head injury
degrade serotonin after reuptake
Monoamine oxidase
What are the three major classes of antidepressant medications?
Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)
Carpal tunnel syndrome is what type of neuropathy?
Mononeuropathy (only 1 nerve affected--median nerve)
diencephalon
Most lower motor neurons are located in the
thalamus; cerebellum
Most somesthetic signals (touch, pain, heat, cold, pressure, movement, and stretch) below the head are carried by way of 3 neurons called the first-, second-, and third-order neurons. Generally, second-order neurons end in the ___; proprioceptive signals are an exception with their second-order neurons ending in the ___.
What are the three types of opiod receptors found in the body?
Mu, Kappa, and Delta
Psychiatric unresponsiveness.
Mostly "normal." Oculocephalic reflexes are unpredictable; oculovestibular reflexes are physiologic (nystagmus is present).
What are the symptoms of central cord syndrome?
Motor function of upper extremity affected.
ventral horn
Motor neurons of the somatic motor system have their nerve cell bodies, or somas, in the
What type of disorders are basal ganglia involved in?
Movement disorders (no paralysis)
retrograde transport
Movement of materials up an axon toward the soma
fast anterograde transport
Movement of mitochondria, synaptic vesicles, calcium ions, glucose, and amino acids from the soma down the axon is called
What is wrong with the muscle in atrophy?
Muscle mass is decreased due to decreased diameter of muscle fibers.
examples of myofascial pain syndromes.
Muscle strain, myositis, fibrositis, myofibrositis, and myalgia are
What muscles are affected in dysarthria?
Muscles of the pharynx, palate, tongue, tonsils, mouth
What disease is associated with thymoma or thymic hyperplasia?
Myasthenia Gravis
A beta fibers
Myelinated and large diameter neurons that transmit nonnoxious sensory information into the dorsal root of the spinal cord.
A delta fibers
Myelinated and medium diameter neurons that transmit sensory information into the dorsal root of the spinal cord.
true
Myelinated nerve fibers conduct signal faster than unmyelinated fibers
Nearsightedness
Myopia
Although non-REM and REM sleep are defined by electrical recordings, they are characterized by physiologic events. Which of the following occurs?
NREM sleep is initiated by the withdrawl of neurotransmitters from the reticular formation.
mixed
Name of a type of nerve that transmits both sensory and motor information.
Characterized by hypersomnia, hallucinations, and sleep paralysis
Narcolepsy
Stenosis
Narrowing or stricture of a passage or vessel
endorphins
Natural opiates that inhibit pain; effect mimicked by morphine.
are crucial for the development of neural connections
Nerve cell adhesion molecules (N-CAMs) ____.
temporal lobes
Nerve fibers of the olfactory tracts lead to the ___.
Norepinephrine
Nerve fibers that are considered adrenergic secrete ____ as the neurotransmitter.
Travel faster in large myelinated fibers
Nerve signals
d. travel fastest in large myelinated fibers
Nerve signals a. travel fastest in small unmyelinated fibers b. travel fastest in large unmyelinated fibers c. travel fastest in small myelinated fibers d. travel fastest in large myelinated fibers e. travel at the same speed in all nerve fibers
lumbar enlargement
Nerves to the pelvic region and lower limbs arise from which area of the spinal cord?
neuroglia
Nervous tissue is composed of neurons and supporting cells called
astrocytes
Neuroglia that control the chemical environment around neurons by buffering potassium and recapturing neurotransmitters.
true
Neuromodulators alter the response of a neuron to a neurotransmitter
Myasthenia gravis
Neuromuscular disorder caused by an autoimmune response in which antibodies to acetylcholine receptors impair neuromuscular transmission.
postsynaptic cells
Neurons carrying impulses away from the synapse.
presynaptic cells
Neurons conducting impulses toward the synapse.
all or none
Neurons follow the ____ law. meaning they either fire at maximum voltage or not at all
Second order neurons
Neurons in the spinal cord that receive sensory information from nociceptors.
Third order neurons
Neurons present in lower and midbrain areas that transmit information to higher brain regions.
First order neurons
Neurons that may contain nocicepetors that synapse on second order neurons in the substantia gelatinosa.
large; myelinated
Neurons that send impulses to skeletal muscles have a ___ diameter and are
What area of the brain creates a rhythmic pattern of breathing?
Neutral center in the forebrain/cerebrum.
Which receptor sites are attached to cholinergic receptors?
Nicotinic receptors and muscarinic receptors. Nicotinic receptors: excite skeletal muscle cells. Muscarinic receptors: slow heart, stimulate GI tract,vasodilate.
soma
Nissl bodies are located in the ___ of a neuron.
What is the absent response of the Caloric Ice Water Test?
No eye movement.
Coma
No verbal response to external enviroment or to any stimuli; noxious stimuli such as deep pain or suctioning do not yield motor movement.
Coma
No verbal response to external environment or to any stimuli; noxious stimuli such as deep pain or suctioning do not yield motor movement.
Are there any neuro deficits in mild head injury?
No, recovery is within 24 hr.
Can those with DVTs get a stroke?
No.
Which type of hydrocephalus is due to obstruction?
Non-communicating--CSF cannot reach arachnoid villi.
Chorea
Non-repetitive muscular contractions characterized by jerky involuntary movements, chiefly of the face and extremities
What type of covering do small peripheral nerves have?
None
Broca's area
Nonfluent aphasia results in slow speech, difficulty in choosing words, or use of words that only approximate the correct word. Nonfluent aphasia results from a lesion to ___.
What contributes to pain inhibition in the pons and medulla
Norepinephrine
Temporal summation
Numerous nerve impulses arriving at a synapse at closely timed intervals exert a cumulative effect.
What is the CPP in brain infarction?
O mmHg
Cryptogenic
Obscure or unknown oriogin
Disorder of breathing during sleep related to upper airway obstruction that associated with reduced blood oxygen saturation and hypercapnia
Obstructive sleep apnea syndrome (OSAS)
Which level of consciousness is associated with decreased alertness with psychomotor retardation?
Obtundation
What causes a lacunar infarct?
Occlusion of a small penetrating artery.
action potentials (nerve impulses)
Occur in axons and are the principle way neurons communicate.
Perinatal
Occuring during birth or surrounding the time of birth
Status epilepticus
Occurrence of multiple consecutive seizures without intervals of consciousness.
propagation (transmission) of an action potential
Occurs as the local currents of an area undergoing depolarization cause depolarization of the forward adjacent area.
temporal summation
Occurs in response to several successive releases of neurotransmitter.
Viseral pain
Occurs in the internal organs, abdomen, or skeleton. Poorly localized. Often radiates or is referred.
Indirect excitation
Occurs via inflammatory mediators after the tissue is injured.
diverging circuit
One incoming fiber triggers responses in ever-increasing numbers farther and farther along the circuit.
feelings of peace, fear, or anger
One of the functions associated with the limbic system is
d. feelings of peace fear or anger
One of the functions associated with the limbic system is a. hearing b. reading comprehension c. stimulus filtering d. feelings of peace fear or anger e. motor control of the limbs.
help form the blood-brain barrier
One role of the astrocytes is to
oculomotor
Opening the eyes involves the ___ nerve.
What does opiates do to pupils?
Opiates causes pinpoint pupils. Severe barbicurate intoxications may produced fixed pupils.
What is the second cranial nerve?
Optic.
Which drug is considered a poison?
Organophosphorous compounds because they permanently block acetylcholinesterase causing prolonged Ach action.
b (Medulla oblongata)
Origin of the last four pairs of cranial nerves
Ataxic Breathing Injury
Originates from a primary dysfunction of medullary neurons controlling breathing.
Generalized Seizure
Other name is--Grand mal seizure Loss of consciousness, shaking Post-ictal phase: in sleepy confused and drowsy state for awhile afterwards For Grand mal we need to be aware that they may have loss of bowel and bladder control Make sure they are safe in their surroundings so they wont cause harm to themselves possibly turn them on their side Want to avoid aspiration in the lungs because can cause--> aspiration pneumonia
the ora serrata
Other than the optic disc, the only point where the retina is attached to the rest of the eyeball is an anterior ring called
Allodynia
Pain generated by stimuli that are not normally painful.
Edema and inflammation of the optic nerve at its point of entrance in the eyeball
Papilledema
Diplegia
Paralysis of both upper or lower extremities as a result of cerebral hemisphere injuries
m (hemiplegia)
Paralysis of only one side of the body
Chronic pain
Persistence of pain from unknown cause or therapeutic response. May last longer than 3 months and may either persist or be intermittent. May have decreased levels of endorphins.
d. the cerebellum
Parkinje cells are giant multipolar neurons of a. the dorsal horn of the spinal cord b. the ventral horn of the spinal cord c. the cerebral cortex d. the cerebellum e. the reticular formation
Partial Seizure
Part of the brain goes off track, might look like someone is nonresponsive but they are awake and alert and just staring at you
Paraparesis
Partial loss of lower extremity motor function on both sides
Quadriparesis
Partial loss of motor function in all four extremities
Hemiparesis
Partial loss of upper and lower extremity motor function on one side
Focal Motor
Partial seizures (seizures beginning locally). A. Simple (without impairment of consciousness) 1. With motor signs 2. With special sensory or somatosensory symptoms 3. With autonomic symptoms or signs 4. With psychic symptoms
What is the treatment for Guillian Barre?
Plasmapharesis, IVIG
Anterograde amnesia may originate from where?
Pathologic conditions in the hippocampus and related temporal lobe structure, the diencephalic region includng the thalamus, and the basal forebrain.
Retrograde amnesia and higher level memory deficits may originate from where?
Pathological conditions in the widely distrubuted association areas of the cerebral cortex.
lateral ventricle -> interventricular foramen -> third ventricle -> cerebral aqueduct -> forth ventricle -> subarachnoid space -> arachnoid villus
Pathway of CSF from the choroid plexus where it is formed to the dural sinus where it reenters the blood stream.
Nociceptive pain
Perceived pain generated by harmful or dangerous stimuli.
Neuropathic pain
Perceived pain that occurs with nerve damage or disease.
Hallucinations
Perception experienced without external stimulation of the sense organs that can be auditory, tactile, visual, gustatory and olfactory
How do children contract HIV?
Perinatally through the placenta Exposure to infected maternal blood and vaginal secretions Postpartum ingestion of breast milk
Which nerve layer surrounds a bundle of nerve fibers?
Perineurium
Delusions
Persistant belief contrary to the educational and cultural background of an individual that may involve grandiose, nihilistic, persecutory, somatic, sexual and religious themes
Agoraphobia
Phobic avoidance of places or situations where escape or help is not readily available
Which drugs inhibit acetylcholinesterase?
Physostigmine, Neostigamine, organophosphorous compounds
Meningitis is an infection of what meninges?
Pia and Subarachnoid
Opiates may cause what pupillary reaction?
Pinpoint pupils.
l ( wernicke's area)
Plan your spoken words according to learned rules of grammar
receptive region
Plasma membrane exhibits chemically gate ion channels.
secretory region
Plasma membrane exhibits voltage-gated Ca2+ channels.
conducting region
Plasma membrane exhibits voltage-gated Na+ and K+ channels.
What is the location of injury for Ataxic Breathing?
Priamrydysfunction of medullary neurons controlling breathing.
In what type of brain injury is damage caused by direct impact?
Primary or Direct
Venous angioma
Primitive embryologic veins in a radial pattern feeidng a central vein
glycine
Principal inhibitory neurotransmitter of the spinal cord.
facilitation
Process in which on presynaptic neuron makes it easier for another on to stimulate a postsynaptic neuron
Sedatives that may be sufficient to produce a coma may cause what to the pupils?
Pupils may become midpositioned, moderately dilated, unequal and fixed to light.
cerebellum
Purkinje cells are giant multipolar neurons of the ___.
What are the two phases of sleep that can be documnted by EEG?
Rapid eye movement (REM) and non-REM
Tardive dyskinesia
Rapid, repetitive involuntary movements of the face, trunk and extremities ex. chewing, lip-smacking, facial grimacing
receptive region
Receives stimuli.
Which type of aphasia is also called Wernicke's aphasia?
Receptive (inability to comprehend speech of others or written material)
phasic receptors
Receptors that respond intensely to the onset of stimulation but quickly stop responding are called ___.
viscera
Referred pain usually arises from this area and terminates in an area of the spinal cord that is conjoined with fibers originating in the skin and other areas and thereby produces the perception of pain at the referred site
Pain gate
Regions in the substantia gelatinosa that regulate the flow of nociceptive information to higher brain regions.
Posthyperventilation Apnea
Respirations stop after hyperventilation lowered PaCO2 levels below Normal. Breathing returns when PCO2 levels return to normal.
What is the location of injury for Apneusis?
Respiratory control mechanisms at pontine level damage.
r (annulospinal endings)
Responds to sustained stretch of a muscle spindle
Unmyelinated C nociceptors
Responsible for the transmission of the diffuse burning or aching sensation (slow pain)
Disorder associated with tingling and crawling occurring at rest in the evening or night. Associated with iron deficiency
Restless leg syndrome (RLS)
repolarization
Restores resting membrane potential.
parallel processing
Results in inputs stimulating many pathways simultaneously, and is vital to higher level mental functioning.
Antererograde amnesia
Retention of memories of events in the distant past but unable to form new personal or factual memories.
Name two types of Memory Disorders
Retrograde amnesia and antererograde amnesia.
Cavernous angiomas
Sinusoidal collections of blood vessels without interspersed brain tissue
the myelin sheath
Saltatory conduction is made possible by ___.
gracile fasciculus; medulla oblongata
Sensory information about deep touch or visceral pain in the lower limbs are carried in ___ tracts, which decussate, or cross over, in the ___.
What is Schizophrenia?
Schizophrenia is a term coined by Eugene Bleuler in 1911 to describe a collection of illnesses characterized by thought disorders
oligodendrocytes
Schwann cells are functionally similar to ___.
What is Wallerian degeneration?
Schwann cells distal to the injury site survive but myelin degenerates.
Circumscribed defect of the central field of vision
Scotoma
thalamus
Second-order neurons synapse with neurons in the
Benign febrile seizures
Seizure that kids get that is provoked by having a high fever and it is benign because it was only a seizure related to having a fever and it doesn't mean they are going to happen again (over that of high adults which is about 104 at worst)
d. the synaptic cleft prevents an impulse from being transmitted directly from one neuron to another
Select the correct statement regarding synapses. a. cells with interconnected cytoplasm are chemically coupled b. the release of neurotransmitter molecules gives cells the property of being electrically coupled c. neurotransmitter receptors are located on the axons of cells d. the synaptic cleft prevents an impulse from being transmitted directly from one neuron to another
true
Sensations of pressure, light touch, and pain will travel up the spinothalamic tract
Nociceptors
Sensory nerve endings that possess receptors stimulated by noxious stimuli.
true
Sensory signals from the inner ear travel by way of the vestibuloccochlear nerve
Reticular activating system
Set of connected nuclei in the brain reponsible for regulating arousal
Akinetic mutism
Severe disturbance in behavioral drive, eye opening with visual tracking but little or no spontaneous speech, little movement, not attributable to decreased wakefulness or motor impairment
Mirror focus
Severe seizure activity has the potential for progressive brain injury and irreversible damage. In addition, if a seizure focus in the brain is active for a prolonged period, a mirror focus may develop in contralateral normal tissue.
Major (unipolar) depression
Severely depressed mood and loss of pleasure that may begin suddenly or slowly, persists for at least 2 weeks, and may recur throughout life.
n (sulci)
Shallow grooves between the folds of the cerebrum
graded potentials
Short-lived, local changes in membrane potentials.
Acute pain
Signals harmful state. May be somatic, viseral, or referred.
Which part of neuron does protein synthesis occur?
Soma (cell body where the nucleus is)
trigeminal nerve
Some strong odors are detected by the ___ instead of the olfactory cells.
vertebrae c5 to c6 contains segments of the spinal cord, while vertebrae L3 to L5 do not
Spinal cord injuries commonly result from fractures of vertebrae c5 to c6, but never from fractures of L3 to L5. This is because
both sensory and motor fibers
Spinal nerves contain
Adrenal medulla
Splanchnic nerves that do not synapse in either the chain ganglion nor the collateral ganglion will synapse with specialized neurons in the
Metastasis
Spread of cancer to other parts of the body
In which stage of Alzheimer's does Sundown syndrome (confusion, restlessness, agitation, wandering) occur?
Stage 2
Spatial summation
Stimulation of a postsynaptic neuron by many terminals at the same time.
hearing
Stereo-cilia with tip links are involved in the sense of ___.
Cortisol
Steroid hormone produced by the adrenal glands that increases blood glucose through gluconeogenesis, suppresses the immune system, aid in lipid, protein and carbohydrate metabolism and decreases bone formation
Which level of consciousness is associated with little or no spontaneous activity or response to stimuli?
Stupor
Which type of hematoma results from a tear in a small vein?
Subdural
In which types of hematomas can you have increased ICP?
Subdural and Intracerebral
Central Neurogenic Hyperventilation
Substaied, deep, rapid but reglar pattern with decreased PACO2 levels with increase in pH and PO2.
Endogenous opiods inhibit?
Substance P
Which is neither an activator nor a depolarizer of primary or first-order afferents?
Substance P
Neurogenic shock
Sudden loss of the sympathetic nervous system signals to the smooth muscle in vessel walls, causing vasodilation, hypotension, bradycardia and hypothermia
axon hillock
Summation occurs in the ___ of a neuron
Basic sensation of pain
Thalamus
somatic
That part of the nervous system that is voluntary and conducts impulses from the CNS to the skeletal muscles is the ___ nervous system.
a muscle that over-contracts to relax
The Golgi tendon reflex causes
What is the hallmark of Viral meningitis?
The Hallmark of viral meningitis or aseptic meningitis is a mononuclear response in the CSF and the presence of normal blood glucose levels
rough endoplasmic reticulum
The Nissl bodies of a neuron consist of
reticular formation
The __ is a chain of nuclei in the brainstem that screen out unimportant stimuli and selectively allow other stimuli to come to one's conscious attention
medulla oblogata
The ___ contains nuclei that control coughing sneezing, swallowing, and vomiting.
e. medulla oblongata
The ___ contains nuclei that control coughing, sneezing, swallowing and vomiting a. thalamus b. hypothalamus c. midbrain d. pons e. medulla oblongata
b. hypothalamus
The ___ contains nuclei that regulate body temperature, food intake, and sexual response a. thalamus b. hypothalamus c. midbrain d. pons e. medulla oblongata
hypothalamus
The ___ contains nuclei that regulate body temperature, food intake, and sexual response.
cerebellum
The ___ helps coordinate and smooth skeletal movements.
d. cerebellum
The ___ helps to coordinate and smooth skeletal movements a. thalamus b. forebrain c.pons d. cerebellum e. limbic system
a. olfactory nerve
The ___ is a purely sensory nerve a. olfactory nerve b. trigeminal nerve c. facial nerve d. vestibulocochlear nerve e. glossopharyngeal nerve
olfactory nerve
The ___ is a purely sensory nerve.
malleus
The ___ is attached to the medial side of the tympanic membrane.
peripheral
The ___ nervous system carries brain and spinal cord signals to other organs
b. peripheral
The ___ nervous system carries brain and spinal cord signals to other organs a. autonomic b. peripheral c. central d. craniospinal e. efferent
ventricles
The ___ of the brain are continuous with one another, and with the central canal of the spinal cord.
Internal capsule
The ________ contains projection fibers that connect the cerebrum to other parts of the brain.
Preganglionic
The _______________ neuron runs from the CNS and the autonomic ganglion.
Binocular vision
The ability to perceive depth and judge distance is due to
conditioned reflexes
The ability to recall and perform learned motor skills and habits is called ___.
potential difference
The amount of difference in electrical charge between two points.
What does the Cerebral aqueduct do?
The cerebral aqueduct is the narrow conduit, between the third and the fourth ventricles in the midbrain, that conveys the cerebrospinal fluid and thereby prevents its potentially deadly buildup in the brain. Also called the aqueduct of Sylvius.
Cataracts
The most common visual problem of older persons that requires medical treatment is
ciliary body; sclera venous sinus
The aqueous humor is secreted by the ___ and reabsorbed into the ___.
Where is the arachnoid located?
The arachnoid Lies just beneath the dura mater.
What is the function of the extension of the arachnoid?
The arachnoid extension pokes through the inner layer of the dura mater into the sinuses, to let CSF drain into the sinuses.
leads from the nasopharynx to the middle ear
The auditory tube ___.
Nociception
The biological processes that encode and process noxious pain.
the optic nerve leaves the eye
The blind spot in each visual field is a region in which
endothelium
The blood brain barrier consists of tight junctions in the
glucose, water, oxygen, and caffeine
The blood-brain barrier (BBB) is most permeable to which chemical groupings?
neurilemma
The bodies of the Schwann cells constitute the
central
The brain and spinal cord constitute the __ nervous system.
What is (Total) Brain Death?
The brain can no longer help the body maintain internal homeostasis.
a. the limbic system
The brain center most concerned with emotion is a. the limbic system b. the reticular formation c. the basal nuclei d. the midbrain e. the thalamus
limbic system
The brain center most concerned with emotions is the
oligodendrocytes
The brain's counterpart to the Schwann cells
Lateral gray horns
The cell bodies of motor neurons to autonomic effectors are located in the
the gray matter
The cell bodies of the cerebral neurons are located in
Brain stem and lateral gray horns of the sacral area of the spinal cord
The cell bodies of the parasympathetic preganglionic neurons are found in the
Lateral gray horns of T1 through L2 region of the spinal cord
The cell bodies of the sympathetic preganglionic neurons are in the
spinal cord & brain
The central nervous system consist of the _________ and _________
What are the glial cells' functions?
The central nervous system consists of neurons and glial cells. Glial cells are "supporting cells" of the nervous system. The four main functions of glial cells are: 1. to surround neurons and hold them in place, 2. to supply nutrients and oxygen to neurons, 3. to insulate one neuron from another, 4. to destroy and remove the carcasses of dead neurons (clean up).
metencephalon
The cerebellum develops from the embryonic
mesencephalon; diencephalon
The cerebral aqueduct is located in the ___, while the third ventricle is located in the ____.
gyri; increase surface area
The cerebrum and the cerebellum contain thick folds called ___ whose purpose is to ___.
telencephalon
The cerebrum develops from a vesicle of the embryonic brain called the ___
c. the radical nerve
The cervical plexus gives rise to all the following nerves except a. the great auricular nerve b. the lesser occipital nerve c. the radical nerve d. the phrenic nerve e. the ansa cericalis
resting potential; -70
The charge difference across the plasma membrane in muscles and nerve cells is called the ___ and measures about ___ millivolts.
interneuron
The connection from a sensory neuron to a motor neuron is usually made by one or more neurons called ______
Endoneurium
The connective tissue wrap around an axon and its Schwann cell sheath is the
Perineurium
The connective tissue wrap that surrounds many axons to form a fascicle is the
Epineurium
The connective tissue wrap the surrounds many fascicles to form a nerve is the
both pupils retract even if only one eye is stimulated
The consensual light reflex refers to the fact that ___.
sensory transduction
The conversion of a sensation like touch or heat to a pattern of action potentials is called ___.
Pons
The corneal reflex is mediated by the
commuissural fibers
The corpus callosum is composed of
c. commissural fibers
The corpus callosum is composed of a. long association fibers b. short association fibers c. commissural fibers d. projection fibers e. ascending fibers
dermatome
The cutaneous regions innervated by specific spinal nerves are each called a
true
The deepest meninx is the pia mater
Sensory and has a ganglion
The dorsal spinal nerve root is
Neglect Syndrome
The entire complex of denial of dysfunction, loss of recognition of one's own body parts, and extinction.
acetylcholinesterase
The enzyme that breaks down acetylcholine within the synaptic cleft.
adipose tissue
The epidural space in the spinal column is occupied by
current
The flow of electrical charge from point to point.
e. all of them
The following nerves arise from the brachial plexus and carry motor signals to muscles of the upper limb. Which of them carry sensory signals back to the CNS a. the axillary nerve b. the radial nerve c. the ulnar nerve d. the median nerve e. all of them
oval window
The footplate of the stapes covers an opening called the ___.
hold the lens of the eye in place
The function of the suspensory ligament is to ___.
Medulla oblongata
The gag reflex is mediated by the
synapse
The gap between one neuron and the next
astrocytes
The glial cell that contribute to the blood-brain barrier in the CNS are
Three horns
The gray matter of each halve of the spinal cord is divided into
Purkinje cells
The gray matter of the cerebellum contains 100 billion neurons. The most distinctive neuron, which is large and multipolar and receives input from more than 100,000 synapses, is called the
medulla oblongata
The gustatory nucleus, which receives taste signals from the tongue, is in the ___.
d. speech
The hypothalamus plays a role in controlling all of the following except a. sex drive b. hunger c. sleepiness d. speech e. blood pressure
D, speech
The hypothalamus plays a role in controlling all of the following except: A. sex drive, B. hunger, C. sleepiness, D. speech, E. blood pressure.
pia matter; terminal filum
The innermost meninx around the spinal cord is called the ___ and extends beyond the medullary cone as a ___.
pia mater; terminal filum
The innermost menix around the spinal cord is called the ___ and extends beyond the medullary cone as the ___.
multipolar; motor neurons and interneurons
The most common structural neuron is the ___ neuron, which includes
central nervous system
The integrating and command center of the nervous system.
interneurons
The integrative function of the nervous system is associated especially with
depolarization
The interior of the cell becomes less negative.
hyperpolarization
The interior of the cell becomes more negatively charged.
proprioceptors, which are tonic receptors
The intrafusal fibers in a skeletal muscle are ___.
synapase
The junction where one neuron meets another is called a/an _______.
thalamus
The largest part of the diencephalon is the ____, the gateway to the cerebral cortex
What is Cushing's Reflex?
The last effort tot maintain circulation by drastically increasing the blood pressure in order to give the brain blood.
temporal lobe; parietal lobe
The lateral sulcus of the cerebrum separates the __ from the __.
What regulates the emotional response to pain. How we feel pain?
The limbic system and the reticular system.
medulla oblongata
The location of several visceral motor nuclei controlling vital functions such as cardiac and respiratory rate.
Tectorial membrane
The longest stereocilia of the outer hair cells are embedded in the
Alogia
The loss of a previously held ability to speak or understand spoken or written language, due to disease or injury of the brain
amplitude
The loudness of a sound is correlated with the ___ of the sound wave.
central canal and ventricles
The lumen of the neural tube develops into the
What is the main characteristic of Infratentorial disorders?
The main characteristic of infratentorial disorders is a decline in arousal.
neuron cell body (perikaryon or soma)
The major biosynthetic center containing the usual organelles except for centrioles.
Anterior thigh and leg
The major nerves from the lumbar plexus serve the
subarachnoid space
The majority of cerebrospinal fluid in the spinal cord is found here.
falx cerebri
The meningeal layer of the dura mater folds inward to separate the left and right cerebral hemispheres.
Individuals with intracranial aneurysms are at risk for subarachnoid hemorrhage. Hypertension and trauma are also risk factors.
The mortality rate is more than 50%.
astrocyte
The most abundant cell in the nervous system is the
Cervical
The phrenic nerve is the major nerve from the ______ plexus.
true
The pons and cerebellum arise from the same vesicle of the embryonic brain
pre-central gyrus
The portion of the brain where one thinks consciously about motor activities is the ___.
(1)the afferent fibers, (2) the afferent pathways and (3) the CNS
The portions of the nervous system responsible for the sensation and perception of pain
true
The postscript reflex are enables a spinal output of longer duration
reflex actions and communication between the brain and spinal nerves
The primary functions of the spinal cord include
Secondary generalization
The process by which a simple partial seizure involving one hemisphere becomes a generalized seizure involving the second hemisphere.
Accommodation
The process of adjusting the thickness of the lens for near vision is called
Refraction
The process of bending light rays is called
What portion of the nerve survives in peripheral nerve injury?
The proximal portion--the distal portion degenerates.
monosynaptic
The quickest reflex arcs involve only two neurons and are thus
c. monosynaptic
The quickest reflex arcs involve only two neurons and are thus a. ipsilateral b. contrsalatersal c. monosynaptic d. polysynaptic e. autonomic
neurilemma
The sheath of Schwann.
parietal lobe
The somesthetic center of the postcentral gyrus is part of the __ of the cerebrum.
Foramen magnum
The spinal cord begins at the level of the
d. pelvic
The spinal cord id divided into all of the following regions except a. cervical b. thoracic c. lumbar d. pelvic e. sacral
Ipsilateral cerebellum
The spinocerebellar tracts carry unconscious proprioception to the
How does depression affect people?
The state of sadness becomes prominent.
neurotransmitter
The substance released at axon terminals to propagate a nervous impulse.
m ( corpora quadrigemina)
The superior and inferior colliculi
Alongside the vertebral column from cervical through sacral regions
The sympathetic chain ganglion are located
Organs in the abdominal cavity
The sympathetic splanchnic nerves serve
electrical synapse
The synapse more common in embryonic nervous tissue than adults is the ___.
Insula
The taste cortex is located in the _____ lobe.
gamma motor neurons
The tension in a muscle spindle is maintain by
A patient has a dysfunction of III cranial nerve. What is the name of the nerve and what will his pupils look like?
The third cranial nerve is the ocularmotor nerve. His pupils will be sluggish, dilated, and fixed.
inferior to the corpus callosum
The third ventricle of the brain is ___.
What are the glial cells?
The three types of CNS supporting cells are Astrocytes, Oligodendrocytes, and Microglia. The supporting cells of the PNS are known as Schwann Cells.
bitter
The threshold for this taste is the lowest for any other tastes.
Where are nociceptors?
The tips of fingers have more than the skin of the back. All of the skin has more than internal organs.
enkephalins
The transmission of pain signals through the spinal cord can be prevented by ___.
e. axon hillock
The trigger zone of a neuron includes a. dendrites b. synaptic knob c. each node of Ranvier d. each internode e. axon hillock
initial segment
The trigger zone of a neuron includes the axon hillock and
longitudinal fissure
The two cerebral hemispheres are separated into right and left hemispheres by a deep groove called the
ventral horn of the spinal cord
The upper motor neurons that control the skeletal muscle are found in the
the ventral horn of the spinal cord
The upper motor neurons that control the skeletal muscles are found in
What may stimulate Vomiting, yawning, and hiccups?
The vagus nerve (Nerve X) or diseases involving the medulla oblongata.
true
There is a layer of adipose tissue in the epidural space.
1. Completion of all appropriate therapeutic procedures 2. Unresponsive coma 3. No spontaneous respiration (apnea) 4. Absent cephalic reflexes 5. Isoelectric EEG 6. Persistence of these signs for 30 minutes to 1 hour and for 6 hours after onset of coma and apnea
There is no ocular response to head turning, and pupils are often fixed and dilated. The following criteria determine brain death:
f ( VII & IX)
There would be no sense of taste if cranial nerve ___ were destroyed
olfactory cells
These cells are the only neurons in the body exposed to external environment, and unlike most neurons, they are replaceable.
electrical synapses
These have neurons that are electrically coupled via protein channels and allow direct exchange of ions from cell to cell.
afferent fibers
These nerve fibers conduct sensory signals to the central nervous system.
alpha motor neurons
These neurons innervate extrafusal fibers.
nociceptors
These receptors are free nerve endings that are tonic receptors, which respond to tissue damage from trauma, ischmeia or excessive stimulation by agents such as heat, cold, and chemicals.
channel-linked receptors
These receptors mediate direct transmitter action and result in brief, localized changes.
g protein-linked receptors
These receptors mediate indirect transmitter action resulting in slow, persistent, and often diffuse changes.
dura mater
This meninx lies closest to the surrounding bone.
vermis
This narrow structure connects the cerebellar hemispheres
sciatic
This thick nerve of the lower limb is actually two nerves enclosed in a common fibrous sheath.
sensory; shingles
This virus remains for life in the dorsal root ganglion but can travel down neurons from the dorsal root ganglion by fast axonal transport and cause a painful trail of skin discoloration along the path of the neurons. This virus travels down ___ neurons and causes ____.
Trigeminal
Tic douloureux is caused by a lesion to the ____________ nerve.
Lyme disease
Tick-borne spirochete bacterial (Borrelia burgdorferi) infection that is characterized by a rash in the area of the bite, headache, neck stiffness, chills, fever, myalgia, arthralgia, malaise, fatigue, and possible development of arthritis in large joints.
Postictal state
Time period just after a seizure characterized by drowsiness, confusion, nausea, headache
Cytotoxic (metabolic) edema
Toxic factors produce tissue hypoxia and impairment of the Na+,K+-ATP pump causes a loss of intracellular potassium and a gain of intracellular sodium and water.
Vegetative state
Transition of severely brain damaged patients from a coma to wakefulness without awareness
Abnormal stimulation of the thyroid gland by TSH-receptor antibodies is implicated in cases of Graves Disease: True False
True
Which type of herniation affects cranial nerve II and the posterior cerebral artery?
Uncal herniation
What are the two categories of Modd disorders?
Unipolar Also called major depression, clinical depression Bipolar disorder - depression and mania
with their nerve cell bodies in the PNS and their synaptic knob in the CNS
Unipolar neurons are found
Idiopathic
Unknown cause, arises spontaneously
self-propagating
Unlike local potentials, actions potentials are
What nociceptors are responsible for transmission of the difuse, burning sensation?
Unmyelinated C nociceptors
C fibers
Unmyelinated and small diameter neurons that transmit sensory information into the dorsal root of the spinal cord.
What CSN injuries does Vomiting accompany?
Vestibulr nuclei or immediate projections, fourth ventricle floor, or brain stem compression.
What is the cause of encephalitis?
Viral --> usually HSV
Depression
Unremitting feelings of sadness and despair frequently accompanied by changes in sleeping and eating habits, reduced interest in pleasurable activities and interpersonal relationships
basal nuclei
Unwanted muscle contractions are inhibited by
b. basal nuclei
Unwanted muscle contractions are inhibited by a. midbrain b. basal nuclei c. primary motor cortex d. motor association area e. premotor cortex
What is Reye Syndrome?
Usually associated with influenza B or varicella virus infections in children who have taken aspirin Pathology unknown Inborn errors of metabolism are a contributing factor Profound hypoglycemia, hypoketonemia, hyperammonemia, increase in serum short-chain fatty acids Liver shows diffuse deposits of lipids and absence of any inflammatory reaction or necrosis Fatty degeneration of the kidneys leads to azotemia (excess urea in the blood) Brain is extremely edematous
What bone and artery are usually involved in epidural hematomas?
Usually temporal lobe fracture and middle meningeal artery tear
Calcium and sodium
What ion channels are opened to produce an action potential in olfactory neurons?
In which type of cerebral edema do you have injury to the vascular wall?
Vasogenic
In which type of cerebral edema do you have water and protein leak into the interstitial space?
Vasogenic
Which type of cerebral edema is due to prolonged ischemia or hemorrhage?
Vasogenic
Spina bifida occulta
Vertebral defect that allows the protrusion of the neural tube contents
What is spina bifida occulta?
Vertebral defect that allows the protrusion of the neural tube contents
Constant, involuntary movement of the eyeball caused when semicircular canal system is overstimulated
Vestibular nystagmus
cupula
We sense rotary movements of the hand when the endolymph pushes on a gelatinous cap called the __ in a semicircular duct.
Flaccid paresis
Weakness or partial loss of voluntary muscle movement
A-Delta Fibers
Well localised, sharp pain sensations and are important in intiating rapid reactions to stimuli (fast pain)
alpha, beta, theta, delta
What are 4 types of brain waves?
action potentials
What are all-or-none phenomena?
tracts
What are bundles of nerve fibers traveling up or down the white matter of the spinal cord?
ependymal cells
What are ciliated CNS neuroglia that play an active role in moving the cerebrospinal fluid?
neuroglia (glial cells)
What are closely associated with neurons, providing a protective and supportive network?
the movement of ions across cellular membranes
What are electrical currents due to in the body?
hypothalamus
What are sleep patterns regulated by?
sensory (afferent), motor (efferent), interneurons (association neurons)
What are the three functional classes of neurons?
multipolar, bipolar, unipolar
What are the three structural classes of neurons?
channel-linked receptors and g protein-linked receptors
What are two main types of neurotransmitter receptors?
Optic disc
What area of the retina contains the least amount of photoreceptors?
Subarachnoid space
What area of the spinal cord contains cerebrospinal fluid?
voltage-gated channels
What channels open in response to a change in membrane potential?
mechanically gated channels
What channels open when a membrane receptor is physically deformed?
chemically gated (ligand-gated) channels
What channels open when the appropriate chemical binds?
basic pattern of the CNS
What consists of a central cavity surrounded by a gray matter core, external to which is white matter?
Longitudinal fissure
What divides the cerebrum into right and left hemispheres?
whether the effects are excitatory or inhibitory, and whether the effects are direct or indirect
What do functional classifications of neurotransmitters consider?
changes in membrane potential
What do neurons use as communication signals?
neurons
What function optimally for a lifetime, are mostly amitotic, and have an exceptionally high metabolic rate requiring oxygen and glucose?
ions diffuse across the membrane, creating electrical currents
What happens when ion channels are open?
the cell
What has many gated ion channels?
neurotransmitters
What has several chemical classes?
all of the above
Which of the following is TRUE regarding a secondary spinal cord injury? .Secondary injury of the cord begins within a few minutes after injury. .Edema occurs in the white matter. .Microscopic hemorrhages appear in the central gray matter. .Oxygen tension in the tissue at the injury site is decreased All of the above
Relates the amount of pain to the amount of soft tissue injury
Which of the following is TRUE regarding the specificity theory of pain? A.Focuses on the attention of pain B. Focuses on previous experience of pain C.Relates the amount of pain to the amount of soft tissue injury D.Relates to the emotions exhibited toward pain
c. gland
Which of the following is an effector a. afferent neuron b. efferent neuron' c. gland d. sense organ e. interneuron
glutamate
Which of the following is an excitatory neurotransmitter? A.Glutamate B. GABA C.Glycine D.Substance P
b. a nerve impulse occurs if the excitatory in inhibitory effects are equal
Which of the following is false or incorrect? a. an excitatory postsynaptic potential occurs if the excitatory effect is greater than the inhibitory effect but less than threshold. b. a nerve impulse occurs if the excitatory in inhibitory effects are equal. c. an inhibitory postsynaptic potential occurs if the inhibitory effect is greater than the excitatory, causing hyper polarization of the membrane.
e. the cerebellum
Which of the following is most concerned with motor coordination and equilibrium a. the precentral gyrus b. the postcentral gyrus c.the pons d. the hypothalamus e. the cerebellum
E. cholinesterase
Which of the following is not a neurotransmitter? A. GABA B. norepinephrine C. acetylcholine D. dopamine E. cholinesterase
trichromatic vision
Which of the following is not characteristic of rod vision?
c. they increase amplitude as they move away from the stimulus point
Which of the following is not true of graded potentials? a. they are short-lived b. they can form on receptor endings c. they increase amplitude as they move away from the stimulus point d. they can be called postsynaptic potentials
has severe disturbance in motivation
Which of the following is the BEST definition of a person with akinetic mutism? A.Has severe disturbance in motivation B. Can follow simple commands and manipulate objects C.Is in a wakeful unconsciousness D.Is unarousable and unresponsive
D. 5 roots, 3 trunks, 6 divisions, 3 cords, 5 nerves
Which of the following is the correct sequence of branching of the brachial plexus? A. 5 roots, 5 nerves, 3 trunks, 6 divisions, 3 cords / B. 5 nerves, 3 cords, 6 divisions, 3 trunks, 5 roots / C. 6 divisions, 5 roots, 5 nerves, 3 cords, 3 trunks / D. 5 roots, 3 trunks, 6 divisions, 3 cords, 5 nerves
b. some ions are prevented from moving down their concentration gradients by ATP-driven pumps
Which of the following is true about the movement of ions across excitable living membranes? a. ions always move actively across membranes through leakage channels b. some ions are prevented from moving down their concentration gradients by ATP-driven pumps c. sodium gates in the membrane can open in response to electrical potential changes d. the bulk of the solutions inside a cell are negatively charged
proprioceptors
Which of the following nerve endings are not found in the skin? proproiceptors, Ruffini's corpuscles, tactile corpuscles, pacinian corpuscles, hair receptors
It is caused by arthropod-borne viruses
Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding encephalitis? ◦ It is an afebrile illness. ◦It is caused by bacteria. ◦It is caused by arthropod-borne viruses. ◦It is caused exclusively by herpes simplex
Grades III and IV are treated with surgery
Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding grading of an astrocytoma? ◦ Grade I is not treated. ◦Grade II is treated with radiation only. ◦Grades III and IV are treated with surgery. ◦Grade III is not well circumscribed
C. Action potentials cannot be triggered again until the hyperpolarized membrane returns to resting potential.
Which of the following statements is not true about an action potential? A. action potentials follow an all-or-none law. B. Action potentials are non-decremental; they do not get weaker with distance. C. Action potential cannot be triggered again until the hyper-polarized membrane returns to resting potential. D. Action potential are irreversible; once the neuron reaches threshold the action potential goes to completion. E. Action potentials cannot be generated unless a cell reaches threshold.
Arrector pili muscle
Which organs receive sympathetic innervation, but NOT parasympathetic?
Rods
Which photoreceptors are responsible for low-light and noncolor vision?
C. Lumbar plexus - T10 to L5
Which plexus is NOT correctly matched to its spinal nerve makeup? A. Cervical plexus - C1 to C4, B. Brachial plexus - C5 to T1, C. Lumbar plexus - T10 to L5, D. Sacral plexus - L4 to S4, E. Coccygeal plexus - S5 to Co
Bitter
Which primary odor serves to protect from poisons?
multipolar neurons
Which structural class of neuron has three or more processes?
bipolar neurons
Which structural class of neuron have a single axon and dendrite?
unipolar neurons
Which structural class of neuron have a single process extending from the cell body that is associated with receptors at the distal end?
limbic and reticular system
Which two systems regulate the complex emotional responses to pain? A.Frontal and cerebellar lobes B.Limbic and reticular system C.Thalamus and brainstem D.Midbrain and nuclei of thalamus
s (reciprocal inhibition)
Would suppress contraction of the triceps brachii when the biceps brachii is contracting
Are TIAs reversible?
Yes
recent trauma with the pain sensation carried by myelinated fibers
You are experiencing pain the back, and it was significant enough to go to your physician. The physician asks you to describe not only the level of pain, usually on a 10-point rating scale, but also the type of pain-is it sharp, localize pain or dull diffuse pain. If it is a sharp, localized pain with a 8 out of 10 rating on the pain scale, you most likely have ___.
dorsal root -> dorsal horn -> ventral horn -> ventral root -> spinal nerve
You are following the signals from a sensory neuron to the spinal cord where it synapses with a motor neuron that leaves the spinal cord and synapses on a skeletal muscle. The route would be
sensory projection
You are holding your hands behind your back and someone is touching a specific area of your hand. You know where your hand is touched because of ___.
stretch reflex
You begin to nod off as you are reading this question. Your head starts to lower a little but this reflex causes your head to rise.
release of endorphins and dynorphins
You feel tired, your joints hurt, and your muscles feel weak. Like any addicted exercise fanatic, your cure is to have a high intensity workout. As you are working out, all of your aches and paints seem to dwindle. This can be explained because exercise stimulates ___.
a. tectospinal
You hear a loud noise and instinctively react to it. What motor tract carried the signals? a. tectospinal b. lateral corticospinal c. ventral corticospinal d. spinothalamic e. spinocerebellar
phasic receptors
You walk into a restaurant and smelled barbecued ribs. Within a few seconds, however, you are no longer aware of the smell. Your olfactory receptors are ___.
cerebellum
You were driving erratically and a police officer pulled you over. The officer requested that you get out of the car and perform two activities. The first was to walk a straight line, and the second was to close your eyes and touch your nose with your index finger. The officer was checking on the ability of your ___ to coordinate these activities.
epidural space, dura mater, arachnoid, subarachnoid space
You were going to have a spinal tap to remove some cerebrospinal fluid for analysis. Starting from outside of the spinal cord, what would be the correct order of spaces and meninges through which the syringe would pass?
used synaptic vesicles and unused chemicals from the synaptic knobs up the axon to the soma
You were unable to produce the motor protein called dynein. Your neurons would be unable to transport
pyramidal cells in Wernicke's area
Your comprehension of these written words involves activity of ___.
side-to-side stability
Your spinal cord was unable to form any denticulate ligaments. Your spinal cord would most likely lose
astrocytes
___ are found in the CNS and and bind axons and blood vessels to each other.
multiple sclerosis
___ is a disease that gradually destroys the myelin sheaths of neurons in the CNS, particularly in young adults.
Ependymal cells
___ line the ventricles of the brain
graded
___ potentials are short-lived, local changes in membrane potential that can be either depolarized or hyper polarized.
a. association tracts
____ connect one gyrus to another within the same cerbral hemisphere a. association tracts b. projection tracts c. commissural tracts d. spinothalamic tracts e. corticospinal tracts
decussation
_____ is the crossing of ascending or descending nerve fibers from one side of the CNS to the other
monoamines (biogenic amines)
___________ are neurotransmitters, such as GABA, that are synthesized from amino acids.
What is cerebral palsy?
a diverse group of nonprogressive syndromes that affect the brain and cause motor dysfunction beginning in early infancy
huntington's disease
a fatal hereditary disorder that results from deterioration of the basal nuclei and cerebral cortex
blood-brain barrier
a mechanism that helps maintain a protective environment for the brain.
alzheimer's disease
a progressive degenerative disease that ultimately leads to dementia
In schizophrenia the frontal lobe shows
a progressive loss in volume and a worsening of negative symptoms despite the use of antidepressant medications
Meningocele
a saclike cyst of meninges filled with spinal fluid, protruding through a vertebral defect Like an encephalocele but with meninges protruding
diencephalon
a set of gray matter areas, and consists of the thalamus, hypothalamus, and epithalamus.
Between the layers of the dura, at the base of each fold, venous blood drains out of the brain in _______?
a sinus. The sinus also collects cerebrospinal fluid.
sleep
a state of partial unconsciousness from which a person can be aroused, and has two major types that alternate through its cycle.
Convulsions
a term sometimes applied to seizures, refers to the jerky, contract-relax (tonic-clonic) movement associated with some seizures.
Transcortical dysphasia involves the
ability to repeat and to recite.
Cheyne-Stokes respirations
abnormal pattern of ventilation with alternating periods of tachypnea and apnea (crescendo-decrescendo pattern). Increases in PaCO2 levels lead to tachypnea.
Astrocytomas are the most common brain tumors and
account for 50% of brain and spinal tumors
Neurons are characterized by the ability to communicate with other neurons and body cells through ______________?
action potentials
Encephalitis is an
acute febrile illness.
flocculonodular lobes
adjust posture to maintain balance
Severely depressed and manic people who do not respond to medication are
administered ECT.
PTSD develops
after exposure to a life-threatening or traumatic experience
In contrast to the sympathetic nervous system, which function does the parasympathetic nervous system include?
anabolism
primary auditory cortex and auditory association area
allow detection of the properties and contextual recognition of sound.
primary visual cortex and visual association area
allow reception and interpretation of visual stimuli.
olfactory cortex
allows detection of odors
gustatory cortex
allows perception of taste stimuli
primary somatosensory cortex
allows spatial discrimination and the ability to detect the location of stimulation.
short-term (working) memory
allows the memorization of a few units of information for a short period of time.
long-term memory
allows the memorization of potentially limitless amounts of information for very long periods
sacral and lumbar plexuses
also referred to as the lumbosacral plexus
Clonic Phase
alternating contraction and relaxation of muscles begins when inhibitory neurons in the cortex, anterior thalamus, and basal ganglia react to the cortical excitation.
When mental states persist and become uncontrollable, an individual may develop
an anxiety disorder
Brain imaging studies reveal
an enlargement of the cerebroventricles and widening of the fissures and sulci in the frontal cortex
glycine
an inhibitory neurotransmitter
Major depression is characterized by
an intense and sustained unpleasant state of sadness and hopelessness
Myasthenia gravis is due to
antiacetylcholine receptor antibodies.
Cranial Fontanelles
are areas of openings in between the skull bones that leave these areas Anterior fontanelle: diamond shaped (soft spots) Posterior: triangle shaped They help give us an indication of a babies hydration status Dehydrated---sunken in
Infratentorial is
below the tentorium cerebelli.
How can infections spread to the CNS?
bloodstream, skull fracture, surgery, LP, extension of otitis media, sinusitis, mastoiditis
pain neurotransmitters
can be classified as inflammatory, excitatory, and inhibitory modulators of pain.
normal brain functions
can be recorded with an electroencephalogram, or EEG
Aphasia
cannot articulate or comprehend
Cingulate occurs when the
cingulate gyrus shifts under the falx cerebri
What would CSF in bacterial meningitis show?
cloudy, purulent, increased pressure increased protein, increased neutrophils, decrease glucose
Aneurysm formation has been linked to
cocaine use.
ganglia
collections of neuron cell bodies associated with nerves in the PNS
cerebellum
collects input concerning balance and tension in muscles and ligaments
Saccular aneurysms can be due to a
combination of congenital and degenerative changes. They affect approximately 2% of the general population. They grow slowly over time and are rare in childhood
second order neurons location:
cross over the cord and ascend primarily in the lateral spinothalamic tract to projection centers including the thalamus reticular formation, and PAG matter
Acute pain arises from
cutaneous, deep somatic, or visceral structures; these include acute visceral, acute somatic, and referred.
Myelomeningocele
cystic dilation of meninges and protuberance of the spinal cord through a vertebral defect
Oligodendrogliomas are slow-growing, well-differentiated tumors that often have
cysts and calcifications. They comprise 2% of all brain tumors
types of neuropathic pain
deafferentation pain, sympathetically maintained pain, central pain, and phantom pain
Dysmnesia is a disorder of the
declarative memory network. This disorder is a loss of past memories with an inability to form new memories.
Examples of affective disorders
dementia, schizophrenia, mood disorders (depressions, mania, anxiety), Anxiety (panic, GAD, PTSD, OCT)
How are stimuli transmitted through neurons
dendrites -> cell body-> axon terminals-> synapses junctions
What are a neuron consisted of?
dendrites, a cell body, an axon (axon terminals that release chemicals)
What are the three meninges?
dura mater, arachnoid mater, and pia mater - Inside the skull and vertebral column, the brain and spinal cord are loosely suspended and protected by several connective tissue sheaths are meninges
Endogenous opioids
enkephalins, endorphins, dynorphins and endomorphins
The four types of endogenous opioids include
enkephalins, endorphins, dynorphins, and endomorphins
declarative memory
entails learning explicit information, is often stored with the learning context, and is related to the ability to manipulate symbols and language.
nondeclarative memory
entails motor skills, is often stored without details of the learning context, and is reinforced through performance.
What are the pathogens of viral meningitis?
enterovirus, poliovirus, echovirus, epstein-barr virus, west nile virus
Seizures
esults from a sudden, explosive, disorderly discharge of cerebral neurons and is characterized by a sudden, transient alteration in brain function, usually involving motor, sensory, autonomic, or psychic clinical manifestations and a temporary altered level of arousal. A seizure produces a brief disruption in the brain's electrical functions.
Panic disorder, generalized anxiety disorder, PTSD, and OCD are
examples of uncontrollable fear and anxiety states that require medical attention
GAD is characterized by
excessive and persistent worries about life events
Glutamate and aspartate are the most common
excitatory neurotransmitters in the brain and spinal cord.
reticular formation
extends through the brain stem, keeping the cortex alert via the reticular activating system, and dampening familiar, repetitive, or weak sensory inputs.
Negative symptoms of Schizophrenia include
flattened affect, alogia, anhedonia, attention deficits, and apathy
Individuals exhibit varying levels of motor disturbances, irritability, and fatigue that may be linked to
fluctuations in psychosocial stress
Supratentorial mass lesions compressing or displacing diencephalon or brain stem
focal cerebral dysfunction: vomiting, headache, hemiparesis, ocular signs, seizures, coma. Signs of dysfunction progress rostral to caudal. Motor signs asymmetric.
A parasagittal site demonstrates
focal seizure
What are Neural Tube Defects (NTD) associated with?
folate deficiency.
cerebellar processing
follows a functional scheme in which the frontal cortex communicates the intent to initiate voluntary movement to the cerebellum
91% death rate if pupils are nonreactive at 24 hours. 95% death rate when pupillary reflexes are absent at 6 hours.
for traumatic brain injury
cervical plexus
formed by the ventral rami of the first four cervical nerves
Neuroendocrine abnormalities involving thyroid hormones are
found in depression
Positive symptoms of Schizophrenia include
hallucinations, delusions, formal thought disorder, and bizarre behavior
Schizophrenia
has a strong genetic predisposition
Agnosia
loss of sensory components
Apraxia
loss of skilled movements
Nondeclarative memory is
memory involved in how to carry out activities.
An Affective Disorder
mental disorders characterized by dramatic changes or extremes of mood.
Dementia
mental disturbance that cannot be explained by any other disorder. Basically the default option.
What can PKU lead to if left untreated?
mental retardation.
Chemical synapses rely on ____ to provide communication between neurons?
messengers
What do alpha two receptors do?
negative feedback to stop neurotransmitter release
Sensory inattentiveness is a form of
neglect and may be visual, auditory, or tactile.
What is the treatment of Myasthenia gravis?
neostigmine, physostigmine, corticosteroids, immunosuppressants, plasmapheresis, IVIG, thymectomy
the ventral horn of the spinal cord
nerve fibers that stimulate the skeletal muscles of your foot have their somas in
oculomotor, trochlear, and abducens nerves (cranial nerves III, IV, and VI)
nerves that allow movement of the eyeball
facial nerves (cranial nerve VII)
nerves that allow movements of muscles creating facial expression
trigeminal nerves (cranial nerve V)
nerves that allow sensation to the face, and motor control of chewing muscles
vestibulocochlear nerves (cranial nerve VIII)
nerves that are responsible for hearing and balance
optic nerves (cranial nerve II)
nerves that are responsible for vision
vagus nerves (cranial nerve x)
nerves that control several visceral organs
glossopharyngeal nerves (cranial nerve IX)
nerves that control the tongue and pharynx
olfactory nerves (cranial nerve I)
nerves that detect odors
What type of cell is damaged in multiple sclerosis?
oligodendrocytes
Two thirds of metastatic tumors are located within the brain, and
one third are located in the extradural spaces.
thorax
only here are the ventral rami arranged in a simple segmental pattern corresponding to that of the dorsal rami
perceptual dominance
pain at one location that may cause an increase in threshold at another location
What symptoms does a stroke affecting the anterior cerebral artery cause?
paralysis of contralateral foot/leg, sensory loss over toes, foot, leg, slowness of thought, aphasia
dopamine
parkinson disease is caused by degeneration of neurons that release
the brain stem
produces rigidly programmed, automatic behaviors necessary for survival.
Three classes of second-order neurons modulate pain transmission
project ion cells, excitatory interneurons, and inhibitory interneurons
Third order neurons...
project to the postcentral gyrus of the parietal lobe
classes of second order neurons
projection cells, excitatory interneurons, and inhibitory interneurons
What are the three brain regions?
prosencephalon (forebrain). Mesencephalon (midbrain). Rhombencephalon (hindbrain).
inflammatory neurotransmitters
prostaglandins, nitric oxide, bradykinins, and histamine
pain
protective and a complex phenomenon composed of sensory experiences (time, space, intensity) and emotion, cognition, and motivation
perception of pain
protects the body from damage, and is stimulated by extremes of pressure and temperature, as well as chemicals released from damaged tissues
serotonin
prozac (fluoxetine) is an antidepressant that blocks the synaptic reuptake of
Deafferentation pain results from?
surgical resection of a nerve
Many GAD individuals manifest
symptoms of depression
what parts of the brain perceive, describe, and localize pain?
thalamus, cortex, and postcentral gyrus
dermatome
the area of skin innervated by the cutaneous branches of a single spinal nerve
What does the rhombencephalon (hindbrain) consist of?
the cerebellum, pons, and medulla oblongata
hypothalamus
the control center of the body, regulating ANS activity, such as emotional response, body temperature, food intake, sleep-wake cycles, and endocrine function.
thalamus, hypothalamus, epithalamus
the diencephalon consists of
pain tolerance
the duration of time or the intensity of pain that an individual will endure before initiating overt pain response; varies widely among individuals and in the same individual over time
wernicke's area, broca's area, the lateral prefrontal cortex, and the lateral and ventral parts of the temporal lobe
the language areas involved in comprehension and articulation
Brain regions involved in the production of panic attacks are
the locus ceruleus, hippocampus, and amygdala
arachnoid mater
the middle meninx that forms a loose brain covering
dura mater
the most durable, outermost covering that extends inward in certain areas to limit movement of the brain within the cranium.
sciatic
the most vulnerable nerve in the body
endoneurium
the neurilemma is covered by the loose connective tissue called
pain threshold
the point at which pain is perceived; does not vary significantly among people or within the same person over time
dendrite
the portion of the neuron that receives signals from other neurons
summation
the process of adding up postsynaptic potentials and responding to their net effect
sacral; lumbar
the sciatic nerve comes from the ___ plexus, while the femor nerve comes from the ___ plexus.
corticospinal tracts
the signals that control your handwriting travel down the spinal cord in the
cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral
the spinal cord is divided into which regions?
memory
the storage and retrieval of information
chickenpox
this viral infestation can remain viable with the dorsal root ganglia for many years.
meninges
three connective tissue membranes that cover and protect the CNS, protect blood vessels, and enclose venous sinuses, contain cerebrospinal fluid, and partition the brain.
What are the Oligodendrocytes functions?
to provide support to axons and to produce the Myelin sheath, which insulates axons.
neuropathic pain
usually chronic, results from nerve trauma or disease, and leads to abnormal peripheral and central pain processing
What part of the CNS does multiple sclerosis affect?
white matter tracts (brain, spinal cord, optic nerve)