Neuro Combined

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one axon and one dendrite arising from the soma

A bipolar neuron has

norepinephrine

A catecholamine

Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)

A class of medications responsible for blocking the enzyme that degrades serotonin, dopamine, norepinephrine and epinephrine

Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)

A class of medications responsible for blocking the reuptake of 5 hydroxytryptophan

Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs)

A class of medications responsible for blocking the reuptake of 5 hydroxytryptophan and norepinephrine

Cluster Breathing

A cluster of breaths has a disordered sequence with irregular pauses between breaths.

Spinal shock

A complete loss of reflex function in skeletal muscles, bladder, bowel, sexual function and automic control below the level of the lesion

Norepinephrine

Neurotransmitter released by adrenergic nerve terminals in the autonomic and possibly the central nervous system, that has such effects as constricting blood vessels, raising blood pressure, and dilating bronchi

Serotonin

Neurotransmitter, derived from tryptophan, that is involved in sleep, depression, memory, and other neurological processes

either excite or inhibit the post synaptic neuron

Neurotransmitters are molecules that cross the synaptic cleft and

c.withdrawal reflex

A nurse pricks your finger to type your blood. You flinch at the pain, pulling your hand back. This is called the a. pain reflex b. stretch reflex c.withdrawal reflex d.tendon reflex e. crossed extensor reflex

visceral; referred

A pain that radiates along the left shoulder and medial side of the arm may not indicate a pain specifically in that area. This may indicate a heart attack, which causes ___ pain, and the phenomenon is called ___.

Aura

A partial seizure that immediately precedes the onset of a generalized tonic-clonic seizure.

Gasping breathing pattern

A pattern of deep "all-or-none" breaths is accompanied by a slow respiratory rate.

Central

A person experiences a traumatic brain injury and has herniation of the brain that is straight downward through the tentorial notch. Which of the following types of herniation is this? ◦Supratentorial ◦ Central ◦Cingulate ◦Uncal

true

Not all synapses employ neurotransmitters

If mom is in a trauma and is hemorrhaging, how is perfusion going to be to the brain? How is tissue oxygenation going to be to the fetus?

Not good

Guillan-Barre

A person experiences demyelination of the peripheral nerves with sparing of the axons. Of which of the following diseases is this a characteristic? ◦ Alzheimer ◦Guillain-Barré ◦Myasthenia gravis ◦Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis

pathophysiology involves an increased ventilatory response

A person is diagnosed with Cheyne-Stokes respirations (CSR). Which of the following is a TRUE statement? A.Pathophysiology involves an increased ventilatory response. B.There is hypocapnia and increased ventilatory stimulus. C.Changes in PaO2 produce irregular breathing. D.The PaCO2 level increases when overbreathing occurs.

Apneusis

A prolonged inspiratory cramp (a pause at full inspiration) occurs; a common variant of this is a brief end-inspiratory pause of 2 or 3 sec, often alternating with an end-expiratory pause.

Posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD)

A psychologic disorder in individuals who have experienced or witnessed a terrifying or life-threatening event characterized by recurrent flashbacks of the event, nightmares, irritability, anxiety, fatigue, forgetfulness, and social withdrawal.

Panic disorder

A psychologic disorder that is characterized by recurrent attacks of anxiety or terror and usually results in the development of one or more phobias.

Schizophrenia

A psychotic disorder characterized by delusions, hallucinations, loosening of associations, disturbances in mood and sense of self and relationship to the external world, and bizarre, purposeless behavior.

Electroencephalogram

A record of the electrical activity of the brain is called a/an

contralateral

A reflex where the sensory input and motor output are on opposite sides of the spinal cord is called a ____ reflex arc.

the membrane potential has been reestablished

A second nerve impulse cannot be generated until ___.

Partial seizure (focal seizure)

A seizure caused by focused excessive electrical activity secondary to a lesion in a particular brain region.

Generalized seizure

A seizure occurring bilaterally with no local focal point that involves the entire body, resulting in muscle rigidity, violent muscle contractions, and impaired or lost consciousness.

Aura

A sensory experience that precedes the onset of a migraine or epileptic seizure.

Meningioma

A slow-growing, often encapsulated mass of cells derived from arachnoid tissue in the dural membrane that is usually benign but increases intracranial pressure.

Saccular aneurysm (berry aneurysm)

A slowly progressinganeurysm that affects only a portion of the circumference of the arterial wall and may be the result of congenital anomalies or degeneration.

Parasympathetic reduction of heart rate and sympathetic dilation of blood vessels

A sudden increase in blood pressure detected by baroreceptors in the walls of large arteries near the heart will cause

Central neurogenic hyperventilation

A sustained, deep, rapid, but regular pattern (hyperpnea) occurs, with a decreased PaCO2 and a corresponding increase in pH and PO2.

Autonomic hyperreflexia (dysreflexia)

A syndrome resulting from afferent stimuli which causes intense sympathetic discharge originating with spinal cord injury above the major splanchnic outflow characterized by hypertension, bradycardia, sweating of the forehead, severe headache, and piloerection on distention of the bladder and rectum.

+35 mV

A typical neuron will have a membrane voltage of about __ at the time when sodium gates close and potassium ions begin rapidly leaving the cell.

TRPV1

A vanilloid specific TRP that is stimulated by capsaicin.

false

A weak stimulus produces weaker action potentials than a strong stimulus

Direct Excitation

Occurs when the nociceptor responds to a threshold depolarization by the application of heat, radiation, toxic chemicals, or tissue trauma.

spatial summation

Occurs when the postsynaptic cell is stimulated at the same time by multiple terminals.

olfactory cortex; primary motor cortex

Odors like certain perfumes or certain foods stimulate a memory in the ___.

When do benign febrile seizures occur?

Often between ages 6 months and 5 years Peak incidence at 14 to 18 months Brief and self-limited

Parasellar

A woman experiences hormonal failure, optic atrophy, and gradual paraparesis. Which of the following is the most likely site of the meningioma based on these symptoms? ◦Sphenoidal wing ◦ Olfactory groove ◦Parasagittal ◦Parasellar

Social effects of a chronic neurologic disease include (select all that apply) a. divorce b. job loss c. depression d. role changes e. loss of self esteem

A,B,C,D,E

A result of stimulation of the parasympathetic nervous system is (select all that apply) a. constriction of the bronchi b. dilation of skin blood vessels c. increased secretion of insulin d. increased blood glucose levels e. relation of the urinary sphincters

A,B,C,E

Which of the following structures controls the functions of the greatest number of target glands and cells? A. Pituitary gland B. Pancreas C. Thyroid gland D. Adrenal cortex

A. Pituitary gland

Which one of the following blood tests reflects the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) and is used to estimate renal function? A. Serum creatinine B. Blood urea nitrogen C. Blood protein D. Serum ammonia

A. Serum creatinine

What happens to APP and BAP in Alzheimer's disease?

APP is cut on both sides of BAP leaving BAP intact, causing plaques to form. (Normally, APP is cleaved in the middle of BAP so both segments are degraded).

Which neurotransmitters does the Parasympathetic nervous system contain?

Acetylcholine. this attaches to cholinergic receptors

Guillain-Barré syndrome

Acute, inflammatory, autoimmune disease triggered by a preceding bacterial or viral infection that causes demyelination of neurons resulting in denervation and atrophy of muscle with numbness, pain, parasthesis or weakness

Of the following patients, the nurse recognizes that the one with the highest risk for a stroke is a. an obese 45 year old native american b. a 35 year old asian american woman who smokes c. a 32 year old white woman taking oral contraceptives d. a 65 years old African American man with hypertension

Paralysis of lateral gaze indicates a lesion of cranial nerve a. II b. III c. IV d.VI

The most recent assessment of a patient with a diagnosis of type 1 diabetes indicates a heightened risk of diabetic nephropathy. Which of the following assessment findings is most suggestive of this increased risk? A. Hematuria B. Orthostatic hypotension C. Diabetic retinopathy D. Microalbuminuria

D. Microalbuminuria

analyzes sensory information, stores information, makes decisions

Describe the integrative function of the nervous system.

Schizophrenia

Describes a collection of illnesses characterized by thought disorders (breaks from reality). Psychotic episodes (+/-), genetic predisposition, neuroanatomical and neurotransmitter alterations.

Na+ is entering the neuron

During the rising phase of an action potential

Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)

An anxiety disorder characterized by repetitive, intrusive thoughts and compulsive actions, such as cleaning, checking, or counting.

Huntington disease (HD)

An autosomal dominant disease causing a progressive increase in involuntary, jerky, dykinetic movements, mental deterioration, and premature death. Associated with a depletion of gamma-aminobutyric acid.

Prodomo

An early manifestation that may occur hours or days before a seizure

not open voltage-regulated gates and not fire an action potential

An excitatory local potential reaches the trigger zone at the axon hillock and causes a depolarization to -60 millivolts. The trigger zone will most likely

Glutamate

An excitatory neurotransmitter prevalent in neurons in the brain and spinal cord.

acetylcholine

An excitatory neurotransmitter secreted by motor neurons innervating the skeletal muscle.

synapse

An impulse from one nerve cell is communicated to another nerve cell via the ___.

Grade I is treated with surgery and then follow-up CT scans for recurrence. Grade II is treated surgically if accessible and then followed with radiation. Grades III and IV are treated with surgery. Grade III is well circumscribed

Astrocytoma

rod

At normal daylight intensities, the ___ cells are nonfunctional because all their rhodopsin is bleached.

b. nondecremental

At the distal end of a nerve fiber, action potentials have the same voltage as they had at the beginning. That is to say they are a. saltatory b. nondecremental c. refractory d. irreversible e. self-propagating

Nondecrimential

At the distal end of a nerve fiber, action potentials have the same voltage as they had at the beginning. That is to say, they are

What causes thrombotic shock?

Atheroscelorsis of large vessels (involves internal carotid, basilar, or vertebral arteries)

What causes embolic stroke?

Atherosclerotic patch in carotid artery from any arterial problem--especially L side of heart. Involves the middle cerebral artery.

three weeks

During which week of gestation does the endoderm form the neural plate*? *which invaginates, forming the neural groove, flanked on either side by neural folds.

What is the abnormal response for the Caloric Ice Water Test?

Dysconjugate or asmmetric eye movement.

secretory zone

Axon terminals release neurotransmitters.

47. Dr. Stern is a neuroscientist who is collecting data for a new research study. He uses techniques for monitoring the amount of glucose in various areas of the brain. Which of the following methods is Dr. Stern using in this study? A. Brain lesioning B. Staining C. Positron emission tomography (PET) D. Electroencephalogram (EEG)

Cluster Breathing Injury

Dysfunction in lower pontine and high medullary areas.

What is the location of injury for Cluster breathing?

Dysfunction in lower pontine and high medullary areas.

67. The major function of the _____ is to amplify vibrations and pass them on to the inner ear. A. pinnae B. hammer, anvil, and stirrup C. papillae D. olfactory epithelium

68. _____ plays an important role in the production of speech, whereas _____ plays an important role in the comprehension of language. A. Wernicke's area / Broca's area B. Broca's area / Wernicke's area C. The occipital lobe / the hippocampus D. The hippocampus / the occipital lobe

69. Katy was in a car accident and sustained serious brain damage. Since the accident Katy can speak only one word. This is an example of _____. A. amnesia B. aphasia C. multiple sclerosis D. epilepsy

7. Information from the brain and spinal cord to the muscles is sent through __________, thus enabling the body to move. A. afferent nerves B. efferent nerves C. hormones D. interpathway nerves

70. One criticism of place theory is that it _____. A. adequately explains low-frequency sounds but not high-frequency sounds. B. adequately explains high-frequency sounds but not low-frequency sounds. C. doesn't explain findings from split-brain research. D. can't explain the different functions of rods and cones.

73. The process of facial recognition is governed primarily by ______. A. the left hemisphere of the brain B. the right hemisphere of the brain C. the peripheral nervous system D. the endocrine system

While completing an admission history for a 73-year-old man with osteoarthritis admitted for knee arthroplasty, the nurse asks about the patient's perception of the reason for admission. The nurse expects the patient to relate which of the following responses to this question? A) a. Recent knee trauma B) b. Debilitating joint pain C) c. Repeated knee infections D) d. Onset of "frozen" knee joint

47. Gestalt psychologists emphasize that _____. A. perception is the same as sensation B. we learn to perceive the world through experience C. the whole is more than the sum of its parts D. perception is a neurological process

What happens if mom is deficient in folic acid? What is the baby at risk for?

Baby is at risk for nervous problems Spina Bifida Preg women are given daily folic acid in hospital you will notice in rotations to help prevent this from happening

Where does the pain usually radiate with a herniated disk?

Back of lower leg and over sole of foot.

2 types of Meningitis

Bacterial meningitis or viral meningitis: needs IV fluids and supportive therapy. Lumbar puncture to check CSF, CBC

Borrelia burgdorferi

Bacterial spirochete that causes Lyme disease transmitted by ticks

33. A _____ is a tiny space between the axon of one neuron and the dendrites or cell body of another neuron. A. glial cell B. reticular formation C. synapse D. basal ganglia

51. Which part of the nervous system regulates breathing? A. The hypothalamus B. Wernicke's area C. The medulla D. The forebrain

55. Steven was in a serious automobile accident that caused a severe injury to his hippocampus. What type of deficiency will Steven likely experience as a result of this brain damage? A. He will probably be unable to speak. B. He will probably be unable to comprehend language. C. He will probably have difficulties with memory formation. D. He will probably be paralyzed.

57. A door is still perceived as a rectangle even after we view it from different angles. This is due to _____. A. depth cues B. retinal disparity C. shape constancy D. linear constancy

58. Body temperature, emotional states, and coping with stress are functions controlled by the _____. A. corpus callosum B. hippocampus C. hypothalamus D. amygdala

58. _____ is the perceptual interpretation of the frequency of a sound. A. Amplitude B. Loudness C. Pitch D. Sound wave

34. Your relative is experiencing memory loss related to Alzheimer disease. Research suggests that there may be insufficient production of the neurotransmitter _______ in this individual's brain. A. serotonin B. gamma-amino butyric acid (GABA) C. acetylcholine D. dopamine

36. As light enters the eye, eventually it reaches the light-sensitive ____ at the back of the eye. A. blind spot B. lens C. retina D. cornea

36. _____ inhibits the firing of neurons in the central nervous system, but it excites the heart muscle, intestines, and urogenital tract. A. Serotonin B. Dopamine C. Norepinephrine D. GABA

4. Plasticity best reflects which of the following characteristics of the nervous system? A. Complexity B. Integration C. Adaptability D. Electrochemical transmission

40. Visual information is processed primarily in the visual cortex, which is located in the _____. A. parietal lobes B. temporal lobes C. occipital lobes D. hippocampus

46. Which of the following statements about research on color blindness is true? A. Most individuals who are color-blind literally see the world in black and white. They are unable to perceive any colors other than black or white. B. Color blindness is more common among women than among men. C. The nature of color blindness depends on which of the three kinds of cones (green, red, and blue) is inoperative. D. Research on color blindness does not support the trichromatic theory of vision.

65. Which of the following regions of the brain is involved in spatial skills, attention, and motor control? A. The hypothalamus B. The hippocampus C. The parietal lobes D. The amygdala

66. The eardrum is located in the ______. A. auditory cortex B. inner ear C. middle ear D. outer ear

7. Which of the following classes of sensory receptors play an important role in detecting pressure, vibration, movement, touch, and hearing? A. Chemoreception B. Photoreception C. Mechanoreception D. Endorphins

70. Roberto has a sever case of epilepsy. His doctor surgically severed his corpus callosum. Roberto's condition is referred to as _____. A. Alzheimer disease B. aphasia C. a split brain D. multiple sclerosis

74. The endocrine system _____. A. consists of the brain and the spinal cord B. connects the brain and the spinal cord to the rest of the body C. consists of glands that regulate the activities of certain organs by releasing hormones into the bloodstream D. communicates through the release of neurotransmitters

75. Newborns can ______ better than they can ______. A. see / feel touch, hear, or taste B. hear / feel touch, see, or taste C. feel touch / see, hear, or taste D. taste / see, hear, or feel touch

76. The _____ is sometimes referred to as the "master gland" because it controls growth and it releases the hormones that regulate other glands in the endocrine system. A. pineal gland B. adrenal gland C. pituitary gland D. thymus gland

77. Ellie has recently experienced irregular mood swings. Her energy level has decreased and she seems to have greater difficulty coping with stress. Based on her symptoms, it seems as though Ellie may have problems with her ______ glands. A. pituitary B. pineal C. adrenal D. thymus

83. George is very afraid of needles but needs to have blood drawn for a medical procedure. When he is about to get the shot he tries to not watch or think about the needle but instead tries to focus and read the poster on the wall. Which of the following pain management techniques did George use? A. Counterstimulation B. Focused breathing C. Distraction D. Electrical stimulation

83. The term ______ refers to a process by which new neurons are generated. A. collateral sprouting B. substitution of function C. neurogenesis D. lobotomy

85. The lining of the nasal cavity that contains a sheet of receptor cells for smell is known as the _____. A. semicircular canal B. papillae C. olfactory epithelium D. cochlea

Thermal effectors

Cells whose activity is regulated to control the heat content of the body.

hypothalamus

Centers for hunger, thirst and thermoregulation are found in a part of the brain called the ___

What kind of pain is caused by a lesion or dysfunction in the CNS?

Central pain

Which type of herniation is associated with consciousness, pupils, respiration, and posturing?

Central transtentorial hernation

What is Cerebral Death?

Cerebral death, or irreversible coma, is death of the cerebral hemispheres exclusive of the brain stem and cerebellum.

longitudinal fissure

Cerebral hemispheres are separated along the midline by the

transverse cerebral fissure

Cerebral hemispheres are separated from the cerebellum along the

What does the cerebral peduncle do?

Cerebral peduncle carries nerve fibers from the cerebrum to the hindbrain

Where does cerebrospinal fluid lie in the brain and what does it do to the brain?

Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) lies under the arachnoid to cushion the brain.

archnoid villi

Cerebrospinal fluid is absorbed by these cauliflower like structures

lateral and medial apertures

Cerebrospinal fluid leaves the fourth ventricle of the brain by way of the ___.

c. the arachnoid villi

Cerebrospinal fluid returns to the bloodstream by way of a. the central canal of the spinal cord b. the choroid plexuses of the brain c. the arachnoid villi d. the cauda equine e. the pia mater

arachnoid villi

Cerebrospinal fluid returns to the bloodstream by way of the

E, to help cool the brain

Cerebrospinal fluid serves all of the following functions except A. to support the weight of the brain, B. to cushion the brain from blows, C. to remove metabolic wastes from the central nervous system, D. to provide a stable chemical environmental for the nervous tissue, E. to help cool the brain.

What is the location of injury for Posthyperventilation apnea?

Cerebrum; associated with diffuse bilateral metabolic or structural disease.

depolarizations; hyperpolarizations

Changes in membrane potential relative to resting membrane potential can either be ___ or ___.

divirging (amplifying) circuits

Characterized by an incoming fiber that trigger responses in ever-increasing numbers of fibers along the circuit.

reverberating (oscillating) circuits

Characterized by feedback by axon collaterals to previous points in the pathway, resulting in ongoing stimulation of the pathway.

converging circuits

Characterized by reception of input from many sources, and a funneling to a given circuit, resulting in strong stimulation or inhibition.

What are some respiratory responses to altered level of consciousness?

Cheynes stokes, neurogenic hyperventilation, apneustic breathing

Muscarinic receptors

Cholinergic receptors on ANS effectors are called

Nicotinic receptors

Cholinergic receptors on skeletal muscles and postganglionic neurons in the ANS are called

What are involuntary movements of distal muscles?

Chorea

Dementia

Chronic long-term intellectual difficulties in areas such as memory, concentration, and judgment, resulting from a disease or disorder of the brain.

Multiple sclerosis

Chronic, autoimmune, demyelinating disease of the central nervous system that causes inflammation, axonal degeneration and scarring of myelin sheaths.

Which type of herniation is the least harmful?

Cingulate herniation--very little brain tissue involved

"Jet-lag disorder." Altered sleep scheduled with an advance or delay of 3 hours or more.

Circadian rhythm sleep disorder

converging circuits

Circuits common in sensory and motor pathways.

divirging (amplifying) circuits

Circuits common in sensory and motor pathways.

Which type of hydrocephalus is due to diminished reabsorption of CSF from arachnoid villi?

Communicating

a. has more local specific effects

Compared to the endocrine system the nervous system usually a. has more local specific effects b. reacts more slowly to a stimulus c. does not employ chemical messengers d. continues to respond long after the stimulus ceases e secretes chemical messengers into the bloodstream

has more local, specific effects

Compared to the endocrine system, the nervous system usually

29. Resting potential is the ______. A. amount of time a signal travels through the central nervous system B. amount of time a neuron must "rest" in between firing episodes C. stable, positive charge of an inactive neuron D. stable, negative charge of an inactive neuron

32. When you can tell the difference between candy apple red and fire engine red, it is partly because the light stimuli differ in their _____. A. visual acuity B. cone density C. X rays D. wavelengths

35. You try to note the incredibly fine details of a computer microchip through a magnifying glass. On which area of the retina should you be focusing this image? A. Optic chiasm B. Rods C. Periphery D. Fovea

42. The simultaneous distribution of sensory information across different neural pathways is called _____. A. binding B. bottom-up processing C. top-down processing D. parallel processing

44. Neuroscientists who surgically remove, destroy, or eliminate the brain tissue of laboratory animals are using which of the following techniques for studying the brain? A. Electroencephalogram (EEG) B. Positron emission tomography (PET) C. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) D. Brain lesioning

48. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is a technique that _____. A. measures the rate at which brain cells use glucose B. constructs a three-dimensional image from X rays C. examines the effects of lesions in brain tissue D. involves creating a magnetic field around a person's body and using radio waves to construct images of a person's tissues and biochemical activities

49. Functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI) is a technique that _____. A. allows scientists to see what is happening in the brain while it is working B. relies on monitoring changes in blood oxygen that occur in association with brain activity C. generates very clear pictures of the brain's interior D. All of these

50. If a person's cerebellum were damaged in an accident, you would expect the person to have a problem with _____. A. breathing and heart rate B. seeing and hearing C. talking and understanding D. balance and muscle coordination

52. Perceptual constancy refers to our ability to _____. A. switch back and forth between the figure and the ground in a figure-ground problem. B. have all of our sensory systems working on overload in a highly stressful situation. C. adjust to the amount of light in the room even if that requires light or dark adaptation. D. see an object as the same size even though we move closer to it or farther from it.

53. Which depth cue accounts for why parallel lines appear to grow closer together the farther away they are? A. Texture gradient B. Superposition C. Vertical position D. Linear perspective

54. Discrimination of objects that are necessary for survival (such as appropriate food) as well as emotional awareness and expression involves the _____. A. hippocampus B. occipital lobe C. medulla D. amygdala

60. Which of the following is the unit of measurement for assessing loudness? A. Pitch B. Saturation C. Hue D. Decibel

62. The three-foot-spike that damaged Phineas Gage's frontal lobe resulted in _____. A. hearing loss B. reduced ability to interpret visual information C. reduction in immunity to common diseases D. changes in personality

62. Your ability to distinguish a trumpet and a trombone or your mother's voice from your sister's voice is due to the _____ of these stimuli. A. saturation B. amplitude C. decibels D. timbre

66. The association cortex _____. A. integrates sensory input and motor output B. makes up 75 percent of the cerebral cortex C. is the region of the brain where the highest intellectual functions such as thinking and problem solving occur D. All of these

69. Place theory states that _____. A. in vision, depth perception occurs because of a combination of binocular and monocular cues B. in vision, color perception occurs because of different types of cones C. in hearing, a cluster of neurons "volley" neural impulses in rapid succession. D. in hearing, each frequency produces vibrations at a particular spot on the basilar membrane.

71. Neurosurgeons can reduce the unbearable seizures some epileptics experience by severing the _____. A. hypothalamus B. cerebellum C. amygdala D. corpus callosum

72. You and a group of friends are hiking in the woods when you suddenly become separated from the rest of the group. You know you aren't far from one another so you call out your friends' names and they call out back to you. According to research on hearing, what kind of information will you and your friends need to localize sound and find one another? A. The timing of the sound B. The intensity of the sound C. The intensity of the sound in the right ear compared to that in the left ear D. All of these

74. The cutaneous senses consist of sensory receptors that provide information about _____. A. touch B. temperature C. pain D. All of these

78. Pain receptors ______. A. are dispersed widely throughout the body B. have a much higher threshold for firing than receptors for temperature and touch C. are all anatomically similar, although they differ in the type of physical stimuli to which they most readily respond D. All of these

79. The perception of pain is influenced by _____. A. the presence of endorphins B. cultural context C. motivation and expectation D. All of these

80. Which of the following glands plays an important role in insulin production, metabolism, and body weight? A. The testes and ovaries B. The adrenal glands C. The pituitary gland D. The pancreas

82. Your sister and brother-in-law are expecting their first child. They have chosen to attend Lamaze classes to prepare for the labor and birth. The Lamaze method of childbirth is based on which of the following approaches to pain management? A. Acupuncture B. Counterstimulation C. Distraction D. Focused breathing

86. Which of the following methods do researchers use to study genetics? A. Molecular genetics B. Selective breeding C. Behavior genetics D. All of these

How does the anticholinesterase test work?

Endorphonium (short acting acetylcholinesterase inhibitor) is given --> decreased breakdown of Ach --> temporary improvement in muscle function

Hyperalgesia

Enhanced responsiveness to painful stimuli.

One of the first renal manifestations of diabetic nephropathy is hypertension. True False

False

c. the thalamus

Fibers of the optic nerve terminate mainly in a. the frontal lobes b.the occipiital lobes c.. the thalamus d. the midbrain e. the optic chiasma

l (perineurium)

Fibrous sheath enclosing a nerve

epineurium

Fibrous sheath inclosing a nerve.

frontal, parietal, temporal, occipital, insular

Five lobes of the brain separated by specific sulci.

What will a patient with midbrain dysfuntion pupil's look like?

Fixed and in midposition.

What does hypothermia cause to pupils?

Fixed pupils.

What are the symptoms of Conus Medullaris syndrome?

Flaccid bowel, bladder, and sexual function. Motor function may be affected.

In UMN lesions, spasticity is greater in what muscles?

Flexor muscles of upper extremity and extensor muscles of lower extremity.

wernice's area

Fluent aphasia is associated with the destruction of this area

basilar membrane

Hair cells of the cochlea are stimulated as a result of the up-and-down vibrations of the

What are clinical manifestations of schizophrenia?

Hallucinations Delusions Disorganized behavior Disorganized speech Disorganized behavior Negative symptoms Affective flattening Anhedonia, alogia, and avolition

Positive Symptoms of Schizophrenia

Hallucinations, delusions, illusions, agitation, paranoia, associational disturbances, insomnia, ideas of reference.

a (postentral gyrus)

Has an upside-down sensory map of the opposite side of the body

cerebral cortex

Has several motor areas located in the frontal lobes, which control voluntary movement.

Individuals with recurrent patterns of depression and mania, characterized by extreme levels of energy and euphoria

Having a bipolar illness

Tension headache

Headache caused by emotional strain or overwork that tends to be focused in the occipital region and can be continuous for months.

Cluster headache

Headache characterized by unilateral severe pain over the eye and forehead that lasts 30 minutes to 2 hours, several attacks per day can occur over a period of days followed by long periods of remission

Migraine

Headache that usually begins in the temporal region unilaterally after vascular changes of cranial arteries and may cause irritability, nausea, vomiting, constipation or diarrhea, and photophobia.

Collapse resulting from prolonged high body core

Heat exhaustion

Leath consequence of breakdown in control of an overstressed thermoregulatory center.

Heatstroke

Which type of stroke is more dangerous?

Hemorrhagic (bleeding in brain tissue)

Extradural Hematoma

Hemorrhaging usually from an artery most commonly associated with a skull fracture after a head injury

Persons with metabolically induced comas generally retain ocular reflexes even when other signs of brainstem damage are present. Name two exceptions.

Persons in comas with barbiturate-hypnotic and phyenytoin poisoining, do not retain ocular reflexes.

Oculomotor responses in coma

Persons with metabolically induced coma, except with barbiturate-hypnotic and phenytoin poisoning, generally retain ocular reflexes.

Diaphoresis

Perspiration

What kind of pain would an individual feel in an amputated limb after the residual stump as been healed?

Phantom limb pain

Severe barbiturate intoxications may do what to pupils?

Produce fixed pupils.

Amyotrophy

Progressive wasting of muscle tissue frequently caused by diabetes mellitus or motor neuron disease.

Apneusis

Prolong inspiratory cramp (pause at full inspiration); common variant is brief end-inspiratory 2-3 second pause.Alternates with EE pause.

Dysfunction caused by alterations of any level of the nervous system

Proprioceptive dysfunction

Amyloid-beta

Protein responsible for producing senile plaques in Alzheimer Disease.

Bipolar disorder

Psychiatric disorder characterized by alternating mania or hypomania and depression, often with periods of normal mood in between, and changes in energy and behavior according to mood.

What is unusual about psychogenetic alterations in arousal?

Psychogenetic alterations in arousal seems unconscious, but is actually physiologically awake; the person does not respond.

Withdrawal

Pulling the arm back from a hot pan is an example of a ______ reflex.

o ( choroid plexus)

Source of cerebrospinal fluid

neurons

Specialized cells that conduct messages in the form of electrical impulses throughout the body.

chemical synapses

Specialized for release and reception of chemical neurotransmitters.

c. the temporal lobe

The cerebral cortex concerned with hearing is in a. the insula b. the occipital lobe c. the temporal lobe d. the pariental lobe e. the frontal lobe

temporal lobe

The cerebral cortex concerned with hearing is in the

Senile plaque

The excessive accumulation of proteins that forms neurofibrillary tangles and prevents intracellular transport and neurotransmission.

photopic vision has higher resolution than scotopic vision

The fact that cone cells exhibit less neuronal convergence than rod cells do is part of the reason that ___.

the efflux of K+

The falling phase of an action potential results from

calcium ions enter the synaptic knob

The first event that occurs when a nerve signal reaches a synaptic knob is

solitary nucleus in the medulla oblongata

The first-order neurons of taste project to the ___.

(1) level of consciousness (LOC), (2) pattern of breathing, (3) size and reactivity of pupils, (4) eye position and reflexive response, and (5) skeletal muscle motor responses

The five categories that are critical for the evaluation process for neurologic function include

C. Somatic motor neurons that connect the CNS to the digestive tract

The nerve plexuses of the enteric nervous system receive contributions from all of the following except A. Enteric neurons of the enteric plexuses / B. ANS neurons that connect the CNS to the digestive tract / C. Somatic motor neurons that connect the CNS to the digestive tract / D. Sensory neurons that connect the digestive tract to the CNS

Cauda equina

The nerves arising from the inferior lumbosacral enlargement form the

the prosencephalon (forebrain), mesencephalon (midbrain), and rhombencephalon (hindbrain)

The neural tube develops constrictions that divide into which three primary brain vesicles?

neural folds

The neural tube is formed by fusion of the

d. nerve signals pass from neuron to neuron over junctions called synapses

The neuron doctrine refers to the fact that a. action potentials are all or none b. neurons do not fire unless they reach threshold c. neurons are organized into functional groups called neuronal pools d. nerve signals pass from neuron to neuron over junctions called synapses e. once4 an action potentials begins it cannot be stopped

ectoderm; mesoderm

The neurons and all glial cells except microglia are derived from ___; the microglia are derived from ____.

central nervous system; form the myelin sheath

The oligodendrocyte is found in the ___ and functions to

If the UMN lesion is above the pyramids, what is affected?

The opposite side.

optic chiasma

The optic nerve becomes the optic tract when it reaches the

dura mater; dura sinuses

The outer double meningeal layer around the brain is called the ___, and in some places the two layers are separated by ___.

axon

The part of a neuron that conducts impulses away from its cell body.

Visible light

The part of the electromagnetic spectrum that can be detected by the human eye is

absolute refractory period

The period after an initial stimulus when a neuron is not sensitive to another stimulus.

What do the superior colliculi ad inferior colliculi do?

Superior colliculi control reflex eye movements = Visual startle reflex. Inferior colliculi control reflex reactions to sound = Auditory startle reflex.

semicircular ducts

Suppose you were sitting in a rotating chair in a hair salon with your eyes closed, and the chair was rotated. You could sense this by means of your ___.

What controls the timing of the sleep-wake cycle and coordinates this cycle with the circadian rhythm?

Suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN)

What are supratentorial disorders?

Supratentorial disorders are disorders above the tentorial plate.

b (Medulla oblongata)

Swallowing and gag reflexes

Organs in the thoracic cavity

Sympathetic postganglionic nerves that form sympathetic nerves supply

Skeletal muscle B. Smooth muscle and glands in the skin

Sympathetic postganglionic nerves that run with spinal nerves will serve

What kind of pain occurs after peripheral nerve injury and is characterized as severe continuous burning

Sympathetically maintained pain

TRUE

T/F: A postsynaptic potential is a graded potential that is the result of a neurotransmitter released into the synapse between two neurons.

TRUE

T/F: A stimulus traveling toward a synapse appears to open calcium ion channels at the presynaptic end, which in turn promotes fusion of synaptic vesicles to the axonal membrane.

TRUE

T/F: Cell bodies of sensory neurons may be located in ganglia lying outside the central nervous system.

TRUE

T/F: During depolarization, the inside of the neuron's membrane becomes less negative.

TRUE

T/F: Efferent nerve fibers may be described as motor nerve fibers.

TRUE

T/F: Enkephalins and endorphins are peptides that act like morphine.

TRUE

T/F: If bacteria invaded the CNS tissue, microglia would migrate to the area to engulf and destroy them.

TRUE

T/F: In myelinated axons the voltage-regulated sodium channels are concentrated at the nodes of Ranvier.

TRUE

T/F: Large-diameter nerve fibers conduct impulses much faster than small-diameter fibers.

TRUE

T/F: Myelination of the nerve fibers in the central nervous system is the job of the oligodendrocyte.

TRUE

T/F: Neurons in the CNS are organized into functional groups.

TRUE

T/F: Reflexes are rapid, automatic responses to stimuli.

FALSE

T/F: Strong stimuli cause the amplitude of action potentials generated to increase.

FALSE

T/F: The all-or-none phenomenon is applied to nerve conduction states that the whole nerve cell must be stimulated for conduction to take place.

FALSE

T/F: The nodes of Ranvier are found only on myelinated, peripheral neuron processes.

TRUE

T/F: The oligodendrocytes can myelinate several axons.

TRUE

T/F: Unipolar neurons have axons structurally divided into peripheral and central processes.

Referred pain from upper abdominal disease involves:

T8, L1, and L2

circumvallate

Taste buds are found on all the lingual papillae except the ___ type.

spicy

Taste cells produce all of the following sensations except

lacrimal glands

Tears are produced by the ___.

Apnea

Temporaray suspension of breathing

Mild concussion

Temporary axonal disturbances without the loss of consciousness in response to a violent blow, jarring, shaking, or other closed head injury.

lamellated corpuscles

The receptors for deep pressure in the dermis and subcutaneous tissue are ___.

microvilli on the epithelial cells

The receptors for taste are located on the ___.

hair receptors

The receptors most likely to detect an ant crawling on your back are ___.

Central Sensitization

The reduction of pain threshold mediated by the activity of NMDA receptors.

cannot be fired again regardless of the stimulus

The refractory period represents the time period when a region of the axon

b. the neurilemma and endoneurium

The regeneration tube of a peripheral nerve fiber consists of a. the axolemma and neurilemma b. the neurilemma and endoneurium c. the myelin sheath and neurilemma d. schwann cells and astrocytes e. satellite cells and oligodendrocytes

premotor cortex

The region controlling learned motor skills.

true

The repetitive muscle contractions of walking are controlled by neuronal pools in the spinal cord

Behind the retina

The result of hyperopia is an image focused

What system of the brain is usually damaged in infratentorial disorders?

The reticular activating system and/or its pathways, or the entire brainstem.

diencephalon

The retinas originate as outgrowths of the ___.

corpus callosum

The right and left cerebral hemispheres are joined mainly by the

a. corpus callosum

The right and left cerebral hemispheres are joined mainly by the a. corpus callosum b. thalamus c. pons d. decussation e. association tracts

Convergence

The rotation of the eyes medially to view a close object is called

true

The sacral segments of the spinal cord are not found within the sacral vertebrae

Sacral

The sciatic nerve comes from the _________ plexus.

cerebellum; coordinate skeleltal muscles. *

The second-largest region of the brain is the ___, whose function is to

endolymph

The semicircular ducts are filled with

the membranous labyrinth

The semicircular ducts lie within

tectorial membrane

The sensory cells of hearing are stimulated by the ___ resting on their stereocilia.

ipsilateral

To describe a reflex arc as ___ means that its receptors and effectors are on the same side of the body

Herniation

To protrude abnormally from an enclosed cavity

tactile (Merkel) discs; Ruffini corpuscles

Tonic receptors for light touch, textures, edges, and shapes are ___, and tonic receptors for heavy touch, pressure, stretching of the skin and joint movements are ___.

Sympathetic nervous stimulation is likely to result in decreased renal blood flow. True False

True

True or False: The combination of antidepressants and psychotherapy works the best for treatment of mood disorders?

True

Extramedullary tumors

Tumor originating from tissues outside the spinal cord including the meninges, epidura tissue or vertebral structures

Intramedullary tumors

Tumor originating within neural tissue

facial (VII) and glossopharyngeal (IX)

Two cranial nerves involved in taste are

c. the thoracic region

The ventral rami of the spinal nerves form nerve plexuses in all regions except a. the cervical region b. the brachial region c. the thoracic region d. the lumbar region e. the sacral region

motor; sensory

The ventral root carries ___ neurons, while the dorsal roots carries ___ neurons.

What are Ependymal cell?

The ventricles of the brain and the central canal of the spinal cord are lined with ependymal cells. Their functions are: 1. Producing the central spinal fluid (CSF). 2. As sensory functions, such as monitoring the composition of the CSF.

cerebrospinal fluid

The ventricles of the brain are filled with a fluid called

Occipital

The visual cortex is located in the _______ lobe.

arbor vitae

The white matter of the cerebellum constitutes its ___.

Arbor vitae

The white matter of the cerebellum is called the

Cerebral medulla

The white matter of the cerebrum is the

What happens when mom has Rubella when she is pregnant?

Then the baby is placed at risk for congenital problems

ependymal cells and astrocytes

There are two barrier systems to the blood supply of the brain: the blood-brain barrier (BBB) and the blood-CSF barrier. Two glial cells that are critical to the formation of these barriers are

What are seizures?

They are unpredictable explosion of intermittent nervous system firing (of neurons)—uncontrollable

enkephalins

This chemical is released by injured tissues and is the most potent pain stimulus known.

vestibulocochlear (VIII)

This cranial nerve controls hearing and equilibrium

Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis

This disease is marked by degeneration of motor neurons, and in most cases, neurons are destroyed by the inability of astrocytes to reabsorb glutamate, which allows this neurotransmitter to reach toxic levels.

Dysmnesia is a disorder of the declarative memory network.

This disorder is a loss of past memories with an inability to form new memories.

spina bifida

This is a congenital defect resulting from the failure of one or more vertebrae to form a complete vertebral arch for enclosure of the spinal cord.

What are manifestations of an infratentorial mass of destruction that could cause a coma?

Vomiting, headache, hemiparesis, ocular signs, seizures, coma. Rostal to Caudal Dysfunction progression.

Vomiting, yawning, and hiccups are complex reflex-like motor responses integrated by what and from where?

Vomiting, yawning, and hiccups are complex reflex-like motor responses integrated by neural mechanisms in the lower brain stem.

sodium ions diffuse into the outer segment

When light is absorbed by a rod cell ___.

cauda equina

What is a bundle of nerve roots within vertebrae L2-S5 which innervate the pelvic organs and legs?

Nerve impulse

What is a change in the difference in positive and negative ions on the outer and inner surfaces of the neuron membrane? A change that opens adjacent channels and propagates its flow?

an automatic, involuntary response

What is a reflex action?

myelin sheath

What is a whitish, fatty, segmented covering that protects, insulates, and increases conduction velocity of axons?

spinal reflexes

What is an example of serial processing?

stimulus intensity

What is coded in the frequency of action potentials?

current

What is dependent on voltage and resistance?

Cochlear duct

What is found between the vestibular membrane and the basilar membrane of the cochlea?

Cerebrospinal fluid

What is found in the subarachnoid space?

Vitreous humor

What is found in the vitreous chamber of the eye?

resting membrane potential

What is generated by differences in ionic makeup of intracellular and extracellular fluids, and differential membrane permeability to solutes?

neurotransmitters

What is one of the ways neurons communicate?

neuron cell membrane

What is polarized, being more negatively charged inside than outside?

synaptic delay

What is related to the period of time required for release and binding of neurotransmitters?

the refractory period of an axon

What is related to the period of time required so that a neuron can generate another action potential?

Na+ gates opening; K+ gates opening; Na+ gates closing

What is the correct sequence of voltage-regulated gates opening and closing in an action potential?

carry impulses toward a cell body

What is the function of dendrites?

Killing bacteria

What is the function of lysozyme in the eyes?

Equalizes pressure on tympanic membrane in the middle ear

What is the function of the auditory tube?

Constriction of airways

What is the function of the parasympathetic division?

Stops the sound waves from reflecting back toward the cochlear canal

What is the function of the round window?

Dilate the pupil

What is the function of the sympathetic division?

generates and conducts nerve impulses away from the cell body to the axon terminal

What is the purpose of the single axon of neurons?

destroy ACh a brief period after its release by the axon endings

What is the role of acetylcholinesterase?

ATP-dependent "motor" proteins such as kinesin, dynesin, and myosin.

What mechanism is responsible for axon transport?

Mandibular branch of the trigeminal nerve

What nerve is generally used for dental anesthesia of the lower jaw?

neuromodulation

What occurs when a neurotransmitter acts via slow changes in target cell metabolism, or when chemicals other than neurotransmitter modify neuronal activity?

a single type of channel will open, permitting simultaneous flow of sodium and potassium

What occurs when an excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP) is being generated on the dendritic membrane?

motor neuron

What part of a simple reflex takes the message away from the CNS?

Habenular

What part of the diencephalon is involved with emotional and visceral responses to odors?

Mammillary bodies

What part of the hypothalamus are involved in emotional responses to odors, olfactory reflexes and memory?

Choroid plexuses

What produces cerebrospinal fluid?

an enhanced release of neurotransmitter

What results after synaptic potentiation occurs?

synaptic potentiation

What results when a presynaptic cell is stimulated repeatedly or continuously?

presynaptic inhibition

What results when another neuron inhibits the release of excitatory neurotransmitter from a presynaptic cell?

Cerebral aqueduct

What structure connects the third and fourth ventricles?

Ampulla of the semicircular canals

What structure is associated with dynamic balance?

Reticular activating system

What structure plays a major role in consciousness and sleep-wake cycles?

Lacrimal apparatus

What structure produces tears?

Central

What structure separates the frontal from the parietal lobe?

Tympanic membrane

What structure separates the outer ear from the middle ear?

Filum terminale and denticulate ligaments

What structures help to anchor the spinal cord within the subarachnoid space?

Limbic system

What system is involved in basic survival functions and emotions?

peripheral nervous system

What system is outside the central nervous system?

Beta

What type of brain waves are observed when a person is mentally very active?

Projection fibers

What type of fibers are continuations of the fibers in the spinal cord?

Commissural fibers

What type of fibers connect one hemisphere to the other?

Free nerve endings

What type of general sense receptors are the simplest and most common?

Sensory memory

What type of memory lasts for less than a second while the brain is receiving and evaluating input?

Nociceptors

What type of receptors respond to painful stimuli?

Thermoreceptors

What type of receptors respond to temperature changes?

Somatic general senses

What type of senses are found in the skin, muscles and joints?

REM (rapid eye movement) sleep

What type of sleep allows the brain to analyze events or eliminate meaningless information?

NREM (non-rapid eye movement) sleep

What type of sleep is considered restorative?

Retinal

What visual pigment is found combined with opsin in cones?

axons

When a finger or other appendage is severed in an accident, it is possible to surgically rejoin most tissues (bone, skin, etc.) and most will grow back together. However, in a cut through an appendage nerve, it is currently more difficult to reconnect what are primarily severed

Voltage-regulated Na+ gates open

When a neuron is depolarized to threshold,

Vegetative State (VS)

When a person loses cerebral function. The reticular activating system and brain stem maintains a crude waking state.

true

When a pregnant woman takes folic acid she decreases the chance that her baby will have spina bifida

generator potential

When a sensory neuron is excited by some form of energy, the resulting graded potential is called a(n) ___.

potassium

When a tip link opens the ion channel on a cochlear stereo-cilium, ___ ions rapidly enter and depolarize the hair cell.

Posthyperventilation Apnea

When consciousness decreases, lower brain stem centers regulate the breathing pattern by responding only to changes in PaCO2 levels.

parallel processing

When information is delivered within the CNS simultaneously by different parts of the neural pathway.

temporal

When one or more presynaptic neurons fire in rapid order it produces a much greater depolarization of the postsynaptic membrane than would result from a single EPSP; this event is called ___ summation.

What is a herniated/slipped disk?

When the nucleus polpus goes through the annulus fibrosis due to torn fibers, caused by trauma, aging, lifting, slipping, falling.

tympanic membrane

When the stapes pushes in an creates pressure on the endolymph, the __ bulges out to relieve the pressure.

What is the main compensation for volume change in the brain?

When volume increases in 1 compartment, it decreases in the other. If this does not occur, pressure increases.

accommodation

When you view objects close to the eye, the eye makes an adjustment called ___.

Arachnoid granulations into the dural sinuses

Where does cerebrospinal fluid return to the blood supply?

threshold

Whether or not a neuron fires depends on whether it is depolarized to a voltage called its

Eyebrows

Which accessory structure of the eyes protect the eyes by preventing perspiration from getting into the eyes?

axons with larger diameters

Which axons conduct impulses faster: axons with larger diameters, or axons with smaller diameters?

unmyelinated axons

Which axons conduct impulses relatively slowly?

myelinated axons

Which axons have a high conduction velocity?

Scala vestibuli

Which cochlear chamber is connected to the oval window into the middle ear?

Wernicke's area

Which cortical area is necessary for understanding and formulating coherent speech?

A. Trigeminal

Which cranial nerve is NOT involved with taste? A. Trigeminal / B. Glossopharyngeal / C. Vagus / D. Facial

Facial

Which cranial nerve is the major motor nerve for facial expressions?

Trigeminal

Which cranial nerve is the major sensory nerve from the face?

Vagus

Which cranial nerve leaves the head and neck region to supply the internal viscera?

vestibulocochlear

Which cranial nerves carries equilibrium messages?

Reticulospinal

Which descending tract carries impulses for posture adjustment and walking?

Sympathetic

Which division of the ANS has a more generalized effect in the body?

motor (efferent)

Which division of the peripheral nervous system carries impulses from the central nervous system to effector organs, which are muscles and glands?

sensory (or afferent)

Which division of the peripheral nervous system carries impulses toward the central nervous system from sensory receptors located throughout the body?

Myopia

Which eye disorder results in clear vision of close objects and blurry vision of distant objects?

interneurons (association neurons)

Which functional class of neuron conduct impulses between sensory and motor neurons, or in CNS integration pathways?

motor (efferent)

Which functional class of neuron conduct impulses from the CNS to effectors?

sensory (afferent)

Which functional class of neuron conduct impulses toward the CNS from receptors?

B. sensory neuron-delivers signals to control sensory organs such as eye movement

Which is NOT a correct association of structure and function? A. axons-outgoing signals B. sensory neuron-delivers signals to control sensory organs such as eye movement C. cell body-nucleus and organelles D. interneuron- sums up input before sending signals to muscle or gland

cerebellum

Which is most concerned with motor coordination and equilibrium?

occipital lobe

Which lobe of the cerebrum is most concerned with vision?

somatic

Which nerve fibers innervate the skin and skeletal muscles?

somatic nervous system

Which nervous system allows conscious control of motor activities?

somatic nervous system

Which nervous system consists of somatic nerve fibers that conduct impulses from the CNS to skeletal muscles?

autonomic nervous system

Which nervous system consists of visceral motor nerve fibers that regulate the activity of smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glands?

autonomic nervous system

Which nervous system is an involuntary system?

score of 3 to 8

Which of the following BEST describes a severe TBI in terms of the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)? .score of 13 to 15 .score of 12 to 13 . score of 9 to 12 . score of 3 to 8

e. vestibulocochlear

Which of the following cranial nerves carries equilibrium messages a. facial b. abducens c. trigeminal d. glossopharyngeal e. vestibulocochlear

B. Hypoglossal nerve

Which of the following cranial nerves does NOT carry taste impulses to the brain? A. Facial nerve / B. Hypoglossal nerve / C. Glossopharyngeal nerve / D. Vagus nerve

A. Vestibulospinal

Which of the following descending tracts is NOT a direct pathway to muscles for conscious, skilled movements? A. Vestibulospinal / B. Anterior corticospinal / C. Corticobulbar / D. Lateral corticospinal

D. CNS - always excitatory; ANS - always inhibitory

Which of the following differences between the central nervous system and the autonomic nervous system is incorrect? A. CNS - one neuron to effector; ANS - two neurons to effector / B. CNS - innervates skeletal muscle; ANS - innervates smooth and cardiac muscles and glands / C. CNS - axons myelinated; ANS - preganglionic axons myelinated, postganglionic axons unmyelinated / D. CNS - always excitatory; ANS - always inhibitory

C. All sympathetic postganglionic neurons

Which of the following does NOT release acetylcholine? A. All sympathetic preganglionic neurons / B. All parasympathetic preganglionic neurons / C. All sympathetic postganglionic neurons / D. All parasympathetic postganglionic neurons

e. cell walls

Which of the following does not pertain to neurons? A. sodium pumps B. Schwann cells C. myelin D. nodes of Ranvier E. cell walls

D. Blood vessels

Which of the following effectors are NOT cholinergic? A. Sweat glands / B. Heart / C. Large intestines / D. Blood vessels

C. Mammillary bodies

Which of the following is NOT a basal nucleus? A. Substantia nigra / B. Caudate nucleus / C. Mammillary bodies / D. Lentiform nucleus

B. Vascular

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the cornea? A. Transparent / B. Vascular / C. Refracts light / D. Allows light to enter the eye

e. nucleic acid

Which of the following is NOT a chemical class of neurotransmitters? a. acetylcholine b. amino acid c. biogenic amine d. ATP and other purines e. nucleic acid

Pleuritic

Which of the following is NOT a classification of acute pain? A.Acute visceral B.Pleuritic C.Referred D.Acute somatic

unresponsive come

Which of the following is NOT a criterion when determining brain death? A.Unresponsive coma B. No spontaneous respiration C.Isoelectric EEG D.Ocular response to head turning

E. provide the defense for the CNS

Which of the following is NOT a function of astrocytes? A. support and brace neurons B. anchor neurons to blood vessels C. guide the migration of young neurons, synapse formation, and helping to determine capillary permeability D. control the chemical environment around neurons E. provide the defense for the CNS

D. innervation of skeletal muscle

Which of the following is NOT a function of the autonomic nervous system? a. innervation of smooth muscle of the digestive tract b. innervation of cardiac muscle c. innervation of glands d. innervation of skeletal muscle

C. Origin of impulses to skeletal muscle

Which of the following is NOT a function of the cerebellum? A. Controls balance and eye movements / B. Controls posture, locomotion and fine motor coordination / C. Origin of impulses to skeletal muscle / D. Planning, practicing and learning complex movements

D. All of the choices are correct

Which of the following is NOT a function of the hypothalamus? A. Body temperature control / B. Autonomic nervous system control / C. Mood and emotions / D. All of the choices are correct

B. Auditory relay center

Which of the following is NOT a function of the medulla oblongata? A. Regulate heart rate / B. Auditory relay center / C. Regulate blood vessel diameter /D. Regulate breathing

D. Visual relay center

Which of the following is NOT a function of the pons? A. Controls chewing and salivation / B. Aides the medulla oblongata in controlling breathing, swallowing and balance / C. Relay between the cerebellum and cerebrum / D. Visual relay center

D. Control of the autonomic nervous system

Which of the following is NOT a function of the thalamus? A. Regulation of skeletal muscles / B. Limbic system and emotions / C. Perception of pain / D. Control of the autonomic nervous system

B. Phrenic

Which of the following is NOT a main nerve of the brachial plexus? A. Median, B. Phrenic, C. Musculocutaneous, D. Ulnar, E. Radial

c. they are mitotic

Which of the following is NOT a special characteristic of neurons? A. they conduct impulses B. they have extreme longevity C. they are mitotic D. they have an exceptionally high metabolic rate

C. Increased secretions in the digestive tract

Which of the following is NOT a typical "flight or fight" response by the sympathetic division of the ANS? A. Vasoconstriction of abdominal blood vessels / B. Dilation of air passageways / C. Increased secretions in the digestive tract / D. Increased fat break down for energy

B. Cochlea

Which of the following is NOT an auditory ossicle? A. Incus, B. Cochlea, C. Stapes, D. Malleus

A. Thalamus

Which of the following is NOT part of the brainstem? A. Thalamus / B. Pons / C. Medulla oblongata / D. Midbrain

B. Midbrain

Which of the following is NOT part of the diencephalon? A. Hypothalamus / B. Midbrain / C. Thalamus / D. Subthalamus

B. Pigment cells

Which of the following is NOT part of the neural layer of the retina? A. Bipolar neurons / B. Pigment cells / C. Photoreceptors / D. Ganglionic neurons

D. It decreases the speed of nerve impulse conduction

Which of the following is NOT true about the myelin sheath? A. It is composed of layers of cellular membrane containing myelin around nerve fibers. B. It gives nerve fibers their white glistening appearance. C. It provides a pathway for new fiber growth if the axon is severed. D. It decreases the speed of nerve impulse conduction E. It is formed from Schwann cells.

edema occurs in the gray matter

Which of the following is NOT true regarding a secondary spinal cord injury? .Secondary injury of the cord begins within a few minutes after injury. .Edema occurs in the gray matter. .Microscopic hemorrhages appear in the central gray matter. .Oxygen tension in the tissue at the injury site is decreased

Which cranial nerves does the midbrain responsible for?

Gives rise to cranial nerves III-oculomotor nerve, and IV-trochlear nerve , controlling eye movement (III exits from front of mid brain, IV from back of mid brain, their nuclei are in the midbrain).

Intraocular pressures above the normal range of 12 to 20 mmgm.

Glaucoma

ependymal cells

Glia cells which resemble a cuboidal epithelium without the basement membrane and produce cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) are called

ependymal cells

Glial cells of the CNS that line the central cavities of the brain and spinal cord and help circulate cerebrospinal fluid.

microglia

Glial cells of the CNS that monitor health and perform defense functions for neurons.

astrocytes

Glial cells of the CNS that regulate the chemical environment around neurons and exchange between neurons and capillaries.

oligodendrocytes

Glial cells of the CNS that wrap around neuron fibers, forming myelin sheaths.

schwann cells (neurolemmocytes)

Glial cells of the PNS that surround nerve fibers, forming the myelin sheath.

satellite cells

Glial cells of the PNS whose function is largely unknown. They are found surrounding neuron cell bodies within ganglia.

What is glutamate's normal pathway?

Glutamate + NMDA receptors open Ca2+ channels --> Na+ and Ca2+ enter cells, K+ exits --> generation of AP

AMPA receptors

Glutamate receptors that active quickly to tranmit sensory information.

excitatory neurotransmitters

Glutamate, aspartate, and amino acid precursors

from 20 to 20,000 Hz

Humans can hear sounds ranging in frequency from ___ to ___.

Farsightedness

Hyperopia

Convex lens

Hyperopia can be corrected with

Neurofibrillary tangles

Hyperphosphorylation of the tau protein causes proteins to aggregate within neurons (Alzheimer disease)

IPSP

Hyperpolarization of a dendrite by a neurotransmitter

Excessive daytime sleepiness associated with voluntary sleep deprivation.

Hypersomnia

Hemorrhagic stroke (intracranial hemorrhage)

Hypertension or ruptured aneurysms that result in bleeding in the brain, typically increases intracranial pressure and may lead to death.

Decreased taste sensation

Hypogeusia

Impaired sense of smell

Hyposmia

What can cause acidosis to develop?

Hypotermia

What controls body temperature?

Hypothalamus

What slows chemical reactions, increases blood viscosity, slows blood flow, and stimulates vasoconstriction?

Hypothermia

Is the brain tolerate to ischemia or hypoxia?

Hypoxia

What are some metabolic alterations in arousal?

Hypoxia, electrolyte inbalances, hypoglycemia, drugs, and toxins.

the impulse would spread bidirectionally

If a motor neuron in the body were stimulated by an electrode placed about midpoint along the length of an axon...

the stimulus was stronger

If a nerve fiber is firing 300 times per second at time A and 500 times per second at time B, it probably means that at time B

true

If a neuron becomes hyperpolarized it is less likely to fire

c. it is a sensory pathway

If the name of a spinal tract begins with the root spino- a. it consists of descending fibers b. it is a motor pathway c. it is a sensory pathway d its fibers do not extend beyond the spinal cord e it fibers form a spinal nerve

Which type of hematoma is inside the brain tissue?

Intracerebral

Ependymoma

Intracranial tumor that is most commonly found in children and typically arises from the inner lining of the fourth ventricle and the spinal canal.

Fasciculation

Involuntary muscular twitching

diverging circuit

Involved in activating fibers of a skeletal muscle such as the biceps muscle.

reverberating circuit

Involved in control of rhythmic activities such as breathing.

Brain death (brainstem death)

Irreversible brain damage- individual is unresponsive to all stimuli and lacking in muscle activity such as that required for respiration and heart activity.

Cerebral death

Irreversible brain damage- individual is unresponsive to all stimuli but able to maintain the necessary respiratory and cardiovascular functions of life.

Sclera

Is part of the fibrous tunic of the eye

What will severe ischemia and hypoxia do to pupils?

Ischemia and hypoxia usually produces dilated, fixed pupils.

Which type of stroke is most common?

Ischemic (interruption of blood flow in cerebral vessels)

One preganglionic neuron synapses with many postganglionic neurons; The secretion of epinephrine and norepinephrine can effect many organs

Why does the sympathetic division of the ANS have a more generalized effect in the body?

true

Within one tract of the spinal cord all nerve fibers have the same function

OCD is

a chronic illness that requires long-term treatment consisting of CBT and drug medication, such as SSRIs

Treatment of GAD usually involves

a combination of behavioral therapy and drug medications, especially serotonin/norepinephrine reuptake blockers

nerve

a cordlike organ consisting of parallel bundles of peripheral axons enclosed by connective tissue wrappings

What are the main neurotransmitters for the autonomic nervous system?

acetylcholine and the catecholamines, epinephrine and norepinephrine, which control neural function by selectively causing excitation or inhibition of action potentials.

how is Acetylcholine removed?

acetylcholine removed from synapse by acetylcholinesterase

d. substance p

Long term memories occur when there are more of these receptors a. NMDA b. dopamine c. acetylcholine d. substance p e. nicotine

Describe what happens when ATP is lost.

Loss of ATP --> loss of Na+K+pump --> Na+ and water enter cell --> swelling of neurons; Ca2+ enters cells --> excessive stimulation and release of enzymes --> destruction of proteins and DNA --> cell death

Confusion

Loss of ability to think rapidly and clearly; impaired judgement and decision making.

Confusion

Loss of ability to think rapidly and clearly; impaired judgment and decision making.

How does Parkinson's affect dopamine and acetylcholine?

Loss of dopamine, increases acetylcholine action

Paraplegia

Loss of lower extremity motor function on both sides

Amensia

Loss of memory, may e mild or severe.

Quadriplegia

Loss of motor function in all four extremities

What are the symptoms of anterior cord syndrome?

Loss of motor function, pain and temperature sensation.

Retrograde amnesia

Loss of past memories

Dysmnesia

Loss of past memories and inability to form new memories

Retrograde amnesia

Loss of past personal history memories or past factual memories.

What are the symptoms of Brown Sequard syndrome?

Loss of same side motor function, same side vibration and position, opposite side pain and temperature sensation

Hemiplegia

Loss of upper and lower extremity motor function on one side

Paralysis

Loss of voluntary muscle function

Flaccid paralysis

Loss of voluntary muscle movement

What is mania?

Lot's of energy.

undergo mitosis

Mature neurons lack centrioles. You would expect these neurons to be unable to

parallel after-discharge circuits

May be involved in complex activities, and are characterized by stimulation of several neurons arranged in parallel arrays by the stimulating neuron.

parallel after-discharge circuit

May be involved in complex, exacting types of metal processing.

Selective Attention Deficit

May be temporary, permanent, or progressive. An isolated Selective Attention Deficit rarely occurs clinically.

presynaptic inhibition

May prevent a neuron from releasing it neurotransmitter

Central neurogenic hyperventilation injury

May result from CNS damage or disease that involves midbrain and upper pons; seen after increased intracranial pressure and blunt head trauma.

Metabolic induced altered arousal manifestations are typically _____, while strutually induced altered arousal manifestations are typically ______.

Metabolic induced altered arousal manifestations are typically symmetric, while strutually induced altered arousal manifestations are typically asymmetric.

Characteristics of Dementia

Memory impairment with 1+ of: aphasia, apraxia, agnosia, impaired social or occupational function. Gradual onset with continuing decline.

Babinski sign abormalities

Metabolic: Absent/symmetric response Structure: Present

Vestibular disorder caused by proprioceptive dysfunction. May b unable to walk or stand. Affects cochlear function, hense equilibrium.

Meniere disease

A patient LoC is altered from a metabolic imbalance. His pupils will be:

Metabolic imbalances often creates small, reactive and regular pupils.

Pupils, cranial nerves II, III abnormalities

Metabolic: Equal and reactive, may by dilated, pinpoint, midpositioned and/or fixed. Structure: Asymmetric/nonreactive. May be midpositioned.

Optic Discs, cranial nerves II abnormalities

Metabolic: Flat, good pulsation. Structural: Papilledema.

Extraocular movements, cranial nerves III, IV, VI abnormalities

Metabolic: Roving eye movements, normal doll's eyes/calorics. Structural: Gaze paresis, nerve palsy.

Corneal reflex, cranial nerves V, VII abnormalities