Neurological Disorders NCLEX (Quiz #2)
A client, age 22, is admitted with bacterial meningitis. Which hospital room would be the best choice for this client? A. A private room down the hall from the nurses' station. B. An isolation room three doors from the nurses' station. C. A semi-private room with a 32-year-old client who has viral meningitis. D. A two-bedroom with a client who previously had bacterial meningitis.
B. An isolation room three doors from the nurses' station A client with bacterial meningitis should be kept in isolation for at least 24 hours after admission.
A male client is color blind. The nurse understands that this client has a problem with: A. Rods. B. Cones. C. Lens. D. Aqueous humor.
B. Cones. Cones provide daylight color vision, and their stimulation is interpreted as color. If one or more types of cones are absent or defective, color blindness occurs.
An auto mechanic accidentally has battery acid splashed in his eyes. His coworkers irrigate his eyes with water for 20 minutes, and then take him to the emergency department of a nearby hospital, where he receives emergency care for the corneal injury. The physician prescribes dexamethasone (Maxidex Ophthalmic Suspension), two drops of 0.1% solution to be instilled initially into the conjunctival sacs of both eyes every hour; and polymyxin B sulfate (Neosporin Ophthalmic), 0.5% ointment to be placed in the conjunctival sacs of both eyes every 3 hours. Dexamethasone exerts its therapeutic effect by: A. Increasing the exudative reaction of ocular tissue. B. Decreasing leukocyte infiltration at the site of ocular inflammation. C. Inhibiting the action of carbonic anhydrase. D. Producing a miotic reaction by stimulating and contracting the sphincter muscles of the iris.
B. Decreasing leukocyte infiltration at the site of ocular inflammation. Dexamethasone exerts its therapeutic effect by decreasing leukocyte infiltration at the site of ocular inflammation. This reduces the exudative reaction of diseased tissue, lessening edema, redness, and scarring.
A female client with a suspected brain tumor is scheduled for computed tomography (CT). What should the nurse do when preparing the client for this test? A. Immobilize the neck before the client is moved onto a stretcher. B. Determine whether the client is allergic to iodine, contrast dyes, or shellfish. C. Place a cap on the client's head. D. Administer a sedative as ordered.
B. Determine whether the client is allergic to iodine, contrast dyes, or shellfish. Because CT commonly involves the use of a contrast agent, the nurse should determine whether the client is allergic to iodine, contrast dyes, or shellfish. In some patients, contrast agents may cause allergic reactions, or in rare cases, temporary kidney failure.
The nurse is positioning the female client with increased intracranial pressure. Which of the following positions would the nurse avoid? A. Head midline B. Head turned to the side C. Neck in neutral position D. Head of bed elevated 30 to 45 degrees
B. Head turned to the side The head of the client with increased intracranial pressure should be positioned so the head is in a neutral midline position.
A male client with a spinal cord injury is prone to experiencing autonomic dysreflexia. The nurse would avoid which of the following measures to minimize the risk of recurrence? A. Strict adherence to a bowel retraining program. B. Keeping the linen wrinkle-free under the client. C. Preventing unnecessary pressure on the lower limbs. D. Limiting bladder catheterization to once every 12 hours.
D. Limiting bladder catheterization to once every 12 hours The most frequent cause of autonomic dysreflexia is a distended bladder.
A female client is admitted in a disoriented and restless state after sustaining a concussion during a car accident. Which nursing diagnosis takes highest priority for this client's plan of care? A. Disturbed sensory perception (visual) B. Self-care deficit: Dressing/grooming C. Impaired verbal communication D. Risk for injury
D. Risk for injury Because the client is disoriented and restless, the most important nursing diagnosis is risk for injury.
The nurse is working on a surgical floor. The nurse must log roll a male client following a: A. Laminectomy. B. Thoracotomy. C. Hemorrhoidectomy. D. Cystectomy.
A. Laminectomy. The client who has had spinal surgery, such as laminectomy, must be logrolled to keep the spinal column straight when turning. Laminectomy is among the most common procedures performed by spinal surgeons to decompress the spinal canal in various conditions.
A female client with Guillain-Barré syndrome has paralysis affecting the respiratory muscles and requires mechanical ventilation. When the client asks the nurse about the paralysis, how should the nurse respond? A. "You may have difficulty believing this, but the paralysis caused by this disease is temporary." B. "You'll have to accept the fact that you're permanently paralyzed. However, you won't have any sensory loss." C. "It must be hard to accept the permanency of your paralysis." D. "You'll first regain use of your legs and then your arms."
A. "You may have difficulty believing this, but the paralysis caused by this disease is temporary." The nurse should inform the client that the paralysis that accompanies Guillain-Barré syndrome is only temporary. Return of motor function begins proximally and extends distally in the legs.
Emergency medical technicians transport a 27-year-old ironworker to the emergency department. They tell the nurse, "He fell from a two-story building. He has a large contusion on his left chest and a hematoma in the left parietal area. He has a compound fracture of his left femur and he's comatose. We intubated him and he's maintaining an arterial oxygen saturation of 92% by pulse oximeter with a manual resuscitation bag." Which intervention by the nurse has the highest priority? A. Assessing the left leg. B. Assessing the pupils. C. Placing the client in Trendelenburg's position. D. Assessing level of consciousness
A. Assessing the left leg. In the scenario, airway and breathing are established so the nurse's next priority should be circulation. With a compound fracture of the femur, there is a high risk of profuse bleeding; therefore, the nurse should assess the site.
The client with a brain attack (stroke) has residual dysphagia. When a diet order is initiated, the nurse avoids doing which of the following? A. Giving the client thin liquids. B. Thickening liquids to the consistency of oatmeal. C. Placing food on the unaffected side of the mouth. D. Allowing plenty of time for chewing and swallowing.
A. Giving the client thin liquids. Before the client with dysphagia is started on a diet, the gag and swallow reflexes must have returned.
A male client is admitted with a cervical spine injury sustained during a diving accident. When planning this client's care, the nurse should assign the highest priority to which nursing diagnosis? A. Impaired physical mobility B. Ineffective breathing pattern C. Disturbed sensory perception (tactile) D. Self-care deficit: Dressing/grooming
B. Ineffective breathing pattern Because a cervical spine injury can cause respiratory distress, the nurse should take immediate action to maintain a patent airway and provide adequate oxygenation.
Nurse Mary witnesses a neighbor's husband sustain a fall from the roof of his house. The nurse rushes to the victim and determines the need to open the airway in this victim by using which method? A. Flexed position B. Head tilt-chin lift C. Jaw-thrust maneuver D. Modified head tilt-chin lift
C. Jaw-thrust maneuver If a neck injury is suspected, the jaw thrust maneuver is used to open the airway.
A female client who was trapped inside a car for hours after a head-on collision is rushed to the emergency department with multiple injuries. During the neurologic examination, the client responds to painful stimuli with decerebrate posturing. This finding indicates damage to which part of the brain? A. Diencephalon B. Medulla C. Midbrain D. Cortex
C. Midbrain Decerebrate posturing, characterized by abnormal extension in response to painful stimuli, indicates damage to the midbrain.
To encourage adequate nutritional intake for a female client with Alzheimer's disease, the nurse should: A. Stay with the client and encourage him to eat. B. Help the client fill out his menu. C. Give the client privacy during meals. D. Fill out the menu for the client.
A. Stay with the client and encourage him to eat. Staying with the client and encouraging him to feed himself will ensure adequate food intake. A client with Alzheimer's disease can forget how to eat. Offer sweet and salt substitutes. Helps satisfy desire for these tastes as taste buds decrease with aging without compromising diet. Allow for interaction during mealtime to promote interest in eating.
The nurse is monitoring a male client for adverse reactions to atropine sulfate (Atropine Care) eyedrops. Systemic absorption of atropine sulfate through the conjunctiva can cause which adverse reaction? A. Tachycardia B. Increased salivation C. Hypotension D. Apnea
A. Tachycardia Systemic absorption of atropine sulfate can cause tachycardia, palpitations, flushing, dry skin, ataxia, and confusion. To minimize systemic absorption, the client should apply digital pressure over the punctum at the inner canthus for 2 to 3 minutes after instilling the drops. Tachycardia is the most common side effect
A male client with Bell's Palsy asks the nurse what has caused this problem. The nurse's response is based on an understanding that the cause is: A. Unknown, but possibly includes ischemia, viral infection, or an autoimmune problem. B. Unknown, but possibly includes long-term tissue malnutrition and cellular hypoxia. C. Primary genetic in origin, triggered by exposure to meningitis. D. Primarily genetic in origin, triggered by exposure to neurotoxins.
A. Unknown, but possibly includes ischemia, viral infection, or an autoimmune problem Bell's palsy is a one-sided facial paralysis from compression of the facial nerve. The exact cause is unknown but may include vascular ischemia, infection, exposure to viruses such as herpes zoster or herpes simplex, autoimmune disease, or a combination of these factors.
A female client is admitted to the facility for investigation of balance and coordination problems, including possible Ménière's disease. When assessing this client, the nurse expects to note: A. Vertigo, tinnitus, and hearing loss. B. Vertigo, vomiting, and nystagmus. C. Vertigo, pain, and hearing impairment. D. Vertigo, blurred vision, and fever.
A. Vertigo, tinnitus, and hearing loss. Ménière's disease, an inner ear disease, is characterized by the symptom triad of vertigo, tinnitus, and hearing loss.
The nurse is assessing a 37-year-old client diagnosed with multiple sclerosis. Which of the following symptoms would the nurse expect to find? A. Vision changes B. Absent deep tendon reflexes C. Tremors at rest D. Flaccid muscles
A. Vision changes Vision changes, such as diplopia, nystagmus, and blurred vision, are symptoms of multiple sclerosis. Multiple sclerosis (MS) is a chronic autoimmune disease of the central nervous system (CNS) characterized by inflammation, demyelination, gliosis, and neuronal loss.
Nurse Marty is monitoring a client for adverse reactions to dantrolene (Dantrium). Which adverse reaction is most common? A. Excessive tearing B. Urine retention C. Muscle weakness D. Slurred speech
C. Muscle weakness The most common adverse reaction to dantrolene is muscle weakness. The drug also may depress liver function or cause idiosyncratic hepatitis.
A white female client is admitted to an acute care facility with a diagnosis of cerebrovascular accident (CVA). Her history reveals bronchial asthma, exogenous obesity, and iron deficiency anemia. Which history finding is a risk factor for CVA? A. Caucasian race B. Female sex C. Obesity D. Bronchial asthma
C. Obesity Obesity is a risk factor for CVA.
Shortly after admission to an acute care facility, a male client with a seizure disorder develops status epilepticus. The physician orders diazepam (Valium) 10 mg I.V. stat. How soon can the nurse administer the second dose of diazepam, if needed and prescribed? A. In 30 to 45 seconds B. In 10 to 15 minutes C. In 30 to 45 minutes D. In 1 to 2 hours
B. In 10 to 15 minutes When used to treat status epilepticus, diazepam may be given every 10 to 15 minutes, as needed, to a maximum dose of 30 mg. The nurse can repeat the regimen in 2 to 4 hours, if necessary, but the total dose shouldn't exceed 100 mg in 24 hours. It is crucial to monitor respiratory and cardiovascular status, blood pressure, heart rate, and symptoms of anxiety in patients taking diazepam.
After an eye examination, a male client is diagnosed with open-angle glaucoma. The physician prescribes Pilocarpine ophthalmic solution (Pilocar), 0.25% gtt i, OU q.i.D. Based on this prescription, the nurse should teach the client or a family member to administer the drug by: A. Instilling one drop of pilocarpine 0.25% into both eyes daily. B. Instilling one drop of pilocarpine 0.25% into both eyes four times daily. C. Instilling one drop of pilocarpine 0.25% into the right eye daily. D. Instilling one drop of pilocarpine 0.25% into the left eye four times daily.
B. Instilling one drop of pilocarpine 0.25% into both eyes four times daily. The abbreviation "gtt" stands for drop, "i" is the apothecary symbol for the number 1, OU signifies both eyes, and "q.i.d." means four times a day.
The nurse is assessing the motor function of an unconscious male client. The nurse would plan to use which of the following to test the client's peripheral response to pain? A. Sternal rub B. Nail bed pressure C. Pressure on the orbital rim D. Squeezing of the sternocleidomastoid muscle
B. Nail bed pressure Motor testing in the unconscious client can be done only by testing response to painful stimuli.
A female client with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) tells the nurse, "Sometimes I feel so frustrated. I can't do anything without help!" This comment best supports which nursing diagnosis? A. Anxiety B. Powerlessness C. Ineffective denial D. Risk for disuse syndrome
B. Powerlessness This comment best supports a nursing diagnosis of Powerlessness because ALS may lead to locked-in syndrome, characterized by an active and functioning mind locked in a body that can't perform even simple daily tasks.
The nurse is teaching a female client with multiple sclerosis. When teaching the client how to reduce fatigue, the nurse should tell the client to: A. Take a hot bath. B. Rest in an air-conditioned room. C. Increase the dose of muscle relaxants. D. Avoid naps during the day.
B. Rest in an air-conditioned room. Fatigue is a common symptom in clients with multiple sclerosis. Lowering the body temperature by resting in an air-conditioned room may relieve fatigue; however, extreme cold should be avoided.
The nurse is caring for the male client who begins to experience seizure activity while in bed. Which of the following actions by the nurse would be contraindicated? A. Loosening restrictive clothing. B. Restraining the client's limbs. C. Removing the pillow and raising padded side rails. D. Positioning the client to the side, if possible, with the head flexed forward.
B. Restraining the client's limbs. The limbs are never restrained because the strong muscle contractions could cause the client harm.
During a routine physical examination to assess a male client's deep tendon reflexes, the nurse should make sure to: A. Use the pointed end of the reflex hammer when striking the Achilles' tendon. B. Support the joint where the tendon is being tested. C. Tap the tendon slowly and softly. D. Hold the reflex hammer tightly.
B. Support the joint where the tendon is being tested. To prevent the attached muscle from contracting, the nurse should support the joint where the tendon is being tested.
The nurse is assigned to care for a female client with complete right-sided hemiparesis. The nurse plans care knowing that this condition: A. The client has complete bilateral paralysis of the arms and legs. B. The client has weakness on the right side of the body, including the face and tongue. C. The client has lost the ability to move the right arm but can walk independently. D. The client has lost the ability to move the right arm but can walk independently.
B. The client has weakness on the right side of the body, including the face and tongue. Hemiparesis is a weakness of one side of the body that may occur after a stroke.
A female client who's paralyzed on the left side has been receiving physical therapy and attending teaching sessions about safety. Which behavior indicates that the client accurately understands safety measures related to paralysis? A. The client leaves the side rails down. B. The client uses a mirror to inspect the skin. C. The client repositions only after being reminded to do so. D. The client hangs the left arm over the side of the wheelchair.
B. The client uses a mirror to inspect the skin. Using a mirror enables the client to inspect all areas of the skin for signs of breakdown without the help of staff or family members. Inspect skin daily.
The nurse is performing a mental status examination on a male client diagnosed with a subdural hematoma. This test assesses which of the following? A. Cerebellar function B. Intellectual function C. Cerebral function D. Sensory function
C. Cerebral function The mental status examination assesses functions governed by the cerebrum. Some of these are orientation, attention span, judgment, and abstract reasoning. Cerebrum is the largest part of the brain and is composed of right and left hemispheres. It performs higher functions like interpreting touch, vision, and hearing, as well as speech, reasoning, emotions, learning, and fine control of movement.
Nurse Kristine is trying to communicate with a client with brain attack (stroke) and aphasia. Which of the following actions by the nurse would be least helpful to the client? A. Speaking to the client at a slower rate. B. Allowing plenty of time for the client to respond. C. Completing the sentences that the client cannot finish. D. Looking directly at the client during attempts at speech.
C. Completing the sentences that the client cannot finish. Clients with aphasia after brain attack (stroke) often fatigue easily and have a short attention span.
A male client in the emergency department has a suspected neurologic disorder. To assess gait, the nurse asks the client to take a few steps; with each step, the client's feet make a half-circle. To document the client's gait, the nurse should use which term? A. Ataxic B. Dystrophic C. Helicopod D. Steppage
C. Helicopod A helicopod gait is an abnormal gait in which the client's feet make a half circle with each step.
A physician diagnoses a client with myasthenia gravis, prescribing pyridostigmine (Mestinon), 60 mg P.O. every 3 hours. Before administering this anticholinesterase agent, the nurse reviews the client's history. Which preexisting condition would contraindicate the use of pyridostigmine? A. Ulcerative colitis B. Blood dyscrasia C. Intestinal obstruction D. Spinal cord injury
C. Intestinal obstruction Anticholinesterase agents such as pyridostigmine are contraindicated in a client with a mechanical obstruction of the intestines or urinary tract, peritonitis, or hypersensitivity to anticholinesterase agents.
A female client has experienced an episode of myasthenic crisis. The nurse would assess whether the client has precipitating factors such as: A. Getting too little exercise. B. Taking excess medication. C. Omitting doses of medication. D. Increasing intake of fatty foods.
C. Omitting doses of medication. Myasthenic crisis often is caused by under medication and responds to the administration of cholinergic medications, such as neostigmine (Prostigmin) and pyridostigmine (Mestinon).
For a male client with suspected increased intracranial pressure (ICP), a most appropriate respiratory goal is to: A. Prevent respiratory alkalosis. B. Lower arterial pH. C. Promote carbon dioxide elimination. D. Maintain partial pressure of arterial oxygen (PaO2) above 80 mm Hg.
C. Promote carbon dioxide elimination. The goal of treatment is to prevent acidemia by eliminating carbon dioxide. That is because an acid environment in the brain causes cerebral vessels to dilate and therefore increases ICP.
A female client admitted to the hospital with a neurological problem asks the nurse whether magnetic resonance imaging may be done. The nurse interprets that the client may be ineligible for this diagnostic procedure based on the client's history of: A. Hypertension B. Heart failure C. Prosthetic valve replacement D. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disorder
C. Prosthetic valve replacement The client having a magnetic resonance imaging scan has all metallic objects removed because of the magnetic field generated by the device.
A female client who was found unconscious at home is brought to the hospital by a rescue squad. In the intensive care unit, the nurse checks the client's oculocephalic (doll's eye) response by: A. Introducing ice water into the external auditory canal. B. Touching the cornea with a wisp of cotton. C. Turning the client's head suddenly while holding the eyelids open. D. Shining a bright light into the pupil.
C. Turning the client's head suddenly while holding the eyelids open. To elicit the oculocephalic response, which detects cranial nerve compression, the nurse turns the client's head suddenly while holding the eyelids open.
Nurse Amber is caring for a client who underwent a lumbar laminectomy two (2) days ago. Which of the following findings should the nurse consider abnormal? A. More back pain than the first postoperative day. B. Paresthesia in the dermatomes near the wounds. C. Urine retention or incontinence. D. Temperature of 99.2° F (37.3° C).
C. Urine retention or incontinence. Urine retention or incontinence may indicate cauda equina syndrome, which requires immediate surgery.
A male client with a conductive hearing disorder caused by ankylosis of the stapes in the oval window undergoes a stapedectomy to remove the stapes and replace the impaired bone with a prosthesis. After the stapedectomy, the nurse should provide which client instruction? A. "Lie in bed with your head elevated, and refrain from blowing your nose for 24 hours." B. "Try to ambulate independently after about 24 hours." C. "Shampoo your hair every day for ten (10) days to help prevent ear infection." D. "Don't fly in an airplane, climb to high altitudes, make sudden movements, or expose yourself to loud sounds for 30 days.
D. "Don't fly in an airplane, climb to high altitudes, make sudden movements, or expose yourself to loud sounds for 30 days." For 30 days after a stapedectomy, the client should avoid air travel, sudden movements that may cause trauma, and exposure to loud sounds and pressure changes (such as from high altitudes).
The nurse is caring for a male client diagnosed with a cerebral aneurysm who reports a severe headache. Which action should the nurse perform? A. Sit with the client for a few minutes. B. Administer an analgesic. C. Inform the nurse manager. D. Call the physician immediately.
D. Call the physician immediately. A headache may be an indication that an aneurysm is leaking. The nurse should notify the physician immediately.
A female client complains of periorbital aching, tearing, blurred vision, and photophobia in her right eye. Ophthalmologic examination reveals a small, irregular, nonreactive pupil — a condition resulting from acute iris inflammation (iritis). As part of the client's therapeutic regimen, the physician prescribes atropine sulfate (Atropisol), two drops of 0.5% solution in the right eye twice daily. Atropine sulfate belongs to which drug classification? A. Parasympathomimetic agent B. Sympatholytic agent C. Adrenergic blocker D. Cholinergic blocker
D. Cholinergic blocker Atropine sulfate is a cholinergic blocker. It isn't a parasympathomimetic agent, a sympatholytic agent, or an adrenergic blocker. Atropine is an antimuscarinic that works through competitive inhibition of postganglionic acetylcholine receptors and direct vagolytic action, which leads to parasympathetic inhibition of the acetylcholine receptors in smooth muscle.
The nurse is assessing the adaptation of the female client to changes in functional status after a brain attack (stroke). The nurse assesses that the client is adapting most successfully if the client: A. Gets angry with family if they interrupt a task. B. Experiences bouts of depression and irritability. C. Has difficulty with using modified feeding utensils. D. Consistently uses adaptive equipment in dressing self.
D. Consistently uses adaptive equipment in dressing self Clients are evaluated as coping successfully with lifestyle changes after a brain attack (stroke) if they make appropriate lifestyle alterations, use the assistance of others, and have appropriate social interactions.
During recovery from a cerebrovascular accident (CVA), a female client is given nothing by mouth, to help prevent aspiration. To determine when the client is ready for a liquid diet, the nurse assesses the client's swallowing ability once each shift. This assessment evaluates: A. Cranial nerves I and II. B. Cranial nerves III and V. C. Cranial nerves VI and VIII. D. Cranial nerves IX and X.
D. Cranial nerves IX and X. Swallowing is a motor function of cranial nerves IX and X.
While reviewing a client's chart, the nurse notices that the female client has myasthenia gravis. Which of the following statements about neuromuscular blocking agents is true for a client with this condition? A. The client may be less sensitive to the effects of a neuromuscular blocking agent. B. Succinylcholine shouldn't be used; pancuronium may be used in a lower dosage. C. Pancuronium shouldn't be used; succinylcholine may be used in a lower dosage. D. Pancuronium and succinylcholine both require cautious administration.
D. Pancuronium and succinylcholine both require cautious administration. The nurse must cautiously administer pancuronium, succinylcholine, and any other neuromuscular blocking agent to a client with myasthenia gravis.
A female client has clear fluid leaking from the nose following a basilar skull fracture. The nurse assesses that this is cerebrospinal fluid if the fluid: A. Is clear and tests negative for glucose. B. Is grossly bloody in appearance and has a pH of 6. C. Clumps together on the dressing and has a pH of 7. D. Separates into concentric rings and tests positive for glucose.
D. Separates into concentric rings and tests positive for glucose. Leakage of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) from the ears or nose may accompany basilar skull fracture.
A male client is having a lumbar puncture performed. The nurse would plan to place the client in which position? A. Side-lying, with a pillow under the hip. B. Prone, with a pillow under the abdomen. C. Prone, in slight-Trendelenburg's position. D. Side-lying, with the legs, pulled up and head bent down onto the chest.
D. Side-lying, with the legs, pulled up and head bent down onto the chest. The client undergoing lumbar puncture is positioned lying on the side, with the legs pulled up to the abdomen and the head bent down onto the chest.
A male client is having tonic-clonic seizures. What should the nurse do first? A. Elevate the head of the bed. B. Restrain the client's arms and legs. C. Place a tongue blade in the client's mouth. D. Take measures to prevent injury.
D. Take measures to prevent injury. Protecting the client from injury is the immediate priority during a seizure.
The nurse is teaching the female client with myasthenia gravis about the prevention of myasthenic and cholinergic crisis. The nurse tells the client that this is most effectively done by: A. Eating large, well-balanced meals. B. Doing muscle-strengthening exercises. C. Doing all chores early in the day while less fatigued. D. Taking medications on time to maintain therapeutic blood levels.
D. Taking medications on time to maintain therapeutic blood levels Taking medications correctly to maintain blood levels that are not too low or too high is important.
A male client has a history of painful, continuous muscle spasms. He has taken several skeletal muscle relaxants without experiencing relief. His physician prescribes diazepam (Valium), two (2) mg P.O. twice daily. In addition to being used to relieve painful muscle spasms, Diazepam also is recommended for: A. Long-term treatment of epilepsy. B. Postoperative pain management of laminectomy clients. C. Postoperative pain management of diskectomy clients. D. Treatment of spasticity associated with spinal cord lesions.
D. Treatment of spasticity associated with spinal cord lesions. In addition to relieving painful muscle spasms, Diazepam also is recommended for treatment of spasticity associated with spinal cord lesions.
