OPM 200 Final Exam Study Guide Multiple Choice

Suppose that the normal time for activity C is 10 weeks with a normal cost of​ $6,000. We can crash it to only 4 weeks at a total cost of​ $12,000. The total activity cost if we crash it to 7 weeks will be A. ​$9,000 B. ​$11,00. C. ​$8,000 D. $6,000

$9,000.

If the ending inventory last period equals 200​ units, production in this period equals​ 1,000 units, and demand in this period equals​ 1,200 units, what is the ending inventory at the end of this​ period? A. 100. B. 0. C. 200. D. -100.

0

It was determined that three time estimates would be used in planning a project. The estimates for task G​ (in weeks)​ 4, 6, and​ 12, respectively, were for​ optimistic, most​ likely, and pessimistic times. What is the standard deviation for this​ task? A. 0.94 B. 0.44 C. 1.33 D. 1.78

1.33

What is the takt time of a manufacturing cell that must produce 250 parts over one shift with 7 hours of available​ time? A. 1.68 minutes per part B. 35 parts per hour C. 0.60 minutes per part D. 0.60 parts per minute

1.68 minutes per part

The production demand for widgets for a​ 250-workday year is​ 7,500 units. Ordering costs are​ $25.00 per order and carrying costs are​ $9.00 per unit per year. Four days must be allowed between order placement and order receipt. What is the reorder​ point, assuming known and constant​ variables? A. 300 B. 62.5 C. 120 D. 204

120

If​ 3,000 parts are in work in process before an assembly operation which is scheduled to process​ 7,500 parts every 5​ days, how many days of work in process inventory are sitting before​ assembly? A. 2.0 days B. 0.4 days C. 0.5 days D. 2.5 days

2.0 days

In ABC​ analysis, class A items typically represent​ ____ of the SKUs but account for​ ____ of the dollar usage. A. 80%; 20% B. 40%; 60% C. 20%; 60% D. ​20%; 80%

20%; 80%

The production demand for widgets for a​ 250-workday year is​ 7,500 units. Ordering costs are​ $25.00 per order and holding costs are​ $9.00 per unit per year. Four days must be allowed between order placement and order receipt. What is the​ EOQ, assuming known and constant​ variables? A. 616 B. 0.24 C. 73 D. 204

204

The production demand for widgets for a​ 250-workday year is​ 7,500 units. Ordering costs are​ $25.00 per order and carrying costs are​ $9.00 per unit per year. Four days must be allowed between order placement and order receipt. What is the number of orders per​ year, assuming known and constant​ variables? A. 127 B. 107 C. 27 D. 37

37

The average daily demand for component B is 750 units. The average time for waiting during the production process and materials handling is 0.15 days. Processing time per container is 0.1 days. The container capacity is 50 units and the policy variable is​ 5%. What number of containers is required for component​ B? A. 4 B. 2 C. 8 D. 17

4

An end item​ "A" is assembled from two​ "B" components and two​ "C" subassemblies. The​ "C" subassembly is composed of one of each component​ "B" and​ "D." If the gross requirement for​ "A" is 100​ units, what is the demand for component​ "B"?

400

A​ firm's database showed that the average value of all inventory items for the year was​ $7,650. The cost of goods sold was reported at​ $76,500. Because the company closes for two weeks each​ year, its business year is reduced in length. How many weeks of supply were held in​ inventory? A. 10.0 B. 2.0 C. 0.2 D. 5.0

5.0

​Dave's Bar-B-Q operated a mobile kitchen that serviced construction​ sites, office​ buildings, and public parks. Beginning in​ June, snow cones were added to the menu. The weekly sales figures for June of the previous year are given in the following​ chart: Use exponential​ smoothing, a smoothing coefficient of​ 0.3, to forecast demand for the third week of June.

5.1

If gross requirements are​ 100, planned receipts are​ 120, and inventory on hand from the previous period is​ 50, then the projected​ on-hand inventory balance is A. 170 B. 270 C. 70. D. 30

70

A PERT analysis of a small project determined that the duration of the critical path is 17.0 weeks with a variance of 0.70 weeks. What is the probability that the project will be completed within 18​ weeks? (Use the Normal Distribution​ Appendix.) A. Approximately​ 28% B. Approximately​ 92% C. Approximately​ 88% D. Approximately​ 50%

88%

​Lisa's Card Cache uses ABC analysis. Which of the following statements is NOT true of ABC​ analysis? A. ABC analysis uses the Pareto chart concept. B. Inventory items are ranked on the basis of dollar usage. C. ​Generally, the Class A items account for approximately 80 percent of the dollar usage. D. ABC analysis allows the company to control inventory shrinkage.

ABC analysis allows the company to control inventory shrinkage.

Forward integration can mean which of the​ following? A. the firm acquires its own distribution centers and retail stores B. the firm acquires more channels of distribution C. the firm acquires its business customers D. All of the above.

All of the above

The methods of project management offer several benefits to project managers. Which of the following is NOT among​ them? A. forces project teams to identify and organize the data required B. highlights the activities that may be delayed without affecting project completion dates C. helps managers analyze the time and cost implications of resource​ trade-offs D. All of the above are benefits to project managers.

All of the above

Value stream maps typically include data related to each process including A. cycle time. B. changeover time. C. uptime. D. All of the above

All of the above

The methods of project management offer several benefits to project managers. Which of the following is NOT among​ them? A. highlights the activities that may be delayed without affecting project completion dates B. helps managers analyze the time and cost implications of resource​ trade-offs C. forces project teams to identify and organize the data required D. All of the above are benefits to project managers.

All of the above are benefits to project managers.

Which of the following statements is true regarding master production​ scheduling? A. The sums of the quantities in the MPS must equal those in the sales and operations plan. B. The production quantities should be allocated efficiently over time. C. Capacity limitations and bottlenecks may determine the timing and size of MPS quantities. D. All of the above are true.

All of the above are true

Which of the following statements is​ false? A. If the lead time to buy raw materials is​ long, the forecasts go farther out into the future. B. In a​ make-to-order environment, the forecasts tend to be for groups of products. C. In a​ make-to-stock environment, forecasts tend to be more detailed and can get down to specific individual products. D. All of the above statements are true.

All of the above statements are true.

An enterprise process is a companywide process that cuts across A. business units and geographic regions. B. functional areas. C. suppliers and customers. D. All of the above.

All of the above.

Forward integration can mean which of the​ following? A. the firm acquires more channels of distribution B. the firm acquires its own distribution centers and retail stores C. the firm acquires its business customers D. All of the above.

All of the above.

In which of the following ways can supply chain design improve positive net cash​ flows? A. reducing the time lag between paying for materials and receiving payment for manufactured products B. reducing the backlogs of orders C. reducing lead times D. All of the above.

All of the above.

In which of the following ways is a sales and operations plan for a service provider quite different than for a manufacturing​ firm? A. their plan focuses on the demand and supply of human resources B. forecasts are typically expressed in terms of employees required C. their plan does not contain an inventory section D. All of the above.

All of the above.

The Bill of Resources​ (BOR) can be used to determine which of the​ following? A. how much of a resource a firm will need B. what resources a firm will need C. when resources will be needed by a firm D. All of the above.

All of the above.

Which of these activities is not a major component of the initial phase of planning and managing​ projects? A. Selecting the organizational structure B. Defining the scope and objectives C. Selecting the project manager and team D. Analyzing​ time/cost tradeoffs

Analyzing​ time/cost tradeoffs

An MRP system provides which of the following​ advantages? A. Smoothing of lumpy demand. B. Automatic update of the dependent demand and replenishment schedules of components when parent schedules change. C. Statistical forecast of component demand. D. Increased vertical integration.

Automatic update of the dependent demand and replenishment schedules of components when parent schedules change.

Which statement about the forecasting process is​ best? A. Bias is the worst kind of forecast error. B. Quantitative forecasts are better than qualitative forecasts. C. The best way to improve forecast accuracy is to add additional terms to the forecast equation. D. Whenever​ possible, forecast at the lowest level​ (greatest level of​ detail).

Bias is the worst kind of forecast error.

Which error measure lets a forecaster know that the forecast is consistently​ high? A. CFE B. MAD C. MAPE D. MSE

CFE

Which statement about capacity requirements planning​ (CRP) is NOT​ true? A. CRP systems adjust the order release time to prevent a workstation from exceeding its capacity. B. The purpose of CRP is to match the material requirements plan with the​ plant's production capacity. C. CRP systems enable the identification of​ "critical" workstations. D. CRP systems access inventory records to determine when planned orders or scheduled receipts will reach a workstation.

CRP systems adjust the order release time to prevent a workstation from exceeding its capacity.

Which of the following is NOT considered a quantitative forecasting​ method? A. trend projection with regression B. Delphi analysis C. time-series analysis D. causal methods

Delphi analysis

Which is the best statement regarding work breakdown​ structure? A Level 1 activity is a more micro view​ (greater level of​ detail) than a Level 2 activity. B. WBS should not include a task representing planning of the project that is being planned. C. Each activity in the WBS must have an​ "owner" who is responsible for doing the work. D. A packet is the smallest unit of work effort consuming both time and resources that the project manager can schedule and control.

Each activity in the WBS must have an​ "owner" who is responsible for doing the work.

The project duration in a network can be determined by the largest value of which variable associated with the critical​ path? A. Activity time B. Earliest start time C. Earliest finish time D. Slack time

Earliest finish time

Which of the following statements regarding forecasting​ "units of​ measurement" is​ best? A. Forecasted​ "product units" can be translated to dollars by multiplying them by the unit price. B. ​"Dollars" is always the best initial forecasting unit of measurement. C. If accurately forecasting demand for a product is not possible in terms of​ "number of​ units," forecasting should be avoided. D. Forecasting​ "product units" should always be avoided.

Forecasted​ "product units" can be translated to dollars by multiplying them by the unit price.

Which of the following is NOT a benefit of an MRP​ system? A. Improvement in customer service B. Better utilization of labor and facilities C. Forecasting of​ finished-goods demand D. Reduction of inventory levels

Forecasting of​ finished-goods demand

Which of the following is NOT a feature of an ERP​ system? A. Single database B. Updating of information in all modules C. Identifying the actions planners must take to stay on schedule D. Information entered as transactions

Identifying the actions planners must take to stay on schedule

Which of the following statements does NOT apply to a production​ plan? A. It provides a view of detailed workforce schedules. B. Plans are consistent with a​ company's strategic goals and objectives. C. It enables the assessment of financial and physical resource needs without excessive detail. D. It serves as a bridge between the strategic and operational plans.

It provides a view of detailed workforce schedules.

Which of the following is NOT characteristic of a kanban​ system? A. It controls the movement of containers from​ source/storage to the production process. B. At least one card is associated with a container of process input material. C. It serves as a push mechanism. D. Each container contains equal numbers of​ non-defective parts.

It serves as a push mechanism.

​_________ methods translate the opinions of​ managers, expert​ opinions, consumer​ surveys, and salesforce estimates into quantitative estimates. A.Judgment B.Estimation C.Arbitration D.Opinion

Judgement

Under a competitive orientation to supplier​ relations, the relationship does NOT include which of the​ following? A. High value placed on​ short-term gains B. Focus on price C. ​Long-term commitments. D. One​ firm's gain is the​ other's loss

Long-term commitments

Under a competitive orientation to supplier​ relations, the relationship does NOT include which of the​ following? A. One​ firm's gain is the​ other's loss B. ​Long-term commitments. C. Focus on price D. High value placed on​ short-term gains

Long-term commitments.

Which of the following are NOT advantages of a periodic review​ system? A. Lower safety stock B. Convenient administration of inventory control C. Can permit combining orders to common suppliers D. All of the above.

Lower safety stock

What is the one popular design for efficient supply​ chains? A. assemble-to-order (ATO) B. ​make-to-stock (MTS) C. make-to-order (MTO) D. ​design-to-order (DTO)

MTS

An appliance manufacturer initiates a production plan that gets translated into an operational plan called a A. master production schedule. B. business plan. C. staffing plan. D. workforce schedule

Master production schedule

There are four major phases in a project life cycle. Which of the following is NOT​ included? A. Execution B. Close out C. Maturity D. Planning

Maturity

​________ is the best error measure to use when making comparisons between time series for different SKUs A. Mean absolute percent error B. Mean squared error C. Standard deviation of the errors D. Mean absolute deviation

Mean absolute percent error

Which statement is NOT true of seasonal​ methods? A. No matter what seasonal method is​ used, the amplitude of the seasonal component remains the same. B. A​ "season" can be as short as one day. C. A multiplicative seasonal method will show increasing amplitude if there is an upward trend in demand. D. The seasonal component can be​ constant, in which case an additive method would be appropriate.

No matter what seasonal method is​ used, the amplitude of the seasonal component remains the same

Which of the following is NOT a benefit of small lot size for lean​ systems? A. Potential increase in process setups B. ​Reduction-of-cycle inventory C. Reduction in product lead times D. Enables a uniform system workload

Potential increase in process setups

Which of the following best characterizes JIT​ systems? A. Build inventory at a modest rate B. Push method of material flow C. Annual review of operation methods D. Pull method of materials flow

Pull method of materials flow

In an environment where the planned activities have been accomplished​ previously, there are several ways of getting time estimates. Which of the following is the least​ useful? A. Learning curve models B. Prior experiences C. Statistical methods D. Random number generator

RNG

Which of these terms is NOT one of the Five​ Ss? A. Store B. Sort C. Shine D. Sustain

Store

Which functions are not part of​ distribution? A. Taking inventory of finished goods B. Transportation of products C. Flow from firm to customer D. Taking inventory of raw materials

Taking inventory of raw materials

Which functions are not part of​ distribution? A. Taking inventory of raw materials B. Flow from firm to customer C. Transportation of products D. Taking inventory of finished goods

Taking inventory of raw materials

Which one of the following statements is​ false? A. The critical path is the sequence of activities between a​ project's start and finish that takes the shortest time to complete. B. There may be more than one critical path in a project network. C. The activities along the critical path determine the completion time of the project. D If one of the activities on the critical path is​ delayed, the entire project will be delayed.

The critical path is the sequence of activities between a​ project's start and finish that takes the shortest time to complete.

Which of these statements is NOT required in order for the EOQ model to be a reasonable​ approach? A. The demand rate is known and constant. B. No constraints are placed on the size of each lot. C. The lead time is known and constant. D. The​ setup/ordering cost must exceed the annual holding cost of one unit.

The​ setup/ordering cost must exceed the annual holding cost of one unit.

Which diagram is NOT a part of value stream​ mapping? A) current state drawing B) transitional phase diagram C) implementation plan D) future state drawing

Transitional phase diagram

Which of the following is NOT a principle of the forecasting​ process? A. Whenever​ possible, forecast in detail at more disaggregated levels. B. The best way to improve forecast accuracy is to focus on reducing forecast error. C. Better processes yield better forecasts. D. Bias is the worst kind of forecast error.

Whenever​ possible, forecast in detail at more disaggregated levels.

A component that has one or more parents and no components is most likely to be A. an end item. B. a subassembly. C. an intermediate item. D. a purchased item.

a purchased item.

A component that has one or more parents and no components is most likely to be A. an intermediate item. B. a purchased item. C. an end item. D. a subassembly.

a purchased item.

In master production​ scheduling, what does projected​ on-hand inventory​ represent? A. an estimate of the amount of inventory available each week before booked orders have been satisfied B. an estimate of the amount of inventory available each week after demand has been satisfied C. the actual level of inventory that will be available at the beginning of each week D. None of the above.

an estimate of the amount of inventory available each week after demand has been satisfied

Inventory used to absorb uneven rates of demand or supply is referred to as A. independent demand inventory. B. cycle inventory. C. pipeline inventory. D. anticipation inventory.

anticipation inventory.

One of the LEAST effective supplier strategies for lean systems is A. a​ short-term, competitive relationship between the company and the supplier. B. to include suppliers during the product design phase. C. use of local suppliers. D. ​smaller, more frequent stock shipments.

a​ short-term, competitive relationship between the company and the supplier.

A forecast with a large cumulative sum of forecast errors​ (CFE) indicates A. consistent forecasting mistakes—the forecast is always too high or too low. B. that the forecast has no bias. C. that the forecast will cause very little disruption to planning efforts. D. All of the above.

consistent forecasting mistakes—the forecast is always too high or too low.

A fundamental purpose of supply chain design for manufacturers is to A.minimize the amount of the material it must purchase. B.eliminate the need to manage raw materials. C.control inventory by managing the flow of materials. D.support the essential elements of the various services it delivers.

control inventory by managing the flow of materials.

Projects have a life cycle that consists of all of the following major phases except​: A. planning B. definition and organization C. crashing D. close out

crashing

Aggressive alternatives for coping with demand requirements include A. use of subcontractors. B. anticipation inventory. C. creative pricing. D. employee hiring and layoffs.

creative pricing.

Benefits of having a flexible workforce include all of the following​ EXCEPT: A. a more uniform work flow. B. decreased reliance on inventory buffers. C. decreased worker morale. D. it is easier to relieve bottlenecks.

decreased worker morale.

Total project costs are the sum of A. direct​ costs, indirect​ costs, and penalty costs. B. overtime​ costs, personnel​ costs, and equipment costs. C. labor​ costs, material​ costs, and any other costs directly related to project activities. D. labor​ costs, overhead​ costs, and material costs.

direct​ costs, indirect​ costs, and penalty costs.

A firm has the least amount of control over external causes of​ supply-chain dynamics. External causes include A. engineering changes to the product. B. product promotions. C. information​ (e.g., demand​ forecast) errors. D. expected changes in customer demand.

expected changes in customer demand.

A firm has the least amount of control over external causes of​ supply-chain dynamics. External causes include A. expected changes in customer demand. B. engineering changes to the product. C. product promotions. D. information​ (e.g., demand​ forecast) errors.

expected changes in customer demand.

Quantitative forecasting techniques include A. the Delphi method. B. consumer surveys. C. exponential smoothing. D. manager opinions.

exponential smoothing.

The method that groups products with similar characteristics into families and sets aside groups of machines for their production is called A. kanban. B. 5S. C. jidoka. D. group technology.

group technology.

Which of the following can put pressure on a company to carry small levels of​ inventory? A. the potential for stockouts and backorders B. the need to increase workforce productivity C. high cost of capital D. high ordering cost

high cost of capital

The chase strategy involves A. maintaining a small workforce and relying heavily on overtime during peak periods. B. hiring and laying off employees to match the demand forecast over the planning horizon. C. matching the demand forecast exclusively through the use of overtime and undertime. D. keeping the workforce constant.

hiring and laying off employees to match the demand forecast over the planning horizon.

A disadvantage of centralized placement is A. reduction in inventory. B. increased cost of warehouse space. C. reduction in safety stock. D. increased cost of shipping small quantities directly to distant customers.

increased cost of shipping small quantities directly to distant customers.

Service providers must plan their resources just as manufacturers do.​ However, unlike finished​ goods, services cannot be A. provided on demand. B. resourced to serve all customers. C. inventoried. D. All of the above.

inventoried.

Which of the following costs is NOT considered an inventory holding​ (or carrying)​ cost? A. inventory shrinkage costs B. inventory storage costs C. inventory transportation costs D.inventory handling costs

inventory transportation costs

The ability to automatically detect the occurrence of an​ abnormality, thereby helping achieve quality at the​ source, is A. muda. B. jidoka. C. poka-yoke. D. kaizen.

jidoka

The level strategy involves A. varying the​ workforce's regular-time capacity to equate supply to demand. B. hiring and laying off employees to match the demand forecast over the planning horizon. C. continually adjusting workforce levels. D. keeping the workforce constant.

keeping the workforce constant.

Ed's of Edmond has decided to use a level​ strategy, keeping the number of employees​ constant, to keep employee goodwill.​ Ed's will use all of the following EXCEPT A. layoffs. B. anticipation inventory. C. ​overtime/undertime. D. backorders.

layoffs

Which of the following is NOT one of the three basic ways inventories are​ reported? A. average aggregate inventory value B. material cost of goods sold C. inventory turnover D. weeks of supply

material cost of goods sold

Which of the following is NOT one of the three basic ways inventories are​ reported? A. average aggregate inventory value B. weeks of supply C. material cost of goods sold D inventory turnover

material cost of goods sold

On which of the following topics should effective project tracking systems collect​ information? A. schedule​ status, personnel​ status, budget status B. budget​ conformance, schedule​ status, and activities successfully crashed C. budget​ conformance, management​ support, and activities successfully crashed D. open​ issues, risks, and schedule status

open issues, risks, and schedule status

Manufacturing an item before it is needed is an example of what form of​ waste? A. motion B. overproduction C. inappropriate processing D. underutilization of employees

overproduction

Which of the following inventory classifications is one of the four forms that represent how the inventory was​ created? A. raw material inventory B. pipeline inventory C. service support inventory D. independent demand inventory

pipeline inventory

Design features for efficient supply chains include A. frequent​ new-product introduction. B. high contribution margins. C. predictable demand. D. customization.

predictable demand.

The total cost for a continuous review system with uncertain demand excludes consideration of A. cycle inventory holding cost. B. ordering cost. C. product cost. D. safety stock holding cost.

product cost

The least predictable pattern of​ time-series variation is called A. trend. B. random. C. horizontal. D. seasonal.

random.

Which sequence correctly progresses through​ consecutive, increasing levels of​ detail? A. resource plan→ sales and operations plan → workforce scheduling B. resource plan→ material requirements plan→ master production scheduling C. sales and operations plan→ resource plan→ workforce scheduling D. master production scheduling→ material requirements plan → manufacturing plan

sales and operations planright → resource planright → workforce scheduling

A repeatable pattern of increases or decreases in​ demand, depending on periods of time of within one year or​ less, is a​ time-series pattern called A. seasonal. B. cyclical. C. trend. D. random.

seasonal.

In​ general, companies perform aggregation along three​ dimensions A. ​management, labor, and raw materials. B. services or​ products, expenses, and resources. C. capital, labor, and management. D. services or​ products, labor, and time.

services or​ products, labor, and time.

A design feature for responsive supply chains include firms A. that have an operation strategy that emphasizes high volumes. B. that have high capacity cushions. C. for which supplier selection emphasizes low prices and consistent quality. D. for which inventory investment is low enabling high inventory turns.

that have high capacity cushions.

Which of the following statements best defines​ "utilized time"? A. that portion of the​ workforce's time that is paid for B. the average number of hours that an employee is scheduled to work C. the available workforce hours divided by the hours used for production D. that portion of the​ workforce's regular time that is paid for and productively used

that portion of the​ workforce's regular time that is paid for and productively used

Step 3 of the procedure to determine the project schedule that minimizes total project costs involves reducing the time for an identified activity until which of the following conditions becomes​ true? A. the​ activity's slack time is maximized B. the activity is at its crash time C. the critical path becomes​ non-critical D. the increase in direct costs equals the indirect and penalty cost savings that result from shortening the project

the activity is at its crash time

Which of the following best defines flow​ time? A. the start time plus the processing time of a job B. the sum of the times a job spends moving between workstations C. the amount of time a job spends in a service or manufacturing system D. the sum of the waiting time for servers or machines plus the time spent moving between operations

the amount of time a job spends in a service or manufacturing system

Which of the following is NOT considered a pressure to hold large​ inventories? A. the potential to reduce stockouts B. the cost of placing an order C. the need to increase machine utilization D. the cost of insurance

the cost of insurance

Value stream mapping analysts start from ​ ________ and work​ _______ to draw the map by hand.

the customer end; upstream

In master production​ scheduling, what does​ available-to-promise (ATP) inventory​ represent? A. the difference between the customer orders already booked and the quantity that operations is planning to produce B. the​ company's commitment to always hold finished goods in inventory C. the difference between forecasted customer orders and the quantity that operations is planning to produce D. inventory currently being shipped to all customers

the difference between the customer orders already booked and the quantity that operations is planning to produce

A reorder point will fail if A. the chance of a stockout falls. B. the setup cost rises. C. the lead time falls. D. the variance of demand rises.

the lead time fails

In a periodic review inventory​ system, the protection interval for an individual SKU is equal to A. twice the lead time of the SKU. B. the lead time of the​ SKU, C. the length of time between reviews of the​ SKU's inventory position. D. the length of time between reviews of the​ SKU's inventory position plus the lead time of the SKU.

the length of time between reviews of the​ SKU's inventory position plus the lead time of the SKU.

Which of the following was NOT a network planning method developed in the​ 1950s? A. the network project analysis technique​ (NPAT) B. the critical path method​ (CPM) C. the program evaluation and review technique​ (PERT)

the network project analysis technique​ (NPAT)

When the projected​ on-hand inventory balance falls in the negative​ range, then A. too much inventory is on hand. B. the inventory record is incorrect. C. gross requirements must increase. D. the shortage signals it is time for a planned receipt.

the shortage signals it is time for a planned receipt.

Crash time is defined as A. the activity time associated with any management intervention. B. the shortest possible time to complete an activity. C. the difference between earliest start time and earliest finish time. D. the time necessary to complete an activity under abnormal conditions.

the shortest possible time to complete an activity.

Judgment methods may be the only practical way to make a forecast when A. there is a great deal of historical product data. B. quantitative models have been performing particularly well in recent periods. C. there is no historical data due to a new product introduction. D. the forecast made in the previous period had a MAPE of less than​ 10%.

there is no historical data due to a new product introduction.

It has been determined that 25 containers are necessary to adequately support the workstation that uses component Y. Each container used has a capacity for 90 components. What is the planned daily supply of component Y to the next​ workstation? A. 3,000 B. 1,750 C. 900 D. ​2,250

​2,250

Judgment methods are LEAST likely to be indicated in which of the following​ situations? A. ​Short-term forecasts are made for a product with stable demand. B. The underlying product technology is in transition. C. The Delphi method is necessary. D. A new product is being introduced.

​Short-term forecasts are made for a product with stable demand.