Pathophysiology chapter 1-4,7 example questions
Which term refers to a state of tension that can lead to disruption or threaten physical stability? A. Stress B. Adaptive C. Exhaustion D. Homeostasis
A. Stress Stress is defined as a state of tension that can lead to disruption or threaten homeostasis. Adaptive changes occur when a body function changes to work within its environment. Exhaustion occurs when there is a negative sequela. Homeostasis is dynamic change.
Which is not one of the recognized components of the general adaptation syndrome? A. Alarm B. Allostasis C. Resistance D. Exhaustion
B. Allostasis Allostasis is a dynamic process that supports and helps the body achieve homeostasis. Alarm, resistance, and exhaustion are the three recognized components of Selye's General Adaptation Syndrome.
Patients who have advanced cancer develop cachexia because of which of the following reasons? (Select all that apply.) A. They have an increased basal metabolic rate. B. Nausea and vomiting are common complications. C. Cancer cells produce an enzyme that robs normal cells of nutrients. D. Tumor necrosis factor (TNF) and other immune cytokines are produced. E. Nutritional supplementation by enteral or parenteral routes has proven to be ineffective.
A B C and D Despite the minimal nutrient intake, body metabolism remains high. Nausea and vomiting are common complications of cancer therapy and contribute to decreased nutrient intake. Anorexia, a feature of cachexia, may result from toxins released by the cancer cells. Production of tumor necrosis factor (TNF) and other immune cytokines is thought to be important in producing the hypermetabolic state. Some patients can benefit from nutritional supplementation by enteral or parenteral routes.
Which statements are true concerning cellular metabolism? (Select all that apply.) A. ATP is produced by ATP synthase, a protein in the mitochondrial membrane. Correct B. Energy-requiring reactions within cells are driven by coupling to ATP hydrolysis Correct C. ATP is not stored and must be continuously synthesized by each cell to meet the cell's energy needs. Correct D. Pyruvate can be converted to lactate when oxygen supply is insufficient for oxidative processes. Correct E. Glycolysis is an anaerobic process that produces one ATP molecule, two NADH molecules, and one pyruvate molecule per glucose molecule.
A B C and D It is correct that ATP is produced by ATP synthase, a protein in the mitochondrial membrane. It is correct that energy-requiring reactions within cells are driven by coupling to ATP hydrolysis. It is correct that ATP is not stored and must be continuously synthesized by each cell to meet the cell's energy needs. It is correct that Pyruvate can also be converted to lactate when oxygen supply is insufficient for oxidative processes. Glycolysis is an anaerobic process that produces two ATP molecules, two NADH molecules, and two (not one) pyruvate molecules per glucose molecule.
Which retrovirus is believed to cause cancer? (Select all that apply.) A. Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) B. Human T-lymphocyte virus type I C. Epstein-Barr virus D. Parvovirus E. Poxvirus
A B and C The HIV virus has been associated with Kaposi sarcoma. The human T-lymphocyte virus type I has been associated with T-cell leukemia-lymphoma. The Epstein-Barr virus has been associated with Burkitt lymphoma. Parvovirus results in fifth disease, a rash generally seen in children. Poxvirus is most commonly associated with diseases such as smallpox.
Which statements are true regarding cancer? (Select all that apply.) A. The greater the undifferentiated cell count, the more aggressive the cancer. B. Malignant tumors have the potential to kill the host. C. Benign tumors grow rapidly than malignant ones. D. Anaplasia means more differentiated cells. E. Metastasis means less differentiated cells.
A and B Malignant tumors have the potential to kill the host.The greater the degree of anaplasia, the more aggressive the malignant tumor. Malignant tumors, if left untreated, have the potential to kill. Benign tumors often grow slowly than malignant ones. Anaplasia is a lack of cell differentiation. Metastasis means the invasion of cancer to distant sites.
Necrosis is the result of cellular injury that does not allow for cellular adaptation because it is which of the following? (Select all that apply.) A.Too severe B. Too prolonged C. Acute in nature D. Programmed into the cell itself E. A result of a disrupted blood supply
A, B, and E Necrosis occurs when the injury is too severe and too prolonged to allow adaptation to the stressors. Necrosis is usually a consequence of disrupted blood supply. A short-term injury usually allows the cell to adapt and so avoid necrosis. Apoptosis controls the rate of cell division and the rate of cell death. If cells are no longer needed, they activate a cellular death pathway, resulting in cell suicide.
What stage is defined by "fight or flight"? A. Alarm B. Resistance C. Exhaustion D. Adaptation
A. Alarm Alarm is called "fight or flight" because it gives the body a boost of energy to either run or confront. To survive, the body must move beyond the alarm stage to a stage of resistance (also called adaptation) supportive of the allostatic return to a state of homeostasis. Exhaustion occurs when the body is no longer able to bring about a return to homeostasis following prolonged exposure to noxious agents. To survive, the body must move beyond the alarm stage to a stage of resistance (also called adaptation) supportive of the allostatic return to a state of homeostasis.
Which type of cellular adaptation would create the greatest concern if found on a biopsy report? A. Dysplasia B. Metaplasia C. Hyperplasia D. Hypertrophy
A. Dysplasia Dysplastic cells have significant potential to transform into cancerous cells and are usually regarded as preneoplastic lesions. Metaplasia is the replacement of one differentiated cell type with another. This most often occurs as an adaptation to persistent injury, with the replacement cell type better able to tolerate the injurious stimulation and is fully reversible when the injurious stimulus is removed. Hyperplasia is an increase in cell number usually in response to physiologic demands, hormonal stimulation, or chronic cell injury. This is generally a normal adaptation, and not nearly the concern of the correct option. Hypertrophy is an increase in cell mass accompanied by an augmented functional capacity. This is generally a normal adaptation, and of little or no concern.
Which term means "cause of the disease"? A. Etiology B. Risk factor C. Pathogenesis D. Clinical manifestations
A. Etiology Etiology is the cause or reason for a phenomenon. When the link between an etiologic factor and development of a disease is less than certain, but the probability is increased when the factor is present, it is termed a risk factor. The mechanism of disease development is called pathogenesis. The functional consequences of these changes are the clinical manifestations. Risk factor
Which organ shrinks with age? A. Gums B. Heart C. Prostate D. Sweat glands
A. Gums The gums shrink with age. The heart enlarges with age. The prostate enlarges with age. Sweat glands become fewer in number with age.
Which is a true statement regarding cortisol? A. It produces stress response effects similar to those of epinephrine. B. Its activity is shorter than that of epinephrine. C. It has no known effect on the immune system. D. It is associated with the alarm stage.
A. It produces stress response effects similar to those of epinephrine. Cortisol does produce a stress response similar to that seen with epinephrine but with differences in length of duration. Cortisol's affect is longer acting than that of epinephrine. Cortisol's affects on the immune system has been documented. Epinephrine not cortisol is associated with the alarm stage.
Which is the oncogene that allows cells to grow indefinitely? A. Myc B. Ras C. RB D. pRb
A. Myc The myc oncogene allows cells to grow indefinitely in culture but alone cannot induce tumor formation. The ras oncogene allows anchorage independence. This means they can proliferate without cell matrix; however, it cannot form a tumor alone. When ras and myc are introduced together into normal cells, they become fully malignant. The Rb gene codes for a large protein in the cell nucleus (pRb) that has been labeled the "master brake." The Rb gene codes for a large protein in the cell nucleus (pRb) that has been labeled the "master brake."
Which form of intercellular chemical signaling is used in chemical neurotransmission by neurons? A. Synaptic B. Paracrine C. Autocrine D. Endocrine
A. Synaptic Synaptic signaling is confined to the cells of the nervous system and occurs at specialized junctions between the nerve cell and its target cell. The neuron secretes a chemical neurotransmitter into the space between the nerve and target cell; the neurotransmitter then diffuses across and binds receptors on the postsynaptic cell. In paracrine signaling, chemicals are secreted into a localized area and are rapidly destroyed, so that only cells in the immediate area are affected. Growth factors (GFs), for example, act locally to promote wound healing without affecting the growth of the entire organism. Autocrinesignaling occurs when cells are able to respond to signaling molecules that they secrete. Autocrine communication provides a feedback signal to the secreting cell and is commonly linked to pathways that regulate ligand secretion rates. Abnormal autocrine stimulation is thought to be a mechanism in some forms of cancer. Endocrine signaling is accomplished by specialized endocrine cells that secrete hormones that travel via the bloodstream to target cells widely distributed throughout the body. Endocrine signaling is slow in comparison to nervous signaling, because it relies on diffusion and blood flow to target tissues.
Which statement is true? A. Women have a lower hemoglobin level than men. B. Men have a lower creatinine level than women. C. Men have a higher calcium level than women. D. Women snore more than men.
A. Women have a lower hemoglobin level than men. Women generally have lower hemoglobin levels than men. Women have higher calcium levels than men. Women have higher creatinine levels than men. Men tend to snore more than women.
A client develops weakness in both lower extremities following a prolonged period of bed rest. This condition is most likely caused by A. atrophy B. dysplasia. C. hypertrophy D. hyperplasia.
A. atrophy Disuse atrophy develops after prolonged periods of inactivity as a result of shrinkage of skeletal muscle cells. Dysplasia results in the abnormal development or growth of tissues, organs, or cells. Hypertrophy is an increase in cell mass accompanied by an augmented functional capacity. Cells hypertrophy in response to increased physiologic or pathophysiologic demands. Hyperplasia increases the cell's functional capacity by increasing the number of cells. Hyperplasia usually results from increased physiologic demands or hormonal stimulation.
A critical event in the death of a cell is caused by A.disruption of the plasma membrane's permeability barrier. B. an increase in cellular protein content. C. an accumulation of lipofuscin. D. chronic nutrient insufficiency.
A. disruption of the plasma membrane's permeability barrier. Disruption of the plasma membrane barrier, seen in necrosis, results in cellular death. Hypertrophy results primarily from a net increase in cellular protein content. Atrophy can result in the accumulation of lipofuscin. Atrophy occurs when cells shrink and reduce their differentiated functions in response to a variety of normal and injurious factors, such as nutrient starvation.
In muscle hypertrophy, the hypertrophied cells increase in A. size. B. number. C. calcium. D. accumulations.
A. size. The cellular response to persistent, sublethal stress reflects the cell's efforts to adapt. A common adaptive response is hypertrophy resulting in an increase in cell size. Hyperplasia is an increase in cell number. An increase in calcium would be pathologic and likely result in tetany. An increase in accumulations would be pathologic and likely result in cell injury.
Which statement about oncogene activation is true? (Select all that apply.) A. Bacteria do not carry genetic material into the cell genome. B. Oncogenes may be introduced into the host cell by a retrovirus. C. Proto-oncogenes may undergo a mutation thus becoming overly active. D. DNA sequences that normally suppress proto-oncogene expression may be inactivated. E. An error may occur in the replication of the chromosome such that extra copies are produced.
B C D and E At least four general ways in which proto-oncogenes can be activated: oncogenes may be introduced into the host cell by a retrovirus, a proto-oncogene within the cell may suffer a mutagenic event that changes its structure and function, a DNA sequence that normally regulates proto-oncogene expression may be damaged or lost, thereby allowing the proto-oncogene to become abnormally active, or an error in chromosome replication may occur and cause extra copies to be produced, which is called amplification. Bacteria do not carry genetic material into the cell genome, but retroviruses may.
Which is a theory of aging? (Select all that apply.) A. Apoptosis B. Free radical C. Immunologic D. Nutritional injury E. Programmed senescence
B and E The free radical theory states that aging may also be a result of accumulated metabolic cell damage over time. The programmed senescence theory holds that aging is the result of an intrinsic genetic program. Apoptosis, a type of cellular suicide, is a common event that regulates normal system function. Immunologic theory explains the role of the immune system in cellular injury. Nutritional injury is a common cause of dysfunction and disease, but there is no known relationship to aging.
In what way do proto-oncogenes become activated oncogenes? A. A proto-oncogene within the cell stimulates hyperplasia. B. Certain retroviruses enter host cells, altering their DNA structure. C. Excessive ATP activity causes the proto-oncogene to become abnormally active. D. Chromosome replication errors cause fewer copies of the proto-oncogene to be included in the genome.
B. Certain retroviruses enter host cells, altering their DNA structure. Malignant cells containing the cancer-causing retroviruses have incorporated a small number of viral genes into their cellular DNA. Hyperplasia does not activate proto-oncogenes to oncogenes. ATP activity does not activate proto-oncogenes to oncogenes. Chromosome replication errors does not activate proto-oncogenes to oncogenes.
What is the mechanism of cellular injury that occurs when deep sea divers get "the bends"? A. Intracellular calcium accumulation creates muscle tetany. B. Gas bubbles form in the blood, blocking circulation and resulting in ischemia. Correct C. Free radicals form abnormal chemical bonds, which destroy the cellular membranes. D. Carbon monoxide binds tightly to hemoglobin, preventing the red blood cells from carrying oxygen.
B. Gas bubbles form in the blood, blocking circulation and resulting in ischemia. Abrupt changes in atmospheric pressure may result from high-altitude flying, deep sea diving, and explosions. Pressure changes may interfere with gas exchange in the lungs, cause the formation of gas emboli in the bloodstream, collapse the thorax, and rupture internal organs. A well-known example of pressure injury is the condition of "the bends," which afflicts deep sea divers who surface too quickly. The rapid decrease in water pressure results in the formation of bubbles of nitrogen gas in the blood, which may block the circulation and cause ischemic injury. Cell injury results from deficiencies, as well as from excesses of essential nutrients, such as in the case of excessive calcium and the resulting tetany. The free radical is very reactive, forming abnormal chemical bonds in the cell and ultimately destroying the cellular membranes. Some toxins have an affinity for a particular cell type or tissue, whereas others exert widespread systemic effects. For example, carbon monoxide binds tightly and selectively to hemoglobin, preventing the red cell from carrying sufficient oxygen.
Which term is used to describe the histologic characterization of tumor cells? A. Staging B. Grading C. Cachexia D. Angiogenesis
B. Grading Grading refers to the histologic characterization of tumor cells and is basically a determination of the degree of anaplasia. Staging describes the location and pattern of spread of a tumor within the host. Cachexia is a sign of cancer and refers to overall weight loss. Angiogenesis is the process of forming new blood vessels.
Which of these statements best describes the purpose of the TNM classification system? A. It tracks the progress of the disease and the effectiveness of treatment. B. It provides tumor data for the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention. C. It enables the physician to determine the underlying cause of the malignancy. D. It provides information for ongoing research efforts to develop a cure for cancer.
B. It provides tumor data for the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention. The TNM classification system is used to stage cancer. The TNM staging system is used to describe the tumor size, lymph nodes affected, and degree of metastasis. Grading and staging are done to predict tumor behavior and guide therapy. The TNM classification system is used to stage cancer and has little impact on tumor data collection by the CDCP. The availability of computed tomography (CT), magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), and positron emission tomography (PET), as well as other highly sophisticated imaging techniques, has revolutionized cancer detection. The TNM classification system is used to stage cancer and is not directly related to cancer research.
Abnormal new cellular growth is referred to as A. apoptosis. B. neoplasia. C. proto-oncogene. D. suppressor genes. I
B. Neoplasia Neoplasia means abnormal "new growth." Apoptosis is the ability of the normal cell to respond to signals instructing the cell to commit suicide. Proto-oncogenes code for components of cellular growth-activating pathways. Tumor suppressor genes inhibit cell proliferation.
The study of specific characteristics and functions of a living organism and its parts is called A. psychiatry. B. physiology. C. homeostasis. D. pathophysiology.
B. Physiology Physiology is the study of the mechanical, physical, and biochemical functions of living organisms. Psychiatry is a branch of medicine dealing with mental illness. Homeostasis is a dynamic steady-state. Pathophysiology refers to the disorder or breakdown of the human body's function.
Which metabolic processes is a component of anabolic metabolism? A. Glycolysis B. Protein synthesis C. Citric acid cycle D. Oxidative phosphorylation
B. Protein synthesis Anabolism refers to energy-using metabolic processes or pathways that result in the synthesis of complex molecules such as proteins. Catabolism refers to the energy-releasing breakdown of nutrient sources such as glycolysis. Catabolism refers to the energy-releasing breakdown of nutrient sources such as the citric acid cycle. Catabolism refers to the energy-releasing breakdown of nutrient sources such as oxidative phosphorylation.
Restoration of effective function is the goal of which level of prevention? A. Primary B. Tertiary C. Clinical D. Secondary
B. Tertiary Tertiary prevention (appropriate in the stage of advanced disease or disability) includes rehabilitative and supportive care and attempts to alleviate disability and restore effective functioning. Primary prevention is prevention of disease by altering susceptibility or reducing exposure for susceptible individuals. Clinical is a stage referred to in early disease prevention (secondary). Secondary prevention is the early detection, screening, and management of the disease.
Which is true regarding catecholamines? A. They are from the parasympathetic nervous system. B. They include epinephrine and norepinephrine. C. They cross the blood-brain barrier. D. They cause a decrease in heart rate.
B. They include epinephrine and norepinephrine. Catecholamines include epinephrine and norepinephrine. Norepinephrine is secreted from the sympathetic nerves, and epinephrine is secreted from the adrenal medulla. Epinephrine and norepinephrine cannot cross the blood-brain barrier. Epinephrine and norepinephrine cause increased heart rate, blood pressure, and blood flow to skeletal muscles.
Viruses injure cells differently than other causes of cellular injury because they A. produce and secrete powerful destructive enzymes that digest cellular membranes and connective tissues. B. are incorporated into the cell, where it uses the cell's RNA or DNA for self-replication. C. cause reperfusion injury as the result of free radical formation. D. injure cells by disrupting chemical bonds through ionization.
B. are incorporated into the cell, where it uses the cell's RNA or DNA for self-replication. Viruses are small bits of genetic material that are able to gain entry into the cell. They may be thought of as intracellular parasites that use the host cell's metabolic and synthetic machinery to survive and replicate. Some bacteria produce and secrete powerful destructive enzymes that digest cellular membranes and connective tissues. Cell death results from ischemia and the resulting formation of reactive oxygen molecules (free radicals). Chemical injuries can result for the disruption of chemical bonds.
Which statement regarding cancer deaths is true? (Select all that apply.) A. It is the leading cause of death. B. Most deaths occur in people age 75 and older. C. The 5-year combined survival rate for cancer is 68%. D. Men have a one in two lifetime risk of developing cancer. E. Women have a one in three lifetime risk of developing cancer.
C D and E The 5-year combined survival rate for cancer is 68%. Men have a one in two chance of developing cancer. Women have a one in three chance of developing cancer. Most deaths occur in individuals older than 55 years. Cancer is the second leading cause of death.
Which is a true statement regarding metastasis? A. Increased cell-to-cell adhesion helps metastasis. B. Lack of proteases and collagenases aids in metastasis. C. Cells must first escape the basement membrane of tissue. D. Penetration of the basement membrane of the vessel occurs first.
C. Cells must first escape the basement membrane of tissue. For tumor cells to gain access to the blood or lymphatic circulation, they must first escape the basement membrane of the tissue of origin, move through the extracellular space, and then penetrate the basement membrane of the vessel. Metastasis is thought to involve the loss of cell-to-cell adhesion. Proteases and collagenases digest basement membranes. The basement membrane of the vessel is penetrated only after the basement membrane of the organ has been breached.
Which offers the best prognosis for the cure of cancer? A. Surgery B. Radiation C. Early detection D. Chemotherapeutic agents
C. Early detection Early detection of cancer while it remains localized is associated with the best prognosis for a cure. The majority of patients with solid tumors are treated surgically, which can be curative in some localized cancers. Ionizing radiation is used for two principal reasons: to kill tumor cells that are not resectable because they are located in a vital or inaccessible area, and to kill tumor cells that may have escaped the surgeon's knife and remain undetected in the local area. Chemotherapeutic agents are not selective for tumor cells, and a certain amount of normal cell death also occurs.
A heart that has to pump harder in order to effectively circulate blood is likely to undergo which type of cellular adaptation? A. Atrophy B. Metaplasia C. Hypertrophy D. Hyperplasia
C. Hypertrophy Cells hypertrophy in response to increased physiologic or pathophysiologic demands. If the heart has to pump harder than normal to meet the body's demand for oxygen and nutrients, the cardiac cells will become larger, resulting in cardiac hypertrophy. Atrophy results in cell death that would render the cells non-functional. Metaplasia is the replacement of one differentiated cell type with another. Muscle contraction could possibly be lost rather than enhanced. Hyperplasia would result in an increased number of cells rather than an enhanced pumping capacity.
Which electrolyte is essential in ensuring a negative resting membrane potential? A. Calcium B. Sodium C. Potassium D. Magnesium
C. Potassium The major determinant of the resting membrane potential is the difference in potassium ion concentration across the membrane; thus the negative value of the resting membrane potential (RMP) is determined by the ratio of intracellular to extracellular potassium ion concentration. At rest, the membrane is permeable to K+, but not to other positively charged cations, including calcium. At rest, the membrane is permeable to K+, but not to other positively charged cations, including sodium. Magnesium is not involved in the resting membrane potential.
Which term is used to describe an objectively identifiable aberration of the disease? A. Syndrome B. Symptom C. Sign D. Stage
C. Sign A sign is an objectively identifiable aberration of the disease. A syndrome is a collection of different signs and symptoms that occur together. A symptom is a subjective feeling. The clinical manifestations of some diseases may change significantly over time, resulting in a completely different clinical presentation at different stages (periods in time).
An increase in which of these characteristics would be present in cells that demonstrate hypertrophy? A. Lipofuscin B. Size of vacuoles C. Size of cells D. Number of cells
C. Size of the cells Hypertrophy is defined as an increase in cell mass (cellular enlargement). A lipofuscin is a yellow to brown, granular, iron-negative lipid pigment found particularly in muscle, heart, liver, and nerve cells; it is the product of cellular wear and tear, accumulating in lysosomes with age. A vacuole is a small cavity in the cytoplasm of a cell, bound by a single membrane and containing water (hydropic swelling), food, or metabolic waste. Cells that are capable of mitotic division generally increase their functional capacity by increasing the number of cells by hyperplasia.
Which statement accurately describes the proliferation of cancer cells? A. The resting phase of the cell cycle is prolonged. B. Cancer cells grow at the same rate as normal cells. C. The number of developing cells exceeds the number of dying cells. Correct D. The more anaplastic the tumor is, the slower the growth rate of cells.
C. The number of developing cells exceeds the number of dying cells. Malignant cells proliferate despite a lack of growth-initiating signals from the environment, resulting in a change in the ratio of developing cells to dying cells. The resting phase of the cell cycle is not prolonged. Cancer cells grow at more rapid rate than normal cells. The more anaplastic the tumor is, the faster the growth rate of cells.
Which electrochemical mechanism is responsible for maintaining cell volume? A. The calcium pump B. Glucose transporters C. The sodium-potassium pump Correct D. ATP-binding cassette (ABC) transporters
C. The sodium-potassium pump The sodium-potassium pump is important in maintaining cell volume. It does this by regulating the intracellular solute concentration, which in turn affects the osmotic forces across the membrane. If Na+ is allowed to accumulate within the cell, the cellular volume will increase. Numerous important cellular processes, such as cell contraction and growth initiation, are dependent on the intracellular calcium concentration that is managed by the calcium pump. Some carriers move substances across the membrane passively. The glucose transporters in many cell types belong to this class of transporters. The ABC transporter family all have a common ATP-binding domain, called the ATP-binding cassette (ABC), which hydrolyzes ATP to provide energy for the transport process.
Which type of cellular adaptation is most likely to occur as the result of chronic ischemia to a region? A. Hypertrophy B. Hyperplasia C. Metaplasia D. Atrophy
D. Atrophy Ischemia is inadequate blood supply to a tissue. Chronic sublethal ischemia usually results in cell atrophy. Hypertrophy would result in an increase in cell size in response to increased physiologic demand. Hyperplasia would result in an increased number of cells in response to increased physiologic demand. Metaplasia is the replacement of one differentiated cell type with another better suited for the situation.
Which gene has been identified as specifically contributing to some types of breast cancer? A. Rb B. p53 C. VHL D. BRCA1
D. BRCA1 BRCA1 gene defects have been linked to an increase of breast cancer in women. The Rb gene has been linked with retinoblastoma. P53 has been linked as a suppressor gene that is defective in more than half of human cancers. VHL has been linked to renal cancer.
Which cellular response is maladaptive? A.Shrinkage of cell size B. Increase in cell size C.Increase in the number of cells D. Change in the shape or arrangement of cells
D. Change in the shape or arrangement,ent of cells Dysplasia (abnormal variations in shape and arrangement of cells) represents an unsuccessful attempt of the cells to adapt. Cells shrink in response to a migration of fluid to balance fluid loss elsewhere in the body. Cells hypertrophy (increase in size) in response to increased physiologic or pathophysiologic demands. Cells that are capable of mitotic division generally increase their functional capacity by increasing the number of cells (hyperplasia) as well as by hypertrophy. Hyperplasia usually results from increased physiologic demands or hormonal stimulation. Persistent cell injury also may lead to hyperplasia.
Which is a false statement? A. Epinephrine and cortisol act similarly. B. Cortisol and epinephrine work in synergy. C. Antidiuretic hormone is important for blood volume regulation. D. Endorphins decrease with stress, resulting in an increase in pain perception.
D. Endorphins decrease with stress, resulting in an increase in pain perception. Endorphins increase with stress and lessen pain. Epinephrine and cortisol do produce similar effects. Cortisol and epinephrine actually do have a combined effect that is greater than the sum of their individual effects. Antidiuretic hormone is important for blood volume regulation, since it regulates fluids in the blood.
Which cardiovascular disorder has not been linked to excessive catecholamine levels in the blood? A. Stroke B. Hypertension C. Myocardial infarction D. Heart valve disfunction
D. Heart valve disfunction There is no current research that associates heart valve dysfunctions with excessive catecholamine levels. Strokes have been associated with excessive catecholamine levels because of the affect of increased fat collects that can be released into the blood stream. Hypertension has long been associated with chronic stress and the resulting affect of catecholamine levels on the development of atherosclerosis. Catecholamines increase platelet activity resulting in clot formation and elevate serum lipid levels, significant factors in the pathogenesis of myocardial infarction.
Which statement is true regarding epinephrine? A. It has the exact same effects as norepinephrine. B. It causes a decrease in glycogenolysis. C. It causes a decrease in muscle strength. D. It results in increased cardiac output.
D. It results in increased cardiac output. Epinephrine increases heart rate, venous return, and cardiac output. Epinephrine produces some of the same effects as norepinephrine, but it has greater influence on cardiac action. Epinephrine increases glycogenolysis and the release of glucose from the liver. Epinephrine increases muscle strength, mental alertness, and vigilance.
Which is a characteristic of cancer cells? A. Predictable, uniform cell division B. Evidence of cellular cohesiveness C. Uniform size and shape D. Poor differentiation
D. Poor differentiation Cancer cells lose their differentiated features and contribute poorly or not at all to the function of their tissue. Cancer cells divide in an unpredictable manner. Cellular cohesiveness is lacking among cancer cells. Cancer cells do not reproduce uniformly in either size or shape.
Which hormone is responsible for lactation and interferes with ovulation? A. Growth hormone B. Testosterone C. Estrogen D. Prolactin
D. Prolactin Prolactin is responsible for lactation and breast development while interfering with ovulation. Growth hormone affects protein, lipid, and carbohydrate metabolism. Testosterone regulates male secondary sex characteristics and libido. Estrogen attenuates the HPA stress response. It also regulates female secondary sex characteristics. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points.
Which condition occurs in the presence of cellular damage? A. Cells shrink. B. ATP production increases. Incorrect C. Osmotic pressure decreases. D. Sodium and water move into the cell.
D. Sodium and water move into the cell. Cellular injury causes failure of the sodium-potassium pump, resulting in migration of sodium ions into the cell. The accumulation of intracellular sodium creates an osmotic gradient that pulls water into the cell, resulting in hydropic swelling. Cells actually swell, not shrink, as a result of cellular damage. Cellular damage results in the cell's inability to perform normal metabolic functions owing to insufficient cellular energy in the form of adenosine triphosphate (ATP). Osmotic pressure increases to accommodate for swelling.
Which statement is true about the normal biological variations related to age? A. An infant will have a slower heart rate than an adult. B. Elderly persons have better temperature sensations. C. There are more sweat glands in an elderly person. D. There is less thirst perception in the elderly.
D. There is less thirst perception in the elderly. Aging does usually result in diminished thirst perception. Adults have slower heart rates than infants. The elderly have fewer sweat glands. The elderly have diminished temperature sensations.
Which term is used to describe the deficiency in circulating platelets? A. Anemia B. Leukopenia C. Leukocytosis D. Thrombocytopenia
D. Thrombocytopenia Thrombocytopenia is a deficiency in circulation platelets, which are important mediators of blood clotting. Anemia is a deficiency of circulating red blood cells. Leukopenia is a decrease in white blood cells. Leukocytosis is an increase in circulating white blood cells.
The increase in a normal adaptive response to the decreased availability of oxygen at high altitudes is referred to as A. diurnal. B. circadian. C. population. D. acclimatization.
D. acclimatization. Acclimatization is the normal adaptive response to the decreased availability of oxygen at a high altitude. Circadian rhythm and diurnal variation are terms that refer to factors that are similar depending on the time of day. Population refers to a group of people or may be referred to as a population mean when using statistics.
Lipid molecules cross cell membranes by A. transporting across the plasma membrane by endocytosis. B. using channel proteins as a membrane transport system. C. using voltage-gated ion channels. D. diffusion
D. diffusion The plasma membrane is composed of a lipid bilayer that is impermeable to most water-soluble molecules, including ions, glucose, and amino acids, but permeable to lipid-soluble substances, such as oxygen and steroid hormones. Lipid-soluble molecules can directly cross the lipid bilayer of cell membranes by simple diffusion. Endocytosis is a process of cellular ingestion by which the plasma membrane folds inward to bring substances into the cell. Channel proteins are a form of active transport. Voltage-gated ion channels are activated by changes in electrical potential difference near the channel; these types of ion channels are especially critical in neurons, but are common in many types of cells.
Cellular hypoxia results in A. increased pH. B. enhanced ATP activity. C. loss of intracellular calcium. D. failure of the sodium-potassium pump.
D. failure of the sodium-potassium pump. Hypoxia is a loss of oxygen to the cell that causes ATP activity to cease. ATP provides the power required to drive the sodium-potassium pump. pH decreases in hypoxia (respiratory acidosis). Hypoxia is a loss of oxygen to the cell that causes ATP activity to cease. Deposits of calcium salts occur in conditions of altered calcium intake, excretion, or metabolism.
When the cause of a disease is because of unintended or unwanted medical treatment, the term to describe this is A. genotype. B. idiopathic. C. ecogenetics. D. iatrogenic.
D. iatrogenic. Iatrogenic means that the cause was medical intervention. Genotype refers to the genetic inheritance for a condition. Idiopathic is when the cause of the condition is unknown. Ecogenetics is a struggle between genetic makeup and environment.
A patient diagnosed with cancer presents with Cushing syndrome secondary to excessive adrenocorticotropic hormone secretion. This syndrome is described as A. ionizing. B. hypercalcemia. C. opportunistic infection. D. paraneoplastic syndrome.
D. paraneoplastic syndrome. Paraneoplastic syndromes are symptom complexes that cannot be explained by obvious tumor properties; they occur in 10% to 15% of patients with cancer. Many of these syndromes are associated with excessive hormone production. Ionizing is a form of cancer treatment (radiation). Hypercalcemia, an elevation of calcium ions, may occur as a result of this syndrome. Opportunistic infection is when the immune system is compromised and infections that are normally eliminated by the immune system cause infection.
Signs and symptoms of a disease first occur during the A. acute phase. B. latent period. C. subclinical stage. D. prodromal period.
D. prodromal period. The prodromal period, or prodrome, refers to the appearance of the first signs and symptoms indicating the onset of a disease. During the acute phase, the disease reaches its full intensity, and signs and symptoms attain their greatest severity. If the disease has a latent period, the signs and symptoms may become mild or even disappear for a time. A number of diseases have a subclinical stage, during which the patient functions normally, although the disease processes are well established.
Which condition explains the genetic basis for cancer development? A. Decreased immune function B. Exposure to ionizing radiation C. Infection by oncogenic bacteria D. Loss of or defect in tumor suppressor genes
D.Loss of or defect in tumor suppressor genes. Tumor suppressor genes inhibit cancer proliferation pathways. Decreased immune function and exposure to ionizing radiation may be factors but not the basis of cancer development. Infection by oncogenic bacteria is not a factor, since bacterial infection is not relevant.
On which area does cortisol have an anabolic effect? A. Lymphoid B. Protein C. Muscle D. Skin
Protein Cortisol has an anabolic effect on protein, leading to an increased rate of protein synthesis. Cortisol has a catabolic effect on lymphoid tissue. Cortisol has a catabolic effect on muscle tissue. Cortisol has a catabolic effect on skin.
