Pharmacology (Summer CCC) - EXAM 2

Which one of the following is though to play a role in maintenance of the circadian rhythm? A) Kava B) Rozerem C) Ambient D) Sonata

B) Rozerem

For a patient diagnosed with Parkinson's and who also has narrow-angle glaucoma, what medication would be contraindicated? A) Neurontin B) Amantadine C) Levodopa D) Dilantin

C) Levodopa

Define: PROPHYLAXIS

A medication given in ADVANCE of a condition. Prevention.

Define: PATHOGEN:

A microorganism that causes an illness or disease.

Your patient is a 2-year-old girl diagnosed with meingococcal meningitis. Her grandmother arrives and asks why an older antibiotic that she has read about, chloramphenicol, cannot be used. Which of the following is your best response? A) "Chloramphenicol is rarely used because it is less effective and more toxic than alternative drugs." B) "Chloramphenicol is not an antibiotic." C) "Chloramphenicol is rarely used to treat infections in children." D) "Chloramphenicol is never used to threat this disease."

A) "Chloramphenicol is rarely used because it is less effective and more toxic than alternative drugs."

Your patient is a teenager taking tetracycline for acne. He asks your how the medication works. Which of the following is your best response? A) "Tetracycline decreases the amount of surface oils and pimples." B) "Tetracycline reduces the amount of bacteria in the blood running through your skin." C) "Tetracycline interferes with components of bacterial protein synthesis." D) "Tetracycline changes the chemical structure of your skin so it's less hospitable to bacteria."

A) "Tetracycline decreases the amount of surface oils and pimples."

A patient has phoned the clinician stating that she took an oral dose of sumatriptan when she first sensed the onset of a migraine. She states, "I took that pill about an hour-and-a-half ago and I still don't feel any better. Can take another?" How should the nurse respond? A) "Wait at least half-an-hour before you take another pill." B) "It's probably advisable for you to go to the emergency department." C) "Yes, it's likely safe to take one more dose of your sumatriptan." D) "You can take another pill now and one more in 1 hours, but don't take any more after that."

A) "Wait at least half-an-hour before you take another pill."

A nurse had administered an IV dose of morphine to a patient who was rating her pain an 8/10. The nurse should assure that patient that maximum relief of pain will occur in A) 10 to 20 minutes B) 3 to 5 minutes C) 5 to 10 minutes D) 30 to 45 minutes.

A) 10 to 20 minutes

A post surgical patient has been prescribed morphine to address the pain that is anticipated over the next 24 to 48 hours. The most effective strategy to managing this patient's pain is to do which of the following? A) Administering morphine on a scheduled basis and supplement it with additional morphine when the pain worsens. B) Encouraging the patient to endure the pain as much as possible before administering morphine C) Administering morphine every 4 hours, with gradually decreasing doses over the next several days D) Administering the maximum safe dose of morphine for 12 to 24 hours and then transition to NSAIDs.

A) Administering morphine on a scheduled basis and supplement it with additional morphine when the pain worsens.

When taking MAO inhibitors, patients should avoid which of the following foods? A) Aged cheeses and meats and concentrated yeast extracts. B) Herbal stimulants, caffeine, navy beans, and cheese C) Herbal stimulants, pasta, organ meats, and egg products D) Coffee, chocolate, organ meats, pasta and navy beans.

A) Aged cheeses and meats and concentrated yeast extracts.

While you are speaking with a patient diagnosed with gout, she states that she has no symptoms of the disease and asks you to explain why she was prescribed allopurinol (Zyloprim). Which of the following is your best response? A) Allopurinol is used to prevent or treat hyperuricemia, which occurs with gout. B) Allopurinol promotes formation of uric acid. It is used in combination with another drug to prevent reoccurrences. C) Allopurinol is not a first-line drug but can be used for gout. D) Allopurinol is used to cure hyperuricemia, which occurs with gout.

A) Allopurinol is used to prevent or treat hyperuricemia, which occurs with gout.

Atropine must be used cautiously in patients with a history of cardiovascular disease, due to what factor? A) Atropine increases the myocardial oxygen demand. B) Atropine causes significant bronchodilation and increased respiratory tract secretions. C) Atropine decreases excitability and conductivity. D) Atropine causes significant blood pressure changes.

A) Atropine increases the myocardial oxygen demand.

A woman with a complex medical history is scheduled to begin treatment with an IV cephalosporin. After the initiation of therapy, the nurse should monitor the patient for which of the following potential adverse effects? Select all that apply. A) Diarrhea B) Seizure activity C) Oliguria D) Stupor E) Nausea and vomiting

A) Diarrhea E) Nausea and vomiting

In the even of a bioterrorism attack with anthrax, you would anticipate the use of which drug? A) Doxycycline B) Pyridium C) Penicillin D) Bactrim

A) Doxycycline

A patient's care provider has chosen a tricyclic antidepressant as first-line therapy. What subsequent complaint would the nurse most likely attribute to adverse effect of this drug? A) Dry mouth and urinary retention B) Memory lapses and hyperglycemia C) Diarrhea and abdominal cramping D) Weight loss and urinary frequency

A) Dry mouth and urinary retention

Your patient has been diagnosed with trichomoniasis. Which of the following medications could you anticipate being ordered? A) Flagyl B) Rifaximin C) Penicillin D) Clindamycin

A) Flagyl

A patient, a 25-year-old woman from Pakistan, is beginning a therapeutic course of rifampin for her newly activated tuberculosis. Her nurse would include which of the following in her patient teaching of possible adverse effects? Select all that apply. A) GI upset B) Dry skin C) Harmless discoloration of urine, test, and other body fluids D) Optic neuritis

A) GI upset C) Harmless discoloration of urine, test, and other body fluids

A nurse is providing care for a patient who is being treated with a penicillin. The nurse should be aware that penicillins are most effective when used on what type of microorganisms? A) Gram-positive bacteria B) Gram-negative viruses C) Fungal infections D) Gram-negative bacteria

A) Gram-positive bacteria

A patient has been admitted to the emergency department after overdosing on oxycodone. What nursing diagnosis should the nurse prioritize. A) Impaired gas exchange B) Ineffective airway clearance C) Impaired swallowing D) Ineffective role performance

A) Impaired gas exchange

A nurse is preparing to administer a patient's scheduled dose of gentamicin. The nurse should be aware that the adverse effects of this drug are associated with increased concentrations in what part of the body? A) Inner ear B) Meninges C) Lymph nodes D) Synovial capsules

A) Inner ear

A nurse is conducting a medication reconciliation of a newly admitted hospital patient and the nurse notes that the patient recently completed a course of ceftaroline (Teflaro). The nurse is justified in suspecting that this patient may have been treated for what health problem? A) MRSA infection B) Encephalitis C) Endocarditis D) Chlamydial infection

A) MRSA infection

A 77-year-old patient has been brought to the emergency department by his daughter after he developed a high fever coupled with increasing shortness of breath. The care team suspects that he has community-squired pneumonia. The nurse should anticipate the administration of what drug? A) Moxifloxacin (Avelox) B) Tobramycin C) Streptomycin D) Norfloxacin (Noroxin)

A) Moxifloxacin (Avelox)

Your patient has developed a postoperative wound infection. Cultures reveal methicillin-susceptible Staphylococcus aureus. Which of the following medications would you anticipatee being ordered for your patient? A) Nafcillin B) Penicillin G C) Ampicillin D) Vibramycin

A) Nafcillin

The second stage of the process of inflammation is known as the cellular stage. Which of the following cells participate in this effort to control tissue injury? A) Neutrophils B) Natural killer cells C) B cells D) Monocytes

A) Neutrophils

An older patient with a urinary tract infection has been prescribed ciprofloxacin. What rout of administration is most commonly used for the administration of ciprofloxacin? A) Oral B) Subcutaneous C) Intramuscular D) Intravenous

A) Oral

A patient has been prescribed oral amoxicillin. The nurse has encouraged the patient to take this medication with fluids but should caution the patient against taking it with what beverage? A) Orange juice B) Any carbonated beverage C) Green tea D) Milk

A) Orange juice

An experienced medical nurse is aware that the use of tetracycline has decreased over the past several decades. However, tetracycline is often a viable treatment option when a patient has an allergy to what antibiotics? A) Penicillins B) Aminoglycosides C) Fluoroquinolones D) Cephalosporins

A) Penicillins

A patient visits his primary care physician with pneumonia-like symptoms. The patient returned 3 weeks ago from India, where he worked with a nongovernmental organization. Which phase of tuberculosis could the nurse suspect? A) Primary infection B) Latent tuberculosis infection C) Active tuberculosis D) Transmission

A) Primary infection

Naproxen has been prescribed to a patient whose increasingly severe migraines are interfering with his work performance and family life. When providing health education to this patient, the nurse would instruct the patient to do which of the following? A) Take the pills with meals to minimize stomach upset. B) Crush the pills and mix with applesauce to reduce gastritis. C) Report any new onset or constipation promptly. D) Arrange for monthly blood work.

A) Take the pills with meals to minimize stomach upset.

Your patient has been diagnosed with syphilis. He states that he is allergic to penicillin. You would anticipate which of the following drugs being prescribed for his treatment? A) Tetracycline B) Bactrim C) Pyridium D) Amoxicillin

A) Tetracycline

The nurse is providing health education to a patient who has just been prescribed eczopiclone (Luniest). What should the nurse teach this patient? A) The importance of taking the drug immediately before going to bed. B) The need to supplement the medication with a benzodiazepine. C) The importance of taking the drug with food. D) The need to have mostly blood work drawn during treatment.

A) The importance of taking the drug immediately before going to bed.

A hospital patient has an order for clindamycin 500 mg IV t.i.d. Over how much time should the nurse infuse one of the patients doses of clindamycin? A) The nurse should administer the drug over 10 to 20 minutes. B) The nurse should administer the drug as a bolus. C) The nurse should administer the drug over 5 to 10 minutes. D) The nurse should administer the drug over at least 1 hours.

A) The nurse should administer the drug over 10 to 20 minutes.

When planning abortive therapy for a patient who has migraines, what goal should the nurse prioritize? A) The patient will obtain rapid relief of migraine symptoms. B) The patient will identify factors that contribute to migraines. C) The patient will remain free of migraines. D) The patient will take medications at the same time daily.

A) The patient will obtain rapid relief of migraine symptoms.

Why is carbidopa always in conjunction with levodopa? A) To reduce the necessary dose of levodopa B) To reduce anticholinergic effects C) To prevent cholinergic crisis D) To reduce the likelihood of extrapyramidal effect

A) To reduce the necessary dose of levodopa

You are speaking to a group of patients in a public meeting. They ask you to explain the difference between community-aquired infections and nosocomial infections. Which pf the following is your best response? A) Usually, community-aquired infections are less severe and easier to treat. Nosocomial infections may be more severe and difficult to manage because they often result from drug-resistant microorganisms and occur in people whose immunity is impaired. B) Usually, nosocomial infections are less severe and easier to treat. Community-acquired infections may be more severe and difficult to manage because they often result from drug-resistant microorganisms and occur in people whose immunity is impaired. C) There is no epidemiological difference between the infection types; they are simply categorized as community-aquired or nosocomial. D) Only drug-resistant strains of staphylococci, Pseudomonas, and Proteus are categorized as nosocomial infections.

A) Usually, community-aquired infections are less severe and easier to treat. Nosocomial infections may be more severe and difficult to manage because they often result from drug-resistant microorganisms and occur in people whose immunity is impaired.

A middle-aged woman has been diagnosed with depression and has begun treatment. Major depression is characterized by A) an impaired ability to function in activities and relationships. B) a quantifiable deficiency of epinephrine C) negative thoughts that are unresponsive to reason D) a diagnosable lack of self-efficacy and self-advocacy

A) an impaired ability to function in activities and relationships.

Your patient has difficulty swallowing and requests you to crush all her medications. You not e that she has been prescribed an extended release opioid. You would contact the health care provider because A) chewing or crushing may precipitate an overdose. B) the medication can permanently stain teeth. C) the medication can be very irritating to mucous membranes. D) the medication cannot be absorbed.

A) chewing or crushing may precipitate an overdose.

The prototype for benzodiazepine is A) diazepam B) clonazepam C) lorazepam D) alprazolam

A) diazepam

While preparing your patient for an eye examination, you explain that the eye drops, an ophthalmic anticholinergic preparation, will cause the pupil to A) dilate. B) constrict. C) become temporarily fixed. D) respond briskly

A) dilate.

Common side effects of anticholinergics include A) dry mouth, urinary retention, constipation, and increased pules rate. B) decreased GI absorption, nausea, heartburn, and hypotension. C) blurred vision, decreased liver enzymes, increased BP, and papillary constriction. D) skin rashes, decreased urinary output, constipation, and increased WBCs.

A) dry mouth, urinary retention, constipation, and increased pules rate.

The nurse should understand that older patients taking anticholinergic drugs are more likely to have all of the following symptoms EXCEPT A) hypertension. B) constipation. C) confusion. D) blurred vision.

A) hypertension.

Opioid analgesics relieve moderate-to-severe pain by A) inhibiting the transmission of pain signals from peripheral tissues to the brain. B) preventing the opioid from binding with the receptor site. C) inhabiting the transmission of pain signals from the hypothalamus to the spinal cord. D) increasing the production of endorphins in the brain.

A) inhibiting the transmission of pain signals from peripheral tissues to the brain.

A major concern among public health authorities is an increase in drug-resistant TB infections. Traditionally, this has been attributed to patient lack of adherence to medication regimen. New evidence indicated that A) many drug-resistant infections are new infections, especially in those who are immunosuppressed. B) all TB infections are now drug resistant. C) new cases of drug-resistant infections are decreasing. D) client adherence is the only cause of drug-resistant TB infections.

A) many drug-resistant infections are new infections, especially in those who are immunosuppressed.

Pain may be classified according to A) origin, duration, or cause. B) age, gender, or cause. C) location, intensity, and medical history. D) region, treat ability, and duration.

A) origin, duration, or cause.

Chlorpromazine hydrochloride (Thorazine) has been ordered for a patient whose migraines are significantly reducing her quality of life. The nurse should teach the patient that this medication is likely to A) reduce the light-sensitivity that the patient experiences during migraines. B) allow her to continue her normal routines while experiencing a migraine. C) prevent migraines. D) help her recover from migraines more quickly.

A) reduce the light-sensitivity that the patient experiences during migraines.

Three major features of Parkinson's include A) rigidity, bradykinesia, and tremors. B) urinary retention, stooped posture, and constipation. C) slow gait, worsening eyesight, and slowed thought process. D) masked facies, bradycardia, and hypertension.

A) rigidity, bradykinesia, and tremors.

Your patient tells you that he has decided to stop taking his lorazepam because he is not sure if it is working. He has been on high-dose therapy for 6 months. You inform him A) that the drug should be tapered gradually to prevent severe symptoms of withdrawal. B) that it will take 2 weeks for the drug to leave his system. C) that only patients who have taken the medication for over 1 year need to gradually reduce their doses. D) he should never stop taking this drug.

A) that the drug should be tapered gradually to prevent severe symptoms of withdrawal.

A patient is admitted to hospice with the diagnosis of XDR-TB. Knowing some of the contributing factors to this disease, the nurse understands this disease is a major indication of A) the failure to adequately diagnose, prevent, and treat MDR-TB. B) the failure to adequately treat immunosuppressive diseases. C) the failure of the health system to do its job. D) the failure to contact health authorities with diagnosis.

A) the failure to adequately diagnose, prevent, and treat MDR-TB.

Although the number and virulence of microorganisms help determine whether a person acquires an infection, another major factor is A) the host's ability to defend against the would-be invaders. B) the number of effective drugs available for serious or antibiotic-resistant infections. C) infections that tend to recur and involve simple organisms. D) continuous antimicrobial treatment of infections

A) the host's ability to defend against the would-be invaders.

MAO inhibitors are rarely used in clinical practice today, mainly because A) they may cause dangerous interactions with some foods and drugs. B) they can cause GI bleeding and esophageal varies. C) they are ineffective in treating depression or anxiety disorders. D) they are under a scheduled drug classification

A) they may cause dangerous interactions with some foods and drugs.

Define: ANTI-INFECTIVE:

Agent or substance with antibacterial, antiviral or anti fungal properties.

Define: BACTERIOSTATIC

Agent that INHIBITS BACTERIAL GROWTH and replication.

Define: BACTERICIDAL:

Agent that KILLS bacteria

Define: ANAPHYLAXIS

An allergic reaction to an antigen, or foreign substance, that has entered the body.

A sputum sample of a post surgical patient with coarse crackers audible in his lungs has been sent for culture and sensitivity testing. What is the primary question the doctor hopes to answer with the results from this test? A) "Is this patient's infection spreading?" B) "What drug will best kill this microorganism?" C) "What is the exact identity of this microorganism?" D) "What is the origin of this patient's infection?"

B) "What drug will best kill this microorganism?"

A patient has a long history of chronic pain and has been using a variety of opioids for several years. Most recently, the patina has been experiencing some success in controlling her pain with pentazocine. Her most recent hospital admission, however, has necessitated treatment with NSAIDs. Which of the following assessment findings should cause the nurse to suspect that the patient is experiencing withdrawal from pentazocine? A) Heart palpitations and shortness of breath B) Anxiety and tremors C) Decreased level of consciousness D) Kussmaul breathing and pulmonary edema

B) Anxiety and tremors

A patient with cellulitis has responded poorly to more conventional antibiotics and the use of linezolid (Zyvox) is being considered. What screening question is imperative before administering linezolid to a patient? A) "Do you suffer from heartburn or acid reflux?" B) "Are you taking any drugs for depression right now?" C) "Have you ever had your bone density tested?" D) "Do you take iron supplements on a regular basis?"

B) "Are you taking any drugs for depression right now?" (SSRIs)

Your patient is 84 years old. She has been diagnosed with a UTI. As a part of her discharge instructions, you would include which of the following instructions? A) "Because you are taking tetracycline, you will need to brush your teeth twice a day to prevent discoloration." B) "Because you are taking tetracycline, you will need to increase your fluids to 2 L or more per day to prevent renal crystals. C) "Because you are taking tetracycline, you will need to return in 5 days for a urine test to check kidney function." D) "Because you are taking tetracycline, you will need to temporarily withhold your other medications."

B) "Because you are taking tetracycline, you will need to increase your fluids to 2 L or more per day to prevent renal crystals.

Your 85-year-old patient has been diagnosed with a drug-resistant urinary tract infection. She has been started on a regimen of ahminoglycosides. She expresses concern about adverse reactions she has read about, including nephrotoxicity. When providing patient education about the medication, you would include which of the following statements? A) "Patients are at a lower risk for complications when high doses are given for prolonged periods." B) "If nephrotoxicity occurs, it is usually reversible if the drug is stopped." C) "Kidney function tests will reveal any decrease in function before damage occurs." D) "The drug is given for no longer than 30 days unless necessary for the treatment of certain infections."

B) "If nephrotoxicity occurs, it is usually reversible if the drug is stopped."

Your patient receives IV vancomycin every 12 hours. You know that this infusion should run over A) 3 to 4 hours B) 1 to 2 hours C) 2 to 4 hours D) 30 minutes

B) 1 to 2 hours -- to avoid "red man" syndrome.

A clinic patient is being followed for treatment of migraines, and his care provider has prescribed oral sumatriptan (Imitrex). The nurse has taught the patient how to self-administer this medication in the home setting and should teach the patient to expect symptom relief how soon after taking the drug? A) 45 to 60 minutes B) 60 - 90 minutes C) 5 to 10 minutes D) 15 to 30 minutes

B) 60 - 90 minutes

Which of the following patients is likely most susceptible to the development of an opportunistic infection? A) A 70-year-old man who is being treated for ischemic heart disease. B) A young man who is being treated for electrical burns to his lower body. C) A woman who has just given birth to a healthy infant by vaginal delivery. D) A 51-year-old woman who has been admitted for exacerbation of her symptoms of multiple sclerosis.

B) A young man who is being treated for electrical burns to his lower body.

Which of the following drugs carries the lowest risk of bleeding? A) Toradol and Naproxen B) Acetaminophen and the COX-2 inhibitors C) Aspirin and Toreador D) Acetaminophen and Toradol

B) Acetaminophen and the COX-2 inhibitors

An adult male patient will soon begin a program of INH after being diagnosed with active TB. When providing health education to this patient, the nurse should emphasize the need to avoid which of the following? A) Foods containing purines B) Alcohol C) Direct sunlight D) Unpasteurized dairy products.

B) Alcohol

Your patient informs you that he has been struggling with depression; however, he does not know if it is severe enough to start on medication. Which of the following would be your best response? A) If he continues to feel depressed, and the depression has been present for more than 6 months, medication may be indicated. B) Antidepressant therapy may be indicated if depressive symptoms impair social relationships or work performance, and occur independently of life events. C) Depression is best treated naturally with rest, exercise, and nutritional supplements. D) Antidepressants medications should not be used unless he cannot function without them

B) Antidepressant therapy may be indicated if depressive symptoms impair social relationships or work performance, and occur independently of life events.

Your newest admission presents with persistent cough, weight loss, anorexia, and night sweats. What would you, as the nurse, expect for the physician to order? Select all that apply. A) Endoscopy B) Skin test C) Urinalysis culture and sensitivity D) Chest radiograph

B) Skin test D) Chest radiograph

A patient's most recent medication administration record (MAR) specifies that the patient is to receive a dose of meloxicam. The nurse is aware that this patient is dos likely being treated for what health problem? A) Migraine B) Arthritis C) A chronic wound D) Fever

B) Arthritis

A patient has begun treatment with an oral penicillin. Which of the following schedules is most likely to achieve a therapeutic effect? A) As close to meal times as possible. B) At regular intervals, around the clock. C) Hourly D) Whenever symptoms are exacerbated.

B) At regular intervals, around the clock.

Your patient has a deep wound that id draining large amounts of purulent material. You know that which of the following antibiotics would be contraindicated in this patient's care? A) Vibramycin B) Bactrim C) Tetracycline D) Penicillin

B) Bactrim

An adult patient developed diarrhea shortly after returning from an all-inclusive tropical resort and was started on rifaximin (Xifaxan). He has now contacted the clinic stating that there is frank blood in his stool. The nurse should recognize the need for which of the following? A) Changing to a parenteral administration of rifaximin (Xifaxan) B) Changing to a different antibiotic. C) Increasing the dose of rifaximin (Xifaxan) D) Supplementing the antibiotic with vitamin K

B) Changing to a different antibiotic.

A patient has been diagnosed with drug-resistant E. coli. Primaxin has been ordered to be given IM. When preparing the medication for administration, what information is important to obtain from the patient? A) Check to see if the patient is taking a beta-adrenergic blocker. B) Check to see if the patient has an atrioventricular block. C) Check to see if the patient has allergies to amoxicillin. D) Check to see if the patient has allergies to sulfa drugs.

B) Check to see if the patient has an atrioventricular block.

Your patient is diagnosed with gout and will begin treatment with colchicine. As part of his medication education, you would inform the patient of which of the following? A) Colchicine is not approved for this disorder. B) Colchicine may cause adverse effects to the GI system. C) Colchicine is used to prevent or treat hyperuricemia but does little to relieve an acute attack. D) Colchicine should be taken daily for at least a month to reduce symptoms.

B) Colchicine may cause adverse effects to the GI system.

During a care conference, the care team is discussing the possible use of tetracycline in the treatment of an older patient's infection. When reviewing the patient's most recent laboratory values, which finding may contraindicate the use of tetracycline? A) Leukocyte count of 11.6/mm3 (high) B) Creatinine of 2.8 mg/dL (high) C) Potassium of 3.4 mEq/L (low) D) Hemoglobin of 10.5 g/dL (low)

B) Creatinine of 2.8 mg/dL (high)

Your patient is complaining of sever abdominal pain. She has been diagnosed with irritable bowel syndrome. You would anticipate an order of which of the following drugs to relieve the bowel spasms? A) Darifenacin or solifenacin B) Dicyclomine or glycopyrrolate C) Ipatropium or tiotropium D) Trihexyphenidyl or benztropine

B) Dicyclomine or glycopyrrolate

An elderly patient with recurrent tension headaches states that he has been talking an OTC combination of acetaminophen, aspirin, and caffeine several times a week. The nurse should recognize that this combination medication may be contraindicated if the patient has a history of A) peripheral vascular disease. B) GI bleeding. C) psoriasis or contact dermatitis D) coronary artery disease.

B) GI bleeding.

A patient has been taking Prozac for several months with no appreciable improvement in her mood. As a result, the care team has chosen to discontinue the SSRI. How can antidepressant discontinuation syndrome be avoided? A) Administer a MAO inhibitor concurrently for 2 to 3 weeks. B) Gradually reduce the dose of Prozac over a period of 6 to 8 weeks. C) Stop the SSRI abruptly and begin aggressive cognitive behavioral therapy. D) Begin electroconvulsive therapy 2 to 3 weeks before stopping Prozac.

B) Gradually reduce the dose of Prozac over a period of 6 to 8 weeks.

A middle-aged woman's migraines have become sufficiently severe and frequent that she has been admitted for inpatient treatment. The nurse had administered a dose of ergotamine in response to the patient's claim of an aura. What assessments should the nurse prioritize after the administration of this drug? Select all that apply. A) Respiratory rate B) Heart rate C) Blood pressure D) Oxygen saturation level E) Temperature

B) Heart rate C) Blood pressure

When teaching a patient about common adverse effects of NASIDs, the nurse would include which of the following? A) Dizziness B) Heartburn C) Rapid heart rate D) Nausea and vomiting

B) Heartburn

Your patient informs you that he has begun taking high doses of kava on a daily basis to help with insomnia. Patient education about this herbal supplement would include which of the following? A) Informing the patient that herbal supplements are generally safer to use than drugs. B) Informing the patient that the FDA warned that kava may cause sever liver toxicity C) That Kava is a hormone produced in the pineal gland and related to serotonin D) That kava use can cause increasing hyperactivity, excessive talking, and nervousness.

B) Informing the patient that the FDA warned that kava may cause sever liver toxicity

A critically ill patient has recently completed a course of treatment with a cephalosporin and the nurse is aware of the need to observe the patient for the development of a superinfection. A superinfection typically results from which of the following? A) A latent period in the course of the patients infection. B) Proliferation of microorganisms that were resistant to the antibiotic. C) Unforeseen interactions with the patients other medications. D) Bone marrow suppression as a result of antibiotic treatment.

B) Proliferation of microorganisms that were resistant to the antibiotic.

You are caring for a patient with end-stage cancer. He has been told that he is being given a drug that has no ceiling effect. Which of the following statements best describes the characteristic of this drug? A) It is a drug that has a special caution because use of this drug is more likely to have adverse effects. B) It is a valuable drug to use because his drug dosage can be increased to relive pain when his pain increases or tolerance drops. C) It is a drug that reduces the likelihood of drug abuse and dependance. D) It is a drug that no longer has a patent and can be sold by its generic name.

B) It is a valuable drug to use because his drug dosage can be increased to relive pain when his pain increases or tolerance drops.

Your patient is complaining of severe pain and requires IV analgesia. Which of the following drugs could be ordered for your patient? A) Acetaminophen (Tylenol) B) Ketorolac (Toradol) C) Naproxen (Aleve) D) Aspirin

B) Ketorolac (Toradol)

A patient whose Parkinson's disease is being treated with tolcapone should concurrently take what drug? A) Ipatropium (Atrovent) B) Levodopa/carbidopa C) Atropine D) Benztropine

B) Levodopa/carbidopa

Your patient developed a pressure area on her hip, which has become infected. If the wound culture reveals vancomycin-resistant staph, which of the following medications will you expect to be ordered? A) Chloramphenicol (Chloromycetin) B) Linezolid C) Bactrim D) Clindamycin

B) Linezolid

A patient sought care from his primary care provider complaining of severe flu-like symptoms shortly after his return from a backpacking vacation in Southeast Asia. He was subsequently diagnosed with active tuberculosis and began first-line treatment that included INH. During treatment, the nurse should recognize the need to provide what supplement? A) Pancreatic enzymens B) Liver enzymes C) Vitamind and calcium D) Folic acid

B) Liver enzymes

A nurse has administered a dose of ibuprofen (Motrin) to an adult patient. The nurse should be aware that this drug can be used in the treatment of which of the following? Select all that apply. A) Hyperuricemia B) Moderate pain C) Pruritus D) Fever E) Inflammation

B) Moderate pain D) Fever E) Inflammation

Your patient returns from the post anesthesia recovery unit. You note a respiratory rate of 6 breaths per minutes. Which of the following drugs would you anticipate being given immediately? A) Percogesic B) Narcan C) Epinephrine D) Stadol.

B) Narcan

After 3 weeks of drug therapy for TB, your patient is not showing reduction of symptoms. Repeated lab work shows positive cultures. As the nurse, what should you consider? Select all that apply. A) Intermittent administration B) Patient noncompliance C) Defective medication D) Drug resistance

B) Patient noncompliance D) Drug resistance

A nurse is providing health education for a patient who has recently received a diagnosis of migraines. What teaching point should the nurse convey to this patient? A) The importance of limiting psychosocial stress B) The importance of avoiding foods that may precipitate migraines. C) The need to maximize light exposure during winter months to prevent migraines. D) The role of herbal supplements in preventing migraines.

B) The importance of avoiding foods that may precipitate migraines.

Allopurinol (Zyloprim) has been prescribed for an older adult patient with numerous chronic health problems. When monitoring the efficacy of this treatment, the nurse should prioritize which of the following data? A) The patient's C-reactive protein level. B) The patient's serum uric acid levels. C) The patient's AST, ALT, and bilirubin levels. D) The patient's absolute neutrophil count.

B) The patient's serum uric acid levels.

An intravenous drug user was diagnosed with TB several weeks ago. The patient's treatment regimen will soon shift from first-line drugs to second-line ati-TB drugs. What factors may prompt such a change in treatment? Select all that apply. A) The patient has recovered from primary TB infection. B) There is resistance to the first-line drugs. C) The patient progresses from latent TB to active TB. D) Second-line drugs are fundeded by Medicaid. E) The patient is unable to tolerate first-line drugs.

B) There is resistance to the first-line drugs. E) The patient is unable to tolerate first-line drugs.

Your patient is scheduled to undergo major abdominal surgery for the treatment of colon cancer. A preoperative order for neomycin has been given. Neomycin is used preoperatively for which of the following reasons? A) To prevent postoperative wound infections. B) To suppress intestinal bacteria. C) To produce ammonia D) To enhance healthy intestinal flora

B) To suppress intestinal bacteria.

You patient developed a pressure area on her hip, which has become infected. If the wound culture reveals methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus, which of the following medications will you expect to be ordered? A) Flagyl B) Vancomycin C) Erythromycin D) Penicillin

B) Vancomycin

You are caring for a patient with Mycoplasma pneumonia. You would anticipate which of the following medications being prescribed? A) Pyridium B) Vibramycin C) Bactirm D) Penicillin

B) Vibramycin

The major difference between normal and abnormal anxiety is A) in normal anxiety, the patient complains of insomnia. B) abnormal anxiety is prolonged and impairs normal function. C) abnormal anxiety is unresponsive to treatment. D) abnormal anxiety is a brief response to situational stress.

B) abnormal anxiety is prolonged and impairs normal function.

Prostaglandins are A) chemical mediators that produce chronic, painful, inflammatory disorders that affect the synovial tissue of hinge-like joints. B) chemical mediators that participate in the inflammatory response and that are found in most tissues. C) chemical mediators released in the periphery, which prevent sensitization of pain receptors to various chemical substances released by damaged cells. D) sensitized pain receptors that participate in the inflammatory response.

B) chemical mediators that participate in the inflammatory response and that are found in most tissues.

A 22-year-old man has returned from an overseas backpacking trip and been diagnosed with malaria. As a result, he has begun treatment with sulfadiazine (Microsulfon). The nurse must encourage the patient to ensure adequate intake of A) protein. B) fluids. C) vitamin D. D) calories.

B) fluids.

Major defense mechanisms of the human body include all of the following EXCEPT A) intact skin and mucous membranes. B) increased platelet cells. C) an elevated temperature. D) an acute inflammatory process.

B) increased platelet cells.

Your patient is 23 weeks pregnant. She has just been diagnosed with a urinary tract infection. You know tat tetracycline is contraindicated for her because A) it can cause the mother to develop osteoporosis. B) it can cause a life-threatening toxicity for the fetus. C) it can cause the mother's teeth to be discolored. D) it can cause oligohydramnios.

B) it can cause a life-threatening toxicity for the fetus.

The main consideration for a patient with chronic cancer pain requiring opioids is A) reducing medications. B) patient comfort. C) discontinuing opioids as soon as possible. D) preventing drug addiction.

B) patient comfort.

Patients at increased risk for adverse reactions to either aminoglycosides or fluoroquinolones include all of the following EXCEPT A) neonates B) patients with anemia C) patients with renal disease D) elderly patients

B) patients with anemia

Amino glycosides are contraindicated for all of the following patients EXCEPT A) patients with acute renal failure. B) patients with drug-resistant TB. C) patients with myasthenia gravis. D) patients with multiple sclerosis.

B) patients with drug-resistant TB.

A black box warning alert health care providers to risks in young adults 18 to 24 years of age when taking antidepressant medications. Symptoms of concern that relate to this black box warning would include A) paranoia, rapid speech, and difficulty with concentration. B) statements of resignation and futility and a desire to die. C) complaints of headaches, sleepiness, and apathy D) alternating periods of hypomania and depression

B) statements of resignation and futility and a desire to die.

General characteristics of antidepressants include all of the following EXCPET A) all may be effective in relieving depression, but they differ in adverse effects. B) they are metabolized by the cytochrome P450 enzymes in the kidney. C) administration is by the oral route. D) all must be taken for 10 days to 2 weeks before depressive symptoms improve.

B) they are metabolized by the cytochrome P450 enzymes in the kidney.

Your patient has just been prescribed sulfasalazine (Azulfidine). It is likely that this patient has a diagnosis of A) urosepsis. B) ulcerative colitis. C) endocarditis. D) cellulitis.

B) ulcerative colitis.

An adult patient is being treated with Bactrim for recurrent urinary tract infections (UTIs). When teaching this patient about the potential adverse effects, what instruction should the nurse provide? A) "Some people find this drug makes them feel a bit flushed and sweaty." B) "You might have a few slight heart palpitations over the next few hours, but those aren't a cause for worry." C) "This drug might make your stomach a bit upset, so let me know if you experience that." D) "You might experience a dry cough when you're taking this drug."

C) "This drug might make your stomach a bit upset, so let me know if you experience that."

Ergotamine has been ordered in the treatment of a patient who has been experiencing migraines. When teaching this patient about the safe and effective use of this drug in the home setting, what should the nurse teach the patient? A) "This drug may give your urine an orange tint, but this is normal." B) "It's best to take this medication with meals so your stomach doesn't get upset." C) "When you take the pill, place it under your tongue and then let it dissolve." D) "Take this medication at the same time every day to maximize it's effectiveness."

C) "When you take the pill, place it under your tongue and then let it dissolve."

Your patient is taking Indocin for arthritis. You know that as a COX-1 inhibitor, this drug inhibits prostaglandins associated with which of the following? A) Kidneys and female reproductive system. B) Liver and kidneys. C) All tissues and cell types. D) Smooth and cardiac muscle

C) All tissues and cell types.

A patient has been diagnosed with major depression and was prescribed fluoxetine 1 week ago. The patient has now presented for a scheduled follow-up appointment, his first since starting treatment. What assessment should the nurse prioritize? A) Assessing the patient's ability to concentrate and derive pleasure from daily activities. B) Assessing the patient for type IV hypersensitivity reaction C) Assessing the patient for suicidal ideation D) Assessing the patient's cardiac rate and rhythm.

C) Assessing the patient for suicidal ideation

Which of the following medications is the antidote for poisoning by insecticides containing organophosphates? A) Benztropine B) Darifenacin C) Atropine D) Solifenacon

C) Atropine

An 80-year-old woman is receiving intravenous ciprofloxacin for the treatment of a urinary tact infection. What nursing assessment should the nurse prioritize in order to identify potential adverse effects of ciprofloxacin in an older patient? A) Oxygen saturation monitoring B) Neurovital signs C) Blood glucose monitoring D) Daily weights

C) Blood glucose monitoring

A patient is being prepared for surgery and his health care provider has indicated that he will order antibiotics as prophylaxis. Which of the following medications would the nurse anticipate being ordered? A) Amoxicillin B) Penicillin G C) Cefazolin D) Vibramycin

C) Cefazolin

Your patient is a 2-year-old child diagnosed with meningococcal meningitis. You know that which of the following medications cannot be used for this disease because it does not reach therapeutic concentrations in the central nervous system? A) Penicillin B) Vancomycin C) Clindamycin D) Metronidazole (Flagyl)

C) Clindamycin

Your patient has been diagnosed with intermittent colitis. What antibiotic is contraindicated for use in this patient? A) Doxycycline B) Telithromycin (Ketek) C) Clindamycin D) Erythromycin

C) Clindamycin SEVERE COLITIS can be caused (or exacerbated) by Clindamycin.

A man is being treated for cellulitis on an inpatient basis with a cephalosporin. He tells the nurse that he was reading on a Web site about the different generations of cephalosporins and asks what the essential difference is between generations. The nurse should respond to the patient's question on the basis of what fact? A) The generations of cephalosporins represent the decade during which they were developed. B) The generations represent the order in which the drugs should be utilized clinically. C) Each successive generation is more effective against gram-negative microorganisms. D) Each generation of cephalosporins has a different mechanism of action.

C) Each successive generation is more effective against gram-negative microorganisms.

Tuberculosis is a leading killer among people who have a concurrent diagnosis of A) connective tissue disease B) Hodgkin disease C) HIV D) leukemia or lymphoma

C) HIV

A patient who was diagnosed with latent tuberculosis began treatment with INH and has likely been consistently adhering to the prescribed drug schedule. What adverse effect would most likely necessitate discontinuing treatment with INH? A) Alopecia B) Persisten nausea C) Jaundice D) Pruritis

C) Jaundice

A patient is discussing his current antibiotic therapy with the nurse and expresses the belief that his drug regimen will eradicate all bacteria from his body. The nurse should teach the patient which of the following? A) Bacteria will not be eradicated from his body until 48 to 72 hours after the completion of antibiotic therapy. B) The healthy human body hosts dozens of minor infections at any given time. C) Maintenance of normal bacterial flora is essential to health. D) An aseptic internal environment only exists in young adults.

C) Maintenance of normal bacterial flora is essential to health.

A patient is suspected of having an infection and antibiotic therapy is being considered. Which intervention is necessary to perform prior to initiating therapy? A) Increase fluid intake. B) Monitor for adverses effects. C) Obtain a specimen for culture and sensitivity. D) Administer an antidiarrheal to prevent GI upset.

C) Obtain a specimen for culture and sensitivity.

Which of the following statements most accurately described an aspect of REM sleep? A) Patients with decreased REM sleep cycles are clinically depressed. B) There is no benefit to REM sleep cycles. C) REM deprivation can lead to serious psychological problems. D) Older patients have increased periods of REM sleep cycles.

C) REM deprivation can lead to serious psychological problems.

You are assessing a patient brought into the emergency department following an overdose of morphine. The nurse should prioritize assessment of what vital sign. A) Temperature B) Blood pressure C) Respiratory rate D) Heart rate

C) Respiratory rate

A nurse is providing health education for a patient who is seeking a prescription for a benzodiazepine. The nurse should cite which of the following significant adverse effects of benzodiazepines? A) Risk of personality changes B) Risk of persistent insomnia C) Risk of dependance D) Risk of suicide

C) Risk of dependance

Opioid analgesics are second-line drugs for the treatment of moderate to severe pain. They include which of the following drugs? A) Narcan and methadone B) Nubain and methadone C) Stadol and Nubian D) Stadol and Narcan

C) Stadol and Nubian

An older adult patient who had rheumatic fever when she was young is scheduled to have her teeth removed in order to be fitted for dentures. The patient states that she had a "bad reaction" the last time she received penicillin. Prior to this dental procedure, the patient is likely to be treated with A) vancomycin B) clindamycin C) erythromycin D) metronidazole

C) erythromycin

An adult patient with a diagnosis of liver cirrhosis has developed an infected pressure ulcer. Culture and sensitivity testing indicates that ampicillin would be an appropriate treatment. How will this patient's liver function affect the potential use of ampicillin? A) The patient should be treated with approximately half of the normal dose of ampicillin. B) The patient should receive a cephalosporin rather than ampicillin. C) The patient can safely be treated with ampicillin. D) The patient must receive small, frequent doses of ampicillin to reduce the chance of hepatotoxicity.

C) The patient can safely be treated with ampicillin.

A nurse is performing a morning assessment of a patient sho is being treated with erythromycin. Which of the following assessment findings may be adverse effects of erythromycin? A) The patient slept poorly due to a dry cough. B) The patient's systolic blood pressure is approximately 20 mmHg below his norm. C) The patient is uncharacteristically euphoric. D) The patient was incontinent of urine during the night.

C) The patient is uncharacteristically euphoric.

An adult patient with a history of migraines has been prescribed propranolol (Inderal). The nurse should identify what gold of therapy when planning this patient's care? A) The patient will be able to perform activities of daily living during migraines. B) The patient's migraines will be shorter in duration than prior to treatment. C) The patient will experience significantly fewer migraines. D) The patient's migraines will be lower in intensity than prior to treatment.

C) The patient will experience significantly fewer migraines.

Your patient asks about the difference between viruses and bacterial infection. When explaining viruses, you should explain which of the following? A) Viral infections are not serious, with a typical duration of less than 24 hours and a self-limiting nature. B) Viruses and bacterial infections are treated alike. C) Viruses are classified by their structure but are often described by symptoms they produce. D) Viruses have their origin in an inflammatory process that has resulted in cellular mutation.

C) Viruses are classified by their structure but are often described by symptoms they produce.

The first symptom of Parkinson's is often A) the inability to stand erect or to rise easily from a seated position. B) frequent falls and signs of dementia. C) a resting tremor that begins in one hand, involving the fingers and thumb of one hand. D) the inability to control head movement and inability to support the head.

C) a resting tremor that begins in one hand, involving the fingers and thumb of one hand.

While providing patient teaching relative to inflammatory disorders, you would explain the presence of inflammation as A) a normal response to infection or trauma, which results in necrotic tissue formation. B) the initial stage of infection, requiring antibiotic medication for resolution. C) an attempt by the body to remove the damaging agent and repair the damaged tissue. D) a typical response to bacterial infection.

C) an attempt by the body to remove the damaging agent and repair the damaged tissue.

OTC medications that patients often take for treatment of insomnia include A) NSAIDs. B) salicylates. C) antihistamines. D) antitussives.

C) antihistamines.

On your medical trip to Africa with the United Nations, you tour a tuberculosis clinic where the incidence of MDR-TB is at epidemic levels. A factor contributing to the development of MDR-TB is A) lack of sanitation. B) a cure rate of 90%. C) delayed determination of drug susceptibility. D) Third World quality medications.

C) delayed determination of drug susceptibility.

Following an extensive diagnostic workup, a young adult has been diagnosed with bipolar disorder type II. This health problem is characterized by A) episodes of major depression plus mania and it occurs equally in men and women. B) a severe depression accompanied by a serious physical illness. C) episodes of major depression plus hypomania episodes and it occurs more frequently in women. D) a major depressive episode occurring after the birth of a child.

C) episodes of major depression plus hypomania episodes and it occurs more frequently in women.

Your patient is being discharged following an allergic reaction after ingesting aspirin. When conducting patient education about his allergy, you would inform him that A) he should not take regular aspirin, but he can take buffered aspirin. B) he can take medications containing aspirin, as long as it is on a full stomach. C) he should not take non aspirin NSAIDs. D) he can take NSAIDs, as long as it is with food.

C) he should not take non aspirin NSAIDs.

A young adult patient with bipolar disorder has been taking lithium for several years, achieving satisfactory symptom control. Over the past several weeks, however, the patient has been taking his medication erratically. The nurse should consequently expect to assess the patient for A) tremors and weakness. B) memory lapses and acute confusion. C) manic behavior and mood swings. D) suicidal ideation

C) manic behavior and mood swings.

A patient who has been living with depression for several months is uncertain why his care provider discontinued his SSRI and prescribed venlafaxine. The nurse should explain that this drug increases the patient's A) ability to cope with depressive symptoms. B) adherence to prescribed treatment. C) norepinephrine levels. D) dopamine and cortisol levels.

C) norepinephrine levels.

Your patient has been prescribed gentamicin (Garamycin) for the treatment of osteomyelitis. The efficacy of this drug can be maximized by administering it A) with IV calcium gluconate B) between meals C) one time daily D) as a constant infusion

C) one time daily

Successful treatment with bacteriostatic antibiotics depends upon A) stopping drug therapy promptly when the patient's symptoms have begun to subside. B) using broad-spectrum antibacterial drugs to treat acute viral infections. C) the ability of the host's immune system to eliminate the inhibited bacteria and an adequate duration of drug therapy. D) using the maximum antibiotic dose that the patient can tolerate.

C) the ability of the host's immune system to eliminate the inhibited bacteria and an adequate duration of drug therapy.

As a nurse, you understand the main primary drugs used to treat latent, active, and drug-resistant TB infection include isoniazid, rifampin, and pyrazinamide. Isoniazid's mechanism of action is A) unknown B) to inhibit synthesis of RNA C) to inhibit cell wall formation. D) to inhibit synthesis of DNA.

C) to inhibit cell wall formation.

In chronic pain patients, opioids are the most effective A) when administered topically. B) when given as soon as the patient requests medication. C) when given on a regular schedule, around the clock. D) when given IM as soon as the patient expresses discomfort.

C) when given on a regular schedule, around the clock.

A patient is scheduled for surgery and has prophylactic antibiotics ordered to be given IVPB. You know that to maximize the prevention of infection, the drug should be given A) within 2 hours of surgery being completed. B) the night before surgery. C) within 1 hour before the first skin incision is being made. D) immediatly after the first incision is made.

C) within 1 hour before the first skin incision is being made.

Organisms that are resistant to the most effective drugs available are referred to as multidrug-resistanttuberculosis (MDR-TB). Due to the seriousness of this type of infection, what is the expected time span from diagnosis to death? A) 6 to 9 months B) 3 to 6 months C) 18 to 30 weeks D) 4 to 16 weeks

D) 4 to 16 weeks

A patient has been prescribed naproxen for the treatment of migraines. The nurse who will administer the medication is aware of the black box warning that accompanies this drug, and will consequently prioritize what assessment? A) Assessing the character and quantity of urine output B) Assessing for signs and symptoms of liver failure C) Assessment of deep tendon reflexes D) Assessment of heart rate and rhythm

D) Assessment of heart rate and rhythm

A patient has been diagnosed with an infected postoperative wound and cultures reveal MRSA. The patient is currently receiving an intravenous cephalosporin because in vitro testing indicates susceptibility. How should the nurse best respond? A) Monitor the patient closely for signs of hepatotoxicity. B) Contact the health care provider as medication should be changed to the oral route. C) Contact the health care provider as medication should be changed. D) Contat the health care provider as the cephalosporin is not clinically effective.

D) Contat the health care provider as the cephalosporin is not clinically effective.

Your patient has been diagnosed with Chlamydia. She is allergic to penicillin. Which of the following medications would you expect to be ordered for this patient.? A) Bactrim B) Doxycycline C) Tetracycline D) Erythromycin

D) Erythromycin

A 30-year-old patient experiences migraines that she has identified as being closely linked to her menstrual cycle. What pharmacologic treatment is most specific to this patient's particular experience of migraines? A) Chlorpromazine B) Almotriptan C) Ergotamine D) Estradiol

D) Estradiol

A nurse administered a PRN dose of aluminum hydroxide with magnesium hydroxide (Maalox) to a patient at 7:30. The patient has a scheduled dose of oral tetracycline due at 8:00. What should the nurse do? A) Skip the 0800 dose of tetracycline and resume treatment with the next scheduled dose. B) Administer the tetracycline as ordered. C) Contact the care provider to obtain an order for an alternative antibiotic. D) Hold the tetracycline until 9:30.

D) Hold the tetracycline until 9:30.

An 81-year-old woman with rheumatoid arthritis has been prompted by a friend to ask her care provider about the possible use of indomethacin to relieve her worsening symptoms. What principal should guide the possible use of indomethacin in this patient? A) This patient should receive IV, rather than oral, administration of indomethacin. B) The patient must be cautioned against taking the drug on an empty stomach. C) Indomethacin is among the preferred NSAIDs for this patient. D) Indomethacin should be avoided in a patient of this age.

D) Indomethacin should be avoided in a patient of this age.

A 20-year-old woman has been brought to the emergency department after deliberately overdosing on acetaminophen. The care team should prioritize interventions based on the patient's risk of which of the following? A) Gastric perforation B) Acute GI bleed C) Seizures D) Liver failure

D) Liver failure

When administering gentamicin, you must be aware that which of the following drugs may increase the risk of ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity? A) Sustained serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) B) Benzodiazepines C) Proton pump inhibitors D) Loop diuretics

D) Loop diuretics

When administering ahminoglycosides, the nurse must be aware of the following adverse reactions? A) Hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia B) Glaucoma and renal failure C) Liver necrosis and skin sloughing D) Ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity

D) Ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity

A patient has been diagnosed with streptococcal pharyngitis. Which of the following would the nurse anticipate being ordered? A) Dicloxacillin B) Keflex C) Amoxicillin D) Penicillin G

D) Penicillin G

A patient has failed to improve appreciably after 4 weeks of treatment with first-line drugs and an adjuvant first-line anti tubercular drug will be added to her regimen. What drug is in this category? A) Levofloxacin B) Isoniazid (INH) C) Rifapentine (Pristine) D) Pyrazinamide

D) Pyrazinamide

Your patient tells your that she is taking an antibiotic and a pain medication for a urinary tract infection. She cannot recall the name of the pain medication. You suspect the name of her pain medication is A) Bactrim. B) penicillin. C) Vibramycin D) Pyridium.

D) Pyridium.

Opioids exert widespread pharmacologic effects, especially in the CNS and the gastrointestinal (GI) system. What are two major adverse effects of opioids that are potentially life threatening? A) Oliguria and restlessness B) Constipation and restlessness C) Hypertension and sedation D) Sedation and respiratory depression

D) Sedation and respiratory depression

A patient with a diagnosis of chronic renal failure is experiencing sever pain, and the nurse is considering the use of morphine. How will this patients renal function affect the pharmacokinetics of morphine? A) The drug will have an earlier peak B) The drug will have a decreased effect C) The drug will have earlier onset D) The drug will have a prolonged duration of action.

D) The drug will have a prolonged duration of action.

A 69-year-old man with a history of angina has been taking low-dose aspirin for several years for the drug's anti platelet effects. The man's care provider has just prescribed celecoxib (Celebrex) for the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis. How will this COX-2 inhibitor affect the man's aspirin therapy? A) The man should stop taking aspirin within 7 days of starting treatment with celecoxib. B) The man should increase his daily dosage of aspirin to 325 mg. C) The man should not take aspirin within 4 hours of celecoxib. D) The man should continue his current aspirin therapy.

D) The man should continue his current aspirin therapy.

Educational information for a patient taking lithium for bipolar disorder would prioritize which of the following? A) The need to carefully match daily doses of the drug to daily symptom severity B) The importance of taking an SSRI to potentiate the effects of lithium. C) The importance of maintaining a diet that is low in purines. D) The need for regularly scheduled blood work to monitor serum levels of lithium.

D) The need for regularly scheduled blood work to monitor serum levels of lithium.

A patient states that she was taking Ativan on a regular basis for the past few months until a few days ago. Which a the patients current signs and symptoms should cause the nurse to suspect that the patient is experiencing withdrawal? A) The patient's blood sugars have been unstable in recent days. B) The patient has been having uncharacteristic memory lapses since stopping the drug. C) The patient describes her current mood as "depressed." D) The patient has had severe insomnia for the past several nights.

D) The patient has had severe insomnia for the past several nights.

A patient who has Parkinson's disease as well as liver disease who'll not be able to safely use what drug? A) Sinemet B) Prampexole C) Entacapone D) Tolcapone

D) Tolcapone

The nurse is caring for a homebound patient who is taking trospium chloride (Sanctura). The patient likely has a history of what health problem? A) Parkinson's disease B) Bradycardia C) Irritable bowel syndrome D) Urinary urgency

D) Urinary urgency

A patient's family asks you to explain anxiety disorders. Your best response is that it is A) not recognized as a medical disorder. B) a common complaint but one that can normally be controlled by the patient if he or she so wishes. C) a beneficial emotion that forces the patient to move forward. D) a common disorder in which the patient perceives a situation as threatening to his or her well-being.

D) a common disorder in which the patient perceives a situation as threatening to his or her well-being.

When administering vancomycin IV, your patient has an order for Benadryl. You know that this is given to prevent A) an allergic reaction to vancomycin. B) pain at the IV insertion site. C) a decrease in serum levels of the drug. D) adverse reactions related to histamine release.

D) adverse reactions related to histamine release.

Your patient states that she has frequent sinus infections, for which she takes a medication for 3 days. The most likely medication she takes is A) Bactrim. B) tetracycline. C) Pyridium. D) azithromycin.

D) azithromycin.

A patient is receiving her first dose of IV ampicillin and has illuminated her call light to cal the nurse's attention to a new rash on her torso. When determining the appropriate response to this development, the nurse should recognized the need to A) stop the infusion and administer a bolus of normal saline. B) speed up the rate of infusion so that the drug is completed earlier. C) apply a topical corticosteroid to the affected region. D) differentiate a hypersensitivity reaction from a nonallergenic rash.

D) differentiate a hypersensitivity reaction from a nonallergenic rash.

Your patient is currently taking ahminoglycosides. You know that this type of medication is used in all of the following microorganisms, EXCEPT A) Pseudomonas B) Klebsiella C) gram-negative Escherichia coli. D) gram-positive cocci.

D) gram-positive cocci.

Inappropriate use of antibiotics is associated with all of the following consequences EXCEPT A) increasing potential adverse drug effects. B) increasing health care costs. C) increasing infections with drug-resistant microorganisms. D) increasing the time needed to perform culture testing.

D) increasing the time needed to perform culture testing.

Indications for combination therapy may include all of the following EXCEPT A) fever of other signs of infection in patients whose immune system is suppressed. B) nosocomial infections, which may be caused by many different organisms. C) likely emergence of drug-resistant organisms if a single drug is used. D) probable challenges with maintaining a patient's adherence to treatment.

D) probable challenges with maintaining a patient's adherence to treatment.

A sometimes fatal syndrome, characterized by hypertensive crisis, extreme agitation progressing to delirium, and coma, is know as A) antidepressant discontinuation syndrome. B) aberrant cardiac conduction syndrome. C) acute manic syndrome. D) serotonin syndrome.

D) serotonin syndrome.

Your patient was given tetracycline as a young child. You can tell this by changes in A) the structure of her face. B) her eyesight. C) her cognition. D) the color of her teeth.

D) the color of her teeth.

A patient relates that he suffers with chronic insomnia. You understand that this means A) the patient is suffering from a serious illness. B) the patient needs pharmacological assistance to go to sleep. C) the patient has periods of alternating deep and light sleep D) the patient has been suffering with insomnia for more than 1 month.

D) the patient has been suffering with insomnia for more than 1 month.

Therapeutic goals for use of anticholinergic drugs in the treatment for Parkinsonism include A) to decrease headaches and migraines. B) to improve blurred vision. C) to enhance deliberate motor movement and reduce falls. D) to decrease salivation, spasticity and tremors.

D) to decrease salivation, spasticity and tremors.

Define: ANTIBIOTIC:

Drug that has the ability to kill or inhibit bacterial growth or replication.

Define: BROAD SPECTRUM

Effective against a wide range of bacteria. (gram+ and gram-)

Define: NOSOCOMIAL

Infection acquired from microorganisms in hospitals and other health care facilities.

Define: SUPERINFECTION:

Infection after a previous infection; typically caused by microorganisms that are RESISTANT to the antibiotics used previously.

Define: CULTURE and SENSITIVITY

Laboratory tests. Culture: IDENTIFIES the microorganism Sensitivity: Identifies the SUSCEPTIBILITY of the microorganism to different antibiotics.

Define: COLONIZATION

Presence and growth of microorganisms on host tissues.