PMP All Questions

Which statement is most accurate: A. Work performance reports precedes work performance data B. Work performance data precedes work performance information C. Work performance information precedes work performance data D. Work performance reports and information are integrated into work performance data

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 211, #10 Answer: B Work performance data precedes work performance information. The data is analyzed through the monitor and control processes and the output is work performance information.

Which of the following processes is not in the executing process group? A. Acquire project team B. Perform integrated change control C. Manage project team D. Perform quality assurance

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 211, #14 Answer: B

The perform integrated change control process is in what knowledge area? A. Scope B. Quality C. Change D. Integration

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 211, #15 Answer: D

You do not have enough resources available on your project to audit invoices. What contract type do you want to use? A. FPIF B. T & M C. CPFF D. FFP

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 240, #20 Answer: C A cost-plus contract would have the most invoices to audit.

The project management office is: A. The same as the office of the CEO B. An organization that may provide project support functions C. Another term for the war room D. Only used for government projects

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 241, #21 Answer: B The PMO provides support functions to the project manager

You are mentoring a fellow project manager. He explains to you that he had a complex problem a few months ago and he took what he thought was the best course of action. However, the problem has resurfaced. What do you ask him? A. Did the project sponsor validate your course of action? B. Did you use a fishbone diagram? C. Did you confirm that your action solved the problem? D. Did you conduct a proper risk analysis?

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 243, #38 Answer: C

You are the project manager for the renovation project. The project is using a contract landscaping company. Upon auditing the cost plus fixed fee (CPFF) contract, you realize that overcharges are being made. The contract does not specify a corrective action, therefore you should: A. Add more frequent audits to the contract B. Continue to make the project payments C. Do not make any more payments until the problem is fixed D. Initiate legal action to recover the overpayments

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 244, #44 Answer: B Because the contract does not specifically address any corrective actions, you must continue to make the payments. If you did not make the payment, you would now be considered in breach of contract which could result in legal action against your organization

The decomposition of deliverables into smaller, more manageable components is complete when: A. Cost and duration estimates can be developed for each work package B. Any change requests have been evaluated C. Project benefits have been determined D. All the work elements are found in the WBS dictinoary

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 246, #52 Answer: A

When it comes to changes, the project manager's attention is best spent on: A. Making requested changes B. Preventing unnecessary changes C. Informing the stakeholders of changes D. Documenting all changes

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 249, #76 Answer: B

The performance measurement baseline: A. Typically covers the schedule, and occasionally the cost parameters of a project, but may not include technical and quality parameters B. Is the approved plan for the project work against which project execution is compared and deviations are measured for management control C. Changes frequently to accommodate current information about the project D. Is the evaluation of the team member's performance on the project

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 250, #81 Answer: B

An engineering project has a schedule performance index (SPI) of 0.72 and a cost performance index (CPI) of 0.89. Generally, what is the best explanation for this? A. A vendor went out of business and a new one had to be identified B. The scope was changed by the customer C. Additional material or equipment needed to be purchased D. A critical path activity took longer and needed more labor hours to complete

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 251, #84 Answer: D

In general a project manager's technical skills: A. Must be equal to or higher than any other team member's skills B. Must be sufficiently high to understand technical issues and explain technical decisions to others C. Should not be considered when selecting a project manager D. Are the most important criterion when selecting a project manager

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 251, #88 Answer: B The project manager's technical skills should be sufficiently high to understand technical issues and explain technical decisions to others. The project manager is also expected to leverage expert judgement from inside and outside of the team

The Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct applies to everyone but: A. All PMI Members B. Non-members who hold PMI certifications C. Non-members who apply to commence a PMI certification process D. Non-members who participate in a PMP exam prep course

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 251, #90 Answer: D

As part of the weekly project team meeting, the project manager requests that each team member describe the work they are doing and the project manager assigns new activities to the team members. Because there are many different activities to assign, the length of these meetings has continued to increase. This could be due to all of the following reasons except: A. There is no WBS B. There is no responsibility assignment matrix C. There was no resource leveling D. The team was not involved in project planning

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 252, #91 Answer: C The only thing that would not have prevented this from happening is resource leveling, which is done to reallocate or balance resources

If the project's schedule variance (SV) is ($10k) and the planned value is $80k, what is the earned value (EV) of the project? A. Unable to be calculated B. $70k C. $90k D. $80k

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 254, #104 Answer: B SV = EV - PV ($10k) = EV - $80k ($10k) + 80K = EV EV = $70k

The new project you have been assigned has limited resources. However, the project schedule and the project budget have great flexibility. What would be the best thing to do? A. Perform resource leveling B. Crash the project C. Perform quantitative analysis, such as a Monte Carlo analysis D. Escalate your concerns with the project sponsor

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 254, #107 Answer: A Resource leveling will allow the PM to maximize usage of limited resources by ensuring they are applied to the most critical activities.

A team has 20 people on it. How many potential communication channels exist on this team? A. 20 B. 19 C. 380 D. 190

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 254, #108 Answer: D Using the communication channels formula: n (n - 1) / 2 20 (20 - 1) / 2 = 190

A tool for analyzing and communicating the relationships between process steps is called: A. A scatter diagram B. A control chart C. A trend analysis D. A flow chart

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 255, #115 Answer: D

Cost of quality is used during quality assurance to: A. Determine if the cost of the product will meet budget requirements B. Persuade management to invest in quality product methods C. Assess the cost of implementing quality improvements D. Determine the most cost-effective approach when considering prevention, inspection, and repair

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 256, #116 Answer: D

You are six months into a 12-month, $350k project. By this point in your project, you had budgeted to spend $180k. You have paid $170k. What statement is most accurate? A. The project is approximately 3% ahead of schedule B. The project is approximately 3% over budget C. If there was a recurring variance, the project will spend approximately $170k on the remaining work D. The project resources will need to work more efficiently in order to complete the project within the budget allocated

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 258, #131 Answer: C Based on the information provided: the SV is ($5k); it is behind schedule. The CV is $5k; it is under budget. The TCPI is 0.97; there is more funds than work. Using the typical ETC calculation, the forecast for remaining work is $169,900. SV: schedule variance CV: cost variance TCPI: to-complete performance index ETC: estimate to complete

Your team is in the process of defining the project activities. One of the team members feels that an activity should be included however the other team member believes that the activity is not part of the project, based on the scope statement. How should you handle this as the project manager? A. Encourage the team to arrive at a consensus B. Discuss with the sponsor and seek clarification C. Make the decision based on your knowledge of the project D. Ask senior management for their perspective

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 258, #135 Answer: B Ultimately a scope question would go back to the sponsor

"500 rejected parts" is an example of: A. Attribute sampling B. Variable sampling C. Random sampling D. Stratified sampling

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 259, #137 Answer: A Attribute sampling is accept/reject or pass/fail.

Activity A has a duration of 3 days, Activity B has a duration of 6 days, Activity C has a duration of 4 days (and is dependent on both A and B completing), Activity D has a duration of 7 days, Activity E has a duration of 8 days (and both D and E are dependent on C completing), and activity F is 5 days (and is dependent on Activity E). If Activity C is delayed by three days: A. The duration of the project is 36 days B. The project is delayed by 3 days C. There is no effect on the schedule D. Activity D will now take 7 days

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 259, #140 Answer: B Because Activity C is on the critical path, a 3-day delay would delay the project by 3 days.

Activity A has a duration of 3 days, Activity B has a duration of 6 days, Activity C has a duration of 4 days (and is dependent on both A and B completing), Activity D has a duration of 7 days, Activity E has a duration of 8 days (and both D and E are dependent on C completing), and activity F is 5 days (and is dependent on Activity E). What is the total duration? A. Unable to determine B. 23 days C. 17 days D. 33 days

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 259, #141 Answer: B The total duration ( B + C + E + F) = (6 + 4 + 8 + 5) = 23 days

As the third phase of the multi-year project nears completion, your team lead provides the marketing manager with copies of the phase deliverables for her review and sign-off. The team lead is performing: A. Scope validation B. Quality control C. Administrative closure D. Quality assurance

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 261, #147 Answer: A A team lead is seeking customer or end-user acceptance. As such, this would be considered scope validation.

Your project is dependent upon a production facility that is located in Phoenix, Arizona. Over the weekend, a monsoon damaged the facility and the damage will likely cause a multiple week delay in critical production. You have identified an alternate production vendor. If the production interruption was not identified as a risk, would the increased costs associated with the new vendor be covered by contingency reserve or management reserve? A. Because it was a risk event, it should be paid for out of contingency reserve B. Because it was an unknown event, it should be paid for out of management reserve C. Because it has a significant impact on the project schedule it should be paid for out of management reserve D. Because it is a problem stemming from a procurement, it should be paid for out of contingency reserve

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 263, #160 Answer: A Contingency reserve is allocated to compensate for any uncertainty on the project. Contingency reserve would be used primarily for realized risk events. However, if the funding required was not available within the contingency reserves, the next step would be to consider leveraging available management reserve.

For your park development project, you have hired a vendor to install all of the concrete walkways. In the past, your organization has had some quality issues with this particular vendor. You need to mitigate the risks associated with poor quality. What would be the most appropriate response? A. Insist on the use of a cost-reimbursable contract B. Assign a team member to visit the job site to monitor the vendor's results on a pre-determined schedule C. Develop a workaround to be used in the event of quality issues D. Escalate the issue to the sponsor for resolution

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 266, #175 Answer: B Implementing on-site visits will allow for quicker identification and remediation of quality issues.

You are delivering the final product to the customer. The product was thoroughly tested through the quality control process and has been validated against the documented product requirements. The project delivered at the cost anticipated and within the requested timeframe. If the client does not accept the deliverable because it is not what they wanted, what statement is most accurate: A. The product is high quality because it meets the documented product requirements B. The product is high grade because the schedule and budget objectives were met C. The product is low quality because it does not meet the customer's requirements D. The product is low grade because it does not meet the customer's requirements

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 270, #197 Answer: C Quality is defined as the degree to which the product or result meets the customer's expectations. If the deliverable does not meet their expectations it is considered low quality.

The kitchen remodel project for the Jones family appears to be running behind. As the project manager, you evaluate the construction team's work performance information. Based on the information you receive, the $30,000 project appears to be about 40% complete. Work billed to date was $10,000 although the project budget indicates that the anticipated costs were to be $12,000 by this date. When you follow-up with the construction team lead, he estimates that there will be approximately $15,000 in remaining costs. The EAC for this project is: A. $28,000 B. $37,000 C. $25,000 D. $22,500

Workbook, Lesson 12, page 111, #10 Answer: C In reading the scenario, there is no indication of an unexpected cost variance. As such the formula for EAC will be EAC = AC + ETC. AC = $10,000 ETC = $15,000 (the remaining costs) EAC = $10,000 + $15,000 = $25,000 AC: Actual Cost EAC: Estimate at completion ETC: Estimate to Complete

Vocabulary: Internal or external factors that surround or influence the project's success

Workbook, Lesson 2, page 23, #19 Answer: Enterprise environmental factors

Vocabulary: The process groups interact based upon this iterative quality approach that was developed by Shewhart and later modified by Deming

Workbook, Lesson 2, page 23, #20 Answer: Plan-Do-Check-Act cycle

The biases and perspectives that may interfere with the communication's receiver's interpretation of the message A. Noise B. Static C. Conditions D. Interference

Workbook, Lesson 3, page 28, #5 Answer: A The components of a communication model are: sender, receiver, encode, decode, message, medium, and noise. The noise is the biases, perspectives, conditions of the receiver that can interfere with them decoding the message as intended.

In a stakeholder engagement matrix, stakeholders can be classified as all of the following except: A. Unaware B. Directing C. Neutral D. Leading

Workbook, Lesson 3, page 29, #11 Answer: B In a stakeholder engagement matrix, stakeholders can be classified as unaware, resistant, neutral, supportive, or leading.

The following may be typically found in the project scope statement, except: A. A description of product deliverables B. The project exclusions C. The sponsors title and authority D. Project constraints and assumptions

Workbook, Practice Exam 1, Lessons 1-4, page 137, #44 Answer: C The sponsor's title and authority would be found in the project charger, not in the project scope statement.

What is usually the last phase of a product life cycle? A. Transition B. Retirement C. Death D. Closing

Workbook, Practice Exam 1, Lessons 1-4, page 137, #49 Answer: B The last phase of a product life cycle would be product retirement.

You are preparing the weekly status report for your project, including the project performance reporting. Included in the status report are the variance analysis, new forecasts, and deliverables pending approval. What would be the best communication method for this status report? A. Pull B. Push C. Interactive D. Email

Workbook, Practice Exam 1, Lessons 1-4, page 138, #51 Answer: B The best method for communicating status reports will be push communication. The stakeholders need the information but because it's simply reporting on the status, there is no need for an immediate response.

Which process would produce the resource requirements and the RBS as an output? A. Develop Schedule B. Qualitative Risk Analysis C. Develop Human Resource Plan D. Estimate Activity Resources

Workbook, Practice Exam 2, page 157, #48 Answer: D The outputs of Estimate Activity Resources are the resource breakdown structure (RBS) and the activity resource requirements.

The performance measurement baseline: A. Typically covers the schedule, and occasionally the cost parameters of a project, but may not include technical and quality parameters B. Changes frequently to accommodate current information about the project C. Is the evaluation of the team member's performance of the project D. Is the approved plan for the project work against which project execution is compared and deviations are measured for management control

Workbook, Practice Exam 2, page 159, #62 Answer: D There are three performance measurement baselines: scope, schedule, and cost. The baselines are the approved plan for the project work against which project work will be compared.

You are required to estimate the time to paint a large wall. You know it takes two hours to paint one square foot of wall. The wall has an area of 30 square feet. So you estimate that it will take 60 hours to paint the wall. Which estimation model are you using? A. Bottom-up B. Parametric C. Analogous D. Expert judgement

Workbook, Practice Exam 2, page 160, #69 Answer: B Using the statistical relationship between variables to calculate a productivity rate is a parametric estimate.

Which of the following is an example of a FS (finish-to-start) activity relationship? A. Activity B cannot finish until Activity A is completed B. Activity B cannot start until Activity A is completed C. Activity B cannot finish until Activity A starts D. Activity B cannot start until Activity A starts

Workbook, Practice Exam 2, page 160, #70 Answer: B Activity A must finish before Activity B can start in a finish-to-start relationship.

Activity 7.1.1 is 15 days and Activity 7.1.2 is 18 days, with a start-to-start relationship. What is the best case duration for these activities? A. 18 days B. 33 days C. 15 days D. 32 days

Workbook, Practice Exam 2, page 161, #75 Answer: A With a start-to-start relationship, the best case scenario is that the activities happen concurrently and worst-case is that they happen sequentially. Happening concurrently, the best case duration is 18 days.

He introduced the quality principle of "doing it right the first time" A. Juran B. Deming C. Maslow D. Crosby

Workbook, Practice Exam 3, page 170, #1 Answer: D

You are managing a project team with 14 team members. All team members are located on a dangerous construction site. You were notified by one of your team members that a second team member has not been wearing the appropriate safety gear that is required. What is the best conflict management approach to this solution. A. Confronting B. Problem-solving C. Forcing D. Collaborating

Workbook, Practice Exam 3, page 170, #2 Answer: C Because it is a situation of health/human safety, a forcing approach would be most appropriate. Wearing safety gear is not optional.

All of these project documents are used to manage stakeholder engagement except: A. Communication management plan B. Risk breakdown structure C. Change log D. Stakeholder management plan

Workbook, Practice Exam 3, page 170, #5 Answer: B The risk breakdown structure (RBS) is a useful tool for categorizing causes of project risks. However, it does not necessarily lend to better stakeholder engagement.

There are two significant outputs from the directing and managing the project work. They are: A. Issue log and change log B. Work performance measurements and deliverables C. Work performance information and quality metrics D. Deliverables and work performance data

Workbook, Practice Exam 3, page 170, #7 Answer: D The primary outputs from the Direct and Manage Project Work are the deliverables and the work performance data.

You have determined your staffing needs for you r 10-month project. You will require resources from three major departments as well as some specialized expertise that may not be available in-house. Which of the following is not a tool or technique used in project team acquisition? A. Pre-assignment B. Virtual teams C. Resource calendars D. Negotiation

Workbook, Practice Exam 3, page 171, #14 Answer: C Resource calendars will be an output of the Acquire Project Team process. Resource calendars are either inputs or outputs, not tools/techniques.

According to Herzberg, these factors do not give positive satisfaction, although dissatisfaction results from their absence: A. Motivators B. Extrinsic C. Hygiene D. Y factors

Workbook, Practice Exam 3, page 173, #22 Answer: C According to Herzberg, hygiene factors do not give positive satisfaction, although dissatisfaction can result from their absence.

Which statement regarding quality management is least accurate? A. During the Plan Quality Management process, the quality standards that need to be achieved are determined and documented B. During Control (QC), the Perform Quality Assurance (QA) results will determine the quality standards that need to be achieved C. The Control Quality process will verify the correctness of the deliverables and changes that have been implemented D. During QA, the QC results will be audited against the quality management plan to determine compliance and alignment with the plan

Workbook, Practice Exam 3, page 173, #25 Answer: B During QC, the quality metrics will determine the quality standards that need to be achieved, not the QA results.

This risk response strategy changes the project plan to decrease the probability of an identified threat: A. SWOT B. Risk response planning C. Avoidance D. Mitigation

Workbook, Practice Exam 3, page 176, #41 Answer: D

Used in modeling and simulation, these represent the uncertainty in values, such as durations of schedule activities and costs of project components: A. Sensitivity analysis B. Risk analysis C. Earned value analysis D. Probability distributions

Workbook, Practice Exam 3, page 176, #42 Answer: D Probability distribution represent the uncertainty in values, such as cost or schedule implications. Probability distributions are an output of quantitative risk techniques.

This analysis technique is a statistical concept that calculates the average outcome when the future includes scenarios that may or may not happen: A. Earned value analysis B. Delphi technique C. Qualitative risk analysis D. Expected monetary value analysis

Workbook, Practice Exam 3, page 176, #43 Answer: D Expected monetary value (EMV) analysis calculates the average outcome when the future includes scenarios that may or may not happen.

Your product development project is creating a new children's toy. There has been extensive component testing of the parts for the toy. While most of the components tested were satisfactory, piece B has been determined to be a significant choking risk to the target age group. What would be the most appropriate risk response to piece B? A. Determine a fallback plan to implement if the beta testing identifies the choking risk as well B. Identify a risk avoidance response C. Develop a contingent response strategy for dealing with customer complaints D. Identify a risk mitigation response

Workbook, Practice Exam 3, page 177, #48 Answer: B Because it is a choking hazard and is a health/human safety, a risk avoidance response would be most appropriate.

According to Herzberg's theory of motivation, a base salary is: A. A primary motivator B. A secondary motivator C. Not a consideration in employee motivation D. A hygiene factor

Workbook, Practice Exam 3, page 178, #57 Answer: D Salary is considered a hygiene factor.

A category assigned to products or services having the same functional use but different technical characteristics: A. Quality B. Scoring C. Grade D. Precision

Workbook, Practice Exam 3, page 178, #61 Answer: C Grade is a category assigned to products that have the same functional use but different technical characteristics. High grade does not necessarily correlate to high quality.

He applied the Pareto principle to quality issues and developed the trilogy: quality, planning, quality control, and quality improvement A. Deming B. Crosby C. Juran D. Maslow

Workbook, Practice Exam 3, page 178, #62 Answer: C Juran applied the Pareto principle to quality issues and also had the trilogy: quality planning, quality control, and quality improvement.

Damage to reputation would be considered a: A. Cost of nonconformance B. Quality risk C. Constraint D. Schedule risk

Workbook, Practice Exam 3, page 178, #63 Answer: A Damage to reputation is considered a cost of non-conformance, money spent because of failure.

This means the values of repeated measurements are considered: A. Accuracy B. Quality C. Satisfaction D. Precision

Workbook, Practice Exam 3, page 179, #64 Answer: D Precision means the value of repeated measurements are consistent, which does not mean that they are accurate. It simply means we are achieving the same result.

Which statement is least accurate regarding procurement documents? A. If the selection will be based upon capability or approach, the term proposal is generally used B. They are usually not used to solicit proposals from prospective sellers C. If the selection will be based upon price, the term quotation may be used D. The complexity and level of detail should be consistent with the value of the planned procurements

Workbook, Practice Exam 3, page 179, #71 Answer: B Procurement documents are used to solicit proposals from prospective sellers, specifically a request for proposal (RFP).

This process determines which contract types should be used on the project to procure needed products or services: A. Select Sellers B. Plan Procurement Management C. Conduct Procurements D. Control Procurements

Workbook, Practice Exam 3, page 180, #72 Answer: B The Plan Procurement Management process will determine the contract types that will be used on the project.

You are three months into a 6-month, $195,000 project. Invoices paid to date are $37,500 and the planned costs at three months were $75,000. What is the cost performance index? A. 0.5 B. $22,500 C. 26% D. 2.6

Workbook, Practice Exam 4, page 188, #4 Answer: D To calculate the CPI we must use the PMBOK formula: CPI = EV / AC ACis provided; $37,500 EV must be calculated EV = BAC x % Complete $195,000 x 50% = $97,500 (The 50% comes from the question; 3 months / 6 months) Now that we have EV, we can use the SPI formula: $97,500 / $37,500 = 2.6

Which statement is least accurate regarding the PDM: A. The PDM is the same thing as the AON B. The PDM is an output of sequencing activities C. The PDM only displays finish-to-start relationships D. The PDM is a type of schedule network diagram

Workbook, Practice Exam 4, page 189, #8 Answer: C PDM is the precedence diagramming method, a way of constructing the project schedule to visually display the relationships between the activities. A PDM can display all types of relationships: finish-to-start, start-to-start, finish-to-finish, start-to-finish. The alternate name for a PDM diagram is an activity-on-node (AON) diagram.

Activity C has a start-to-start relationship with Activity D. Activity C is 12 days and Activity D is 15 days. If the start of Activity D gets delayed by six days, what is the best case duration? A. 27 days B. 15 days C. 21 days D. 33 days

Workbook, Practice Exam 4, page 190, #18 Answer: C The start-to-start relationship indicates that Activity D can start at the same time, or anytime thereafter, as Activity C, thus implying that they can happen concurrently. To answer the question, add the time of the six day delay to the duration to Activity D, which brings the total duration to 21 days.

The validate scope process could best be described as: A. Securing customer acceptance of the completed deliverables B. Evaluating the requirements for completeness C. Reviewing the scope statement with the customer D. Performing quality control activities on the completed deliverables

Workbook, Practice Exam 4, page 190, #21 Answer: A The validate scope process, in the monitoring and controlling process group, is concerned with getting the customer or requesting party's acceptance of completed deliverables. The control quality process (also known as QC) is performed prior to the validate scope process. Deliverables are checked internally (QC) before being given to the customer for acceptance.

You have completed your activity list and activity attributes. What process have you completed? A. Develop Schedule B. Create WBS C. Define activities D. Scope decomposition

Workbook, Practice Exam 4, page 192, #35 Answer: C The output of the Define Activities process includes the activity list, the activity attributes, and the milestone list.

Vocabulary: Process within the initiating process group and integration knowledge

Workbook, Lesson 2, page 22, #11 Answer: Develop project charter

Vocabulary: A formal, approved document that defines how the project is executed, monitored, and controlled

Workbook, Lesson 2, page 22, #5 Answer: Project management plan

Project managers or the organization can divide projects into phases. Collectively, these phases are known as the: A. Project waterfall B. Project life cycle C. Project life stages D. Project life quality circle

Workbook, Lesson 1, page 10, #8 Answer: B The project life cycle allows the project to be broken down into phases

Vocabulary: The application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet the project requirements

Workbook, Lesson 1, page 12, #2 Answer: Project management

Vocabulary: A group of related projects managed in a coordinated way to obtain benefits and control not available from managing them individually

Workbook, Lesson 1, page 12, #3 Answer: Program

Vocabulary: Sequential and non-overlapping phases of a product

Workbook, Lesson 1, page 12, #4 Answer: Product life cycle

Vocabulary: An organizational structure with a blending of both projectized and functional attributes

Workbook, Lesson 1, page 13, #14 Answer: Composite organization

Which statement is most accurate: A. Since management of a project is a finite effort, the initiating process group begins the project and the closing process group ends it B. If a project is divided into phases, the process groups will only be utilized once during the project C. Risk management is considered a process group D. The project management framework consists of nine process groups

Workbook, Lesson 2, page 18, #3 Answer: A Generally speaking, the initiating processes begin the project while the closing processes end it. The process groups may be used iteratively throughout the project. Risk management is a knowledge area. There are five process groups.

You have assumed the responsibility for a high-risk project that is instrumental to your company's growth. As you begin to evaluate the project, you take into consideration the availability of skilled resources that will be needed for the project. You are considering: A. The organizational process assets B. The enterprise environmental factors C. The project management plan D. The organizational methodology

Workbook, Lesson 2, page 18, #6 Answer: B The clue in this question is the word "considering." We consider the enterprise environmental factors, understanding the implication to our project. Enterprise environmental factors are things we "consider."

Your team has been managing the new development project for the past 6 months. The project is slightly under budget, bu unfortunately, due to a number of unforeseen issues, the project is running 30% behind schedule. The best action to take would be: A. Submit a corrective action change request asking for additional resources B. Submit a defect repair change request as the issues will need to be resolved C. Continue normal management and monitoring D. Submit a preventive action change request and update the baselines accordingly

Workbook, Lesson 2, page 18, #7 Answer: A Because the project is behind schedule, the only appropriate response would be to submit a corrective action. Defect repair would be appropriate if there was a quality issue; preventive action would be appropriate if the project was trending behind schedule but wasn't actually behind yet.

You are new to the project organization within your company. You have been asked to develop a project management plan and you have sent an inquiry to the PMO asking for any type of templates or sample plans that may exist. The templates and sample plans: A. Would be considered enterprise environmental factors B. Would constitute the need for a scope change request C. Are not the most efficient manner of establishing the project documentation D. Are both components of the organization's process assets

Workbook, Lesson 2, page 19, #8 Answer: D Organizational process assets include policies, procedure, guidelines and templates and the corporate knowledge base including past project files, sample plans, lessons learned, etc.

You have 37 team members, other than you, on the development project, including two PMO members and five functional managers. How many communication channels exist? A. 666 B. 703 C. 946 D. 990

Workbook, Lesson 3, page 29, #10 Answer: B Because the team member count of 37 does not include you as the project manager, you will need to add you into the number for running the communication channels formula of n(n-1)/2. The two PMO members and five functional managers are already included in the number provided: (38 x 37) / 2 1,406 / 2 = 703

The following statements are true about the PMBOK Guide, except: A. The PMBOK Guide provides and promotes a common vocabulary within the project management profession B. The PMBOK Guide is the mandatory methodology for projects C. The PMBOK Guide is a guide rather than a methodology D. The PMBOK Guide identifies the subset of the project management body of knowledge generally recognized as good practice

Workbook, Lesson 2, page 18, #4 Answer: B The PMBOK Guide is not a mandatory methodology for projects. It is a "guide" to the project management body of knowledge and is intended to be applied as appropriate in various situations.

The most common inputs to the project management processes are: A. Organizational process assets, enterprise environmental factors, work performance information and project management plan updates B. Organizational process assets, change requests, project management plan, and enterprise environmental factors C. Project management plan, project documents, and change requests D. Project management plan, organizational process assets, project documents, work performance data, and enterprise environmental factors

Workbook, Lesson 2, page 18, #5 Answer: D The most common inputs to the processes are: project management plan, organizational process assets, project documents, work performance data, and enterprise environmental factors.

Vocabulary: Communication sent to specific recipients who need to receive the information. Ensures the information is distributed but does not ensure that it actually reached or was understood by the intended audience.

Workbook, Lesson 3, page 31, #5 Answer: Push

Vocabulary: The information that needs to be conveyed

Workbook, Lesson 3, page 31, #6 Answer: Message

The project management process groups are: A. Planning, checking, directing, monitoring, and recording B. Initiating, planning, executing, monitoring and controlling, and closing C. Planning, executing, directing, closing, and delivering D. Initiating, executing, monitoring, evaluating, and closing

Workbook, Lesson 2, page 18, #1 Answer: B There are five process groups (groups of related processes): initiating, planning, executing, monitoring and controlling, and closing

All of the following are characteristics of the project management process groups except: A. The process groups are linked by the objectives they produce B. The output of one process generally becomes an input to another process or is a deliverable of the project C. All of the processes will be needed on all the projects, and all of the interactions will apply to all projects or project phases D. When a project is divided into phases, the process groups are normally repeated within each phase throughout the project's life to effectively drive the project to completion

Workbook, Lesson 2, page 18, #2 Answer: C Not all of the PMBOK Guide processes will be needed on every project and not all of the interactions will apply to all projects or phases. For example, if the internal project you are managing does not have a cost tracking component, none of the cost processes will apply to your project.

This process group includes processes spanning all ten knowledge areas: A. Initiating process group B. Executing process group C. Planning process group D. Monitoring and controlling process group

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 210, #4 Answer: C

The majority of the project team's time, efforts, and expense are applied during this process group: A. Planning process group B. Executing process group C. Integration process group D. Monitoring and controlling process group

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 210, #5 Answer: B

Includes status reports, information notes, electronic dashboards, justifications, memos, etc. A. Work performance information B. Work performance data C. Work performance reports D. Work performance outputs

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 210, #6 Answer: C

The difference between work performance information and work performance data can best be described as: A. Data is the raw project observations whereas information has been analyzed through the control processes B. Data and information are fundamentally the same C. Information is the raw project observations whereas data has been analyzed through the control processes D. Information is an input to data which is an input to the work performance reports

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 210, #7 Answer: A

This knowledge are has processes in all five process groups A. Scope B. Procurement C. Integration D. Communication

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 211, #12 Answer: C

The validate scope process: A. Is in the planning process group B. Is in the executing process group C. Is in the closing process group D. Is in the monitoring and controlling process group

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 211, #13 Answer: D

The develop project charter has two tools/techniques that are used: A. Project management plan and budget B. Expert judgement and facilitation techniques C. Analytical techniques and group creativity techniques D. Brainstorming and meetings

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 212, #24 Answer: B

A narrative description of products, services, or results to be delivered by the project, created by the sponsor for internal projects or from the customer for external projects. A. Statement of work B. Project charter C. Requirements document D. Business case

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 212, #26 Answer: A The statement of work comes from the requesting party.

Organizational standard processes, procedures, templates, historical information, and lessons learned used to develop the project charter are all considered: A. Organization process assets B. Enterprise environmental factors C. Corporate communications D. Expert judgment

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 213, #28 Answer: A

The process of defining, preparing, and coordinating all subsidiary plans and integrating them into a comprehensive plan: A. Create subsidiary plans B. Design project approach C. Develop project management plan D. Collect requirements

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 213, #29 Answer: C

The project management plan describes how the work will be executed, monitored, and controlled and collects and integrates the following components except A. Scope baseline B. Change management baseline C. Cost baseline D. Subsidiary plans

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 213, #30 Answer: B The only three baselines are the scope, schedule, and cost baselines

Two key outputs from the direct and manage project work process are: A. Approved changes and quality measurements B. Deliverables and work performance data C. The project charter and detailed risk responses D. Work performance information and implemented changes

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 213, #31 Answer: B

Any unique verifiable product, capability to perform a service, or result that is required to be produced to complete a process, phase, or project. Typically tangible components: A. Requirement B. Deliverable C. Prototype D. Work package

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 213, #33 Answer: B

What is the key benefit of monitoring and controlling project work? A. It allows the stakeholders to understand the current state of the project and the budget and schedule forecasts B. It allows the project manager to make proactive changes to the plan C. It allows the team members to reduce and reallocate their work evenly D. It allows the sponsor to determine the appropriate funding limits

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 213, #34 Answer: A

The physical or electronic representation of work performance information, compiled in project documents with an intent to generate awareness, decision, and actions. A. Project reports B. Work performance reports C. Project performance appraisals D. Work performance data

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 214, #35 Answer: B

The key benefit of this process is that it provides lessons learned, the formal ending of the project, and the release of organization resources to pursue new endeavors. A. Perform integrated change control B. Dismiss project team C. Project retirement D. Close phase or project

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 214, #36 Answer: D

The activity attributes are to the activity list as what is to the WBS? A. WBS dictionary B. WBS details C. Work package attributes D. Work descriptions

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 214, #40 Answer: A

A technique that enhances brainstorming with a voting process used to rank the most useful ideas for further brainstorming or for prioritization. A. Delphi technique B. Requirements gathering C. Affinity diagram D. Nominal group technique

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 215, #44 Answer: D

A multicriteria decision analysis A. Is a technique that utilizes a decision matrix to provide a systematic analytical approach for establishing criteria to evaluate and rank many ideas B. Is a technique in which ideas created through brainstorming sessions are consolidated into a single map to reflect commonality and differences in understanding C. Is a technique used to generate and collect multiple ideas related to project and product requirements D. Is a technique that allows large numbers of ideas to be classified into groups for review and analysis

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 215, #45 Answer: A

An assessment process having multiple alternatives with an expected outcome in the form of future actions, used to generate, classify, and prioritize product requirements: A. Multi-criteria decision analysis B. Group decision-making techniques C. Affinity diagram D. Brainstorming

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 215, #46 Answer: A

Tools/techniques used to validate scope include: A. Brainstorming and group decision-making techniques B. Inspection and expert judgement C. Brainstorming and meetings D. Inspection and group decision-making techniques

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 215, #47 Answer: D

You have just been made the project manager of the redesign project. You are trying to read the WBS and are unable to understand some of the WBS components. Which should be your firs step to understand this? A. Refer to the WBS dictionary B. Refer to the scope statement C. Refer to the project charter D. Contact the previous project manager

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 215, #51 Answer: A Refer to the WBS dictionary, as that will provide back-end details.

An output of the define scope process is: A. Work breakdown structure B. Scope breakdown structure C. Project scope statement D. Scope control plan

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 216, #52 Answer: C

What is the WBS typically used for? A. To organize and define the total scope of the project B. To identify the logical person to be project sponsor C. To define the level of reporting the seller provides the buyer D. As a record of when work elements are assigned to individuals

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 216, #53 Answer: A

Which of the following is a tool/technique used to create the WBS: A. Decomposition B. Analogous estimating C. Inspection D. Group creativity techniques

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 216, #54 Answer: A Decomposition is the tool/technique used to create the WBS: decomposing the deliverables into work packages.

In a finish-to-start precedence relationship with a one-day lead: A. The subsequent activity can start one day before the precedent activity is completed B. The precedent activity can start one day before the subsequent activity C. The subsequent activity cannot start until one day after the precedent activity finishes D. The precedent activity must start within one day of when the successor activity starts

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 217, #63 Answer: A In a finish-to-start relationship with a one-day lead, the successor activity can start one day before the predecessor activity is finished.

Which of the following is an example of a FS (finish-to-start) interactivity relationship? A. Activity B cannot finish until Activity A is complete B. Activity B cannot start until Activity A is complete C. Activity B cannot finish until Activity A starts D. Activity B cannot start until Activity A starts

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 217, #64 Answer: B In a finish-to-start relationship, the predecessor must finish before the successor can start.

If the planned value (PV) is $275k and the earned value (EV) is $300k, the schedule variance (SV) is: A. $25k B. ($25k) C. $125k D. $575k

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 217, #65 Answer: A SV = EV - PV SV = $300k - $275k = $25k

The critical chain method: A. Is an alternative to the critical path method B. Manages the total float of network paths C. Modifies the schedule to account for limited resources D. Does not take into account resource availability

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 217, #66 Answer: C

When correcting a scheduling problem, what is the first technique a project manager should consider? A. Fast-tracking B. Crashing C. Reducing project scope D. Outsourcing

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 217, #67 Answer: A The first technique a project manager should consider is fast-tracking as it does not increase the costs and it preserves the scope of the project.

Top-down duration estimating is also known as: A. PERT estimating B. Analogous estimating C. Parametric estimating D. SWAG estimating

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 217, #68 Answer: B

When crashing a task, the project team needs to focus on: A. Non-critical tasks B. As many tasks as possible C. Accelerating performance of those tasks on critical path D. Accelerating performance by minimizing costs

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 217, #69 Answer: C When crashing a project, the team will focus on accelerating the tasks on the critical path. They are accelerating performance by increasing costs, not minimizing costs.

The EV is $92k and the PV is $85k. This suggests the project is: A. Under budget B. Over budget C. Behind schedule D. Ahead of schedule

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 218, #70 Answer: D Schedule Variance (SV) = Earned Value (EV) - Planned Value (PV) SV = $92k - $85k = $7k (ahead of schedule)

The schedule variance is $22k and the planned value is $55k. As such: A. The earned value is $77k B. The earned value is $33k C. The actual costs are $77k D. The SPI is 0.85

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 218, #71 Answer: A Schedule Variance (SV) = Earned Value (EV) - Planned Value (PV) $22k = EV - $55k $77k = EV

Adding resources to the critical path is an example of: A. Fast-tracking B. Crashing C. Active risk acceptance D. Decomposition

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 218, #72 Answer: B

The project is 30% complete and has a budget of $90k. The actual costs paid-to-date are $25k and the budgeted costs to-date were $30k. What is the status of the project schedule? A. Behind schedule B. On schedule C. Ahead of schedule D. Unable to determine

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 218, #73 Answer: A Earned Value (EV) - $27k Actual Cost (AC) = $25k Planned Value (PV) = $30k Cost Variance (CV) = EV - AC = $27k - $25k = $2k (under budget) Schedule Variance (SV) = EV - PV = $27k - $30k = ($3k) (behind schedule)

The project has an earned value of $87,750. Costs-to-date have been $110k and the budget is $195k. What percent complete is this project? A. Unable to determine B. 80% C. 45% D. 56%

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 218, #75 Answer: C Earned Value (EV) = $87,750 Actual Costs (AC) = $110k Budget at Completion (BAC) = $195k EV = BAC x % Completion $87,750 / $195k = 0.45 The project is 45% complete

Your project has an earned value of $300k despite invoices totaling $325k. You've calculated your TCPI as 1.14. What is your budget? A. $500k B. $325k C. $342k D. $370,500

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 218, #76 Answer: A TCPI = (BAC - EV) / (BAC - AC) BAC = x 1.14 = (x - $300k) / (x - $325k) x - $300k = 1.14x - $370,500 -0.14x - $300k = ($370,500) -0.14x = ($70,500) x = $503,571 if that was incredibly painful for you, just plug in the four answers until you find one that works.

A cost performance index of 0.8 suggests the project is: A. Under-budget to-date B. On budget C. Behind schedule D. Over-budget to-date

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 218, #77 Answer: D A CPI of 0.8 indicates the project is 20% over-budget to-date

For a project with an unexpected cost variance that is not expected to recur, which EAC formula would be most appropriate? A. AC + BAC - EV B. BAC / CPI C. ETC + AC D. BAC + CPI - EV

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 219, #78 Answer: A Atypical EAC formula

Analogous estimating: A. Uses bottom-up estimating techniques B. Uses the actual cost of previous, similar projects as the basis for estimating C. Is used most frequently in the later stages of a project D. Summarizes estimates for individual work items

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 219, #80 Answer: B

Which statement is most accurate: A. The cost estimates are the project budget B. The cost estimates, applied across the schedule, create the budget C. The project budget is developed first and then decomposed into cost estimates D. The budget may be progressively elaborated whereas the cost estimates must be determined completely at the start of the project

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 219, #81 Answer: B

The project has an earned value of $87,750. Costs-to-date have been $110k, and the budget is $195k. What is the status of the project? A. Appears ahead of schedule B. Appears over budget C. Appears both over budget and behind schedule D. Unable to determine based on the information provided

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 219, #82 Answer: B Earned Value (EV) = $87,750 Actual Cost (AC) = $110k Budget at Completion (BAC) = $195k Cost Variance (CV) = EV - AC = $87,750 - $110k = ($22,250)

This is considered an assessment of correctness: A. Grade B. Quality C. Precision D. Accuracy

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 219, #85 Answer: D Accuracy is an assessment of correctness.

Also known as the Ishikawa diagrams, these diagrams start with the problem and seek to identify the root cause or causes of the problem: A. Fishbone B. Checksheet C. Control chart D. Pareto chart

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 220, #87 Answer: A Ishikawa diagrams are also known as fishbone or cause-and-effect diagrams.

Varying in complexity, these tools aid organizations in ensuring consistency in frequently performed tasks: A. Quality metrics B. Quality diagrams C. Quality measurements D. Quality checklists

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 220, #88 Answer: D Quality checklists aid organizations in ensuring consistency in frequently performed tasks.

The difference between a quality metric and a quality measurement can be best described as: A. A metric describes an attribute whereas a measurement is an actual value B. A metric is an actual value whereas a measurement is how it will be calculated C. A measurement describes an attribute whereas a metric is an actual value D. A measurement is an actual value whereas a metric is how it will be documented

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 220, #89 Answer: A A quality metric describes an attribute whereas a measurement is an actual value. Quality metrics are an output of the Plan Quality Management process and the quality control measurements are an output of the Control Quality process.

The process of monitoring and recording results of quality activities to assess performance and recommend changes as necessary A. Quality assurance B. Quality control C. Process improvement D. Quality management

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 220, #91 Answer: A

Scope creep is: A. A type of residual risk B. An activity that needs to be included in the project schedule C. Unmanaged changes to the project scope D. Allowing team members to make changes

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 238, #5 Answer: C Scope creep is unmanaged changes to the project scope

With the software upgrade project well underway, the project manager is working with the quality assurance department to improve the stakeholder's confidence that the project will meet their desired quality standards. In order to start this process, what must the project team have? A. The quality control measurements B. The quality improvement plan C. A list of identified quality problems D. The rework

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 240, #14 Answer: A In order to perform quality assurance, you will need the quality control measurements. These will be compared to the quality metrics from the plan quality process.

You are a project manager in a matrix organization. Information dissemination is most likely to be effective when: A. Information flows both horizontally and vertically B. Project and functional managers have social relationships C. Communication channels are kept simple D. There is an inherent logic in the type of matrix put in place

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 243, #37 Answer: A In a matrix organization communication needs to flow both horizontally and vertically (to the project team and to the leadership of the organization)

You are the project manger in a matrix organization and you determine that there are additional human resources needed. From whom would you request the additional resources? A. The project sponsor B. The PMO C. The functional manager D. The team lead

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 258, #133 Answer: C Because it is a matrix organization, resources are "owned" by the functional managers.

Your project is about 60% complete and has been progressing ahead of schedule and slightly under budget. You hear that your project is going to be terminated. What is the first thing you should do? A. Review the project management plan for project closure procedures B. Create a lessons learned report C. Escalate to the sponsor D. Have your team members immediately stop work

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 264, #165 Answer: D As PM, you must protect the organization from any unnecessary costs. As such, you would have your team stop work while the cancellation is investigated.

The five stages of team development are: A. Forming, storming, norming, conforming, and adjourning B. Forming, storming, norming, performing, and adjourning C. Meeting, assignments, work progression, reporting, and disbanding D. Acquisition, assignment, status reporting, results, and re-assignment

Workbook, Lesson 10, page 94, #2 Answer: B The stages of team development (also known as Tuckman's ladder) are forming, storming, norming, performing, and adjourning.

Vocabulary: The results of the quality control activities that are fed back to the QA process for use in re-evaluating and analyzing the quality standards and processes

Workbook, Lesson 13, page 121, #1 Answer: Quality control measurements

All of the following would be considered contributing to the project management knowledge base, except: A. Shared lessons learned B. Conducting research on project management practices C. Protecting confidential company information D. Mentoring other project professionals

Workbook, Lesson 14, page 127, #15 Answer: C While protecting confidential company information is part of your professional responsibilities as a PMP, it is not considered a method of contributing to the project management knowledge base.

The project you have been assigned includes team members from multiple countries. What should you do to alleviate any potential cultural differences so they do not have a negative effect on the project? A. Be very discreet with sensitive project communications B. Speak slowly during team meetings to ensure understanding C. Focus on developing a comprehensive WBS and WBS dictionary D. At each team meeting have a different team member share something unique about their culture

Workbook, Lesson 14, page 127, #8 Answer: D To break down any cultural barriers, it may be helpful to have team members share something unique about their culture. Being discreet with communications, speaking slowly, and a comprehensive WBS will not have an impact on potential cultural differences.

Which of the following would not be the responsibility of the project manager? A. Verify that the company procedures are legal B. Protect confidential client information C. Be truthful in cost estimates and forecasts D. Ensure that the legitimate interest of the customer is not compromised by a conflict of interest

Workbook, Lesson 14, page 127, #9 Answer: A The project manager is not expected to be an expert in law and as such, would not be able to verify that the company procedures are legal.

Process/Output. The Key Output is provided, name the Process that creates it. Accepted deliverables

Workbook, Lesson 14, page 128, #1 Answer: Validate Scope

Process/Output. The Key Output is provided, name the Process that creates it. Verified deliverables

Workbook, Lesson 14, page 128, #10 Answer: Control Quality

Process/Output. The Key Output is provided, name the Process that creates it. Work performance reports

Workbook, Lesson 14, page 128, #11 Answer: Monitor and Control Project Work

Process/Output. The Key Output is provided, name the Process that creates it. Approved change requests

Workbook, Lesson 14, page 128, #2 Answer: Perform Integrated Change Contgrol

Vocabulary: Process within the initiating process group and stakeholder knowledge area

Workbook, Lesson 2, page 22, #1 Answer: Identify stakeholders

Vocabulary: The type of power that provides the project manager with the ability to influence the project team and stakeholders based on the fear of punishment

Workbook, Lesson 2, page 23, #15 Answer: Coercive

Vocabulary: An action taken to prevent a problem or other undesirable situation in advance of it occurring, such as trending over-budget or behind-schedule

Workbook, Lesson 2, page 23, #16 Answer: Preventive actions

Vocabulary: Expertise provided by anyone with specialized knowledge or information related to a project attribute

Workbook, Lesson 2, page 23, #17 Answer: Expert judgement

Vocabulary: A formal proposal to modify any document, deliverable, or baseline

Workbook, Lesson 2, page 23, #24 Answer: Change request

Vocabulary: Used for very large volumes of information, or for very large audiences, and requires the recipients to access the communication at their own discretion

Workbook, Lesson 3, page 31, #10 Answer: Pull

Vocabulary: Message translation back into meaningful thoughts or ideas

Workbook, Lesson 3, page 31, #9 Answer: Decode

Your PMO has indicated that a WBS is recommended for all projects that are longer than 3 months in duration or are estimated to cost more than $100,000. The following is true about the WBS: A. The WBS is another term for the Gannt chart B. Each descending level of the WBS represents an increasingly detailed definition of the project work C. Work not in the WBS is usually defined in the scope statement of the project D. The WBS shows only the critical path activities

Workbook, Lesson 4, page 36, #1 Answer: B Each descending level of the WBS represents an increasingly detailed definition of the work. A Gantt chart is a schedule bar chart and is not related to the WBS. All the work in the scope statement must be represented on the WBS (100% Rule). The WBS does not represent activities, as the work is only decomposed to the work package level.

As project manager, you are defining the project scope in association with your stakeholders and team members. As such, you are decreasing the probability of scope creep. Scope creep is: A. A type of residual risk B. An activity that needs to be included in the project schedule C. Unmanaged changes to the project scope D. None of the above

Workbook, Lesson 4, page 36, #2 Answer: C Scope creek is considered any unmanaged changes to the project scope.

As project manager, you are careful to follow the recommended guidelines for developing the WBS for your project. IN the WBS, the total of the work at the lowest levels must roll up to the higher levels so that nothing is left out and no extra work is completed. This is called: A. The 80/20 Rule B. The WBS Rule C. The Hierarchy Rule D. The 100% Rule

Workbook, Lesson 4, page 36, #3 Answer: D Including all of the work of your project in the WBS follows the 100% rule - the lower levels add up to the higher levels, nothing is left out and no extra work is completed.

Which of the following statements is true about the WBS? A. The WBS is a deliverable-oriented hierarchical decomposition of the work to be executed by the project team, to accomplish the project objectives and create the required deliverables B. The WBS is an unstructured list of activities in chart form C. The WBS is the same as the organizational breakdown structure D. The WBS refers to the bill of materials

Workbook, Lesson 4, page 36, #4 Answer: A The WBS is a graphical decomposition of the work of the project. Work is decomposed to the work package level.

The following is an example of a constraint: A. A predefined budget B. The threat of a strike by a subcontractor C. Relationship with a seller D. The method used to measure project performance

Workbook, Lesson 4, page 36, #5 Answer: A A constraint is a limitation placed upon the project. Typical project constrains include: scope, time, cost, quality, and resources. A predefined budget is a limit placed on the project. The threat of a strike would be a risk.

Upon evaluating the work breakdown structure (WBS), you observe package 6.2.3 is included in the 6.2 and 6.3 control accounts. What is the next thing you should do? A. Break it down into two work packages, one for each control account B. Do nothing as work packages can be related to multiple accounts C. Submit a scope change with an associated baseline update D. Evaluate the work packages in a QFD session

Workbook, Lesson 4, page 37, #13 Answer: A A control account can have multiple work packages, but a work package can only roll-up to one control account (representing a one-to-many relationship). As such, you will need to break the work package into two distinct work packages, one to roll up to control account 6.2 and one to roll up to control account 6.3. This would not be considered a scope change, as the work was there, it is simply being realigned appropriately. A QFD session is a facilitated workshop and would not apply to this situation. Should not have duplicate work be more specific with description if it is actually different work but just sounds different.

The scope baseline includes all of the following except: A. WBS dictionary B. Project charger C. Scope statement D. WBS

Workbook, Lesson 4, page 37, #14 Answer: B The scope baseline includes the scope statement, the WBS, and the WBS dictionary. The project charter is not part of the scope baseline.

The lowest level of a WBS is known as a(n): A. Activity B. Task C. Control account D. Work package

Workbook, Lesson 4, page 37, #15 Answer: D The lowest level of a WBS is a work package. The work packages will be decomposed into activities during the Defined Activities process, leading to the development of the project schedule.

Vocabulary: A working model of the expected product

Workbook, Lesson 4, page 38, #1 Answer: Prototype

Vocabulary: A visual depiction of the product scope showing a business system and how people and other systems (actors) interact with it

Workbook, Lesson 4, page 38, #15 Answer: Context diagram

Vocabulary: Adding features and functionality (project scope) without addressing the effects on time, costs, and resources, or without customer approval

Workbook, Lesson 4, page 38, #2 Answer: Scope creek

Vocabulary: A planning technique that subdivides the project scope and project deliverables into smaller, more manageable components

Workbook, Lesson 4, page 38, #3 Answer: Decomposition

Vocabulary: A management control point where scope, budget, and possibly the schedule are integrated to manage and track project progress and costs

Workbook, Lesson 4, page 38, #4 Answer: Control account

Vocabulary: A document that describes each component in the work breakdown structure

Workbook, Lesson 4, page 38, #5 Answer: WBS dictionary

Vocabulary: A general data gathering and creativity technique that can be used to determine requirements and the project approach

Workbook, Lesson 4, page 38, #6 Answer: Brainstorming

Vocabulary: A deliverable-oriented hierarchical decomposition of the work to be executed by the project team

Workbook, Lesson 4, page 38, #7 Answer:

Vocabulary: An information gathering technique in which a facilitator uses an anonymous questionnaire as a way to gather feedback and perhaps reach a consensus of experts on a subject

Workbook, Lesson 4, page 38, #8 Answer: Delphi technique

Vocabulary: Enhances brainstorming with a voting process to rank the ideas

Workbook, Lesson 4, page 38, #9 Answer: Nominal group technique

Vocabulary: A group decision-making technique in which one individual makes the decision for the group

Workbook, Lesson 4, page 39, #16 Answer: Dictatorship

Vocabulary: Technique used to consolidate ideas created through individual brainstorming sessions into a single map to reflect commonality and differences in understanding and to generate new ideas

Workbook, Lesson 4, page 39, #17 Answer: Idea/mind mapping

Vocabulary: Support from more than 50 percent of the members of the group

Workbook, Lesson 4, page 39, #18 Answer: Majority

Vocabulary: Decisions made by the largest block in the group, even if a majority is not achieved

Workbook, Lesson 4, page 39, #19 Answer: Plurality

Vocabulary: A description of how individual requirements meet the business need for the project

Workbook, Lesson 4, page 39, #20 Answer: Requirements documentation

Vocabulary: Agreement by everyone in the group on a single course of action

Workbook, Lesson 4, page 39, #22 Answer: Unanimity

The "fast-tracking" method of schedule compression involves: A. The use of industrial engineering techniques to improve productivity, thereby finishing the project earlier than originally planned B. Performing activities in parallel, thereby increasing risk C. Going on a "mandatory overtime schedule" in order to complete the project earlier D. Assigning "dedicated teams" to the critical path activities

Workbook, Lesson 5, page 44, #6 Answer: B Fast-tracking takes activities that were going to be done sequentially and instead performs them in parallel. In order to fast-track, the activities must have a discretionary dependency. Violating the dependency does imply that there is increased risk. Overtime or dedicated teams would be examples of crashing.

Based on the following information, which statement is most accurate? INSERT IMAGE Activity_______________Duration_______________Float_______________Cost ____1_________________________10_______________________0_________________$125 ____2_________________________8_______________________0_________________$75 ____3________________________15_______________________0_________________$200 ____4________________________12_______________________3_________________$150 ____5________________________16_______________________0_________________$110 ____6_________________________4_______________________2_________________$50 ____7________________________10_______________________2_________________$90 ____8_________________________9_______________________0_________________$175 A. The total duration is 85 days and the cost is $975 B. The total duration is 58 days and the cost is $685 C. The total duration is 58 days and the cost is $975 D. The total duration is 84 days and the cost is $685

Workbook, Lesson 5, page 46, #14 Answer: C To determine duration, only those activities that are critical would be included (zero float). The activities with float are occurring concurrently with other activities and as such, the duration would be double-counted if included. That would bring the duration to 58 days. However, all activities, critical or not, will cost money, so all activity costs will be summed to $975.

Activity 7.1 is 5 days, Activity 7.2 is 9 days, Activity 7.3 is 4 days, Activity 7.4 is 11 days, and Activity 7.5 is 6 days. The predecessor for Activity 7.2 is Activity 7.1. The predecessor for Activity 7.3 is Activity 7.2. The predecessor for Activity 7.4 and 7.5 is Activity 7.3. What statement is the most accurate? A. The total duration is 35 days B. Activity 7.5 is a critical activity C. The total duration is 29 days D. If activity 7.2 gets delayed 3 days, there will be a 5 day delay on the project

Workbook, Lesson 5, page 46, #15 Answer: C Activities 7.1, 7.2, and 7.3 are occurring sequentially. Activities 7.4 and 7.5 are happening concurrently. Critical path is 7.1, 7.2, 7.3, and 7.4. Activity 7.5 has 5 days of float. The total duration is 29 days. Activity 7.2 is critical, so if it were to be delayed by 3 days, the project would be delayed by 3 days. ****************************************************************** Add image from page 52

Vocabulary: A schedule network analysis technique that modifies the project schedule to account for limited resources

Workbook, Lesson 5, page 48, #1 Answer: Critical chain metod

Vocabulary: A significant point or event in the project

Workbook, Lesson 5, page 48, #10 Answer: Milestone

Vocabulary: The amount of calendar time it will take to complete an activity or component

Workbook, Lesson 5, page 48, #11 Answer: Elapsed time

Vocabulary: The point in a schedule network diagram where more than one path has a shared successor activity with another path or paths

Workbook, Lesson 5, page 48, #12 Answer: Path convergence

Vocabulary: An ongoing process that establishes a reserve for the budget or schedule of a project based upon the remaining level of project uncertainty

Workbook, Lesson 5, page 48, #6 Answer: Reserve analysis

Vocabulary: The number of labor units required to complete a schedule activity or work breakdown structure component

Workbook, Lesson 5, page 48, #7 Answer: Effort

Vocabulary: A diagram that shows the sequencing of the project activities

Workbook, Lesson 5, page 49, #16 Answer: Project schedule network diagram

Vocabulary: A method of constructing a project schedule network diagram where the nodes or boxes represent activities and the arrows depict dependencies

Workbook, Lesson 5, page 49, #17 Answer: Precedence diagramming method

Vocabulary: A form of progressive elaboration where the work to be accomplished in the near term is planned in detail while the work further in the future is planned at a relatively high level

Workbook, Lesson 5, page 49, #18 Answer: Rolling wave planning

Vocabulary: An estimating technique that uses a statistical relationship between historical data and other variables to calculate an estimate for the cost or duration of an activity

Workbook, Lesson 5, page 49, #19 Answer: Parametric estimating

Vocabulary: The longest path through the schedule with zero or negative total float

Workbook, Lesson 5, page 49, #20 Answer: Critical path

Vocabulary: The amount of time that a schedule activity may be delayed without delaying the project finish date

Workbook, Lesson 5, page 49, #21 Answer: Total float

Vocabulary: Any form of schedule network analysis in which scheduling decisions (start and finish dates) are driven by resources constraints

Workbook, Lesson 5, page 49, #22 Answer: Resource leveling

Vocabulary: A specific type of project schedule compression technique performed by taking action to decrease the total project schedule duration using those activities that provide the most compression at the least incremental cost

Workbook, Lesson 5, page 49, #23 Answer: Crashing

Vocabulary: Various descriptions or requirements associated with each schedule activity that can be included within the activity list

Workbook, Lesson 5, page 49, #24 Answer: Activity attributes

Vocabulary: The total number of work periods to complete an activity, such as work days or work weeks

Workbook, Lesson 5, page 49, #26 Answer: Duration

Vocabulary: The point in a schedule network diagram where a single predecessor activity has more than one successor activity

Workbook, Lesson 5, page 49, #27 Answer: Path divergence

Vocabulary: An activity that logically comes before a dependent activity in a schedule

Workbook, Lesson 5, page 49, #28 Answer: Predecessor activity

Vocabulary: A critical path method technique for calculating the early start and early finish dates by working forward through the schedule model from the project start date or a given point in time

Workbook, Lesson 5, page 49, #29 Answer: Forward pass

Vocabulary: In a critical path method, the earliest possible point in time when the uncompleted portions of a schedule activity can finish based on the schedule network logic, the data date, and any schedule constraints

Workbook, Lesson 5, page 49, #30 Answer: Early finish date

Vocabulary: A component of the project management plan that establishes the criteria and the activities for developing, monitoring, and controlling the schedule

Workbook, Lesson 5, page 49, #31 Answer: Schedule management plan

Vocabulary: A schedule activity that has low total float

Workbook, Lesson 5, page 49, #32 Answer: Near-critical activity

Vocabulary: A logical relationship in which a successor activity cannot finish until a predecessor activity has finished

Workbook, Lesson 5, page 50, #33 Answer: Finish-to-finish

Vocabulary: In the critical path method, the earliest possible point in time when the uncompleted portions of a schedule activity can start based on the schedule network logic, the data date, and any schedule constraints

Workbook, Lesson 5, page 50, #34 Answer: Early start date

Vocabulary: In the critical path method, the latest possible point in time when the uncompleted portions of a schedule activity can finish based on the schedule network logic, the project completion date, and any schedule constraints

Workbook, Lesson 5, page 50, #35 Answer: Late finish date

Vocabulary: A logical relationship in which a successor activity cannot start until a predecessor activity has started

Workbook, Lesson 5, page 50, #36 Answer: Start-to-start

Vocabulary: A dependent activity that logically comes after another activity in a schedule

Workbook, Lesson 5, page 50, #37 Answer: Successor activity

Vocabulary: In the critical path method, the latest possible point in time when the uncompleted portions of a schedule activity can start based on the schedule network logic, the project completion date, and any schedule constraints

Workbook, Lesson 5, page 50, #38 Answer: Late start date

Vocabulary: Ongoing use of a number of techniques to analyze the current status of the project schedule and likelihood of achieving the schedule objectives

Workbook, Lesson 5, page 50, #39 Answer: Schedule network analysis

Your project is getting ready to kick-off and your sponsor has requested updated cost estimates. Which of the following is not true about cost estimates? A. Are generally expressed in unites of currency (dollars, euro, etc) B. The costs for schedule activities are estimated for all resources that will be charged to the project C. They do not generally consider information on risk responses D. Involve developing an approximation of the costs of the resources needed to complete each schedule activity

Workbook, Lesson 6, page 56, #4 Answer: C Cost estimates should include information on risk responses - including the cost to invoke risk responses and costs associated with contingency reserve.

During the pilot of the CIS project, 1,000 customer records were updated and added to the new system. The cost from the vendor was $500. You know that for the full launch you will need to update and transfer 500,000 additional customer records. What will be the best estimate for the full launch? A. $250,000 B. $250,500 C. $500,000 D. $200,000

Workbook, Lesson 6, page 57, #10 Answer: A For the full launch, you can use a parametric estimate based on the pilot date: $500 / $1,000 records = $0.50 per record. For $500,000 records, the cost would be $500,000 x 0.50 = $250,000

Successful adoption of the CIS project is going to be dependent upon a thorough training program for the service representatives. In order to develop your sizing, you review the documentation from the financial system roll-out last year. To provide the same population with classroom training for that project cost $37,500. In addition, IT recently provided all users with trouble-shooting manuals for a similar system, at a cost of $12,000. Troubleshooting manuals will be used for this project as well. Which statement is most accurate? A. The parametric estimate would be $49,500 B. The analogous estimate would be $49,500 C. The budgetary estimate would be $49,500 D. The three-point estimate would be $49,500

Workbook, Lesson 6, page 57, #9 Answer: B Because you are using costs from a past similar project, this would be considered analogous estimating. $37,500 + $12,000 = $49,500

You have been assigned the management of a $750,000 infrastructure renovation project. The work is anticipated to take two years to complete and the budget has been allocated as below. What is the planned value (PV) of the work upon completion of period 6? ADD IMAGE, Workbook, Lesson 6, page 58, #13 A. $195,000 B. $660,000 C. Unable to determine D. $465,000

Workbook, Lesson 6, page 58, #13 Answer: B Planned value (PV) is the cumulative planned value of the work. To determine the PV by the end of period six, sum all periodic estimates up through period six. This would equal $660,000.

On a particular component, the work package owner leveraged a triangular 3-point estimate, calculated at $128,333. If the optimistic estimate was $98,000 and the most likely estimate was $112,000, what was the pessimistic estimate? A. $112,778 B. $175,000 C. $223,998 D. $112,389

Workbook, Lesson 6, page 58, #15 Answer: B Using the triangular 3-point formula: (O + M + P) / 3 $128,333 = ($98,000 + $112,000 + P) / 3 $384,999 = $98,000 + $112,000 + P $384,999 = $210,000 + P $174,999 = P

Vocabulary: An estimating technique that uses a statistical relationship between historical data and other variables to calculate an estimate, such as a unit cost

Workbook, Lesson 6, page 59, #1 Answer: Parametric estimating

Vocabulary: The amount of funds or budget set-aside to cover major unknown risks or changes. For unknown-unknowns.

Workbook, Lesson 6, page 59, #10 Answer: Management reserve

Vocabulary: Used to appropriate funds on a periodic basis

Workbook, Lesson 6, page 59, #11 Answer: Budgetary estimate

Vocabulary: A high-level educated guess

Workbook, Lesson 6, page 59, #12 Answer: Rough order of magnitude estimate

Vocabulary: Used for longer term projects where the near-term work is estimated in detail and future term work has place-holders

Workbook, Lesson 6, page 59, #13 Answer: Phased estimate

Vocabulary: A method of estimating where cost estimates are placed on each component of work and the estimates are then aggregated for an overall estimate

Workbook, Lesson 6, page 59, #9 Answer: Bottom-up estimating

Process/Output. The Key Output is provided, name the Process that creates it. Activity Attributes

Workbook, Lesson 6, page 60, #1 Answer: Define Activities

Process/Output. The Key Output is provided, name the Process that creates it. Project Calendars

Workbook, Lesson 6, page 60, #10 Answer: Define Schedule

Process/Output. The Key Output is provided, name the Process that creates it. Project Funding Requirements

Workbook, Lesson 6, page 60, #11 Answer: Determine Budget

Process/Output. The Key Output is provided, name the Process that creates it. Project Schedule

Workbook, Lesson 6, page 60, #12 Answer: Develop Schedule

Process/Output. The Key Output is provided, name the Process that creates it. Project Schedule Network Diagrams

Workbook, Lesson 6, page 60, #13 Answer: Sequence Activities

Process/Output. The Key Output is provided, name the Process that creates it. Resource Breakdown Structure

Workbook, Lesson 6, page 60, #14 Answer: Estimate Activity Resources

Process/Output. The Key Output is provided, name the Process that creates it. Schedule Baseline

Workbook, Lesson 6, page 60, #15 Answer: Develop Schedule

Process/Output. The Key Output is provided, name the Process that creates it. Schedule Data

Workbook, Lesson 6, page 60, #16 Answer: Develop Schedule

Process/Output. The Key Output is provided, name the Process that creates it. Schedule Management Plan

Workbook, Lesson 6, page 60, #17 Answer: Plan Schedule Management

Process/Output. The Key Output is provided, name the Process that creates it. Activity Cost Estimates

Workbook, Lesson 6, page 60, #2 Answer: Estimate Costs

Process/Output. The Key Output is provided, name the Process that creates it. Activity Duration Estimates

Workbook, Lesson 6, page 60, #3 Answer: Estimate Activity Durations

Process/Output. The Key Output is provided, name the Process that creates it. Activity List

Workbook, Lesson 6, page 60, #4 Answer: Define Activities

Process/Output. The Key Output is provided, name the Process that creates it. Activity Resource Requirements

Workbook, Lesson 6, page 60, #5 Answer: Estimate Activity Resources

Process/Output. The Key Output is provided, name the Process that creates it. Basis of Estimates

Workbook, Lesson 6, page 60, #6 Answer: Estimate costs

Process/Output. The Key Output is provided, name the Process that creates it. Cost Baseline

Workbook, Lesson 6, page 60, #7 Answer: Determine Budget

Process/Output. The Key Output is provided, name the Process that creates it. Cost Management Plan

Workbook, Lesson 6, page 60, #8 Answer: Plan Cost Management

Process/Output. The Key Output is provided, name the Process that creates it. Milestone list

Workbook, Lesson 6, page 60, #9 Answer: Define Activities

The project has been underway for six months and the team has made considerable progress. As you move into the phase of deliverable development, you team has discovered a significant quality problem. What should you do next? A. Escalate the situation to the sponsor for notification B. Develop an Ishikawa diagram to determine root causes of the quality issue C. Refer the issue to the quality team for resolution D. Continue with the project to see if the problem continues to appear

Workbook, Lesson 7, page 66, #1 Answer: B Evaluating the quality problem proactively for root causes would be the most appropriate next step, versus waiting to see if the problem will recur again. As the PM, you should always evaluate the situation and potential solutions before escalation to the sponsor You may or may not have a dedicated quality team.

What contract type has lowest risk for the buyer yet allows flexibility in the form of an incentive for achieving defined performance objectives? A. CPIF B. FFP C. FP-EPA D. FPIF

Workbook, Lesson 7, page 66, #4 Answer: D Fixed price contracts place the lowest risk on the buyer. A fixed price incentive fee (FPIF) contract allows flexibility to incent the buyer based on predefined performance objectives - for example, delivering early.

A cost-plus-fixed-fee (CPFF) contract has all of the following characteristics except: A. Seller is reimbursed for allowable costs for performing the contract work B. Seller receives a fixed fee payment calculated as a percentage of the actual project costs C. Seller receives a fixed fee payment calculated as a percentage of the estimated project costs D. The fixed fee does not vary with actual costs unless the project scope changes

Workbook, Lesson 7, page 67, #12 Answer: B The fixed fee in the CPFF is calculated as a percentage of estimated costs, not actual costs. The fact that it is based on estimated costs is what makes it a "fixed" fee. If it were based on actual costs, it would be variable and would therefore not be fixed.

Your sponsor over the very complex project has requested that if a vendor will be necessary, the lowest risk contract that would allow the vendor to deliver on all of the terms and conditions must be used. As such, you know you will need to use: A. Firm fixed price B. No vendor C. Time and material D. Cost plus fixed fee

Workbook, Lesson 7, page 68, #15 Answer: A The lowest risk contract type for the buyer is a firm fixed price (FFP) contract.

Vocabulary: The buyer reimburses the seller for the seller's costs and the seller earns profit for meeting pre-defined performance criteria

Workbook, Lesson 7, page 70, #8 Answer: Cost plus incentive fee contract

Vocabulary: A contract with a defined set price for the product

Workbook, Lesson 7, page 70, #9 Answer: Fixed price contract

Vocabulary: A graphic display of process data over time and against established control limits

Workbook, Lesson 7, page 71, #15 Answer: Control chart

Vocabulary: A matrix-based chart displaying the relationships between the work that needs to be done on the project and the individuals assigned to complete that work

Workbook, Lesson 7, page 71, #16 Answer: Responsibility assignment matrix

Vocabulary: Used to verify that a set of required steps has been performed

Workbook, Lesson 7, page 71, #17 Answer: Quality checklists

Vocabulary: A type of contract used for longer term projects that allows for pre-defined adjustments to the to the contract price due to changed conditions.

Workbook, Lesson 7, page 71, #18 Answer: Fixed price with economic price adjustment contract

Vocabulary: The process of monitoring and recording the results of executing the quality activities to assess performance and recommend necessary changes

Workbook, Lesson 7, page 71, #19 Answer: Quality control

Vocabulary: An operational definition that describes what something is and how the quality control process measures it

Workbook, Lesson 7, page 71, #22 Answer: Quality metrics

Vocabulary: The seller is reimbursed for all costs, but the majority of the fee is only earned based on the satisfaction of identified broad subjective performance criteria

Workbook, Lesson 7, page 71, #23 Answer: Cost plus award fee contract

Vocabulary: A method of determining the costs incurred to ensure quality

Workbook, Lesson 7, page 71, #24 Answer: Cost of quality

Vocabulary: The acquirer of products, services, or results for an organization

Workbook, Lesson 7, page 71, #25 Answer: Buyer

Vocabulary: Specific and measureable criteria

Workbook, Lesson 7, page 71, #26 Answer: Objective criteria

Vocabulary: A provider or supplier of products, services, or results to an organization

Workbook, Lesson 7, page 71, #27 Answer: Seller

Vocabulary: The depiction in a diagram format of the inputs, process actions, and outputs of one or more processes within a system

Workbook, Lesson 7, page 71, #28 Answer: Flowchart

Vocabulary: A correlation chart that uses a regression line to explain or to predict how the change in an independent variable will change a dependent variable

Workbook, Lesson 7, page 71, #29 Answer: Scatter diagram

Vocabulary: A subsidiary plan of the project management plan, detailing the steps for analyzing processes to identify activities that enhance their value

Workbook, Lesson 7, page 71, #30 Answer: Process improvement plan

Vocabulary: A special form of bar chart used to describe the central tendency, dispersion, and shape of a statistical distribution

Workbook, Lesson 7, page 71, #33 Answer: Histogram

Vocabulary: A component of the project or program management plan that describes how a project team will acquire goods and services from outside the performing organization

Workbook, Lesson 7, page 71, #34 Answer: Procurement management plan

The risk management plan has been completed and approved by the key stakeholders. You are working with your team to identify risks to the project and are performing a qualitative risk analysis. The objective of the qualitative risk analysis is to: A. Assess the impact and likelihood of the identified risks B. Prioritize the identified risks for further analysis or for response C. Determine if the risk responses have been implemented as planned D. Select alternative strategies for dealing with risks

Workbook, Lesson 8, page 76, #2 Answer: B While the identified risks will be evaluated for impact and likelihood during qualitative risk analysis, the objective of doing so is to prioritize the risks. Qualitative analysis does not evaluate if risk responses have been implemented as planned.

You are the Project Manager of ABC project. The project is being executed in an earthquake-prone area. To take care of this you buy insurance for earthquakes. This is an example of: A. Risk mitigation B. Transfer of risk C. Risk contingency planning D. Accepting the consequences passively

Workbook, Lesson 8, page 76, #5 Answer: B Shifting the negative impact to a third party is considered risk transference.

You are the project manager of ABC project. One of the risks that have been identified is attrition of team members. Mid-way through the project you notice that the morale and motivation of the team members is going down. You think that this is a precursor to people leaving the organization. For this risk, low motivation is an example of a: A. Work-around B. Trigger C. Risk monitoring D. Risk planning

Workbook, Lesson 8, page 76, #6 Answer: B The low motivation is a pre-cursor event to people leaving the organization. As such, it is considered a trigger.

This is the process of analyzing the effect of identified risks on overall project objectives, assigning a numerical rating to those risks individually or evaluating the aggregate effect of all risks affecting the project, and presents and approach to making decisions in the presence of uncertainty. A. Perform qualitative risk analysis B. Perform quantitative risk analysis C. Control quality D. Perform quality management

Workbook, Lesson 8, page 77, #10 Answer: B This is describing the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process. Quantitative risk analysis assigns a numerical rating (cost and/or schedule) and then aggregates the values in order to assess the potential cost and schedule risk impact. Quantitative analysis can also aid in decision making, such as by using decision trees and expected monetary value.

You are managing the project of planning a party for your company employees. There is a risk that the employees will not come to the party. You decide to not take any action against this as the likelihood of this is low. Which risk response are you following? A. Acceptance B. Avoidance C. Mitigation D. Transference

Workbook, Lesson 8, page 77, #7 Answer: A Because you are taking no action, this is considered risk acceptance. Avoidance would have meant eliminating the risk - such as cancelling your company party. Mitigation would have meant decreasing the risk - such a providing transportation or other incentives. Transference would have meant shifting the negative impact - such as some type of cancellation policy on the party venue.

Vocabulary: A risk response planning technique that indicates that the project team has decided not to change the project management plan to proactively address a risk

Workbook, Lesson 8, page 80, #10 Answer: Risk acceptance

Vocabulary: A table or an equation that links each outcome of a statistical experiment with its probability of occurrence

Workbook, Lesson 8, page 80, #11 Answer: Probability distribution

Vocabulary: An analytical technique used to determine the basic underlying reason that causes a variance or a defect or a risk

Workbook, Lesson 8, page 80, #12 Answer: Root cause analysis

Vocabulary: A risk response planning technique, associated with threats, that seeks to reduce the probability of occurrence or impact of a risk to below an acceptable threshold

Workbook, Lesson 8, page 81, #20 Answer: Risk mitigation

Vocabulary: A computerized mathematical technique that computes or iterates the project cost or project schedule numerous times using input values to calculate a distribution of possible total project cost or completion dates

Workbook, Lesson 8, page 81, #21 Answer: Monte Carlo simulation

Vocabulary: A hierarchically organized depiction of the identified project risks arranged by risk category and subcategory that identifies the various areas and causes of potential risks

Workbook, Lesson 8, page 81, #22 Answer: Risk breakdown structure

Vocabulary: A risk response strategy that is planned in advance and only executed under certain predefined conditions

Workbook, Lesson 8, page 81, #23 Answer: Contingent response strategy

Vocabulary: An indication that a risk has occurred or is about to occur

Workbook, Lesson 8, page 81, #24 Answer: Trigger

Vocabulary: A risk response planning technique that involves changing the project plan to ensure realization of an opportunity

Workbook, Lesson 8, page 81, #25 Answer: Risk exploitation

Vocabulary: An uncertain event that, if it occurs, will have a negative effect on the project objectives

Workbook, Lesson 8, page 81, #26 Answer: Threat

Vocabulary: The document containing details of all the identified project risks

Workbook, Lesson 8, page 81, #27 Answer: Risk register

Which of the following is not an output of the direct and manage project work process: A. Work performance data B. Deliverables C. Project management information system D. Change requests

Workbook, Lesson 9, page 86, #2 Answer: C The project management information system (PMIS) is not an output of the Direct and Manage Project Work process. The PMIS is always a tool/technique, never an input or an output. The Direct and Management Project Work process outputs are deliverables, work performance data, change requests, project management plan updates, and project documents updates.

The buyer structures procurement documents to accomplish all of the following except: A. Facilitate an accurate and complete response from each prospective seller B. Include the relevant contract statement of work and any required contractual provisions C. Include a description of the desired form of the response D. Provide a list of potential bidders to each prospective seller

Workbook, Lesson 9, page 86, #3 Answer: D The procurement documents are not structured to provide a list of potential bidders to each prospective seller.

Quality assurance (QA): A. Generally reduces the probability of project completion on schedule B. Is the application of planned, systematic quality activities to ensure that the project will employ all processes needed to meet requirements C. Is primarily concerned with providing the project team and stakeholders with standards, by which the project performance is measured D. Is the application of planned, systematic quality activities to ensure effective policing of the conformance of the project team to approved specifications

Workbook, Lesson 9, page 87, #10 Answer: B Quality Assurance is the application of planned systematic quality activities to ensure the project employs the appropriate processes to meet the requirements. It is not the effective policing of conformance of the team to approved specifications. The quality standard (quality metrics) are provided through the Plan Quality Management process. QA may increase the probability of project completion on schedule, but would not uniformly reduce the probability of timely completion.

Which statement is most accurate regarding project quality management? A. The perform quality assurance process is employed only when the project is producing a product B. Work performance information is sued in the perform quality assurance process to evaluate if the quality standards are being met C. Continuous process improvement should not be confused with quality assurance D. Quality control measurements are used in the perform quality assurance process to evaluate if the results are in alignment with metrics prescribed in the quality management plan

Workbook, Lesson 9, page 87, #11 Answer: D The QC measurements, an output from the Control Quality process, are used in QA to evaluate if the results are in alignment with the QC measurements. This allows the team to look for process improvement opportunities. QA is appropriate on all projects. Work performance information only gives a partial view of the quality data needed for continuous improvement. QA is considered the umbrella over the continuous process improvement.

The PMO in your organization has implemented a policy that all active projects must undergo quality audits. Which statement is least accurate regarding quality audits? A. Quality audits identify inefficient and ineffective policies, processes, and procedures that are in use B. Quality audits may confirm the implementation of approved change requests and their effectiveness C. Quality audits must be scheduled on a set basis to determine full effectiveness D. Quality audits determine whether project activities comply with organizational policies and procedures

Workbook, Lesson 9, page 87, #14 Answer: C Quality audits (performed within the Perform Quality Assurance process) may be scheduled or random. They do not have to be scheduled to be effective.

How is the stakeholder management strategy used in the manage stakeholder engagement process? A. It shows which stakeholders are involved in the project B. It details the product acceptance criteria C. It documents the stakeholders' roles and responsibilities D. It provides the evaluation of the stakeholders' needs based on factors such as power and interest

Workbook, Lesson 9, page 87, #9 Answer: D The stakeholder management strategy considers the stakeholders' power and interest which allows the project team to prioritize their interactions with those stakeholder with the potentially biggest impact.

Vocabulary: Allows proposals to be ranked by the weighted evaluation scores

Workbook, Lesson 9, page 89, #1 Answer: Weighting system

What is the full name of the PMBOK Guide? A. Program Management Body of Knowledge B. Project Management Body of Knowledge C. A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge D. Project Management Book of Knowledge

Workbook, Practice Exam 1, Lessons 1-4, page 132, #2 Answer: C The full name is A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge

These are key individuals who play a management role within an administrative or functional area of the business: A. Operations managers B. Project team C. Project managers D. Functional managers

Workbook, Practice Exam 1, Lessons 1-4, page 132, #3 Answer: D Functional managers play a management role within an administrative or functional area of the business.

A project is defined as: A. A strategic initiative that is long-term B. The application of skills, knowledge, tools and technique to project activities C. A temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, service, or result D. A collection of related programs

Workbook, Practice Exam 1, Lessons 1-4, page 133, #10 Answer: C A project is a temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, service, or result

What would not be an appropriate attribute of a project? A. Temporary B. Progressively elaborated C. Ongoing management of operations D. Creates a unique product, service, or result

Workbook, Practice Exam 1, Lessons 1-4, page 133, #12 Answer: C Project are temporary, progressively elaborated, and create a unique product, service, or result. Projects are not the ongoing management of operations.

Which project structure is likely to best leverage the parent organization's depth and breadth of technical experts? A. Projectized B. Weak matrix C. Matrix D. Functional

Workbook, Practice Exam 1, Lessons 1-4, page 134, #20 Answer: D A functional organization is best able to leverage the depth and breadth of the parent's organization's technical experts, as those resources reside within, and work within, their functional areas. Therefore, their knowledge is current and specialized to their area.

This technique enhances brainstorming with a voting process to rank the ideas. A. Idea/mind mapping B. Delphi technique C. Affinity diagram D. Nominal group technique

Workbook, Practice Exam 1, Lessons 1-4, page 135, #26 Answer: D Nominal group technique enhances brainstorming by adding a voting process to the ideas that were generated through brainstorming.

The PMBOK Guide process groups interact based on what model? A. Juran's 80/20 B. Deming's Continuous Process Improvement C. Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs D. Shewhart's Plan-Do-Check-Act cycle

Workbook, Practice Exam 1, Lessons 1-4, page 135, #27 Answer: D The process groups interact based on Shewhart's Plan-Do-Check-Act cycle.

This process is part of the planning process group and the integration knowledge area: A. Develop Project Management Plan B. Develop Project Charter C. Identify Stakeholders D. Identify Sponsor

Workbook, Practice Exam 1, Lessons 1-4, page 135, #28 Answer: A The Develop Project Management Plan process is in the integration knowledge area and the planning process group.

The relationships amongst the triple constraint could best be described as: A. As project manager, if you change one of the constraints, you must adjust the other factors B. Each are dependent on the others C. The constraints are not related and function independently D. If any one of the constraints is changed or adjusted, most likely at least one other factor is affected

Workbook, Practice Exam 1, Lessons 1-4, page 135, #29 Answer: D The triple constraints are related in that if one changes more than likely the others will be affected. The triple constraint is scope, time, cost.

All of the following are examples of organizational structures, except: A. Dictatorship B. Projectized C. Functional D. Matrix

Workbook, Practice Exam 1, Lessons 1-4, page 135, #31 Answer: A The organizational structures include functional, weak matrix, balanced matrix, strong matrix, and projectized.

Why is the project charter considered a mandatory document on a project? A. The charter is a contractual requirement B. Because it is signed by the sponsor C. The charter provides authorization for the project to commence D. The charter is the document that assigns the project manager

Workbook, Practice Exam 1, Lessons 1-4, page 135, #32 Answer: C The charter is considered mandatory because it provides authorization for the project to commence.

Which of the following is not a true statement about stakeholders? A. The project management team must identify both internal and external stakeholders B. Stakeholders may exert influence over the project, its deliverables, and the project team members C. Stakeholders are positively affected by the project outcome D. The project manager must manage the influence of the various stakeholders in relation to the project requirements

Workbook, Practice Exam 1, Lessons 1-4, page 136, #39 Answer: C Stakeholders will not always be positively affected by the project outcome. The assumption on any project is that you will have negative / resistant stakeholders.

Which of the following is not a knowledge area: A. Integration B. Scope C. Budget D. Time

Workbook, Practice Exam 1, Lessons 1-4, page 136, #40 Answer: C Budget is not a knowledge area: integration, scope, time, cost, quality, human resources, communication, risk, procurement, and stakeholder

How are the names and numbers of phases on a project determined? A. By determining how long the project is going to take B. By following the PMBOK Guide methodology C. By the management and control needs of the organization D. By the individual project manager

Workbook, Practice Exam 1, Lessons 1-4, page 136, #41 Answer: C The names and number of phases on a project are determined by the management and control needs of the organizatino.

The stakeholder management plan A. Identifies the project manager B. Is always developed by the customer C. Gives authorization for the project to commence D. Defines an approach to increase the support and minimize negative impacts of stakeholders

Workbook, Practice Exam 1, Lessons 1-4, page 137, #45 Answer: D The stakeholder management plan defines an approach to increase support and minimize negative impacts to the project stakeholders.

You are a project manager with a technology consulting firm. Your first project is the implementation of an internal resource allocation tool for the home office. You are about to begin work on the project and realize that there is not an executed contract for the project, although there is a signed charter. How should you handle this? A. Escalate the issue to your project sponsor B. Begin the project C. Report the discrepancy to the customer D. Wait for a contract to be executed prior to beginning work

Workbook, Practice Exam 1, Lessons 1-4, page 137, #46 Answer: B Because the project is being done as an internal project, for your home office, there is no need for a contract. Given that the charter has been executed, the project can begin.

This type of work is ongoing and sustains the organization over time: A. Production B. Operations C. Projects D. Execution

Workbook, Practice Exam 1, Lessons 1-4, page 137, #47 Answer: B Operations are ongoing and sustain the organization over time.

The difference between the scope statement and the project charter could best be described as: A. The scope statement will usually identify the project manager B. The project charter will document the project deliverables and product scope description C. The scope statement will include the sponsor name and signature D. The project charter will capture measureable objectives and success criteria

Workbook, Practice Exam 1, Lessons 1-4, page 137, #48 Answer: D The project charter will capture measureable objectives and success criteria for the project, identify the project manager (if known), and will include the sponsor name, title, and signature. The scope statement will document the project deliverables and the product scope description.

You have been assigned the management of a high-priority project. Due to the urgency surrounding the project and conflicting project schedule, the project sponsor has advised you to start the project despite the fact that there is not a project charter. What is the most appropriate response for you to take? A. Proceed with the project B. Document the sponsor's information C. Seek another position outside of the organization D. Escalate the situation

Workbook, Practice Exam 1, Lessons 1-4, page 138, #50 Answer: D Even though the sponsor has advised you to begin the project, you cannot begin without authorization in place. As such, you would need to escalate the situation.

A new team leader has joined the project organization. She will be managing multiple project resources as part of a large-scale system implementation. In order to increase the probability of delivering the project on time, she has been authorized to provide incentives to the team when they achieve defined milestones early. What type of authority does she have? A. Coercive B. Referent C. Positional D. Reward

Workbook, Practice Exam 1, Lessons 1-4, page 138, #52 Answer: D Because she is incenting the team with something they value, this is considered reward authority.

You are evaluating the business case for the project you were recently assigned. Upon review of the financial benefits of the project, you find that the project has a projected negative NPV. What statement is most accurate? A.If the project has a negative NPV, most likely the business case was not completed correctly B. It is likely that the project is being conducted to meet a legal, regulatory, or compliance requirement C. The project should be escalated to the sponsor before the project begins D. A negative NPV is likely due to a large up-front expenditure in the project

Workbook, Practice Exam 1, Lessons 1-4, page 138, #56 Answer: B An active project with a negative NPV (net present value) is most likely conducted to meet a legal, regulatory, or compliance requirement. You cannot assume the business case was completed incorrectly. The business case is completed by the sponsor, so they would already be aware of the negative NPV. A large up front expenditure wouldn't necessarily cause a negative NPV.

Which of the following is not a technique used to define the project scope? A. Product analysis B. Prototypes C. Facilitated workshops D. Alternatives generation

Workbook, Practice Exam 1, Lessons 1-4, page 139, #57 Answer: B The tools and techniques used to define the project scope are product analysis, facilitated workshops, and alternatives generation. Prototypes are tool/technique for the Collect Requirements process.

This process is part of the initiating process group and the integration knowledge area: A. Create charter B. Identify stakeholders C. Develop project charter D. Identify sponsor

Workbook, Practice Exam 1, Lessons 1-4, page 139, #58 Answer: C The process that is in the initiating process group and the integration knowledge area is the Develop Project Charter process.

The development of a project management plan is a PMO requirement for all projects that are over $100,000 or 6 months in length. Which statement is least accurate regarding the project management plan? A. It may be summary level or detailed B. Is also known as the project schedule C. It includes a description of the processes that will be used on the project D. It aides in managing the team member and stakeholder expectations

Workbook, Practice Exam 1, Lessons 1-4, page 139, #62 Answer: B The project management plan is not the project schedule, but it does include the schedule baseline. The project management plan may be summary level or detailed, includes a description of the processes that will be used on the project and it aides in managing the team member and stakeholder expectations.

Which of the following is an input to planning the project communications? A. The stakeholder register B. The project charter C. The project scope statement D. The WBS

Workbook, Practice Exam 1, Lessons 1-4, page 140, #67 Answer: A The stakeholder register will be input to the Plan Communication Management process, as it will be our stakeholders we will be communicating with on the project. The stakeholders' power and interest will influence those communications.

There are twenty stakeholders on your project. Fifteen of those stakeholders are located in a different geographic location and four are senior leaders. How many potential communication channels exist? A. 20 B. 19 C. 380 D. 190

Workbook, Practice Exam 1, Lessons 1-4, page 140, #69 Answer: D Using the communication channels formula n (n-1) / 2: 20 (19) / 2 380 / 2 = 190

Your project is about to begin and you have identified 20 core team members. With your team, you are developing your approach to planning the project. You are leveraging the organization's past project files and historical information to provide the foundation for the approach. This would be considered using: A. Enterprise environmental factors B. Expert judgement C. The project management plan D. Organizational process assets

Workbook, Practice Exam 1, Lessons 1-4, page 140, #70 Answer: D Past project files and historical information are considered part of the organizational process assets.

Interviews, focus groups, observations, prototypes, and group creativity techniques are tools and techniques for this process: A. Define scope B. Create WBS C. Collect requirements D. Plan communications

Workbook, Practice Exam 1, Lessons 1-4, page 141, #75 Answer: C Interviews, focus groups, observations, prototypes, and group creativity techniques are tools/techniques for the Collect Requirements process.

Activity A has a duration of 6 days and has 4 days of free float. The ES of the successor activity, Activity B, is day 18. If Activity A is delayed by 7 days, what is the adjusted ES of Activity B? A. Day 25 B. Day 11 C. Day 21 D. Day 31

Workbook, Practice Exam 2, page 150, #1 Answer: C Activity A has four days of free float. If it gets delayed by seven days, with only four days of free float, it will cause the successor's early start to be delayed by three days (4 - 7 = -3). This will change the ES of Activity B to day 21.

Activity A has a duration of 5 days and 0 float, Activity B has a duration of 2 days and 3 days float, Activity C has a duration of 9 days and 0 float, and Activity D has a duration of 8 days and 1 day of float. What is the total duration of these activities? A. 20 days B. 24 days C. 14 days D. 18 days

Workbook, Practice Exam 2, page 150, #2 Answer: C Find critical path To calculate the total duration of these activities, you can assume a singular critical path. You would only include critical activities in the duration calculation, as activities with float are occurring concurrently with other activities. If you included their duration, it would be "double-counting." 5 days + 9 days = 14 days

A group of related schedule activities that, for reporting purposes, is shown as a single aggregate activity: A. Hammock activity B. PDM C. Combination activity D. Roll-up activity

Workbook, Practice Exam 2, page 150, #5 Answer: A A hammock activity (also known as a summary activity) is a group of related schedule activities that are shown as a singular aggregate activity for communication purposes. PDM: Precedence Diagram Method

These dependencies are inherent to the work being done and often involve physical limitations. A. Hard logic B. Soft logic C. External D. Discretionary

Workbook, Practice Exam 2, page 150, #6 Answer: A Hard-logic dependencies, also known as mandatory dependencies, are inherent to the work being done and involve a physical limitation.

What is the most commonly used formula for a 3-point estimate? A. (optimistic time + most likely time + pessimistic time) / 6 B. (optimistic time + most likely time + pessimistic time) / 3 C. (optimistic time + 4 (most likely time) + pessimistic time) / 6 D. (optimistic time + pessimistic time) / 2

Workbook, Practice Exam 2, page 150, #7 Answer: C The most common formula is a beta 3-point: (O + 4M + P) / 6. The triangular 3-point less common: (O + M + P) / 3

The project completion date will slip if: A. Total float = 0 B. Total float > 0 C. Total float < 0 D. Total float > 1

Workbook, Practice Exam 2, page 150, #8 Answer: C If the project has negative float (float < 0) the project completion date will slip by the amount that it's negative. Negative float means any float that was available was consumed and there has been an additional delay.

The cost baseline includes __________ but does not include __________. A. Contingency, management reserve B. management reserve, contingency C. management reserve, basis of the estimates D. management reserve, schedule allowances

Workbook, Practice Exam 2, page 151, #10 Answer: A The cost baseline includes contingency but does not include management reserve

Of the following cost estimate types, which would be the least accurate? A. Budgetary B. Phased C. Progressive elaboration D. ROM

Workbook, Practice Exam 2, page 151, #11 Answer: D The least accurate estimate type would be a rough order of magnitude (ROM), which is essentially an educated guess as to the project costs.

You are estimating the cost for the website development work package. Most likely the cost will be $1,000. However, there is a chance it can cost as much as $1,800 or as little as $500. What is the best estimate for the work package? A. $1,050 B. $1,100 C. $3,300 D. $1,000

Workbook, Practice Exam 2, page 151, #13 Answer: A Using a PERT estimate: (O + 4M + P) / 6 ($500 + 4($1,000) + $1,800) / 6 ($500 + $4,000 + $1,800) / 6 $6,300 / 6 = $1,050

The project costs have been estimated at $450,000. Because the project has a significant amount of risk, the project manager is adding $50,000 for contingency. In addition, the project sponsor has allocated an additional $75,000 for management reserve. How much is the cost baseline? A. $500,000 B. $450,000 C. $525,000 D. $575,000

Workbook, Practice Exam 2, page 152, #16 Answer: A The cost baseline is the cost estimate and the contingency: $450,000 + $50,000 = $500,000

In what way does free float differ from total float? A. Free float is the amount of total float that does not affect the end date, whereas total float is the accumulated amount of free float B. There is not difference - the two terms are functionally equivalent C. Free float is the amount of time that a schedule activity can be delayed without delaying the early start of any immediately following schedule activities, whereas total float is concerned with delays that affect the project finish date D. An activity's free float is calculated by subtracting the total float from the critical path's total float

Workbook, Practice Exam 2, page 152, #17 Answer: C Free float is the amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the early start (ES) of the successor activity. Total float is the amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the project. Total float is also known as float or slack. Free float is only known as free float.

You are three moths into a one-year project and are evaluating the project schedule. It appears as though there are only a few activities coming up within the next reporting period that have float. The float of an activity is determined by: A. The amount of lag B. The amount of time the activity can be delayed before it impacts the critical path C. Performing a Monte Carlo analysis to determine the amount of slack D. Identifying the free float as compared to the activity durations

Workbook, Practice Exam 2, page 153, #24 Answer: B The float of an activity is the amount of time that an activity can be delayed before it impacts the critical path. Lag is the delay in the start of a successor activity and is not related to float. A Monte Carlo analysis is a quantitative risk technique.

Which of the following statements is true about elapsed time versus effort? A. Elapsed time is actual calendar time and effort is the number of hours required to complete the activity B. Effort is the amount of calendar time and elapsed time is the total amount of days consumed by the activity C. Both are included in the critical path calculation D. Effort is used mainly with resource-leveling

Workbook, Practice Exam 2, page 153, #25 Answer: A Elapsed time is the actual calendar time whereas effort is the number of work units (staff hours, staff delays) required to complete the activity.

These dependencies are also called preferential logic: A. Mandatory B. Discretionary C. Hard logic D. External

Workbook, Practice Exam 2, page 153, #26 Answer: B Preferential logic is also called soft logic, discretionary, or preferred logic.

Your work package owner has submitted the following information: There will be three resources involved in the work, each working five hours per day with no work on the weekends. The start date will be Monday, 1 March and the completion day is Friday, 19 March. Monday, 8 March is a holiday. What is the effort of the work? A. 14 staff-days B. 225 staff-hours C. 15 staff-days D. 210 staff-hours

Workbook, Practice Exam 2, page 153, #29 Answer: D There are three resources working five hours per day = 15 work hours per day. Multiply the 15 work hours by the 14 day duration = 210 staff-hours

Total float is: A. The amount of time that an activity can be delayed without delaying the early start of any immediately following activities B. The amount of time that an activity can be delayed without delaying the completion date of the project C. The amount of float on the critical path D. Calculated by subtracting late start from late finish

Workbook, Practice Exam 2, page 154, #30 Answer: B Total float, also known as float or slack, is the amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the completion of the project. Free float is the amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the early start of the successor activity. There is no float on the critical path (which is what makes it the critical path). Float is calculated as the difference between the early and late starts or the early and late finishes.

The work package owners are completing their resource requirements. In association with the resource requirements, which of the following would not be included with the requirements? A. The basis of the estimates B. The risk probability and impact C. Assumptions that were used D. Resource quantities and availability

Workbook, Practice Exam 2, page 154, #31 Answer: B Risk probability and impact would not be included with the resource requirements.

You have conducted a PERT analysis on a critical work package. Based on the information from your team, you learn that the best-case duration is 4 days and the worst-case duration is 14 days. If the PERT estimate is 7 days, what is the most likely duration? A. 9 days B. 7 days C. 8 days D. 6 days

Workbook, Practice Exam 2, page 154, #32 Answer: D Using the PERT formula (O + 4M + P) / 6 7 = (4 + 4M + 14) / 6 42 = 4 + 4M + 14 42 = 18 + 4M 24 = 4M 6 = M

You have assessed the following critical activities for crashing: Activity___OrigCost___CrashCost___OrigDur___CrashDur 1.1____________10k____________12k_____________12d_____________8d 2.1____________8k____________15k_____________20d_____________13d 3.1____________5k____________11k______________25d____________22d 4.1____________11k____________12k_____________30d____________20d 5.1____________3k____________4k______________10d_____________6d IMAGE What is the best candidate for crashing? A. 4.1 B. 2.1 C. 5.1 D. 1.1

Workbook, Practice Exam 2, page 154, #34 Answer: A The first step would be to calculate incremental crash cost for each activity: (difference in crash cost) / (difference in duration) Activity 1.1 = $2,000 / 4 days = $500/day Activity 2.1 = $7,000 / 7 days = $1,000/day Activity 3.1 = $6,000 / 3 days = $2,000/day Activity 4.1 = $1,000 / 10 days = $100/day Activity 5.1 = $1,000 / 4 days = $250/day Activity 4.1 has the lowest incremental crash cost so it would be the best candidate for crashing

With your project team, you are identifying any dependencies between the project activities and creating a PDM. What process are you conducting? A. Activity duration estimating B. Activity resource estimating C. Developing the project schedule D. Sequencing activities

Workbook, Practice Exam 2, page 155, #36 Answer: D Identifying the dependencies and creating the schedule network diagram (PDM) would be done in the Sequence Activities process.

Activity A has a duration of 10 days. Activity B has a duration of 9 days with a 3 day lead. Activity A has 4 days of float. Activity A and B have a finish-to-start relationship. What is the total duration? A. 19 days B. 22 days C. 12 days D. 16 days

Workbook, Practice Exam 2, page 155, #37 Answer: D Activity A is 10 days. Activity B is nine days with a three-day lead. The float is noise in the question. 10 + 9 - 3 = 16 days

You are evaluating the following component of the schedule: activity one has a duration of 4 days, activity two has a duration of 3 days, activity three has a duration of 8 days, activity four has a duration of 5 days (and is dependent upon activities one, two, and three completing), activity five has a duration of 7 days (and is dependent upon activity four completing), and activity six has a duration of 4 days (and is also dependent upon activity four completing). Which activities are on the critical path? A. 2, 3, 4, 5 B. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 C. 3, 4, 5 D. 3, 4, 5, 6

Workbook, Practice Exam 2, page 156, #40 Answer: C NEED IMAGE Based on the diagram, the critical path (the longest path) will be Activities Three, Four, and Five.

During which process would you most likely be using an alternative analysis, published estimating data, bottom-up estimating, and project management software? A. Estimate activity resources B. Develop schedule C. Estimate activity durations D. Estimate costs

Workbook, Practice Exam 2, page 156, #41 Answer: A There are only two processes where bottom-up estimating is a tool/technique: Estimate Activity Resources and Estimate Costs. As they have also included alternatives analysis and published estimating data, this is referring to the Estimate Activity Resources process.

Decomposition is a technique used during what two processes? A. Estimate costs and estimate durations B. Identify risks and define activities C. Define scope and create WBS D. Create WBS and define activities

Workbook, Practice Exam 2, page 156, #42 Answer: D Decomposition is used to break down deliverables into work packages in the Create WBS process. Decomposition is sued to break down the work packages into schedule activities in the Define Activities process.

The work package owners are determining the resources they will need for their work packages. As project manager, you have asked them to include estimates for any equipment, supplies, or materials they may need. The work package owners are doing what process? A. Identifying activities B. Estimating the activity resources C. Developing the human resource plan D. Developing the project schedule

Workbook, Practice Exam 2, page 156, #43 Answer: B Determining estimates for the equipment, supplies, material, and other resources would be the Estimate Activity Resources process.

You have developed your PDM and estimated the activity durations. What is the next thing you should do? A. Secure sponsor sign-off B. Estimate your costs C. Develop your project schedule D. Create the RAM

Workbook, Practice Exam 2, page 156, #44 Answer: C Having the PDM indicates that you have defined and sequenced your activities. Given that you have your activity durations, the next step would be to develop the schedule.

You are the project manager over a large construction project and are about to enter the building phase. There is a dependency on getting the first four lots built out before starting the remaining lots. The lumber is being delivered today for the first four houses. Which statement is most accurate? A. The lumber delivery is an external dependency B. The first four lots being built out illustrate a start-to-start relationship C. The development of the first four lots is a mandatory dependency D. The lumber delivery is an example of soft logic

Workbook, Practice Exam 2, page 157, #45 Answer: A There is not mention of a physical limitation on building the first four lots, so that would be a discretionary dependency. It is not a start-to-start, but rather a finish-to-start, as they are requesting that all four be built out before starting the other lots. The lumber is a physical limitation as the houses cannot be built without the lumber and it is coming from an external source. The best answer is that lumber is an external dependency.

Which statement is most accurate regarding parametric and analogous estimating? A. They both leverage historical information and expert judgment B. Analogous is generally more accurate than parametric estimating C. Parametric is usually done with costs whereas analogous is more commonly used with durations D. The project manager is the most appropriate resource to estimate analogously whereas work package owners would be better suited to estimate parametrically

Workbook, Practice Exam 2, page 157, #46 Answer: A Both parametric and analogous estimating leverage historical information and expert judgement.

Activity B is 4 days, Activity C is 7 days, Activity D is dependent on B and C and is 9 days. Activity E is dependent on Activity D and is 5 days. Which statement is most accurate? A. The duration is 21 days B. Activities B, D, and E are the critical path activities C. The duration is 25 days D. If activity B gets delayed by 3 days, the project will be delayed by 3 days

Workbook, Practice Exam 2, page 157, #47 Answer: A IMAGE Based on the network diagram the duration would be 21 days, as Activities C, D, and E are the critical path: 7 + 9 + 5 = 21 days. Activity B has three days of float and as such, a 3-day delay would not have an impact on the project.

All of the following are attributes of activities except: A. They have an expected duration B. They consume budget and/or resources C. They are named in a verb-noun format D. They are the lowest level of the WBS

Workbook, Practice Exam 2, page 157, #49 Answer: D Activities consume budget and/or resources, have an expected duration, and are named in a verb noun format (hire caterer). The lowest level of a WBS is a work package, not an activity.

Which of the following is an example of a cost of non-conformance: A. The engineer's time on designing product specification B. Time involved in planning quality activities for the project C. The first run of the product does not meet specifications D. Training for the project team on the development process

Workbook, Practice Exam 2, page 157, #50 Answer: C The cost of non-conformance is money spent because of failures. Designing product specifications, planning quality activities, and training the team are all examples of the cost of conformance - money spent to avoid failures. A product that is produced that does not meet specifications would be the cost of non-conformance.

You are planning the approach to your new project and upon approval, will be distributing the cost, schedule, and scope baselines to the project team members and key stakeholders. In order to be complete, the scope baseline: A. Is developed during the define scope process B. Is the most critical document within the planning process C. Includes the WBS, WBS dictionary, and project scope statement D. Is not considered part of the project management plan

Workbook, Practice Exam 2, page 157, #51 Answer: C The scope baseline includes the WBS, the WBS dictionary, and the scope statement.

All of the following statements are true about analogous estimating except: A. It is frequently used when there is a lack of detailed information about the current project B. It is essentially a combination of historical information and parametric estimating C. It is critical that the historical project is as similar as possible to the current project D. It is less costly and time-consuming, but also less accurate

Workbook, Practice Exam 2, page 157, #52 Answer: B Analogous estimating is historical information and expert judgement, not parametric estimating.

There are three project documents that are considered required for all projects. What are they? A. Project scope statement, project charter, and project funding authorization B. Project charter, project management plan, and sponsor approval C. Project scope statement, project statement of work, and contract D. Project scope statement, project charter, and project management plan

Workbook, Practice Exam 2, page 158, #53 Answer: D According to PMI, the three mandatory project management documents are the project scope statement, the project charter, and the project management plan.

You have developed your schedule network, identified your critical path, and factored in and leveled your resources. You realize that the work is spread out unevenly. What is the next thing you should do? A. Resource level B. Resource smooth C. Apply critical chain D. Escalate to the sponsor

Workbook, Practice Exam 2, page 158, #54 Answer: B If the resources have already been leveled, the next step would be to smooth the resources, leveraging any float that's available.

Activity attributes are to the activity list as: A. WBS is to the WBS dictionary B. The risk register is to the risk management plan C. The WBS dictionary is to the WBS D. The risk response strategy is to the risk register

Workbook, Practice Exam 2, page 158, #55 Answer: C The activity attributes provide the back-end detailed description of the project activities on the activity list, just as the WBS dictionary provides the back-end detailed description of the work package elements on the WBS.

You are working with your team and they key stakeholders with estimating the durations and costs. You have learned that when estimating the project, the PMO insists that it should be unanimity. This means: A. One person will provide the estimate, thus decreasing the time to determine the estimate B. Everyone will need to agree, thus increasing the time to determine the estimate C. The estimates will need to be provided to the PMO for sign-off D. The project sponsor will be approving the final estimate

Workbook, Practice Exam 2, page 158, #56 Answer: B Unanimity means that all parties must agree on the decision in order to proceed. This will most likely add time to the schedule.

This is an organizational body assigned various responsibilities related to the centralized and coordinated management of those projects under its domain. A. Functional managers B. Sponsor C. Business partners D. Project management office

Workbook, Practice Exam 2, page 158, #57 Answer: D The PMO is an organizational body assigned various responsibilities related to the centralized and coordinated management of the projects within its domain.

The project manager is managing a large, complex project with 50 stakeholders and more than 18 team members. The project manager may use __________ to ensure that the team clearly knows what work is included in each of their work packages. A. The project schedule B. The WBS dictionary C. The project scope statement D. The product scope description

Workbook, Practice Exam 2, page 158, #58 Answer: B The WBS dictionary will assist in making sure the team clearly knows what work is included in their work packages.

The difference between a process group and a knowledge area could best be described as: A. The knowledge areas align with the project phases, ensuring the project team has the appropriate skills for each phase B. The process groups are usually not all utilized on construction projects C. The knowledge areas represent specific areas of expertise that could be reasonably expected to be leveraged during a project D. The process groups are defined within the project management plan

Workbook, Practice Exam 2, page 160, #67 Answer: C The knowledge areas represent specific areas of expertise that are typically leveraged during a project.

You have assumed a new role within a large PMO for your technology organization. You are evaluating multiple projects within the portfolio and would like to identify the project managers assigned to each project and their authority level. The best source of this information would be: A. The project management plans B. Organizational process assets C. The project scope statements D. The project charters

Workbook, Practice Exam 2, page 160, #71 Answer: D If known upon project charter development, the charter would document the project manager and the project manager's authority level. These project charters are part of the organizational process assets, but the most specific (correct) answer would be the project charters.

Which statement is least accurate regarding management reserve? A. The project manager must obtain approval before spending B. It is included in the cost baseline but not in the overall project budget C. It is generally not included in earned value measurements D. It is budget reserved for unplanned changes to the project scope and costs

Workbook, Practice Exam 2, page 160, #72 Answer: B The management reserve is not part of the cost baseline but is considered to be part of the overall project budget. For management reserve, the project manager must obtain approval to use it, it is not typically included in earned value measurements, and is a budget that is reserved for unplanned changes to the project scope and cost.

Your project is nearing completion and the final product turnover is scheduled to happen within a few days. Your project has consistently been on-time and on-budget and you have been able to release a good portion of your contingency reserve back to the organization. You are notified that the project is being cancelled because the final product is not acceptable. What is the most likely cause of this. A. You did not adequately manage risk B. You did not document the appropriate requirements C. You did not have a clear WBS D. You did not manage the stakeholder expectations

Workbook, Practice Exam 3, page 170, #3 Answer: D If the final product is not acceptable it is most likely due to the fact that you did not manage stakeholder expectations throughout the project

Your team members have escalated issues with the QA analyst and despite providing feedback and asking for improvements, the issues are continuing to be a problem for the project team and are disrupting the work that needs to be done. To avoid the risk associated with the QA analyst, you: A. Refer the QA analyst to the HR department B. Document the disruption as a risk on the risk register C. Conduct an off-cycle team meeting to set expectations regarding team behavior D. Remove the QA analyst from the project

Workbook, Practice Exam 3, page 170, #4 Answer: D Risk avoidance means making a change to eliminate the risk. The only answer that would eliminate the risk would be to remove the QA analyst from the project.

The degree to which characteristics fulfill requirements: A. Quality B. Precision C. Grade D. Accuracy

Workbook, Practice Exam 3, page 170, #6 Answer: A Quality is the degree to which characteristics fulfill requirements

For your project, you will need to hire three vendors to provide services as you do not have the staff internally. During what process would you select the vendors? A. Executing B. Procurement executing C. Conduct procurements D. Plan procurements

Workbook, Practice Exam 3, page 171, #11 Answer: C The vendors would be selected during the Conduct Procurements process.

As project manager you are reviewing the resource calendars and staffing assignments to determine an appropriate date for your team building event. Which process are you doing? A. Manage project team B. Develop project team C. Acquire project team D. Improve morale

Workbook, Practice Exam 3, page 171, #12 Answer: B Evaluating the availability and staffing for a team-building event would occur during the Develop Project Team process. The Develop Project Team process focuses on training and team-building.

Which conflict management technique incorporates multiple viewpoints and is more likely to lead to consensus and commitment? A. Compromising B. Smoothing C. Confronting D. Collaborating

Workbook, Practice Exam 3, page 171, #13 Answer: D A collaborative (also known as problem-solving) approach will most likely lead to consensus and commitment as all participants are able to work together towards a resolution.

Which statement is most accurate regarding quality assurance versus quality control? A. Quality control must be completed prior to quality assurance B. Quality assurance and quality control are both different than continuous process improvement C. Quality control is more concerned with the process while quality assurance is more concerned with the product D. Quality assurance must be completed prior to quality control

Workbook, Practice Exam 3, page 171, #8 Answer: A Quality control (QC) must be completed prior to quality assurance (QA), as the quality control measurements from QC are needed in order to perform the quality audit in QA. QA is the umbrella over continuous process improvement and is concerned with ensuring there are quality processes in place.

A document showing the reporting structure within the project, as well as its relationship to the parent organization, is called the: A. Organizational chart B. Responsibility assignment matrix C. Resource staffing histogram D. Staffing management plan

Workbook, Practice Exam 3, page 171, #9 Answer: A A document showing reporting structure is known as an organizational chart.

Because there was a risk of rain during the outdoor event, the team decided to put a tent over the main banquet area. A risk has now been identified that the tent may become unsecured with high wind. The tent becoming unsecured is an example of: A. A fallback risk B. A residual risk C. A contingent risk D. A secondary risk

Workbook, Practice Exam 3, page 172, #18 Answer: D The tent being put up was a risk mitigation response. Therefore the risk of the tent becoming unsecured is a secondary risk - a risk that arises directly as a result of implementing a risk response.

Upon evaluation of the project requirements, your product development team lead provides you with the following duration information: If the product can be developed in-house with existing staff, the estimated duration is 14 days. If the product must be developed by a vendor, the estimated duration is 21 days. If a portion is developed in-house and a portion by the vendor, the estimated duration is 19 days. Based on the information you received, there is a 30% probability that it can be developed fully in-house and a 50% probability that a portion can be developed in-house. Considering the risk, what is the best duration estimate? A. 18 days B. 19 days C. 15 days D. 16 days

Workbook, Practice Exam 3, page 172, #20 Answer: A There is a 30% probability it will take 14 days. There is a 50% probability it will take 19 days. That only equals 80%, so as such, there must be a 20% probability that it will take 21 days. 0.3 x 14 = 4.2 0.5 x 19 = 9.5 0.2 x 21 = 4.5 Equals 17.9 days. Rounding up, 18 days would be the best estimate.

Your project has completed six months of the estimated 18 month duration. You were just notified that a key item you were purchasing for your project is now going to be delayed. What is the best thing you should do? A. Notify your sponsor B. Take no action C. Meet with your project team to identify alternatives D. Notify your customer and discuss options

Workbook, Practice Exam 3, page 173, #21 Answer: C As a project manager, your first action should be to work with the team to identify alternatives and options to make up the time in the schedule. As the project is only 30% complete, there is a chance that the situation can be remedied with minimal to no impact. Escalation to the sponsor and the customer should be limited and only occur if the team is unable to come up with an appropriate response.

Your project team and key stakeholders have identified over 100 risks for the project. Those risks have been analyzed and prioritized. Risk responses have been validated and approved. For the remaining risks you may: A. Do something if the risk happens, which will be implementing a fallback plan B. Do something if the risk happens, which will be implementing the contingency plan C. Do something if the contingency plans are not effective, which will be implementing the workaround plan D. Do something if the fallback plans are not effective, which will be implementing the contingency plan

Workbook, Practice Exam 3, page 173, #24 Answer: B For the risks that did not have a proactive response (avoid, transfer, mitigate), one option would be having an active risk acceptance approach, meaning doing some if the risk happens which is implementing the contingency plan. A fallback plan would be used if the original response was not effective. There is no such thing as a workaround plan, as a workaround plan is not planned in advance. If the contingency plans are not effective, you may have to implement a fallback plan, but not vice versa.

All of the following should be included in the project risk management plan except: A. The timing of risk management activities B. The reporting format for risks C. How the risk activities will be tracked, communicated, and escalated D. The configuration management approach

Workbook, Practice Exam 3, page 173, #26 Answer: D The risk management plan would not include the configuration management approach. Configuration management is a component of change control.

Which statement is least accurate regarding the project management information system (PMIS): A. It is considered an enterprise environmental factor B. May also include the configuration management system C. It should be archived at the completion of the project D. It provides access to automated tools

Workbook, Practice Exam 3, page 173, #27 Answer: C The project management information system (PMIS) will not be archived at the completion of the project, as it is the organization's system for managing all project information. The project-specific information within the PMIS will be archived as part of the organizational process assets.

You are about 30% complete with your project. Along with your team lead and a PMO representative, you are evaluating the project activities to determine whether they comply with organizational and project policies, processes, and procedures. You are: A. Managing stakeholder expectations B. Performing a quality audit C. Planning the quality approach for the project D. Completing the quality control requriements

Workbook, Practice Exam 3, page 174, #29 Answer: B Evaluating project activities to ensure they comply with organizational and project policies, processes, and procedures describes a quality audit.

You are evaluating the performance of your project, including looking at the status of project risks, the current forecasts, and the status of project activities. The information you are evaluating is an output of: A. Quality assurance B. Control quality C. Manage project team D. Direct and manage project work

Workbook, Practice Exam 3, page 174, #32 Answer: D Status of risks, forecasts, status of activities would all be considered work performance data. Work performance data is an output of Direct and Manage Project Work.

Residual risks are: A. The same as secondary risks B. A direct result of implementing a risk response C. Those that remain after risk responses have been taken D. Those risks that have no impact on the project budget or schedule

Workbook, Practice Exam 3, page 174, #33 Answer: C Residual risk is risk that remains after taking a planned response

An uncertain event that may impact the project in the future, either positively or negatively, is called a(n): A. Risk factor B. Risk-opportunity dichotomy C. Project risk D. Expected value

Workbook, Practice Exam 3, page 174, #34 Answer: C An uncertain event that may impact the project, positively or negatively, is called a project risk.

Chris is managing the new marketing project in which he is responsible for developing the associated marketing collateral. Chris is using a graphic design company to create the artwork for the new collateral. In order to improve the probability that the graphic designer delivers on time, he inserts a penalty clause for late delivery into the contract. Chris is using which risk response? A. Risk transference B. Risk avoidance C. Risk mitigation D. Risk acceptance

Workbook, Practice Exam 3, page 175, #36 Answer: A

The risk response that can be categorized as either passive or active is: A. Risk avoidance B. Risk mitigation C. Risk transference D. Risk acceptance

Workbook, Practice Exam 3, page 175, #37 Answer: D Risk acceptance for threats may be passive or active. Passive risk acceptance means doing nothing about the risk. Active risk acceptance means identifying a contingent response strategy to be used in the event the risk occurs.

You are evaluating potential outcomes for a new product you are launching. Based on market analysis, there is a projected profit of $125,000. However, depending on the risk of the market segment, the profit may increase or decrease. There is a 35% chance that the profit will increase by $30,000, a 40% chance that the profit will increase by $15,000 and a 25% chance that the profit will decrease by $20,000. What is the EMV of this risk scenario? A. $21,500 B. $5,000 C. $11,500 D. $136,500

Workbook, Practice Exam 3, page 175, #40 Answer: C There is a 35% probability that the profit will increase by $30,000; a 40% probability it will increase by $15,000, and 25% probability it will decrease by $20,000. 0.25 x $30,000 = $10,500 0.40 x $15,000 = $6,000 0.25 x ($20,000) = ($5,000)(negative number as it is a loss from the profit) EMV: $10,500 + $6,000 + ($5,000) = $11,500

With your team, you are evaluating all of the identified risks to determine the likelihood that those risk events will occur and also assessing the impact if they do occur. What process are you conducting? A. Quantitative risk analysis B. Monitor and control risks C. Qualitative risk analysis D. Risk identification

Workbook, Practice Exam 3, page 176, #44 Answer: C Qualitative risk analysis evaluates the identified risks to determine the probability and the impact of the risk event.

You are the project manager for a construction project. A risk has been identified that the installation of the electrical components presents a safety hazard to the coworkers. You decide to make the area impassable to all workers during installation. What type of risk response is this? A. Risk avoidance B. Risk mitigation C. Risk acceptance D. Risk transferance

Workbook, Practice Exam 3, page 176, #45 Answer: A Making the area impassable to all workers means that you have eliminated the risk. Therefore, this is a risk avoidance.

You have completed a risk analysis for your project and assessed the probability and impact for each of the identified risks. Based on the evaluation, your overall risk score is 7.9. As such, this project is considered to be: A. Moderate risk B. Low risk C. Unable to determine D. High risk

Workbook, Practice Exam 3, page 176, #46 Answer: C There is no scale given, so it is impossible to know what the 7.9 risk score represents. Risk scales are organizationally defined, not prescribed by PMI.

You are the project manager for the development of the new community park. The residents of the community have requested that a portion of the area be used for a dog park. If implemented, the dog park would require the use of a two-gate system in order to reduce the risk of a dog escaping the defined area. What is the most accurate statement regarding the double-gate system? A. It is an example of risk avoidance B. It is an example of a fallback plan C. It is an example of risk mitigation D. It is an example of contingent response planning

Workbook, Practice Exam 3, page 176, #47 Answer: C Because the double-gate system reduces the risk, it is considered risk mitigation.

Exploitation is to opportunities as __________ is to threats. A. Acceptance B. Mitigation C. Avoidance D. Transference

Workbook, Practice Exam 3, page 177, #49 Answer: C Both exploitation and avoidance the change the plan to eliminate the uncertainty. Exploitation changes the plan to ensure the opportunity will be realized. Avoidance changes the plan to ensure the threat will not happen.

All of the following are information gathering techniques for identifying risks, expect: A. Brainstorming B. Delphi technique C. Assumptions analysis D. Interviewing

Workbook, Practice Exam 3, page 177, #50 Answer: C An assumptions analysis explores the validity of project assumptions to determine any related risk from invalid assumptions. An assumptions analysis is not considered an information gathering technique.

With your team, you are evaluating the project and project information to determine uncertain events that could affect the project either negatively or positively. This is the process of: A. Qualitative risk analysis B. Risk identification C. Quantitative risk analysis D. Monitor and control risks

Workbook, Practice Exam 3, page 177, #51 Answer: Identifying events that could impact the project positively or negatively is the Identify Risks process.

Which statement is most accurate regarding contingency and fallback plans? A. The contingency plan is used when the fallback plan is not effective B. The fallback plan is another name for the contingency plan C. The contingency plan is defined in advance of a risk event whereas the fallback plan is reactive in nature D. The fallback plan is used when the contingency plan is not effective

Workbook, Practice Exam 3, page 177, #52 Answer: D The fallback plan will be used when the contingency plan is not effective. Think of the fallback as the "plan B."

You are evaluating the following information to understand the implications of risk on the estimate. There is a 40% chance it will take 12 days, a 25% chance it will take 18 days, and a 35% chance it will take 10 days. What is the best estimate? A. 11.8 days B. 13 days C. 12.4 days D. 14 days

Workbook, Practice Exam 3, page 177, #53 Answer: B To calculate the best estimate: 0.4 x 12 = 4.8 0.25 x 18 = 4.5 0.35 x 10 = 3.5 The total would be 12.8, rounded up to 13 for the best answer.

A workaround is considered: A. A contingency plan B. Implementation of the contingency plan for a positive risk event C. A response to a negative risk that has occurred that was not planned in advance D. Using global sourcing to continue project development around the clock

Workbook, Practice Exam 3, page 177, #54 Answer: C A workaround is a response to a negative risk that has occurred, not planned in advance. A workaround is completely reactive in nature.

An employee performing consistent with Maslow's self-actualization concept would most likely be McGregor's: A. X people B. Y people C. High need for achievement D. Hygiene driven

Workbook, Practice Exam 3, page 177, #55 Answer: B An employee that is high-performing and is self-actualized, would be consistent with McGregor's Y people.

One of your team members recently lost their spouse and the performance on the project has suffered as a result. His inability to perform his job is based on his current focus on his social needs according to which theory? A. Vroom's expectancy B. Maslow's hierarchy of needs C. McClelland's achievement D. Herzber'g motivation and hygiene

Workbook, Practice Exam 3, page 178, #56 Answer: B The idea surrounding the team member's inability to do his job is based on Maslow's hierarchy of needs theory.

Your new team manager tends to micro-manage his team as he believes that people are generally lazy and don't want to work. How would the team manager classify his team? A. Y people B. Low need for achievement C. Self-actualized D. X people

Workbook, Practice Exam 3, page 178, #58 Answer: D Team members that are generally lazy and need to be micromanaged are considered to be "x" people.

The seven basic quality tools include all of the following except: A. Checksheets B. Pareto diagram C. Flowchart D. Resource chart

Workbook, Practice Exam 3, page 178, #59 Answer: D A resource chart is not one of the quality tools. The seven basic quality tools are: checksheets, flowcharts, Pareto charts, control charts, scatter diagrams, histograms, and cause-and-effect diagrams.

Which contract type places increased risk on the seller? A. Cost reimbursable B. Time and material C. Fixed price D. Negotiated

Workbook, Practice Exam 3, page 179, #67 Answer: C A fixed price contract places the risk on the seller. If there is any type of adverse condition, the seller would have to absorb the additional costs.

In an effort to minimize risk on the project, your sponsor has instructed you to use a fixed price contract with any vendors whenever possible. In a fixed price (FP) contract, the fee or profit is: A. Calculated as a percentage of the estimated costs B. Not known by the buyer C. Determined by the buyer upon project completion D. Will be included as a separate cost during the invoicing process

Workbook, Practice Exam 3, page 179, #68 Answer: B Because the buyer is paying one fixed price, the profit versus the cost is not known by the buyer.

The contract states that the delivery company will be paid $800 per month regardless of the number of deliveries. IF the price of gas increases by more than 20%, the amount will increase to $900 or if the price of gas decreases by more than 20%, the amount will decrease to $700 per month. What type of contract is being used? A. FP-special B. FP_EPA C. CPAF D. Commodity-based

Workbook, Practice Exam 3, page 179, #69 Answer: B This is describing the fixed price with economic price adjustment (FP-EPA) contract, which protects both the buyer and seller from fluctuations in the price of commodities, scenarios that are outside of the control of both the buyer and seller.

Which contract type places increased risk on the buyer? A. Fixed price B. Cost-reimbursable C. Fixed price with incentive fee D. Time and material

Workbook, Practice Exam 3, page 179, #70 Answer: B A cost reimbursable contract places the most risk on the buyer as there is not one set price for the work that will be done.

The project is estimated to have a $12,500 variance at completion. The project budget is $75,000 and the estimate to complete the remaining work is $15,750. What are the actual costs of the project to-date? A. Unable to determine B. $59,250 C. $62,500 D. $46,750

Workbook, Practice Exam 4, page 188, #2 Answer: D A $12,500 variance at completion (VAC) tells us that the project is estimated to come to $12,500 under budget; remember that a positive VAC is good (under budget) and a negative VAC is bad (over budget). Since the budget is $75,000 and we are estimated to come in $12,500 under budget, the EAC is $75,000 - $12,500 = $62,000 If the EAC is $62,500 and the ETC is $15,750 (given to you in the question) then $62,500 - $15,750 = $46,750, which is the AC of the project to date

You are three months into a 6-month, $195,000 project. Invoices paid to date are $37,500 and the planned costs at three months were $75,000. What is the schedule variance? A. $97,500 B. $22,500 C. $37,500 D. $25,000

Workbook, Practice Exam 4, page 188, #3 Answer: B To calculate the SV we must use the PMBOK formula SV = EV - PV PV is given to us; $75,000 EV is not given to us, so we must calculate the EV by using the PMBOK formula: EV = BAC x % Complete $195,000 x 50% = $97,500 (note that the % Complete comes from the question as well; 3 months / 6 months = 50% Complete) Now that we have calculated the EV, we can use the SV formula above which gives us $97,500 - $75,000 = $22,500

The enhancement project is complete and you are compiling your final performance report. The budget was $72,000 and your actual costs were $68,000. Which statement is most accurate? A. Your variance at completion is positive B. You have a positive cost variance C. Your estimate at completion is negative D. Your variance at completion is negative

Workbook, Practice Exam 4, page 195, #54 Answer: A Variance at completion (VAC) is calculated as budget at completion (BAC) minus estimate at completion (EAC). In this case, the project is complete so the EAC is the same as the actual costs (AC). A positive VAC indicates that the project delivered under budget.

The forecasted amount of project spending for the remainder of the project: A. The cost variance B. The estimate to complete C. The estimate at completion D. The variance at completion

Workbook, Practice Exam 4, page 196, #55 Answer: B The estimate to complete (ETC) is the estimated remaining spend, from this point forward. ETC does not include actual costs (AC).

The development project was completed in February. In May, you receive notification from one of the vendors that they did not receive the correct payment. What is the most appropriate action for you to take? A. Re-open the project B. Nothing, as the project is closed C. Refer the project to legal counsel D. Escalate to the CEO

Workbook, Practice Exam 4, page 196, #56 Answer: A Because administrative closure activities were not accurately fulfilled, including full and accurate payment of all invoices, the project must be re-opened. Referring the project to legal counsel and escalation to the CEO would be inappropriate first steps.

Your project team has been in place for seven months. Team members are located in six geographical locations. During team meetings, you find that the members tend to be hesitant to speak up or provide information. In what stage of team development would this team most likely be? A. Performing B. Norming C. Forming D. Storming

Workbook, Practice Exam 4, page 196, #57 Answer: C The stages of team development (known as Tuckman's Ladder) are not time-based stages. Given that the team is virtual and they are hesitant to share information openly, this team is most likely in forming, the first stage of team development.

Varying in complexity, these tools aid organizations in ensuring consistency in frequently performed tasks: A. Quality metrics B. Quality diagrams C. Quality checklists D. Quality measurements

Workbook, Practice Exam 4, page 197, #61 Answer: C Quality checklists, an output of the Plan Quality Management process, are useful when individuals are completing the same set of steps repeatedly. Checklists ensure all individuals are consistent in their completion of the steps.

The three key outputs from the control quality process include the following except: A. Verified deliverables B. Quality control measurements C. Validated changes D. Quality metrics

Workbook, Practice Exam 4, page 198, #68 Answer: D Quality metrics are an operational definition of what we intend to achieve, and as such, are an output of the Plan Quality Management process.

Which of the following is not one of the seven basic quality tools? A. Pareto chart B. Histogram C. Control chart D. Earned value graph

Workbook, Practice Exam 4, page 198, #70 Answer: D The seven basic quality tools are: Ishikawa (fishbone or cause and effect) diagram, Pareto chart, control chart, histogram, scatter diagram, checksheet, and flowcharts. Earned value graphs are not considered one of the seven basic quality tools.

With your project team, you have identified the need for a workaround. What process are you doing? A. Control risks B. Plan risk responses C. Identify risk D. Risk evaluation

Workbook, Practice Exam 4, page 198, #72 Answer: A Because a workaround is a response to a negative risk that has occurred, not planned in advance, the need for workarounds would be determined in the Control Risks process.

The schedule variance of your project is ($27,000), your actual costs are $82,000, the budgeted value of the work is $92,000, and the budget at completion is $125,000. What is the earned value of the project? A. $55,000 B. $65,000 C. $98,000 D. $43,000

Workbook, Practice Exam 4, page 198, #73 Answer: B Using the following variables: Schedule Variance (SV) = ($27k) Planned Value (PV) = $92k Use the SV formula to back into the earned value (EV) SV = EV - PV ($27k) = EV - $92k $65k = EV

An opportunity is also known as a: A. risk response B. Project risk C. Benefit measure D. Project calculation

Workbook, Practice Exam 4, page 198, #74 Answer: B An opportunity is considered a project risk. An opportunity is an uncertain event that has a positive impact on the project.

The estimate at completion for your project is $179,000 and the estimate to complete the project is $88,500. Which statement is most accurate? A. The cost variance is $90,500 B. The actual costs are $90,500 C. The schedule variance is $90,500 D. The variance as completion is $90,500

Workbook, Practice Exam 4, page 198, #75 Answer: B The difference between the estimate to complete (ETC) and the estimate at completion (EAC) is the actual costs (AC). EAC includes AC, ETC does not. EAC - ETC = AC $179k - $88k = $90,500

Process/Output. The Key Output is provided, name the Process that creates it. Issue log

Workbook, Lesson 10, page 98, #4 Answer: Manage Stakeholder Engagement

Process/Output. The Key Output is provided, name the Process that creates it. Process improvement plan

Workbook, Lesson 10, page 98, #5 Answer: Plan Quality Management

Process/Output. The Key Output is provided, name the Process that creates it. Procurement management plan

Workbook, Lesson 10, page 98, #6 Answer: Plan Procurement Management

Process/Output. The Key Output is provided, name the Process that creates it. Project communications

Workbook, Lesson 10, page 98, #7 Answer: Manage Communications

Process/Output. The Key Output is provided, name the Process that creates it. Project staff assignments

Workbook, Lesson 10, page 98, #8 Answer: Acquire Project Team

Process/Output. The Key Output is provided, name the Process that creates it. Quality checklists

Workbook, Lesson 10, page 98, #9 Answer: Plan Quality Management

A collection of generally sequential and overlapping project phases is known as the: A. Project life cycle B. Phase gates C. Product life cycle D. Project methodology

Workbook, Practice Exam 1, Lessons 1-4, page 132, #4 Answer: A A project life cycle is a collection of generally sequential and overlapping project phases.

Vocabulary: The result is rated on a scale that measures the degree of conformity

Workbook, Lesson 13, page 121, #8 Answer: Variables sampling

Vocabulary: Identified upper and lower measurements that establish limits that if the repeated results fall within those limits, the process is considered stable

Workbook, Lesson 13, page 121, #9 Answer: Control limits

The Close Project or Phase process outputs are: A. Final product, service, or result transition and organizational process assets updates B. Final product, service, or result transition and organizational process assets updates C. Administrative closure, contract closure, final product, service or result transition D. Project management plan, administrative closure, contract closure, final product, work performance information

Workbook, Lesson 14, page 126, #1 Answer: B The two outputs to the Close Project or Phase process are the final product, service, or result transition and the organizational process assets updates (referencing the archiving of the project files).

Process/Output. The Key Output is provided, name the Process that creates it. Final product, service, or result transition

Workbook, Lesson 14, page 128, #6 Answer: Close Project or Phase

Process/Output. The Key Output is provided, name the Process that creates it. Quality control measurements

Workbook, Lesson 14, page 128, #7 Answer: Control Quality

Process/Output. The Key Output is provided, name the Process that creates it. Schedule forecasts

Workbook, Lesson 14, page 128, #8 Answer: Control Schedule

Process/Output. The Key Output is provided, name the Process that creates it. Validated changes

Workbook, Lesson 14, page 128, #9 Answer: Control Quality

Vocabulary: The type of power derived by the project manager's personality

Workbook, Lesson 2, page 22, #7 Answer: Charismatic power

Vocabulary: An action taken to remedy an existing problem or other undesirable situation, such as being over budget or behind schedule

Workbook, Lesson 2, page 22, #8 Answer: Corrective action

Vocabulary: Contains pertinent information on the identified stakeholders

Workbook, Lesson 2, page 22, #9 Answer: Stakeholder register

Vocabulary: The type of power granted through formal authorization for the project manager to act on behalf of the project sponsor or the organization

Workbook, Lesson 2, page 23, #13 Answer: Positional

Vocabulary: An action taken to either repair or replace in imperfection or deficiency in a project componenet

Workbook, Lesson 2, page 23, #14 Answer: Defect repair

Vocabulary: A document issued by the project initiator or sponsor that formally authorizes the existence of a project and provides the project manager with the authority to apply organizational resources to project activities

Workbook, Lesson 2, page 23, #18 Answer: Project charter

Vocabulary: Classifies stakeholders based on their power, urgency, and legitimacy

Workbook, Lesson 2, page 23, #21 Answer: Salience model

Vocabulary: Raw data on the status of the project schedule activities being performed to accomplish the project work

Workbook, Lesson 2, page 23, #22 Answer: Work performance data

Vocabulary: Various techniques used to evaluate, analyze, or forecast potential outcomes based on possible variations of project or environmental variables and their relationships with other variables

Workbook, Lesson 2, page 23, #23 Answer: Analytical techniques

Vocabulary: The type of power that provides the project manager with the ability to influence the project team and stakeholders based on the project manager's expertise and experience

Workbook, Lesson 2, page 23, #25 Answer: Expert power

Vocabulary: Fundamental communication tool for project management providing the stakeholders with real time, interactive communication

Workbook, Lesson 2, page 23, #26 Answer: Meetings

Vocabulary: Any change to the scope, typically requiring an adjustment to the project cost or schedule

Workbook, Lesson 2, page 23, #27 Answer: Scope change

Vocabulary: A component of the project management plan that is limited to a specific area of focus or concentration

Workbook, Lesson 2, page 23, #28 Answer: Subsidiary plan

Vocabulary: The work defined at the lowest level of the work breakdown structure for which cost and duration can be estimated and managed

Workbook, Lesson 4, page 39, #23 Answer: Work package

Process/Output. The Key Output is provided, name the Process that creates it. Communications management plan

Workbook, Lesson 4, page 40, #1 Answer: Plan Communications Management

Process/Output. The Key Output is provided, name the Process that creates it. Stakeholder management plan

Workbook, Lesson 4, page 40, #10 Answer: Plan Stakeholder Management

Process/Output. The Key Output is provided, name the Process that creates it. Stakeholder register

Workbook, Lesson 4, page 40, #11 Answer: Identify Stakeholders

Process/Output. The Key Output is provided, name the Process that creates it. Project charger

Workbook, Lesson 4, page 40, #2 Answer: Develop Project Charter

Process/Output. The Key Output is provided, name the Process that creates it. Project management plan

Workbook, Lesson 4, page 40, #3 Answer: Develop Project Management Plan

Process/Output. The Key Output is provided, name the Process that creates it. Project scope statement

Workbook, Lesson 4, page 40, #4 Answer: Define Scope

Process/Output. The Key Output is provided, name the Process that creates it. Requirements documentation

Workbook, Lesson 4, page 40, #5 Answer: Collect Requirements

Process/Output. The Key Output is provided, name the Process that creates it. Requirements management plan

Workbook, Lesson 4, page 40, #6 Answer: Plan Scope Management

Process/Output. The Key Output is provided, name the Process that creates it. Requirements traceability matrix

Workbook, Lesson 4, page 40, #7 Answer: Collect Requirements

Process/Output. The Key Output is provided, name the Process that creates it. Scope baseline

Workbook, Lesson 4, page 40, #8 Answer: Create WBS

Process/Output. The Key Output is provided, name the Process that creates it. Scope management plan

Workbook, Lesson 4, page 40, #9 Answer: Plan Scope Management

This process includes having the project manager and the project team perform activities to accomplish project objectives and adapt approved changes into the project's scope, plans, and environment: A. Direct and manage project work B. Perform integrated change control C. Perform project execution D. Manage project team

Workbook, Lesson 9, page 86, #1 Answer: A This is describing the Direct and Manage Project Work process. Notice that it states adapting "approved" changes into the project's scope, plans, and environment. This implies that the change requests were approved through the Perform Integrated Change Control process and are now being implemented.

Vocabulary: A risk response planning technique that involves partnering with another team or organization to improve the probability of realizing an opportunity

Workbook, Lesson 8, page 80, #8 Answer: Risk sharing

Vocabulary: A risk response planning technique that involves changing the project plan to improve the probability of an opportunity occurring

Workbook, Lesson 8, page 80, #9 Answer: Risk enhancement

Vocabulary: The likelihood that a specific risk will occur

Workbook, Lesson 8, page 81, #15 Answer: Risk probability

Vocabulary: A statistical technique that calculates the average outcome when the future includes scenarios that may or may not happen

Workbook, Lesson 8, page 81, #16 Answer: Expected monetary value analysis

Vocabulary: The potential effect a risk might have on a project objective

Workbook, Lesson 8, page 81, #17 Answer: Risk impact

Vocabulary: A risk response planning technique for a threat that creates changes to the project management plan that are meant to either eliminate the risk or to protect the project objectives from its impact

Workbook, Lesson 8, page 81, #18 Answer: Risk avoidance

Vocabulary: A risk that arises as a direct result of implementing a risk response

Workbook, Lesson 8, page 81, #19 Answer: Secondary risk

Vocabulary: A listing of sellers who have been pre-screened for their qualifications and past experience, so that procurements are directed to only those sellers who can perform on any resulting contracts

Workbook, Lesson 9, page 89, #6 Answer: Qualified seller list

Vocabulary: Any unique and verifiable product, result, or capability to perform a service that must be produced to complete a process, phase, or project

Workbook, Lesson 9, page 89, #7 Answer: Deliverable

The scope baseline: A. Is developed during the Define Scope process B. Is the most critical document within the planning process C. Includes the WBS, WBS dictionary, and project scope statement D. Is not considered part of the project management plan

Workbook, PMP Final Practice Exam, page 244, #45 Answer: C

The develop project charter process A. Develops the project schedule B. Develops the document that formally authorizes a project C. Creates the project scope statement D. Is an optional process

Workbook, Practice Exam 1, Lessons 1-4, page 132, #1 Answer: B The output of the Develop Project Charter process is the project charter, which formally authorizes the project.

Vocabulary: Analyzed performance information collected from various control processes

Workbook, Lesson 2, page 22, #12 Answer: Work performance informatino

Vocabulary: Between two or more parties performing a multi-directional exchange of information

Workbook, Lesson 3, page 31, #1 Answer: Interactive

Vocabulary: A form of project life cycle in which the project scope, and the time and cost required to deliver that scope, are determined as early in the life cycle as possible

Workbook, Lesson 1, page 13, #18 Answer: Predictive life cycle

Vocabulary: A PMO that provides templates, lessons learned, and training to the projects and mainly serves as a project repository

Workbook, Lesson 1, page 13, #19 Answer: Supportive PMO

Vocabulary: The individual providing the message

Workbook, Lesson 3, page 31, #2 Answer: Sender

The processes required to define the scope of the project, refine the objectives, and determine the appropriate course of action to achieve the project objectives. A. Executing process group B. Monitoring and controlling process group C. Scoping process group D. Planning process group

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 210, #1 Answer: D

Process/Output. The Key Output is provided, name the Process that creates it. Quality metrics

Workbook, Lesson 10, page 98, #11 Answer: Plan Quality Management

The processes that track, review, and regulate the performance and progress of the project. A. Evaluating process group B. Executing process group C. Monitoring and controlling process group D. Planning process group

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 210, #2 Answer: C

The processes that are performed to complete the work of the project as defined in the project management plan. A. Conduct process group B. Executing process group C. Planning process group D. Integration process group

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 210, #3 Answer: B

The documented start and finish dates of activities, actual costs and durations, percent work physically completed would all be considered: A. Work performance inputs B. Work performance data C. Work performance information D. Work performance reports

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 210, #8 Answer: B

Those processes performed to define a new project or a new phase of an existing project by obtaining authorization to start the project or phase. A. Initiating process group B. Integration process group C. Initiating knowledge area D. Integration knowledge area

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 211, #11 Answer: A

Which process is in the initiating process group? A. Identify stakeholders B. Validate scope C. Develop project management plan D. Define scope

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 211, #16 Answer: A

Which of the following process is not a procurement process? A. Conduct procurements B. Control procurements C. Manage procurements D. Close procurements

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 211, #17 Answer: C

Forecasts, such as budget and schedule forecasts, would be considered A. Work performance information B. Work performance data C. Work performance outputs D. Work performance reports

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 211, #9 Answer: A Forecasts are considered work performance information as it is project data that has been analyzed through the control schedule and control cost processes.

Which of the following is not a stakeholder management process? A. Evaluate stakeholder expectations B. Identify stakeholders C. Control stakeholder engagement D. Plan stakeholder management

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 212, #18 Answer: A

Which process is not in the Monitoring and Controlling process group? A. Validate scope B. Perform integrated change control C. Monitor and control project work D. Conduct procurements

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 212, #19 Answer: D Conduct Procurements is in the Executing process group

Which process is not in the executing process group? A. Perform quantitative risk analysis B. Manage project team C. Conduct procurements D. Perform quality assurance

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 212, #20 Answer: A Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis is in the Planning process group

You have secured written authorization for your project. What process has been completed? A. Develop project management plan B. Complete project initiation C. Direct and manage project work D. Develop project charter

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 212, #21 Answer: D

The deliverable are an output of what process? A. Control quality B. Scope management C. Direct and manage project work D. Develop project management plan

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 212, #22 Answer: C

All of the following are key benefits of developing the project charter, except: A. It creates a formal record of the project B. It determines the project budget C. It establishes the project start date D. It is a direct way for senior management to formally accept the project

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 212, #23 Answer: B The charter does not determine the budget. The project budget and the cost baseline will be a result of the Determine Budget process.

Which of the following statements is least accurate regarding the project charter? A. The approved charter formally initiates the project B. A project manager is identified and assigned as early as feasible C. The project charter should not be authored by the sponsoring entity D. It is recommended that the project manager participate in the development of the project charter

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 212, #25 Answer: C The project charter is typically authored by the sponsoring entity.

This document, used for decision making purposes, determines whether or not the project is worth the investment. A. Project scope statement B. Business case C. Project charter D. Project statement of work

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 213, #27 Answer: B The business case, typically completed by the project sponsor, provides the justification for investing in a project.

An intentional action taken to realign the performance of the project with the project management plan. A. Variance response B. Scope change C. Corrective action D. Defect repair

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 213, #32 Answer: C A corrective action is an action taken to realign the performance of the project with the baselines, reactive in nature.

The two key outputs of the Perform Integrated Change Control Process are: A. Change requests and meetings B. Approved change requests and change log C. Change log and change requests D. Approved change requests and issue log

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 214, #37 Answer: B

An intentional action taken to modify a nonconforming product or product component: A. Quality control B. Requirements modification C. Defect repair D. Corrective action

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 214, #38 Answer: C

Which statement is most accurate? A. The define scope process precedes the create work breakdown structure process B. The WBS must be complete in order to define scope C. The scope baseline is an output of the define scope process D. The scope statement is produced after the WBS

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 214, #39 Answer: A The Define Scope process precedes the Create WBS process, as the scope statement is needed in order to complete the scope baseline.

The scope baseline is an output of what process? A. Plan scope management B. Define scope C. Collect requirements D. Create WBS

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 214, #41 Answer: D

Requirements documentation and the requirements traceability matrix are: A. Both outputs of the collect requirements process B. Both outputs of the define scope process C. Outputs of both plan scope management and plan requirements management D. Both outputs of create scope baseline

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 214, #42 Answer: A

Documents how the scope will be defined, validated, and controlled: A. Scope statement B. Scope management plan C. Statement of work D. Project charter

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 214, #43 Answer: B

The tool/technique used to control scope: A. Variance analysis B. Earned value management C. Inspection D. Meetings

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 215, #48 Answer: A

The process of monitoring the status of the project and product scope and managing changes to the scope baseline A. Validate scope B. Control scope C. Plan scope D. Monitor scope

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 215, #49 Answer: B

The following is true about the WBS: A. The WBS is another term for the Gantt chart B. Each descending level of the WBS represents an increasingly detailed definition of the project work C. Work not in the WBS is usually defined in the scope statement of the project D. The WBS shows only the critical path activities

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 215, #50 Answer: B

Which of the following statements is true about the WBS? A. The WBS is a deliverable-oriented hierarchical decomposition of the work to be executed B. The WBS is an unstructured list of activities in a chart form C. The WBS is the same as the organizational breakdown structure D. The WBS is the scope baseline

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 216, #55 Answer: A

You have completed your activity list and activity attributes. What process have you completed? A. Develop schedule B. Create WBS C. Define activities D. Scope decomposition

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 216, #56 Answer: C

Which statement is least accurate regarding the PDM? A. The PDM is synonymous with AON B. The PDM is an output of sequencing activities C. The PDM only displays finish-to-start relationships D. The PDM is a type of schedule network diagram

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 216, #57 Answer: C The PDM can display all four relationship types: finish-to-start, start-to-start, finish-to-finish, and start-to-finish.

The difference between the project schedule and the schedule baseline could best be described as: A. The project schedule is updated throughout the project but the schedule baseline is only updated when there's an approved change to the scope B. The terms are synonymous C. The baseline is created before the schedule D. The schedule baseline is updated throughout the project and then compared to the project schedule

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 216, #58 Answer: A

The schedule forecasts are an output of what process A. Forecast schedule B. Control schedule C. Develop schedule D. Develop project management plan

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 216, #59 Answer: A

Activity C has a start-to-start relationship with Activity D. Activity C is 12 days and Activity D is 15 days. If the start of Activity D gets delayed by six days, what is the best case duration? A. 27 days B. 15 days C. 33 days D. 21 days

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 216, #60 Answer: D The best case duration for a start-to-start relationship would be for both activities to happen concurrently. That would result in a 15 day duration, however, the 6-day delay must be added to that bringing it to 21 days.

The test plan design must be approved by the project engineer prior to implementation. This represents what type of dependency? A. Hard logic B. Mandatory C. Preferential D. External

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 217, #61 Answer: C Because it is not a physical dependency, it would be considered a preferential dependency.

Which statement is most accurate regarding resource leveling and smoothing? A. Resource smoothing must occur before resource leveling B. Resource leveling may alter the critical path whereas resource smoothing will not C. Resource smoothing may alter the critical path whereas resource leveling will not D. The terms smoothing and leveling are synonymous

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 217, #62 Answer: B

At six months in, your $785k project is 35% complete and the TCPI is 0.74 and you've spent $95k to-date. What is the earned value of the project? A. $595k B. $580,900 C. $690k D. $274,750

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 218, #74 Answer: D Earned Value (EV) = Budget at Completion (BAC) x % Complete EV = $785k x 0.35 = $274,750

Parametric cost estimating involves: A. Defining the parameters of the project life cycle B. Calculating individual cost estimates for each work package C. Using a statistical relationship between historical data and other variables to calculate a cost or duration estimate D. Using the actual cost of a similar project to estimate total project costs

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 219, #79 Answer:C Parametric estimating involves using a statistical relationship between historical data and other variables to calculate the estimate (unit cost or productivity rate)

The $350k project has a forecasted ($90k) variance at completion (VAC). What is the estimate at completion (EAC) forecast? A. $440k B. $260k C. $350k D. $390k

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 219, #83 Answer: A Variance at Completion (VAC) = Budget at Completion (BAC) - Estimate at Completion (EAC) ($90k) = $350k - EAC EAC = $440k

The project has a TCPI of 0.85. This means: A. The project is 15% over budget B. The project has 15% more money than work C. The project has 15% more work than money D. The project is 15% ahead of schedule

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 219, #84 Answer: B A TCPI of 0.85 represents that the project has 15% more money than work; a positive situation.

The costs associated with assessing the quality of a product is considered: A. CMMI B. Cost of conformance C. Cost of non-conformance D. Cost benefit analysis

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 220, #86 Answer: B The costs associated with assessing the quality of a product are considered the cost of conformance.

Process/Output. The Key Output is provided, name the Process that creates it. Resource calendars

Workbook, Lesson 10, page 98, #12 Answer: Acquire Project Team

Comparing actual or planned project practices to those of comparable projects through benchmarking can be used for all of the following except: A. Identify areas for improvement B. Provide a basis for measuring performance C. Generate best practices D. Increase customer acceptance

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 220, #90 Answer: D

Once a deliverable has been evaluated through the control quality process, it is considered: A. Validated B. Verified C. Accepted D. Approved

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 220, #92 Answer: B

A special type of histogram that focuses on identifying the sources that cause the highest frequency of problem effects: A. Pareto chart B. Bar chart C. Control chart D. Run chart

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 220, #93 Answer: A

The process of identifying and documenting project roles, responsibilities, required skills, reporting relationships, and creating a staffing management plan. A. Develop project team B. Acquire project team C. Plan human resource management D. Manage project team

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 221, #100 Answer: C

The process of improving competencies, team member interactions, and overall team environment to enhance project performance. A. Plan human resource management B. Develop project team C. Manage project team D. Acquire project team

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 221, #101 Answer: B

The process of tracking team member performance, providing feedback, resolving issues, and managing changes to optimize project performance. A. Plan human resource management B. Acquire project team C. Develop project team D. Manage project team

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 221, #102 Answer: D

According to Maslow's hierarchy of needs, the highest level need is: A. Self-esteem B. Love and belonging C. Success D. Self-actualization

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 221, #94 Answer: D

He believed that resources will put in more effort if they believe they will receive a greater reward. A. Maslow B. McClelland C. Vroom D. Herzberg

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 221, #95 Answer: C

McGregor's theory of X and Y states: A. X people are self-motivated and Y people are lazy and need to be micro-managed B. X factors are those things intrinsic to the work and Y factors are those things extrinsic to the work C. Y people are self-motivated and X people are lazy and need to be micro-managed D. Y factors are those things intrinsic to the work and X factors are those things extrinsic to the work

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 221, #96 Answer: C

He said that individuals have varying levels of need for achievement A. McClelland B. Maslow C. McGregor D. McAnderson

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 221, #97 Answer: A

According to Herzberg's theory of motivation: A. Salary is a hygiene factor B. Salary is a motivator C. Salary is intrinsic to the work being done D. Salary is not a factor

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 221, #98 Answer: A

Securing resources from external sources: A. Acquisition B. Vendor management C. Virtual teams D. Resource management

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 221, #99 Answer: A

Expectations regarding acceptable behavior by project team members. A. Ground rules B. Team code C. Behavioral norms D. Team dynamics

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 222, #103 Answer: A

A document that graphically depicts the project team members and their interrelationships for a specific project. A. Responsibility assignment matrix B. HR management plan C. Staffing management plan D. Project organization chart

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 222, #104 Answer: D

A hierarchical representation of resources by category and type A. Responsibility assignment matrix B. Resource breakdown structure C. Team directory D. Project organization chart

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 222, #105 Answer: B

The process of developing an appropriate approach and plan for project communications based on the stakeholder's information needs and requirements, and available organizational assets. A. Plan communications management B. Manage communications C. Control communications D. Develop communication strategy

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 222, #106 Answer: A

The process of creating, collecting, distributing, storing, retrieving, and the ultimate disposition of project information in accordance with the communications management plan. A. Plan communications management B. Manage communications C. Control communications D. Distribute communications

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 222, #107 Answer: B

Composed of a sender, receiver, message, medium, and noise. A. Interactive communication B. Communication model C. Communication plan D. Communication strategy

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 222, #108 Answer: B

A project with 32 team members expands to 41 team members. How many additional communication channels have been added? A. 324 B. 9 C. 820 D. 496

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 222, #109 Answer: A Using the communication channel formula of n (n - 1) / 2: First team size: 32 (31) / 2 = 496 New team size: 41 (40) / 2 = 820 Additional channels = 820 - 496 = 324

To conduct a communication requirements analysis, this formula would be most appropriate: A. n (n-1) / 2 B. (O + 4M + P) / 6 C. n (n + 1) / 2 D. (O + M + P) / 6

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 222, #110 Answer: A

Used for very large volumes of information, or for very large audiences, and requires the recipients to access the communication content at their own discretion. A. Interactive B. Push C. Pull D. Surveys

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 223, #111 Answer: C Pull communication would require that the receiver proactively access the content.

Which statement is most accurate: A. The buyer has increased risk in a cost-reimbursable contract B. The buyer has increased risk in a fixed price contract C. The seller has increased risk in a time and material contract D. The seller has increased risk in a cost-reimbursable contract

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 225, #133 Answer: A The buyer has increased risk in a cost-reimbursable contract, as the final costs will not be known.

The act of collecting and distributing performance information, including status reports, progress measurements, and forecasts. Involves the periodic collection and analysis of baseline versus actual data to understand and communicate the project progress and performance as well as to forecast the project results. A. Status reporting B. Performance reporting C. Forecast reporting D. Earned value reporting

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 223, #112 Answer: B

Thoughts or ideas are translated into language by the sender. A. Encode B. Decode C. Acknowledge D. Communicate

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 223, #113 Answer: A

When choosing communication technology, all of these factors may be considered, except: A. Urgency of the need for the information B. Availability of technology C. Ease of use D. Schedule forecasts

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 223, #114 Answer: D

The response strategy that changes the plan to eliminate the probability of risk occurrence: A. Avoidance B. Elimination C. Exploitation D. Mitigation

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 223, #115 Answer: A

The response strategy that changes the plan to reduce the probability and/or impact of a threat: A. Avoidance B. Mitigation C. Risk reduction D. Transference

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 223, #116 Answer: B

Used when the primary response is not effective: A. Fallback plan B. Workaround plan C. Contingency plan D. Contingent response strategy

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 223, #117 Answer: A A fallback plan is used when the primary response is not effective. The primary response may be a proactive risk strategy (Avoid, transfer, mitigate) or a contingent response strategy.

A risk that arises directly as a result of implementing a risk response. A. Response risk B. Residual risk C. Secondary risk D. Resulting risk

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 223, #118 Answer: C

A response to a negative risk event that is not planned in advance. A. Workaround B. Contingency C. Fallback D. Secondary

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 223, #119 Answer: A

The process of prioritizing risks for further analysis or action by assessing and combining their probability of occurrence and impact. A. Identify risks B. Perform quantitative risk analysis C. Prioritize risk responses D. Perform qualitative risk analysis

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 224, #120 Answer: D

The process of numerically analyzing the effect of identified risks on overall project objectives. A. Perform qualitative risk analysis B. Perform quantitative risk analysis C. Performance reporting D. Project forecasting

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 224, #121 Answer: B

A provision in the project management plan to mitigate cost and/or schedule risk. A. Reserve B. Clause C. Contingency D. Buffer

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 224, #122 Answer: C

Risk appetite is best described as: A. The degree of uncertainty an entity is willing to take on, in anticipation of a reward B. The degree, amount, or volume of risk than an organization or individual will withstand C. Measure of the level of uncertainty or the level of impact at which a stakeholder may have a specific interest D. The desire by an organization to grow in a speculative environment

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 224, #123 Answer: A

Technique to evaluate the degree to which the data about risks is useful for risk management A. Risk review technique B. Risk response planning C. Risk data integrity evaluation D. Risk data quality assessment

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 224, #124 Answer: D

Risk mitigation is to threats as what strategy is to opportunities? A. Enhancement B. Exploitation C. Acceptance D. Sharing

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 224, #125 Answer: A

Review and determination of the timing of actions that may need to occur sooner than other risk items A. Risk prioritization B. Risk action plan C. Qualitative risk analysis D. Risk urgency assessment

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 224, #126 Answer: D

Joint ventures or other partnerships would be an example of what risk strategy? A. Sharing B. Transference C. Mitigation D. Enhancement

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 224, #127 Answer: A

Which statement is most accurate regarding risk acceptance? A. No action is taken B. For threats, may be passive or active C. For opportunities, may be passive or active D. For both threats and opportunities, may be passive or active

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 224, #128 Answer: B

Which of the following is not an output of the plan procurement management process? A. Agreements B. Make-or-buy decisions C. Procurement statement of work D. Source selection criteria

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 225, #129 Answer: A

Outputs from the conduct procurements process include: A. Contracts, procurement documents, SOW B. Selected sellers, SOW, procurement documents C. Selected sellers, agreements, resource calendars D. Contracts, resource calendars, make-or-buy decisions

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 225, #130 Answer: C

The most commonly used contract type is: A. Fixed price incentive fee B. Firm fixed price C. Cost plus fixed fee D. Cost plus award fee

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 225, #131 Answer: B Firm fixed price (FFP)

This contract type is used whenever the seller's performance period spans a considerable period of years, with a special provision for price adjustments due to changed conditions. A. Fixed price incentive fee B. Firm fixed price C. Cost plus award fee D. Fixed price with economic price adjustment

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 225, #132 Answer: D The fixed price with economic price adjustment (FP-EPA) contract allows for special price adjustments for fluctuations in the price of commodities.

You were notified that a key item you were purchasing for your project is now going to be delayed. What is the best thing you should do? A. Notify your sponsor B. Take no action C. Meet with your project team to identify alternatives D. Notify your customer and discuss options

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 249, #73 Answer: C

Provides the project flexibility to redirect a seller whenever the scope of work cannot be precisely defined at the start and needs to be altered, or when high risks may exist in the effort. A. Purchase order B. Cost-reimbursable contract C. Fixed-price contract D. Time and material contract

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 225, #134 Answer: B If the work is not known in detail prior to contract execution, the buyer will need to enter into a cost reimbursable contract

Developed from the project scope baseline and defines only that portion of the project scope that is to be included within the related contract. A. Fixed price contract B. Procurement documents C. Procurement statement of work D. Make-or-buy analysis

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 225, #135 Answer: C

Used to ensure that all prospective sellers have a clear and common understanding of the procurement requirements. A. Procurement documents B. Pre-bid conferences C. Procurement statement of work D. Source selection criteria

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 225, #136 Answer: B

The process of managing procurement relationships, monitoring contract performance, and making changes and corrections to contracts as appropriate. A. Conduct procurements B. Control procurements C. Manage procurements D. Administer procurements

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 226, #137 Answer: B

In a CPFF contract, the fixed fee is calculated: A. After the work is complete B. As a percentage of estimated costs C. As a percentage of actual costs D. At the buyer's discretion

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 226, #138 Answer: B If it was calculated based on actual costs, it would not be fixed.

A structured review of the seller's progress to deliver project scope and quality, within cost and on schedule, as compared to the contract. A. Procurement performance review B. Procurement audit C. Procurement evaluation D. Seller audit review

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 226, #139 Answer: A

Which output is completed first: the stakeholder register or the stakeholder management plan? A. The stakeholder management plan B. Both are completed simultaneously C. The stakeholder register D. There is no relationship between the two

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 226, #140 Answer: C

If you have the completed stakeholder register, what process have you completed? A. Plan stakeholder management B. Identify stakeholders C. Manage stakeholders D. Develop project charter

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 226, #141 Answer: B

The primary output of the plan stakeholder management process is the: A. Stakeholder register B. Stakeholder engagement matrix C. Stakeholder management plan D. Project management plan

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 226, #142 Answer: C

The issue log is an output of what process: A. Identify stakeholders B. Manager stakeholder engagement C. Plan stakeholder management D. Direct and manage project work

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 226, #143 Answer: B

In addition to the enterprise environmental factors, organizational process assets, and the procurement documents, this document is an input to the identify stakeholders process: A. Stakeholder register B. Responsibility assignment matrix C. Business case D. Project charter

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 226, #144 Answer: D

Individuals, groups or organizations who may affect, be affected by, or perceive themselves to be affected by a decision, activity, or outcome of a project: A. Project stakeholders B. Key stakeholders C. Primary stakeholders D. Active stakeholders

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 226, #145 Answer: A

The stakeholder register typically contains: A. Identification information, financial assessment, and stakeholder classification B. Identification information, assessment information, and stakeholder classification C. Roles and responsibilities, identification information, and financial assessment D. Stakeholder classification, engagement assessment, and identification information

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 227, #146 Answer: B The stakeholder register typically includes identification information, assessment information, and the stakeholder classification. It does not include financial information.

The process of communicating and working with stakeholders to meet their needs/expectations, address issues as they occur, and foster appropriate stakeholder engagement in project activities throughout the project life cycle. A. Control stakeholder engagement B. Plan stakeholder management C. Plan communication management D. Manage stakeholder engagement

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 227, #147 Answer: D

Classifies stakeholders based on their ability to impose their will, their need for immediate attention, and the appropriateness of their level of involvement. A. Salience model B. Power/interest grid C. Stakeholder engagement strategy D. Stakeholder management plan

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 227, #148 Answer: A The salience model evaluates stakeholders based on three factors: power, urgency, and legitimacy.

Tools and techniques used to manage stakeholder engagement include all of the following except: A. Communication methods B. Group creativity techniques C. Interpersonal skills D. Management skills

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 227, #149 Answer: B

Which statement is least accurate regarding stakeholders A. They may be supporters, neutral, or resistant B. They are considered key when they have decision-making authority C. They must be actively engaged in the project D. Managing their expectations leads to increased likelihood of project success

Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 227, #150 Answer: C

You learn that a key stakeholder's high interest in the project is due to a sensitive HR issue. How do you handle this? A. Because it's a high interest, document it accordingly on the stakeholder analysis matrix B. Document it on the stakeholder analysis matrix but don't let anyone see it C. Include it in the stakeholder analysis matrix but control the dissemination of the document to carefully identified individuals D. Pretend you never heard about it

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam page 245, #48 Answer: C You document the reason for their involvement however, the dissemination of the document must be controlled

You are assigned a new project. You learn that the technology department wants the project objective to be a 15% improvement in throughput. The operations' department wants no more than 3% of its resources used on the project and senior management is asking the project to reduce tax liability. As PM, the best thing you can do is: A. Encourage technology, operations, and management to meet and agree upon one objective B. Include only the senior management objective C. Include operations and technology objectives but not the management objectives until you have further meetings D. Incorporate all objectives into the plan

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 238, #1 Answer: C Referring to project objectives. It is important that objectives are measureable. Only two of the objectives provided in the question are measureable, therefore those would be the two that you would include.

A cost performance index (CPI) of 0.75 suggests the project is: A. Under-budget to-date B. Over-budget to-date C. On-budget D. Behind schedule

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 238, #2 Answer: B A CPI less than 1 indicates the project is over-budget to-date

You are the project manager for a $500k international project with 20 resources. As project manager you have completed the WBS and WBS dictionary and your project team is working on identifying risks. Your sponsor has asked you to issue the responsibility assignment matrix. This project is very similar to the other projects you have completed for your organization and the risk is minimal. What is the next thing you should do? A. Develop the RAM and the risk management plan B. Validate the project scope C. Understand the sponsor's experience on similar projects D. Create an activity list

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 238, #3 Answer: D After the WBS is completed, the next step is to decompose the WBS into the activity list. You cannot do the RAM (responsibility assignment matrix) until the activity list is complete.

Your sponsor is currently evaluating multiple projects to determine which one would be the best to choose. Project 1 is a 5-year project with a net present value (NPV) of $83k. Project 2 is a 3-year project with a NPV of $25k. Project 2 is a 1-year project with a NPV of $67k. Project 4 is a 2-year project with a NPV of $44k. Which project should be selected? A. Project 4 B. Project 2 C. Project 1 D. Project 3

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 238, #4 Answer: C NPV is already discounted for the term or length of the project so the highest NPV is always the best selection. NPV: net present value

The sponsor of the development project has assigned it to you and advised you that the project is on schedule and is 50% complete. Upon conducting an evaluation of the project, you realize that the project is far behind schedule and it will ultimately end up taking twice the time that was originally estimated. What is the best thing for you to do? A. Proceed with the original schedule and provide an updated report at the first missed milestone B. Refuse the project and turn it back over to the original project manager C. Provide your evaluation to the sponsor D. Attempt to restructure the schedule to meet the original deadline

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 238, #6 Answer: C Because the project is significantly behind schedule, the best option is to provide an evaluation of the project to the sponsor.

To enhance and improve communications, the sender __________ the receiver. A. Should speak up to B. Should demonstrate concern for the perspective of C. Should talk slowly to D. Should use more physical forms of communication with

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 239, #10 Answer: B The sender should empathize, or show concern for the perspective of the receiver

Your sponsor wants to discuss with you the most appropriate estimating technique to use on the project. You know that it's important to use a form of expert judgment, but your sponsor feels strongly that analogous estimating should be used. What would be the best option? A. Compromise by suggesting parametric estimating which is a combination of both B. Discuss the situation further with the sponsor to understand why they want to use the more time-consuming estimating method C. Utilize a 3-point estimate as it would be more accurate D. Agree to use analogous as it uses expert judgment

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 239, #11 Answer: D Remember that analogous estimating is a combination of expert judgement and historical information

There is a 30% probability that the risk event will happen in a given month. The project is a 12-month project. As such, what is the probability of that risk even occurring during the 6th month of the project? A. 15% B. 30% C. 5% D. 80%

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 239, #12 Answer: B The 30% probability is uniform across all 12 months

This represents that estimated value of the work actually completed: A. Actual cost (AC) B. Planned value (PV) C. Earned value (EV) D. Actual work (AW)

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 239, #13 Answer: C Earned value is the estimated value of the work actually completed

You have been assigned a complex new project with a few unknowns that is anticipated to take nine months to complete. The customer has provided you with the statement of work and has stated that they are focused strictly on the end product and only want to see you at the end of the nine months with the completed product. Based on this information, what should you do? A. Verify the scope with the customer occasionally throughout the project, while completing the project as requested B. Request that your sponsor check in with the customer C. Document that the customer did not want contact D. Ensure that you complete the project within the nine months allocated with no contact with the customer until completion

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 239, #7 Answer: A Although the customer wanted no contact, per your professional responsibility, you need to, at a minimum, check in with them occasionally to verify scope.

As project manager, you are responsible for publishing the web design project schedule. You have identified the activities, the start and end dates of each activity, and the resources have been identified. What is the next thing you should do? A. Based on the communication management plan, distribute the project schedule B. Confirm the resource availability C. Publish a bar chart D. Refine the project management plan to include activity cost information

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 239, #8 Answer: B This question is asking about the time process. A is wrong because the schedule is not yet complete, C is wrong because again, we don't know if we have resources, and D is wrong because this question isn't talking about the project management plan.

Process/Output. The Key Output is provided, name the Process that creates it. Resource calendars

Workbook, Lesson 10, page 98, #13 Answer: Conduct Procurements

Consider the following: You are assigned a project that is underway. Activity B is a difficult activity and has an early start of day 10 and a late start of day 15. The SPI on your project is 0.72 and the CPI is 1.2. You have 15 stakeholders involved in the project. What are you most concerned with? A. Budget B. Resources C. Float D. Schedule

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 239, #9 Answer: D Because the SPI is less than 1.0, it indicates that the project is behind schedule. SPI: schedule performance index

Your project has a dependency requiring that the design be completed prior to the beginning of manufacturing. This is what type of dependency? A. Discretionary B. Mandatory C. External D. Preferential

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 240, #15 Answer: B In order to begin manufacturing you must have a design of the product you are building. This is inherent to the work being done and as such, would be considered mandatory.

You have recently been assigned a difficult project that requires the use of multiple sub-contractors. You have a major negotiation scheduled with a potential subcontracting firm tomorrow when you are notified that there is a strong probability the project will be cancelled. What should you do? A. Honor the meeting but only negotiate the significant items B. Postpone the negotiation meeting C. Do not spend a lot of time preparing for the meeting D. Meeting with the subcontractor but keep the negotiations brief

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 240, #16 Answer: B Given that there is a strong probability the project will be cancelled, you are responsible for protecting resource hours and should postpone the meeting versus wasting your time or their time.

An effective project management approach would be to break the identified work down into small pieces. All of the following describe how far to break down the work except: A. When it can be realistically estimated B. When it cannot be subdivided further C. When it can be done by one person D. When it has an appropriate conclusion

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 240, #17 Answer: C This is describing decomposing the work within the WBS down to work packages. All of the answers describe a work package except that it will be done by one person. It will be managed by one person but there might be multiple team members involved in completing the work.

The values, as defined by the global project management community as most important and that serve as the foundation of the Code of Ethics and Professional Responsibility are: A. Responsibility, honesty, integrity, and knowledge B. Responsibility, respect, fairness, and honesty C. Respect, honesty, fairness, and integrity D. Responsibility, integrity, respect, and fairness

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 240, #18 Answer: B

You are managing a complex engineering project with 52 team members. One of your stakeholders is known to make multiple changes on projects. How could you best handle this particular stakeholder? A. Remove the stakeholder from the stakeholder register B. As part of your stakeholder management strategy, demonstrate your authority with the stakeholder by rejecting their first few change requests C. Ensure that they are involved in the project as early as possible D. Work with the stakeholder's manager to identify other options for the stakeholder

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 240, #19 Answer: C Early involvement is critical to preventing late changes (thus more costly changes) in the project. You cannot remove the stakeholder (A), you cannot exert authority to "prove a point" (B), and going above the stakeholder would be in appropriate (D).

You are conducting an analysis of your project budget and schedule using the earned value technique. Based on your forecast, it appears as though the project will have a cost overrun at the end. What should you do? A. Re-estimate upon the elimination of risks in the estimates B. Eliminate some of the scope of the project C. Remove quality activities D. As the customer what work can be done sooner

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 241, #22 Answer: A Estimates generally include a contingency amount to account for any risk. To be most accurate, that contingency can be removed from the estimate to re-forecast.

The construction project has been difficult to manage and there is a lot of pressure on the team to complete the project on time. Team meetings have become very tense and there is a lot of shouting and very little progress on the project objectives. Because of the shouting, one of your team members has asked to be excused from the meetings as she is too upset and stressed by the tension. The customer is asking for some changes and additions to the scope. Your boss, the sponsor of the construction project, would now like to be involved in the weekly team meetings. How should you handle this situation? A. Conduct a team-building activity and make it mandatory for all team members to attend B. Discourage the sponsor from attending the meeting as it could increase tensions C. Have the team develop new ground rules and be sure all of the team members understand them D. Have a face-to-face meeting with the team member who asked to be excused and show the value of the open communication that is occurring within the team meetings

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 241, #23 Answer: C Because there is so much chaos and confusion within the team, one of the best options would be to have the team develop new ground rules which define their values and expectations for the team

Communications is of highest importance in a successful project. On your project, you have identified four key stakeholders. You know that this means there are 10 communication channels. If an additional stakeholder is identified, how many communication channels will you have? A. 12 B. 15 C. 10 D. 5

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 241, #24 Answer: B If there are 10 communication channels to begin with, there are 5 stakeholders. n (n-1) / 2 5 (4) / 2 = 10 (you include yourself in the stakeholder count) Add an additional stakeholder: 6 (6-1) / 2 = 15

You and your project management team have identified 73 risks on your project, identified and documented the triggers, plotted the risks on an probability/impact matrix, and evaluated the quality of the data that was used. What did you get? A. To conduct simulation and modeling B. Risk mitigation activities C. To involve the other stakeholders D. An overall risk rating for the project

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 241, #25 Answer: C You always need to involve the other stakeholders in the risk processes, not just your project team

Workarounds are determined during which risk management process? A. Control risks B. Plan risk responses C. Risk identification D. Perform qualitative risk analysis

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 256, #119 Answer: A Workarounds are not planned in advance. Therefore the only non-proactive risk process is the Control Risks process.

Based on past experience, when production is doubled, the unit costs decrease by 15%. Using this information, the company determines that production of 800 units will cost $150k. This illustrates: A. 80/20 rule B. Law of diminishing returns C. Evolution learning cycle D. Parametric cost estimating

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 241, #26 Answer: D Because it is using the number of units and the unit cost, this is parametric estimating

You are the PM for the construction project and your management has promised to provide you with part of the incentive fee from the customer if you are able to complete the project early. Your team informs you that one of the major deliverables is being finalized and although it meets the requirements in the contract, it will not provide the functionality the customer needs. The project will not be able to be completed early if that particular deliverable is late. What would be the best action for you to take? A. Develop a list of delays that were caused by the customer in order to prepare for negotiations B. Simply cut out other activities that will be unnoticed in order to provide additional time to fix the deliverable C. Provide the deliverable as-is, as it meets the contact requirements D. Inform the customer of the situation and determine a mutually agreeable solution

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 242, #27 Answer: D As part of the code of ethics, you are required to be transparent with information that affects the customer

Quality attributes: A. Are the objective criteria that must be met for successful completion of the project B. Are the specific characteristics for which a product is designed and tested C. Are used to determine how the performing organization will support the project D. Are the basis for determining if the project was a success

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 242, #28 Answer: B Attributes are specific characteristics that are tested during the QC process

The project manager is estimating the time that will be needed for each activity. Those estimates are then added to the schedule to create the overall project estimate. The project manager provides the timeline to the sponsor, committing to complete the project in the identified time frame. What did the project manager do wrong? A. A schedule network diagram was not completed, nor was the team involved in creating the estimates B. The project estimate should have been created by the sponsor based on the customer's needs C. The project manager did too much work as the project estimate is the same as the customer's required completion date D. The team should have completed the estimate and the method that was used was too time-consuming.

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 242, #29 Answer: A Before finalizing the schedule, the information needs to be added to a schedule network diagram and have the team involved in the estimating process

During the contracting process, the best description of the project manager's role is: A. The PM provides instruction to the contract manager regarding the handling of the contract process B. The PM functions as the negotiator C. The PM has minimal involvement D. The PM supplies an understanding of the risks of the project

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 242, #30 Answer: D The project manager does not have procurement authority so is generally not the lead during the negotiations, however, the PM will supply an understanding of the project and the risks the project may be affected by

As your project is progressing, one of your team members informs you that one of the work packages does not meet the quality metric and he does not believe it will be possible to meet it. As project manager, you meet with all parities concerned to assess the situation. What quality management process are you involved in? A. Plan quality management B. Perform quality assurance C. Control Quality D. Perform project control

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 242, #31 Answer: C Because you are assessing the work against the quality metric (as defined in the quality management plan), this is QC

The ABC project has the following activities: Activity A is 30 hours and can be happening at the same time as Activity B, which is 15 hours. Activity C can start after Activity A and is 25 hours. Activity D can start after Activity C and is 10 hours. Activity E, which is 25 hours, can start after both Activity B and Activity C. Activity F can start after Activity D and is 24 hours. Which of the following is true if Activity B actually takes 35 hours? A. The critical path has increased by 20 hours B. The critical path would shift to include B C. The critical path is A, C, D, F D. The duration of the critical path is 124 hours

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 242, #32 Answer: C Activities A and B occur at the same time; Activity B has 5 hours of float. Activity C can start after Activity A ends. Activities D and F (combined at 34 hours) are occurring at the same time as Activity E (25 hours) and therefore E has 9 hours of float. As such, Activities A, C, D, and F are on the critical path.

As project manager, you have just completed the risk response plan for the multi-million dollar renovation project. What should you do next? A. During the next risk meeting conduct a risk assessment B. Update the WBS with the additional work packages C. Calculate the overall project risk rating D. Conduct a quantitative risk analysis

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 243, #33 Answer: B Key word here is "response." Response means work that has to happen to change the impact or effect of the risk. Any and all work must be reflected in the WBS.

You are the project manager of a high-profile corporate project. One of your team members is conducting an on-site inspection of one of the development areas. Which would be the most important thing to be done on any phone cal between you and the team member? A. Advise the team member to be alert to change requests B. Review the upcoming list of deliverables C. Validate the contact information of the stakeholders D. Ask that your team member repeat back what you say

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 243, #34 Answer: D The first part of the question is superfluous. The general rule when conversing with someone over the phone is having them repeat back to you what you said.

During risk control, when is additional response development needed? A. When the organization is restructuring B. When the original risk response is not working as expected C. When the project objectives change D. When the contingency reserves are used up

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 243, #35 Answer: B Risk response control is when the risk responses are evaluated for effectiveness. If the original response is not working appropriately, additional response development is required.

Process/Output. The Key Output is provided, name the Process that creates it. Risk management plan

Workbook, Lesson 10, page 98, #14 Answer: Plan Risk Management

Mid-way through your project you learn that one of your sellers for your project is having problems with retaining employees due to a labor dispute. You are aware that there are other projects being conducted within your company using this same seller. What action should you take? A. Notify the other project managers in your company about the situation with the seller B. Take steps to retain the required resources on your project C. No longer work with the seller D. Provide the seller with notice that you will cancel their work on the project if the labor dispute is not settled

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 243, #36 Answer: A The only action you can take is to notify the other PMs regarding the situation with the seller.

As project manager for the construction project, you are half way through the project when your senior team manager lets you know that he is concerned that the project will not meet the quality standards set forth. The foundation is complete on the project and the structural reinforcements are being installed. What would be the best thing for you to do in this situation? A. Establish a quality assurance team B. Evaluate the results in the last quality management plan C. Let the senior team manager know that quality standards were defined up front and the project will meet quality standards D. Using parametric estimating, estimate the future results

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 243, #39 Answer: A Because you have quality standards, it implies that the Plan Quality process has been done. The manager has data regarding the actual work that's being done (thus QC), so in order to evaluate the QC results against the quality plan, you will need a QA team

Your sponsor advises you that there is enough money in the budget to complete the IT project, however, the project is 40% complete and the cost performance index (CPI) is 0.65. Upon reviewing the original cost estimates you learn that the project was analogously estimated. The analogous estimate was then used to determine the activity estimates. What should have been done to reach a more accurate estimate? A. Use SPI instead of CPI B. Take into consideration past history C. Conduct a bottom-up estimate to ensure that the activity estimates were accurate D. Use estimated costs to calculate CPI

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 244, #40 Answer: C An analogous estimate is top-down and therefore not as accurate. To reach a more accurate estimate, you will need to do a bottom-up estimate.

An activity has the following: early start (ES) of day 12, late start (LS) of day 17, early finish (EF) of day 18, and late finish (LF) of day 23. Which of the following statements is true? A. The activity is on a critical path B. The activity has six days of total float C. The activity has lag D. The activity is not on the critical path

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 244, #41 Answer: D Because the activity has float (LS of 17 minus ES of 12 = 5 days of float), the activity is not on the critical path

In order to use the project management plan to manage your project, it must be realistic. What is the best method for ensuring you have a realistic project management plan? A. As project manager, use input from your project team to create the project management plan B. As project manager, leverage input from the senior leadership team to create the project management plan C. Allow the project sponsor to create the project management plan, but as project manager, provide input D. Allow the functional manager to create the project management plan, but as project manager, provide input

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 244, #42 Answer: A For the project management plan to be realistic, it's important the project manager seek the feedback of the project team

You are the assigned project manager over a new development project The project is extremely complex and unfortunately neither the customer nor your project team have extensive experience with this type of project. In addition, the schedule for the project is very aggressive. Because of certain contractual conditions, any delay will be expensive for both your company and the customer. Your sponsor has agreed and provided sign-off on the project charter and the project management plan. Throughout the project, you have kept the customer's staff informed of the project's progress in both status reports and progress meetings. Near the end of the project, you are on schedule and within budget. You are notified that the project may be cancelled because the final product developed is completely unacceptable. What could be the most likely cause for this situation? A. The project charter and project management plan were not signed off by the customer B. Communication was not adequate and information was not provided to interested parties C. The project sponsor was not providing the appropriate amount of support D. Involvement by a key stakeholder was not adequate

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 244, #43 Answer: D Most questions that focus on a deliverable being unacceptable is usually due to the fact that a key stakeholder was not involved

As project manager, you are evaluating your project schedule. Which of the following risk events would most likely interfere with attaining your project schedule's objective? A. Delays in obtaining approvals required for the project B. A delay in the post-implementation review meeting C. Significant increases in the cost of materials procured for the project D. Contractual disputes that result in claims for increased payments

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 245, #46 Answer: A The correct answer is delays in obtaining approvals that are required. Post-implementation review meeting will be after the project is completed, and the other two answers are referring to cost issues

The project manager is conducting a major construction project in a foreign country. Because the construction is occurring in the downtown area, there is a concern with moving the large equipment through busy streets. The local contract tells the PM that the local police will coordinate traffic for a fee which will ensure that the equipment is delivered successfully. What should the project manager do? A. If the fee is not part of the initial estimate, do not pay it B. Pay the fee C. Eliminate that portion of the work D. The fee is a bribe, so it should not be paid

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 245, #47 Answer: B Because you are paying a government entity (the police), it is ok to pay the fee

Which of the following is not true about the distribution of project information? A. It is conducted only during the execution phase of the project B. The project manager should consider the appropriate presentation and facilitation techniques to employ C. It is performed throughout the entire project life cycle and in all management processes D. The project manager considers when to communicate face-to-face versus by email

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 247, #62 Answer: A

Process/Output. The Key Output is provided, name the Process that creates it. Risk register

Workbook, Lesson 10, page 98, #15 Answer: Identify Risks

The company intranet project affects over 20 departments and you have 18 team members. The first phase of the project is complete and you have received successful performance reports from three of the departments. To recognize the successful completion of the first phase of the project, you host a luncheon for the key stakeholders, in which those successful department heads can share their success with the other 17 departments. During the luncheon you overhear a manager of one of the departments discussing how he would prefer to see more regular meetings on the project. What is the first thing you should do? A. At the soonest date, facilitate a meeting with all stakeholders to discuss their concerns B. Review the communications management plan for the information distribution methods being used on the project C. Document the effectiveness of the luncheon in the project's lessons learned folder D. Send the manager that was overheard a copy of the communications management plan

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 245, #49 Answer: B The first step for resolving many problems is to refer to the plan, in this case the communication management plan

The project team is developing a new employee training program. The course development team has repeatedly missed their deadlines which has caused the online development team to have to crash the critical path activities multiple times. As the team lead for the online development team you are notified that the course development team will once again be missing the next deadline. You should meet with: A. The project manager alone B. The project manager and the management team C. The project manager and the team lead of the course development team D. The team lead of the online development team

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 245, #50 Answer: C Because you're a team lead, not the PM, you should meet with the PM and the team lead of the other group causing the problems

Which of these is not one of the triple constraints of a project? A. Scope B. Resources C. Time D. Cost

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 245, #51 Answer: B

Quality audits include all of the following except: A. Validating changes B. Confirming the implementation of approved change requests C. Determining if there are ineffective or inefficient policies or processes D. Determining if project activities comply with the organizational policies

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 246, #53 Answer: A

How can you best describe the difference between the cost budget and the cost baseline: A. The difference is the cost account B. The difference is the management reserve C. The difference is the contingency reserve D. The difference is the project cost estimate

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 246, #54 Answer: B

The project has 15 team members located in multiple cities. The WBS, estimates for work packages, and the schedule network diagram is complete. What would be the next thing the project manager should do? A. Evaluate the staffing management plan for the implications of the multiple geographic locations B. Create the preliminary schedule and secure the team's approval C. Complete the risk management processes D. Sequence the activities

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 246, #55 Answer: B The fact that the schedule network diagram is complete would indicate that the activities have already been sequenced. The next step is to create the schedule.

You have just taken over an important project for your organization that is in the planning stages and you realize that seven individuals have signed the project charter. What should you be most concerned about? A. Determining the project reporting structure B. Identifying a single sponsor C. Identifying who will be a member of the change control board (CCB) D. Additional time that will need to be spent on configuration management

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 246, #56 Answer: B More than one sponsor will cause significant problems for a project. A project should only have one sponsor.

As PM, you are evaluating the test results for the page load speed on the new website. You learn that more than 30% of the load speeds do not meet your company's quality standards. Despite this result, you feel that the page load speed is fine and does not need to meet the company's quality level. You should: A. Ensure that the future pages on the site meet the standard B. Change the quality standards to align with the level achieved C. Report the true quality level, even though it's below standards, and try to find a solution D. Document in your reports that the page load meets "our quality standards"

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 246, #57 Answer: C To comply with the professional responsibilities of being "transparent" with project information, you should report the true quality level and seek a solution

There are 12 project team members on the website development project. A member of the project team is talking to another team member at lunch and complaining that there are a number of different people asking her to do things. If she works in a functional organization, who has the power to give her direction? A. The team B. The sponsor C. The project manager D. The functional manager

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 246, #58 Answer: D In a functional organization, the functional manager always has ultimate authority

You have just started work at a new company. The company procedures require the creation of a lessons learned document for all projects. What is the best use of lessons learned? A. Historical records that can be used for future projects B. A planning record for the current project C. Maintaining a record of the project manager's accomplishments D. Detailing the progress of the current project

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 247, #59 Answer: A The lessons learned become part of the corporate knowledge base and will be used in future projects

You have assumed the management of a project already underway. The project team has been having some disagreements. What conflict resolution technique would provide the most lasting solution? A. Compromise B. Problem solving C. Forcing D. Smoothing

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 247, #60 Answer: B For the most lasting solution, problem solving is the most appropriate conflict resolution technique

A new project manager on the team has approached you for assistance with a bid for her project. There is limited scope definition and you want to protect the company from financial risk. What type of contract would you recommend to the project manager? A. CPFF B. FFP C. T & M D. FP-EPA

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 247, #61 Answer: A Because there is limited scope definition, it would not be possible to use a fixed price contract. T&M wouldn't be appropriate to protect the company from risk. So the best option is CPFF - Cost reimbursable because the scope is not fully defined, and fixed fee so that those costs can be predicted

In a weak matrix organization the power of a project manager is limited. The PM may function more as a project expediter or a project coordinator. What is the difference between an expediter and a coordinator? A. An expediter can make more decisions B. An expeditor cannot make decisions C. An expeditor has some authority D. An expeditor reports to a higher-level manager

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 247, #63 Answer: B Expeditors are essentially paper-pushers and cannot make decisions, where coordinators tend to have more authority

You are the project manager for a major global network launch. Your customer has more than 90 locations world-wide. You learn that the software company has released a significant upgrade on the equipment that you are implementing. When the project began, the functionality was not available, although the customer did request it. What is the most appropriate action for you to take? A. Proceed with your schedule and continue the implementation B. Notify your customer of the upgrade and also the associated impacts to the project's schedule and equipment functionality C. Adjust the implementation on the remaining sites to encompass the new upgrade D. Honor the original request made by the customer, implement the upgrade and adjust the schedule accordingly

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 247, #64 Answer: B This is a question about professional responsibilities and transparency in communication. It is important to notify your customer.

The project manager has been asked to do cost performance measurement as part of the performance report. What is the best way to perform cost performance measurement? A. Use the 80/20 rule and verify that the life cycle is less than the project cost B. Calculate earned value and use the indexes and other calculations to report past performance and forecast future performance C. Focus on the amount spent last month and what will be spent the following month D. Ask for a percent complete from all team members and report that in the performance report

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 247, #65 Answer: B Cost performance measurement is done by calculating earned value and other calculations

You are the project manager for a $1.5 million software development project that is using multiple international teams. In working with your project team to develop the schedule network diagram, the data architects state that quality could be improved if the data model is approved by the customer prior to starting the other design elements. They cite their source of this information as a recently published article in a leading professional journal. How would you best describe this type of input? A. It is a mandatory dependency B. It is an industry dependency C. It is a discretionary dependency D. It is an external dependency

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 248, #66 Answer: C This is a discretionary dependency; based on someone's professional judgement

A stakeholder contacts the project manager of the data integration project to request some additional scope that they would like to add to the project. After asking for the details in writing, the project manager works through the control scope process. When the evaluation of the requested scope change is complete, what should the project manager do next? A. Perform integrated change control B. Identify the root cause of why the additional scope was not uncovered during project planning C. Ask the stakeholders if there are any additional changes expected D. Discuss the impact of the change with the stakeholders to be sure they understand

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 248, #67 Answer: A

Your team lead is a few days late with a report that will be discussed in the meeting today. Shortly before the meeting is to start, he provides you with the report and you notice some significant errors. What is the best course of action? A. Cancel the meeting and personally correct the report B. Facilitate the meeting as expected but notify the attendees that there are errors in the report C. Reschedule the meeting to allow the report to be corrected D. Have the team lead present the information and do not voice your concern

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 248, #68 Answer: C This speaks to managing resource hours carefully. In this scenario it would be best to reschedule the meeting and allow the report to be corrected.

Your manager, the vice president, and his boss, the senior vice president, have requested that your assigned project begin immediately. You have created the project charter, but could not get it approved. What is the best thing you should do? A. Discuss with your manager the impact of proceeding without the appropriate approval B. Begin work but only on the critical path activities C. Establish the change control procedures for the project D. Table this project and only focus on projects with completed charters

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 248, #69 Answer: A

As project manager, you receive a call from one of your project team members notifying you that there is a variance between the speed of a system on the project and the planned speed. You are surprised that particular performance measurement was not identified in the planning process. If you evaluate whether the noted variance warrants a response, you are in what project management process group? A. Monitoring and controlling B. Executing C. Initiating D. Closing

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 248, #70 Answer: A

You have a 12 month project with a budget of $50k. The budget is allocated at $12,500 each quarter. Based on the status reports received the project is 60% complete and billed costs are $40k. It appears that the project is over budget so you talk to the lead analyst. She tells you that there was an unexpected $7k software cost during the 2nd month of the project cost (included in the $40k above). The remainder of the project costs that will be billed will be resourced costs (290 hours at a loaded resource rate of $80/hr). Which formula would be best to calculate ETC? A. Simply get a new estimate B. Cannot be determined from the information provided C. (BAC - EV) / CPI D. BAC - EV

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 249, #71 Answer: D Because this is an "atypical variance" scenario, the atypical formula for ETC would be used: BAC - EV

Your manager has asked that you negotiate the cost with the seller. Your project has a tight budget and the seller has told you that the purchase price is fixed. Your best course of action is: A. Make a good faith effort to find a way to decrease the cost B. Cancel the negotiations C. Hold off on the negotiations until you convince your manager to change his mind D. Continue with the negotiations but only focus on other aspects of the project

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 249, #72 Answer: A You cannot cancel negotiations and should not hold off on the negotiations to convince the manager. In addition, you cannot focus on only limited aspects of the project. Therefore, the best option is to make a good faith attempt to decrease costs.

You are conducting a quantitative risk analysis on your project in relation to potential profits earned from a new product. The estimated profit is $350k. There is a 20% chance that it will exceed expectations at a value of $180k, there is a 50% chance it will meet expectations at a value of $40k, and a 30% chance it will not meet expectations at a value of ($140k). What is the expected monetary value of the risk? A. $364k B. ($364k) C. $14k D. ($14k)

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 249, #74 Answer: C The EMV (expected monetary value) is calculated by: 0.2 x $180k = $36k 0.5 x $40k = $20k 0.3 x ($140k) = ($42k) Add together: $36k + $20k + ($42k) = $14k

Steele Construction and the City of Burlington are having complex contract negotiations. The representative from the City of Burlington takes notes for both parties to sign. When the work is being done, Steele Construction claims that they are not required to complete work that was agreed to during the negotiations because it was not included in the final contract. What statement is most accurate? A. Both parties must comply with all written and signed materials from the negotiation, so they are incorrect B. All agreements must be upheld so they are generally incorrect C. There was an offer, so they are correct D. Both parties are only required to deliver on the terms of the contract so they are generally correct

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 249, #75 Answer: D They are only required to deliver on the terms of the contract, so they are generally correct, however, ethically it would be more appropriate to honor the negotiated terms

As a relatively new project manager in the technology organization, you are struggling to keep the project schedule on track for the new implementation. This is a large, highly visible project with more than 190 team members. The pressing issues have been resolved to you satisfaction, the SPI is 0.59, the CPI is 1.31, and you have 48 activities remaining on the critical path. Based on all of this information, your monthly status report should provide the following information: A. Project issues and options B. The project is over budget C. The project will not meet the target launch D. The project is progressing well

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 250, #77 Answer: A Although your SPI (schedule performance index) indicates the project is trending behind schedule, you cannot state definitively that you will not meet the target date. The CPI (cost performance index) indicates you are under budget.

As project manager, you are trying to complete the process redesign project but cannot seem to get the appropriate amount of attention for you project. You are finding you have little authority to assign resources and the resources are primarily focused on process-related work. What type of an organization are you working in? A. Matrix B. Coordinator C. Functional D. Projectized

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 250, #78 Answer: C Because the resources are primarily focused on process-related work and you have little authority, this is describing a functional environment

Acceptance criteria is: A. Determined at the end of the project B. Always developed by the project manager in response to stakeholder requirements C. Never evaluated during project close-out D. Performance requirements and essential conditions which must be met before project deliverables are accepted

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 250, #79 Answer: D

You are the project manager for a 12-month project. As part of your project management, you have held weekly meetings with your stakeholders. After 11 months of work, the project is on budget and on schedule; however, the stakeholders are not satisfied with the deliverables. As a result, the project will be delayed by at least a month. The process that could have most likely prevented this situation is: A. Control scope B. Monitor and control risks C. Define scope D. Control schedule

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 250, #80 Answer: C Dissatisfaction with deliverables would have been minimized or prevented through the Define Scope process

The approved project baseline should be changed: A. To reflect approved project scope, cost, schedule, and technical changes B. When a sequence of activities has taken longer than originally planned C. When the productivity within a certain discipline has been higher than originally planned D. When a high-duration activity has been accomplished "out-of-sequence"

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 250, #82 Answer: A

The float of an activity is determined by: A. The amount of lag B. The amount of time the activity can be delayed before it delays the critical path C. Performing a Monte Carlo analysis D. The slack time between activities

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 250, #83 Answer: B

A stakeholder is a(n): A. Project engineer B. Individual or agency that controls contingency funds C. Person or organization that is actively involved in the project, or whose interest may be positively or negatively affected by the execution or completion of the project D. Organization's corporate attorney

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 251, #85 Answer: C A stakeholder is a person or organization involved in or affected by the project

Your project, Monkey-in-a-Can, has had some unexpected problems. You just learned that the tin can that will be used is actually twice as expensive as originally thought. This is going to continue to impact your overall project budget. What formula would best be used to calculate your EAC? A. BAC / CPI B. AC + ETC C. AC + (BAC - EV) D. (BAC - EV) / CPI

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 251, #86 Answer: A Because the variance is going to continue to occur, this is describing a "typical" variance. As such, the typical EAC (estimate at completion) formula will be used: BAC / CPI BAC: budget at completion CPI: cost performance index AC: actual cost ETC: estimate at completion EV: earned vlaue

The project manager for a major systems integration project is notified by the quality department that they will be initiating a quality audit of the project. The team objects to the audit as they are under a lot of pressure to complete the project on time. The project manager should explain the purpose of the quality audit to the team as: A. An ISO 900 I requirement B. A check-point on the accuracy of the costs submitted on the project C. An opportunity to identify ineffective and inefficient policies D. A verification that the customer is following the appropriate quality process

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 251, #87 Answer: C The benefit of a quality audit is that it identifies ineffective or inefficient policies

Process/Output. The Key Output is provided, name the Process that creates it. Selected sellers

Workbook, Lesson 10, page 98, #16 Answer: Conduct Procurements

Jason is the project manager for a highly political organizational project. Jason needs to schedule a meeting with one of the team members but upon review of the team member's calendar, he sees a meeting with a key stakeholder. Jason was not aware of this meeting. How should Jason approach this situation? A. Discuss your concern with the team member's manager B. Discuss your concern with the team member C. Notify your manager about the situation D. Do not address the situation actively but continue to monitor his calendar

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 251, #89 Answer: B Direct approach - contact the team member

These standards describe the conduct that we strive to uphold as practitioners. Although not easily measured, conducting ourselves in accordance with these is an expectation that we have for ourselves as professionals - it is not optional. A. Aspirational conduct B. Mandatory conduct C. Inspirational conduct D. Expected conduct

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 252, #92 Answer: A Aspirational standards are not easily measured, but are not optional

The new project manager that is leading a large, high-risk project appears to be making some errors. You over-hear team members criticizing the potential mistakes and questioning her credibility, experience, and the fact that she was assigned the project. On what basis would you confront the team members? A. Negativity in a team can disrupt project progress B. Per the mandatory standards, you can be held responsible for their behavior C. You know the new project manager and think they are being too hard on her D. Per the aspirational standards of respect, you have a duty to confront them

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 252, #93 Answer: D This is part of the aspirational standards

The project management office is considering hiring a project manager from within the organizatino. Upon review of the project manager's last three projects, the PMO director learns that the project manager's first project finished with a schedule variance of +150, was completed with a significantly compressed schedule and although the sponsor wrote a letter of recommendation, the key product of the project was not used. The second project had 37% more change than expected, had an SPI of 0.89 and 30 open items in the issue log upon completion. The third project had an ending cost variance of -600, used three critical resources, and needed to rework the project charter during project execution. Although the project budgets for each of these projects was less than $3k, they each had 15-20% more changes than others of the same size. The PMO director decides against hiring the project manager. What is the best reason why this happened? A. Because the project manager used issue logs on projects so small, it indicates he does not have enough knowledge of processes to work in the PMO B. The project manager has not managed any high dollar, high priority projects and therefore does not have the necessary experience to work in the PMO C. Despite the fact that the project manager had three critical resources on his team, he still needed to rework the project charter, indicating that he does not have the discipline to work in the PMO D. The project manager did not effectively involve the stakeholders which is an indication that he does not have the knowledge to work in the PMO

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 252, #94 Answer: D

The project manager is managing a large, complex project with 50 stakeholders and more than 18 team members. The project manager may use __________ to ensure that the team clearly knows what work is included in each of their work packages. A. The project schedule B. The WBS dictionary C. The project scope statement D. The project scope description

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 253, #100 Answer: B

What is the most commonly used formula for a three-point estimate? A. (Optimistic time + most likely time + pessimistic time) / 6 B. (Optimistic time + most likely time + pessimistic time) / 3 C. (Optimistic time - pessimistic time) / 2 D. (Optimistic time + 4(most likely time) + pessimistic time) / 6

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 253, #101 Answer: D Three point (PERT) estimates are calculated: (O + 4(M) + P) / 6

The project manager for the systems development project is under a tight schedule. One of her team members is not performing well on the project because he is inexperienced in the type of work required. There is no one else that is available to the project manager with more experience. What is the best thing for the project manager to do? A. Work with the functional manager to determine appropriate activity completion incentives for the team member B. Arrange for the team member to get the necessary training as it pertains to his responsibilities on the project C. Allocate some of the project schedule reserve to backfill the hours D. Obtain a more skilled resource for the particular activities

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 253, #95 Answer: B Because this is a training issue, incentives will not be appropriate and it is often not feasible to get a new resource. Therefore, the best option is arrange for the team member to get training

Variance that is sporadic, unusual, and difficult to predict is the result of: A. Random causes B. Common causes C. Special causes D. External causes

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 253, #96 Answer: C Variance that is unusual and difficult to predict is "special." Keep in mind random and common are the same, both indicating normal process variations.

In quality management, a control chart helps the project manager: A. Rank causes of poor quality B. Explore a desired future outcome C. Determine if a process is functioning within the set limits D. Focus on the most critical issues to improve quality

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 253, #97 Answer: C A control chart will demonstrate if a process is functioning within the set limits. It does not show causes of poor quality, explore desired future outcomes, or focus on the most critical issues to improve quality.

As project manager you are allocating overall cost estimates to the individual activities to establish the cost performance baseline. What process are you doing? A. Cost aggregation B. Cost budgeting C. Determine budget D. Control cost

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 253, #98 Answer: C

You have identified three critical paths in your project. How will this affect your project? A. It will make the project more expensive B. It will make the project easier to manage C. It will increase the project risk D. It will increase the need for additional resources

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 253, #99 Answer: C

Process/Output. The Key Output is provided, name the Process that creates it. Team performance assessments

Workbook, Lesson 10, page 98, #17 Answer: Develop Project Team

Your customer, LAN Corp, has accepted the completed project scope. Your PMO requires that lessons learned are completed for each project and they have not yet been completed. What is the status of your project? A. Complete as the customer has accepted the deliverable B. Complete as the project reached the due date C. Incomplete until all project deliverables are complete and accepted D. Incomplete due to the need for re-planning

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 254, #102 Answer: C A project is not considered complete until all deliverables are complete, even those required to satisfy internal requirements

You are a new project manager at the organization. Based on your past experience, you are trying to convince the management of the organization to sue more structured project management practices including requiring that a project charter is completed for all projects. Which of the following would be the best reason for an organization and project managers to complete project charters? A. The project charter contains a list of all of the team members B. The project charter provides the project history C. The project charter describes all of the activities to be completed D. The charter gives the project manager authority

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 254, #103 Answer: D

The seller is most concerned with project scope. As such, which type of contract are they using? A. Cost plus fixed fee B. Fixed price C. Purchase order D. Time and material

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 254, #105 Answer: B If the seller is most concerned with scope, they are using a fixed price contract. Meaning that the scope is their biggest concern because they are being paid one set price for the work

The project manager feels that the project is going well, although there are a number of changes being made. The project manager has abided by the PMO recommendation for the large, international project and is using 18 project management processes. The project manager is not only a technical expert, he has also had training on people management and communication. Based on this information, what is the most likely cause of the project problems? A. The amount of project management processes should have increased because it is an international project B. Not all stakeholders were identified C. The project manager is not receiving the proper oversight from the sponsor D. The project manager is not trained in understanding the organization's politics

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 254, #106 Answer: B

The project manager is assigned a new retail development project in another state. The project will require the purchase of equipment for the retail store, furniture, and key inventory. The procurement process is centralized for the company and makes use of the new order system. Where would the project manager find the documented procedures for the procurement process? A. Enterprise environmental factors B. Organizational process assets C. Human resource management plan D. WBS

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 255, #109 Answer: B

You have been notified that y our project will have a major change to its primary project deliverables. You are determining which quality standards are relevant to the change. Which process are you conducting? A. Perform quality control B. Perform quality assurance C. Plan quality management D. Control quality

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 255, #110 Answer: C Because you are "determining quality standards," that is the Plan Quality Management process

As the project manager, you evaluate the construction team's work performance information for your remodel project. Based on the information you received, the $30k project appears to be about 40% complete. Work billed to date was $10k although the project budget indicates that anticipated costs were to be $12k by this date. When you follow up with the construction team lead, he estimates that there will be approximately $15k in remaining costs. What is the EAC of this project? A. $15k B. $25k C. $5k D. $12k

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 255, #111 Answer: B To calculate EAC (estimate at completion), add the AC (actual costs) to the ETC (estimate to complete). $10k + $15k = $25k

Which of the following is an example of a cost of nonconformance: A. Training B. Product design C. Planning D. Rework

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 255, #112 Answer: D Non-conformance is money spent because of failures. Rework is the only answer that is conducted because of failures.

You are managing an international project and you anticipate there will be some conflict. The most common causes of conflict on any project are project priorities, schedules, and: A. Resources B. Management C. Cost D. Politics

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 255, #113 Answer: A

These standards establish firm requirements, and in some cases, limit or prohibit practitioner behavior. Practitioners who do not conduct themselves in accordance with these standards will be subject to disciplinary procedures before PMI's Ethics Review Committee A. Aspirational conduct B. Mandatory conduct C. Inspirational conduct D. Expected conduct

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 255, #114 Answer: B

Based on the performance measures indicated in the following table, what is the cost variance (CV) for case 3? IMAGE A. -1,000 B. 1,000 C. 2,000 D. -2,000

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 256, #117 Answer: B CV = EV - AC CV: cost variance EV: earned value AC: actual cost

You are the project manager for the large industrial engineering project. All of the project information for the project has been distributed according to the communications management plan. A few of the project deliverables have been changed in accordance with the change management process in the project management plan. During the steering committee meeting, one of the stakeholders is surprised to learn that there was a previously published change to a project deliverable. You are certain that all stakeholders received the communication which documented the change. What is the best course of action for you to take? A. Address the issue with your sponsor, letting her know that the stakeholder did not understand their responsibility B. Let the stakeholder know when the communication was published C. In the next steering committee meeting, address the issue in case there are others who missed the published changes D. Review the communications management plan and make corrections, as appropriate

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 256, #118 Answer: D

Process/Output. The Key Output is provided, name the Process that creates it. Work performance data

Workbook, Lesson 10, page 98, #18 Answer: Direct and Manage Project Work

In a fixed price (FP) contract, the fee or profit is: A. Calculated as a percentage of the estimated costs B. Not known by the buyer C. Determined by the buyer upon project completion D. Will be included as a separate cost during the invoicing process

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 256, #120 Answer: B For fixed price contracts, the profit is wrapped into the price and is not known by the buyer.

The project sponsor has asked to meet with the project manager to discuss project costs. The sponsor is unhappy with the project estimate, as she feels the price should be lower. She asks the project manager to reduce the estimate by 10%. What should the project manager do? A. Identify and add resources that have lower hourly rates B. Request all work package owners to cut their estimates by 10% C. Provide the sponsor with the activities that will be cut D. As the project starts, the project manager should be identifying cost savings

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 256, #121 Answer: C Because the cost estimate should already be accurate, the only thing to do would be to provide the sponsor with what activities will need to be cut.

You have been working on the development project for the past nine months. The project has consistently been behind schedule and over budget. What statement is most accurate about the completion of the project: A. You will end with a negative cost variance B. Both cost and schedule variance will be positive C. You will have a negative SPI D. The SPI of your project will be 1

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 257, #122 Answer: D SPI = EV / PV EV = BAC x % complete SPI: schedule performance index EV: earned value PV: planned value BAC: budget at completion

Which of the following provides a pass/fail mechanism for criteria critical to project success? A. Weighted scorecard B. Expert judgment C. Seller rating system D. Screening system

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 257, #123 Answer: D

Which of the following is the higher point on Maslow's hierarchy of needs? A. Physiologic B. Self esteem C. Love and belonging D. Security

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 257, #124 Answer: B The highest point is self-actualization. However, that is not provided as an answer, so the next highest is esteem.

All of the manual or automated tools and techniques used to collect, archive, and distribute project information on a project are known as the: A. Project management information system B. Communications plan C. Project management enterprise software D. Communications and feedback system

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 257, #125 Answer: A PMIS

If a risk event has a 30% chance of occurring and the impact of the risk will be $9k, what does $2,700 represent? A. The risk value B. The expected monetary value of the risk C. The amount of contingency to allocate D. The present value

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 257, #126 Answer: B EMV: expected monetary value

The overall process of managing changes that affect the function or characteristics of the deliverable is known as: A. Managing by exception B. Change control management C. Managing by objective D. Configuration management

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 257, #127 Answer: D

Your project team member is very committed to the project being very successful. However, upon review of the project performance report she realizes that the project is currently running behind schedule. She notices that the delay will cause one of her activities to be scheduled while she is out of the office on a vacation and will be unable to work on the activity. How should you handle this situation? A. Add the issue to the issue log B. Notify the project sponsor C. Update the project status report with this information D. Recommend corrective action

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 257, #128 Answer: D Because the project is already running behind, it will need a corrective action.

A collection of formal, documented procedures that defines the steps by which the project may be changed is known as: A. Managing by exception B. Change control system C. Configuration management D. Managing by objective

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 258, #129 Answer: B

You are out to dinner with your friend to celebrate his new job. He tells you that the position required a PMP credential. You know that he does not have his PMP although you recently received your credential. What is the most appropriate way to handle this? A. Report him to PMI B. Do nothing as it is after work hours C. Advise your friend to pursue his PMP as it is beneficial for career development D. Do nothing as you do not work at that company

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 258, #130 Answer: A Because you are credentialed, you have a responsibility to report the individual to PMI.

The person responsible for ensuring change control is processed through the integrated change control process is the: A. Project manager B. Functional manager C. Project sponsor D. President

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 258, #132 Answer: A

Trend analysis is used to: A. Improve variance reporting B. Create change requests C. Mitigate the harmful effects of scope creep D. Forecast future project perofrmance

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 258, #134 Answer: D

You are the project manager and you identify a defect in the deliverable that is due to the customer today. You realize that the customer does not have sufficient technical knowledge to notice the problem. The deliverable meets the contract requirements but not your quality standard. What should you do? A. Let the customer know that the deliverable will be late B. Approach the customer with the issue C. Document the problem in lessons learned so that future projects won't repeat the same mistake D. Deliver the project and seek formal acceptance from the customer

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 259, #136 Answer: B This is part of professional responsibility. You would approach the customer with the issue.

Many quality problems: A. Originate on the shop floor because of waste and rework B. Could be eliminated if supervisors monitored their work more closely C. Originate in the QA organization where the ultimate responsibility for quality rests D. Could be avoided by management taking action on potential quality improvement ideas

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 259, #138 Answer: D

Process/Output. The Key Output is provided, name the Process that creates it. Deliverables

Workbook, Lesson 10, page 98, #2 Answer: Direct and Manage Project Work

At the onset of your project, you had identified 15 stakeholders. Three more stakeholders have since been identified. How many additional communication channels have been added? A. 153 B. 120 C. 48 D. 3

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 259, #139 Answer: C n ( n - 1) / 2 15 (15 - 1) / 2 = 105 (15 + 3) ((15 + 3) - 1) / 2 = 153 153 - 105 = 48

Activity A has a duration of 3 days, Activity B has a duration of 6 days, Activity C has a duration of 4 days (and is dependent on both A and B completing), Activity D has a duration of 7 days, Activity E has a duration of 8 days (and both D and E are dependent on C completing), and activity F is 5 days (and is dependent on Activity E). What is the free float of Activity F? A. 0 days B. 5 days C. 6 days D. (5) days

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 260, #142 Answer: A There is no free float on Activity F

The customer for your IT renovation project has notified you that they want to add another server and five more software packages to your project. What is the most appropriate handling of this? A. Once approved through the change control process, utilize contingency reserve to cover the costs B. Once approved through the change control process, utilize management reserve to cover the costs C. Document the request and update the project management plan D. Submit a corrective action request to the change control board

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 260, #143 Answer: B Because this is an "unknown-unknown" situation, one that had not been previously identified, the most appropriate funding source would be management reserve.

You are evaluating your project using a tornado diagram. What process are you most likely conducting? A. Performing integrated change control B. Performing a qualitative risk analysis C. Monitoring and controlling the project team D. Performing a quantitative risk analysis

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 260, #144 Answer: D Tornado diagrams are used in quantitative risk analysis and are generally an output of a sensitivity analysis.

You have been managing a long-term project involving resources in seven different countries. The performance of some of your team members has been exceptional and based on exceeding their target goals, you have been authorized to promote two of your team members. The highest performer on your team is a female that lives in a country where women are not permitted in management roles. How should you best handle this? A. Because it is against the cultural consideration for that country, it would not be appropriate to promote her B. Because she achieved the performance required for promotion, promoting her is appropriate C. Because she is only a project team member, not promoting her could be based on her role D. Because it is culturally unacceptable, notify her that she would have been promoted but cannot be because of the circumstances

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 260, #145 Answer: B Cultural considerations should not play a factor in promotional or reward programs, when the performance of the individual entitles them to receive a promotion or incentive.

You are managing a project to implement a new employee recognition program. This project will include multiple components, such as the development of an intranet web page, an employee survey mechanism, a funding analysis, a role delineation study, and a manager training program. For the manager training program, there will be 80 managers trained at an estimated costs of $65/manager for the training module. This will be the first time you will be overseeing the development of a web page or conducting a funding analysis. Based on past projects, you have received estimates for the role delineation study ranging from 3 days to 10 days, with the most likely timeframe being 5 days. What would be the most appropriate estimating technique to use for the role delineation study? A. Parametric estimating because it leverages historical information B. Use 3-point estimating because it would be the most reliable technique C. Analogous estimating because it would be the most reliable technique D. Analogous estimating because it leverages historical information

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 260, #146 Answer: B Because you have the optimistic, pessimistic, and most likely duration estimates, the most accurate estimate would be a 3-point (PERT) estimate.

You have assumed the leadership of a high-exposure project that is approximately 30% complete. The sponsor of the project is the vice president of operations and is under a lot of pressure to deliver the product within the timeframe and budget allocated. He has demonstrated heightened sensitivity to any indications of project problems. Upon conducting an analysis, you determine that the project is behind schedule. Your sponsor has advised you not to include that information in the project performance report due to the implications. What is the best course of action for you to take? A. As the sponsor dictates the communication plan, do not include the schedule information B. Because it is early in the project and there is time for correction, do not include the schedule information C. Report the schedule information but after detailing the positive progress of the project D. Report that the project is behind schedule

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 261, #148 Answer: D Ethically the PM must report transparently and truthfully on the status of the project, regardless of the direction provided by the sponsor.

Which of the following techniques is most likely not used in estimating project durations? A. Parametric B. Bottom-up C. Analogous D. PERT

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 261, #149 Answer: B Bottom-up estimating is not used in duration estimating because adding up all of the activity or work package durations would not provide a true representation of the project duration. This is due to the fact that many of the project's activities may be conducted in parallel or with some type of overlap.

The project has experienced a higher number of defects than expected. The team has conducted an analysis of the root causes of the defects and identified more than 15 causes. Upon further research, the team finds that two of the causes account for the majority of the defects. Which statement is most accurate about the quality issues? A. They were identified through quantitative risk analysis B. They are reflective of Juran's quality approach C. They would best be illustrated in a control chart D. They would be an input to the cost of conformance evaluation

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 261, #150 Answer: B Juran applied the Pareto principle to quality activities: 80% of the problems arise from 20% of the causes. If you eliminate or remedy that 20%, a majority of the problems are eliminated.

Process/Output. The Key Output is provided, name the Process that creates it. Human resource management plan

Workbook, Lesson 10, page 98, #3 Answer: Plan Human Resource Management

Your project is entering the development phase and it is running behind schedule. You have identified a vendor that can produce a key component in less time than your internal team. Hiring the vendor is an example of: A. Risk sharing B. The cost of non-conformance C. An analogous evaluation D. Risk transferance

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 261, #151 Answer: D Because your project is behind schedule and the vendor will serve as a corrective action, this is considered risk transference. It would be risk sharing if the partnership would result in the realization or sharing of an opportunity.

You are under contract with a local construction company. The cost-reimbursable contract includes the payment of an incentive for each day the construction firm delivers early: $500 per day. The costs are estimated at $72k and there is a 50/50 split on actual costs that are under or over the estimate. If the vendor delivers 5 days early and the total costs are $65k, what is the final contract value? A. $67,500 B. $78k C. $71k D. $75k

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 261, #152 Answer: C The vendor will receive the total costs of $65k + 50% of the amount they came in under the original bid ($3,500). In addition, they will receive $2,500 for the incentive. $65k + $3,500 + $2,500 = $71k

The kitchen renovation project is underway and you have received the first delivery of cabinets. Upon installation, your superintendent informs you that the cabinets do not fit into the space that has been allocated. The change request to modify the cabinets is an example of: A. Changing the scope and updating the project baselines B. Configuration management C. A preventive action D. Scope creep

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 262, #153 Answer: B Changing the previously defined specifications of the cabinets would be considered a configuration change and would therefore fall under configuration management.

Which statement is least accurate regarding a reserve analysis? A. A reserve analysis is used during activity duration estimating B. A reserve analysis is used during both the cost estimating and budget determination processes C. A reserve analysis is conducted during qualitative risk analysis to justify the amount of contingency funding D. A reserve analysis is conducted during risk monitoring and controlling to ensure the amount of reserve or contingency is appropriate given the project undertainty

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 262, #154 Answer: C A reserve analysis does not justify the amount of contingency funding. A reserve analysis evaluates the amount of uncertainty on the project (risk) and the amount of contingency or reserve that's been allocated to ensure that it is appropriate. It is a tool used in duration estimating, cost estimating, budget determination, and risk monitoring and controlling.

Your project team has provided you with the following information: IMAGE What activity would be the best candidate for crashing? A. Activity A B. Activity C C. Activity B D. Activity D

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 262, #155 Answer: A Activity A would be the best candidate for crashing as it has the lowest incremental crash cost: $75/day

Your project team has provided you with the following information: IMAGE If Activity D has two day s of float and is crashed, what is the result? A. The project duration has been decreased by two days B. The activity will now have two days of free float C. The project duration has been decreased by three days D. The activity will now have three days of float

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 262, #156 Answer: D If Activity D has float, crashing it would gain one additional day of float, for a total of 3 days.

You are managing the ALEXI project, a multi-year project that involves resources from three geographic locations. In estimating the YZ component's duration, your team leads have provided you with a best case scenario of 12 days and a worst case estimate of 17 days, based on resource availability. What is the most likely duration? A. 14 days B. Unable to determine C. 14.5 days D. 15 days

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 262, #157 Answer: B Although you have the best case and worst case estimate, without the PERT estimate you cannot calculate the most likely duration.

You have accepted a new role as a PMO project manager. As part of your responsibilities, you are auditing some recent projects. Upon completion, Project A, a $750k project, was 10% over budget but delivered the project 10% earlier than anticipated. What is the final PV of the project? A. $825k B. $750k C. $6754 D. Because the project is complete, there is no longer a PV

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 263, #158 Answer: B Planned value (PV) at the end of the project is equal to the budget at completion (BAC). In this case the BAC is $750k and would be, therefore, also the PV.

Upon conducting a schedule analysis of your project, you identify three points of path convergence. Based on this, what statement is most accurate? A. You have at least 6 activities that may have free float B. There is an increased amount of risk in your project schedule C. You will need to conduct resource-leveling to account for the increased complexity D. You have not more than three critical paths

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 263, #159 Answer: A Path convergence occurs when there is more than one sequence flowing into a single successor activity. Free float is calculated on the last activity in a sequence and as such, at least six activities could potentially have free float.

You are the project manager for an 8-month project. The system development component of the project will cost $10k that will be payable at 20% in the first month and the remainder in the third month. The hardware purchase will cost $18k that will be payable in the fourth month. The resource fees will be $24k billed equally across the life of the project. What statement is most accurate if you have a funding limit of $20k/month? A. Because the total project costs do not exceed $160k there are no areas of concern B. The project work in the third month is most at-risk C. Work may need to be re-planned in the fourth month D. The funding limit is exceeded in more than one month and should be identified as a risk

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 263, #161 Answer: C Because month four planned spending exceeds the funding limit by $1,000, work may need to be re-planned.

Your project is not achieving the quality standards that you had previously anticipated. You map out the processes in place in order to determine if and where there is a breakdown in the process. A tool for analyzing and communicating the relationships between process steps is called: A. A scatter diagram B. A control chart C. A trend analysis D. A flowchart

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 265, #172 Answer: D A flowchart is used to analyze and communicate relationships between process steps.

You are the project manager for an 8-month project. The system development component of the project will cost $10k that will be payable at 20% in the first month and the remainder in the third month. The hardware purchase will cost $18k that will be payable in the fourth month. The resource fees will be $24k billed equally across the life of the project. What is the PV of the project at the end of the sixth month? A. $49k B. $43k C. $40k D. $46k

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 263, #162 Answer: D Planned value at the end of the sixth month would be $46,000 (the cumulative amount of spending planned for the project through the six month).

You are the project manager for an 8-month project. The system development component of the project will cost $10k that will be payable at 20% in the first month and the remainder in the third month. The hardware purchase will cost $18k that will be payable in the fourth month. The resource fees will be $24k billed equally across the life of the project. If the project is 70% complete by the end of the fifth month, what statement is most accurate? A. The project will not meet the intended completion date B. The project appears to be running behind schedule C. The project will be delivered early D. The project appears to be running ahead of schedule

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 264, #163 Answer: B The EV of the project is $36,400. With a PV of $43k at the end of the fifth month, the SV would be negative, indicating the project may be running behind schedule. EV: earned value PV: planned value SV: schedule variance

The project manager is evaluating the cost estimates for the MIAC project. The project has a budget of $150k. For product launch, the team will be producing 100,000 units at a cost of 0.020 each. For the early project work, the project manager leverages information from a previous project and estimates the costs to be $90k. In addition, the project manager meets with the web-based interface team assigned to the project and uses their estimate of $20k for the interface component. What estimating techniques were used? A. Bottom-up, PERT, and parametric B. PERT, bottom-up, and expert judgement C. Expert judgment, parametric, and analogous D. Analogous, parametric, and three-point

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 264, #164 Answer: C The unit cost calculation was parametric estimating, the early project work was estimated analogously, and leveraging the interface team is using expert judgment.

You are working with the work package owners to develop the project schedule. One of the work package owners provides you with the following information: The work will begin on Monday, 12 May and will be complete by Friday, 23 May Work days are Monday through Friday, 6 hours/day Monday, 19 May is a holiday What statement is most accurate? A. The total elapsed time is two weeks B. The total effort is 60 staff-hours C. The total duration is 12 work-days D. The elapsed time and duration is two weeks

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 264, #166 Answer: A Elapsed time includes non-work days, such as weekends and holidays. The total elapsed time is two weeks.

Risk audits are performed during what process: A. Plan risk responses B. Plan risk management C. Monitor and control project work D. Control risks

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 264, #167 Answer: D Risk audits measure the effectiveness of risk responses and are conducted during risk monitoring and controlling

You have identified four key stakeholders for your project: the project sponsor, the vice president of marketing, the vice president of operations, and the CIO. The sponsor has been with the company for 6 years and is well-known throughout the organization. The vice president of marketing is new to the organization but has pledged support and resources for the project. The marketing resources will be the primary project resources. The vice president of operations will be providing a few SMEs to the project, although resources are limited within her teams. This project is not a priority for her. The CIO has a high-level awareness of the project but his level of support is not known. Who would you prioritize your time with? A. The CIO B. The project sponsor C. The vice president of marketing D. The vice president of operations

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 265, #168 Answer: C Because the marketing resources will be the primary project resources, managing the relationship with the VP of marketing will be critical.

The construction project for the new high-rise building is running behind schedule and over budget. Upon evaluation of the project performance to-date, you identify one key reason for the delays is the inexperienced project foreman. You make a recommendation to the change control board to partner the foreman with a more experienced foreman in order to mitigate the risk associated with his inexperience. Once the change is approved, what is the next thing you should do? A. Archive the change control report B. Update the WBS and schedule to reflect the additional time and effort needed for the mentoring C. Update the project baselines D. Consult with the experienced project foreman and provide him with the background information

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 265, #169 Answer: B The risk response strategy that is approved will have implications to the work being done and the time required to complete that work. As such, the WBS and schedule must be updated to reflect the new work and the time needed.

Because your team is geographically disbursed and will be a virtual team, you are concerned regarding effective communication between the team members. To mitigate the risk, you recommend video teleconferences once per month with the key team members. What statement is most accurate regarding the video teleconferences? A. Using teleconferences will increase the likelihood of project acceptance by the end-user B. Allowing for interactive communication will promote team cohesiveness and development C. Including key individuals will decrease the probability of scheduling activities on the critical path D. They will only be effective if there is an appropriately structured workaround strategy

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 265, #170 Answer: B Interactive communication will promote team cohesiveness and development much faster than push communication.

You are evaluating the vendor invoices against their completed deliverables. You are conducting what process? A. Planning procurement management B. Conducting procurements C. Closing procurements D. Controlling procurements

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 265, #171 Answer: D

Vocabulary: A project life cycle where the project scope is generally determined early in the project life cycle, but time and cost estimates are routinely modified as the project team's understanding of the product increases

Workbook, Lesson 1, page 13, #17 Answer: Iterative life cycle

All of the following are causal forecasts except? A. Because there is an experienced team, the project quality may be lower than expected B. Because the earned value is higher than the planned value, the project will be over budget C. Because the steering committee provided oversight and guidance, there is an increased likelihood of product acceptance D. Because there is high attrition in the organization, retention of key resources may be difficult

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 266, #173 Answer: B EV is not a causal forecast, it is a time-series forecasting tool. EV: earned value

Your team member has completed the weekly performance report for the project. The current earned value measurements were included: schedule performance index 1.3, cost performance index 0.95, and TCPI 1.5. In association with these measurements, the team member could state: A. The project is trending under budget and additional funding may be required B. The project is trending behind schedule and additional time may be required C. The project appears to have more work remaining than funds remaining D. The new forecasted time to complete will most likely exceed the original budget at completion

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 266, #174 Answer: C The project appears to be ahead of schedule, slightly over budget, and there is more work remaining than there are funds remaining (TCPI). TCPI: to-complete performance index

The estimated costs for your project are $795K. Upon evaluation of the project and the associated project risks, you decide to allocate an additional 10% to account for the uncertainty on the project. The sponsor has allocated 15% to account for any major scope changes that may be requested by the customer. What is the project budget? A. $874,500 B. $795,000 C. $1,005,675 D. $914,250

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 266, #176 Answer: C The project budget includes contingency and management reserve. $795k + $79,500 + $131,175 = $1,005,675

Activity 1.4 has a duration of 5 days and 1 day of FF. Activity 1.11, the successor activity, has a duration of 6 days and an ES of 28. Activity 1.7 has a duration of 15 days and 3 days of total float. If Activity 1.4 is delayed by 3 days, what is the impact? A. The float on Activity 1.7 will be consumed B. There will be no effect on the project C. The ES of Activity 1.11 will be 30 D. The float on Activity 1.4 will increase to 4 days

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 266, #177 Answer: C Activity 1.4 has 1 day of free float. If it is delayed by three days it will change the ES of the successor (1.11) by 2 days, changing it from 28 to 30. ES: early start

You are the project manager over the project to upgrade all existing patient systems to company with electronic record requirements, as determined by the US government. What would be the most appropriate technique to establish a reserve for the schedule duration, budget, estimated cost, or funds for a project based upon the remaining level of project uncertainty: A. Risk reassessment B. Reserve analysis C. Baseline establishment D. Risk audit

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 266, #178 Answer: B A reserve analysis is the technique evaluates the amount of uncertainty remaining on the project and the corresponding amount of contingency or reserve that is allocated.

Your project is 70% complete and you are conducting an earned value analysis to include in your project performance report. You are evaluating the team members' performance, work package percent complete, the actual costs that have occurred to date and the overall project budget estimate. What factor represents that estimated value of the work actually completed: A. Actual cost (AC) B. Planned value (PV) C. Earned value (EV) D. Actual work (AW)

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 267, #179 Answer: C

All of the following are techniques used to control costs except: A. To-complete performance index B. Variance analysis C. Forecasting D. Performance reporting

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 267, #180 Answer: D

You have finalized all of your subsidiary plans. With your approved project management plan, what should you do next? A. Execute the tasks as defined in the project plan B. Maximize team performance C. Conduct a kick-off meeting D. Receive authorization to proceed with the project

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 267, #181 Answer: C

You have taken over the management of a strategy-critical project that is exceptionally time-sensitive. The team members represent the different divisions that will be most impacted by the implementation of the project and have been known to have very strong opinions about the project requirements and the development of the project deliverables. The previous project manager had difficulty managing conflict within the team and this has caused the project to be delayed. You decide to train the team on conflict resolution strategies. This is an example of: A. Risk avoidance B. Risk exploitation C. Risk acceptance D. Risk mitigation

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 267, #182 Answer: D Training the team on conflict resolution strategies decreases the probability of disruptive conflicts. As such, this would be considered risk mitigation

You are planning the project work and evaluating any schedule dependencies that exist using a PDM. What process are you most likely conducting? A. A qualitative risk analysis B. Sequencing activities C. Determining the budget D. A quantitative risk analysis

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 267, #183 Answer: B The PDM, a type of schedule network diagram, is developed during the sequence activities process.

You are updating your project performance report and preparing it for distribution. Your project is progressing well and the latest milestones were all achieved on schedule. One of your team leads has left the company and a replacement should be identified within the next week. Four of your resources are new to the company. Your CPI measurements for the past three months are: Jan 0.9, Feb 0.97, and Mar 1.2 What method of communication would be the most appropriate given the risks of the project? A. Because it is a performance report, push communication should be used B. Because the project is trending over budget, interactive communication should be used C. Because of the change in the team lead, emergent communication should be used followed up by a pull communication D. Because the project is performing well, pull communication should be used

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 267, #184 Answer: A Performance reporting is generally conducted through push communication, such as email.

Vocabulary: Stage of team development where team members are isolated and not as open with one another

Workbook, Lesson 10, page 97, #6 Answer: Forming

An activity has the following: early start (ES) of day 12, late start (LS) of day 17, early finish (EF) of day 18, and late finish (LF) of day 23. Which of the following is a true statement: A. The activity is on the critical path B. The activity has six days of total float C. The activity has lag D. The activity is not on the critical path

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 268, #185 Answer: D Based on the ES/EF/LS/LF, the activity has five days of total float. Because it has float, the activity is not on the critical path.

The Fun-in-a-Can Corporation is hoping to expand their product line. After evaluating multiple project ideas, the Monkey-in-a-Can (MIAC) project was selected by the steering committee as the best product development to pursue. Upon conducting a thorough benefits analysis, the MIAC project has a positive NPV and an IRR that exceeds the company's hurdle rate. In addition, there has been an increased demand for "monkey" products since the recent surge in popularity of these jungle creatures. An enterprise environmental factor would be: A. The positive NPV B. The demand for money products C. The steering committee selection D. The IRR

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 268, #186 Answer: B The demand for monkey products would be an enterprise environmental factor - an influencer on the project evaluation.

You are implementing approved changes and risk actions. What process group would these tasks fall under? A. Monitoring and controlling B. Integrated change control C. Closing D. Executing

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 268, #187 Answer: D

You have taken over a project that has been rumored to be behind schedule and over budget. Many of the team members are disengaged and are resentful of working on the project. The previous project manager left the company abruptly and provided no turnover documentation. Your first week on the project your primary vendor shuts down. This was not identified as a risk on the risk register. What is the first step you should take? A. Invoke the contingency plan B. Mitigate the risk C. Implement a workaround D. Evaluate the project management plan for additional change control procedures

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 268, #188 Answer: C Because this was an unidentified risk, and therefore there is no planned risk response, the first step would be to implement a workaround.

You have recently assumed the management of a project that has been underway for six months. Upon review of the risk register, you believe that many project risks have not been identified. As such, you decide to interview the key stakeholders and team members to get their input. Which of the following is a weakness of using interviews for risk identification? A. Used with stakeholders, it can decrease engagement, as they will feel the time is better spent on project activities B. Specific risks cannot be addressed in detail, only in summary C. Additional information, such as concerns and alternate perspectives could be surfaced that are non risk-related D. The experience and perspectives of others could lead to the identification of opportunities that had not been previously documented

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 268, #189 Answer: C While conducting interviews for risk identification, it is possible that additional information could be discussed that is non-risk-related.

Your team has identified risks on the project, performed a qualitative risk analysis and determined the most appropriate responses for the prioritized risks. Which statement is least accurate regarding the updates to, and communication of, the risk register? A. The risk register should be written to a level of detail that corresponds with the priority ranking and the planned response B. Risks evaluated to low priority should be included on a "watchlist" C. The top 20 highest priority risks should be addressed in detail D. The risk register should include residual risks and the contingency plans

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 269, #190 Answer: C The number of risks reported on should not be based on a reporting limitation (such as the top 20) but should be based on priority and impact to the project.

Deliverables are not considered verified until they have completed what process? A. Inspection B. Quality assurance C. Verify scope D. Control quality

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 269, #191 Answer: D

You are nearing the completion of your project. Upon evaluation of the previously identified risks, you realize that 18 of the 35 risks can be closed. What is the appropriate handling of closed risks? A. Delete the risks from the risk register B. Indicate that the risk is closed on the risk register C. Reassign the risk owner to another risk D. Perform a quantitative analysis to ensure that the risk can be closed

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 269, #192 Answer: B Closed risks should be identified as "closed" on the risk register but should never be deleted.

Work performance data and work performance information differ in that: A. Work performance data is an output of control schedule B. Work performance information represents the data from a variance analysis C. Work performance data is developed through the control scope process D. Work performance information is an output of direct and manage project execution

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 269, #193 Answer: B Work performance measurements are the result of conducting variance analyses on the project costs and schedule.

You are closing your project. Of the following tasks, what must occur first? A. Collate lessons learned B. Transfer the ownership of the deliverables C. Obtain financial, legal, and administrative closure D. Obtain final acceptance of the project deliverables

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 269, #194 Answer: D

All of the processes within the integration knowledge area have a common tool/technique: A. Variance analysis B. Expert judgement C. Work performance information D. Project management plan

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 269, #195 Answer: B

You have been working with a vendor to develop an online training module. The project is 60% complete and the vendor has asked that the payment due dates be changed to 5 business days prior to the agreed payment date. This is an example of: A. A constructive change B. A scope change C. A preventive action D. A corrective action

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 269, #196 Answer: A Changing the terms and conditions of the contract would be considered a constructive change.

Vocabulary: Formal or informal assessments of the project team's effectiveness, including indicators such as: improvement in skills, improvements in competencies and sentiments, reduced staff turnover rate

Workbook, Lesson 10, page 97, #7 Answer: Team performance assessment

You assumed the management of a multi-year project that was only 10% complete. Over the last 18 months, the project has been progressing very well, meeting all defined technical performance accomplishments. As the project nears closing, you provide the final deliverables to the customer. Upon review, the customer rejects the deliverables, stating that they do not meet the documented requirements. What statement is most accurate? A. Because the project has met the technical performance requirements, any changes to the deliverables would be a scope change B. Because the project is in alignment with the objectives, the non-acceptance is not appropriate C. Because the deliverable does not meet the customer requirements, any changes would be a defect repair D. Because the deliverable is the final project requirement, the customer was at-fault for not providing accurate requirements

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 270, #198 Answer: C If the requirements were documented and the deliverable did not meet those documented requirements, this would be considered a defect repair.

Your $30k project is in the last phase. As project manager, you are evaluating the following information: the project is 60% complete and the billed costs to-date are $17k. Based on this information, you know that" A. The project is running behind schedule B. The project is over-budget C. The project will not meet the target delivery dates D. The project has a favorable TCPI

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 270, #199 Answer: D The TCPI of the project is 0.92. This indicates that there is less work remaining than there are funds remaining. This is a favorable TCPI.

Used to collect requirements, this technique consolidates ideas generated through brainstorming into a map to reflect commonalities and differences in understanding: A. Affinity diagram B. Nominal group mapping C. Idea mapping D. Delphi technique

Workbook, F - PMP Final Practice Exam, page 270, #200 Answer: C Idea mapping consolidates ideas generated during brainstorming to reflect commonalities and differences.

Which of the following is not a project? A. Running an election campaign for a political candidate B. Building a bridge over a river C. Piloting aircraft for a commercial airline D. Writing a book on project management

Workbook, Lesson 1, page 10, #1 Answer: C While the flight itself may have attributes of a project (it is temporary, etc) it is an ongoing part and attribute of the business operations and therefore, it would not be considered a project.

The product life cycle differs from the project life cycle in that the project life cycle: A. Can produce multiple projects B. Will differ by industry C. Does not use a methodology D. Dictates the project management activities to be used

Workbook, Lesson 1, page 10, #2 Answer: B The question is asking specifically about the project life cycle. The project life cycle will vary between organizations, industries, different types of projects. The project life cycle produces one project, does uses a methodology and the project management methodology will dictate the project management activities to be used, not the project life cycle.

A project is: A. A set of sequential activities performed in a process or system B. A revenue-generating activity that needs to be accomplished while achieving customer satisfaction C. An ongoing endeavor undertaken to meet customer or market requirements D. A temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, service, or result

Workbook, Lesson 1, page 10, #3 Answer: D The definition of a project is a temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, service, or result. It is not a set of sequential activities performed in a process or system, a revenue-generating activity that needs to be accomplished while achieving customer satisfaction, nor an ongoing endeavor undertaken to meet customer or market requirements.

Project management is: A. The integration of the critical path method and the earned value management system B. The application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet project requirements C. The application of knowledge, skills, wisdom, science, and art to organizational activities to achieve operational excellence D. A subset of most engineering and other technical disciplines

Workbook, Lesson 1, page 10, #4 Answer: B Project management is the application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet project requirements. It is not the integration of the critical path method and the earned value management system, the application of knowledge, skills, wisdom, science, and art to organizational activities to achieve operational excellence, nor a subset of most engineering and other technical disciplines.

Managing a project includes: A. Balancing the competing demands for quality, scope, time, and cost B. Integrating requirements of profitability, low cost, and legal responsibility C. Implementation of software, hardware, and other systems to enhance organizational efficiency D. Supporting human factors, communications, discipline, and performance management

Workbook, Lesson 1, page 10, #5 Answer: A Managing a project includes balancing the competing demands for quality, scope, time, and cost. The other answers were much too specific and could not be considered a general definition. Oftentimes, the mention of the triple constraint plus quality will be a great hint, as that is typically the basis for project management.

A program is a: A. Group of related tasks lasting one year or less B. Group of related projects managed in a coordinated way C. Project with a cost over $1 million D. Sequence of steps constituting a project

Workbook, Lesson 1, page 10, #6 Answer: B A program is a group of related projects managed in a coordinated way. Answers A and C are too specific and answer D is not referring to a project.

Organizations perform work to achieve a set of objectives. All of the following are true about projects and operations work except: A. Both projects and operations are constrained by limited resources B. Operations are ongoing and repetitive, while projects are temporary and unique C. Both projects and operations are planned, executed, and controlled D. All activities in the organization can be addressed within the organization's normal operational limits. Therefore, projects are rarely utilized as a means of achieving an organization's strategic plan.

Workbook, Lesson 1, page 10, #7 Answer: D Of the four answers, D is the only false answer. All activities cannot be addressed within the organization's normal operational limits. As such, projects are utilized as a means to achieving an organization's strategic plan.

Vocabulary: One or both parties give up on some of their interests in order to come to agreement

Workbook, Lesson 10, page 97, #8 Answer: Compromising

Vocabulary: Removing yourself from the conflict

Workbook, Lesson 10, page 97, #9 Answer: Withdrawing

In considering project stakeholders, the project management team must do all of the following except: A. As much as possible, create conflicts among stakeholders to allow the project team to get its work done B. Identify the stakeholders C. Determine the stakeholders' requirements and expectations D. To the extent possible, manage stakeholders' influence in relation to the requirements to ensure a successful project

Workbook, Lesson 1, page 11, #10 Answer: A The project team must identify the stakeholders, determine their requirements, and manage their influence as it relates to the project requirements. The project team should not create conflicts among stakeholders.

The project manager is more likely to have a full-time role in what type of an organization? A. Functional B. Weak matrix C. Strong matrix D. Small capitalization

Workbook, Lesson 1, page 11, #11 Answer: C The project manager is more likely to have a full time roll in a strong matrix environment. If projectized environment had been there as an option, that would have been the best response.

All of the following statements about the level of authority of the project manager are true except: A. In a functional organization, the project manager has little or no authority B. In a weak matrix, the project manager role is more of a coordinator or expediter than a manager C. The balanced matrix organization does not provide the project manager with the full authority over the project and project funding D. Authority of the project manager is limited in a projectized organization

Workbook, Lesson 1, page 11, #12 Answer: The authority of a project manager would not be limited in a projectized organization. A projectized organization gives the project manager the greatest amount of authority.

For a large, complex project with cross-functional project needs, the following organizational structure gives considerable authority to the project manager: A. A strong matrix organization B. A balanced matrix organization C. A weak matrix organization D. A functional organization

Workbook, Lesson 1, page 11, #13 Answer: A The first part of the question is "noise." The organizational structure that gives considerable authority to the project manager would be a strong matrix.

Your friend has been hired as a project manager at a new company. She has very little project experience but has been assigned a new project. The organization she will be working in is a matrix organization. She can expect communications to be: A. Complex B. Non-automated C. Open D. Easy

Workbook, Lesson 1, page 11, #14 Answer: A Communications in a matrix environment can be very complex as the communication must flow horizontally (from the PM to their dotted-line reports) and vertically (from the PM to the administrative managers of the team members.).

The term "progressive elaboration" refers to: A. Constantly changing project scope B. Adding detail to project deliverables as the project moves from phase to phase C. Letting team members make scope changes without customer approval D. None of the above

Workbook, Lesson 1, page 11, #15 Answer: B Progressive elaboration means starting with a high-level and adding details, further defining and refining the project as the team learns more about what will be needed.

In understanding the project environment, all of the following are true except: A. Projects are planned and implemented in a social, economic, and environmental context B. Projects may have intended positive and/or negative impacts C. Projects may have unintended positive and/or negative impacts D. The project team rarely should consider the political and physical environmental contexts of the project

Workbook, Lesson 1, page 11, #9 Answer: D Answers A, B, and C are all true statements. However, the project team should consider the political and physical environmental contexts of the project, as these will have an impact on the management of, and approach to, the project.

Vocabulary: A collection of projects or programs and other work that are grouped together to facilitate effective management of that work to meet strategic business objectives

Workbook, Lesson 1, page 12, #1 Answer: Portfolio

Vocabulary: A hierarchical organization where each employee has one clear superior

Workbook, Lesson 1, page 12, #10 Answer: Functional organization

Vocabulary: A temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, service, or result

Workbook, Lesson 1, page 12, #11 Answer: Project

Vocabulary: Any organizational structure in which the project manager has full authority to assign priorities

Workbook, Lesson 1, page 12, #12 Answer: Projectized organization

Vocabulary: A project life cycle, also known as a change-drive or agile methods, that is intended to facilitate change and require a high degree of ongoing stakeholder involvement

Workbook, Lesson 1, page 12, #13 Answer: Adaptive life cycle

Vocabulary: Continuously improving and detailing a plan as more detailed and specific information and more accurate estimates become available

Workbook, Lesson 1, page 12, #5 Answer: Progressive elaboration

Vocabulary: The state, quality, or sense of being restricted to a given course of action or inaction

Workbook, Lesson 1, page 12, #6 Answer: Constraint

Vocabulary: A collection of generally sequential project phases whose name and number are determined by the control needs of the organization or organizations involved in the project

Workbook, Lesson 1, page 12, #7 Answer: Project life cycle

Vocabulary: Person or organization that is actively involved in the project, or whose interests may be positively or negatively affected by execution or completion of the project

Workbook, Lesson 1, page 12, #8 Answer: Stakeholder

Vocabulary: Any organizational structure in which the project manager shares responsibility with the functional managers for assigning priorities and for directing the work of persons assigned to the project

Workbook, Lesson 1, page 12, #9 Answer: Matrix organization

Vocabulary: A PMO that provides support and implements controls and procedures and monitors the projects' compliance with the defined framework

Workbook, Lesson 1, page 13, #15 Answer: Controlling PMO

Vocabulary: A PMO that directly manages projects

Workbook, Lesson 1, page 13, #16 Answer: Directive PMO

Vocabulary: A response that is not planned in advance to a negative risk that has occured

Workbook, Lesson 13, page 121, #2 Answer: Workaround

The project manager is providing information to the stakeholders based on the communication management plan. At a recent meeting, he overheard two key stakeholders discussing the fact that they felt they were not accurately informed or up-to-date on the project status. What is the best ting for the project manager to do? A. Provide all of the stakeholders with a copy of the communications management plan B. Nothing, because he is following the communications plan C. Discuss project communication and the communications management plan at the next stakeholder meeting D. Increase the frequency and detail of the project communications

Workbook, Lesson 10, page 94, #1 Answer: C Because there is the potential that the communications are not effective, it will be appropriate to discuss the project communications and the communications management plan at the next meeting. Providing the stakeholders with a copy of the plan will not change the situation if something is wrong - theoretically they have all received a copy of the plan. It would not be acceptable to do nothing, as any communication issue must be addressed. Increasing the frequency and detail of the communications would be scope creek - outside of the initial scope definition. Do not let the fact that it states the "next stakeholder meeting" discourage you from the correct answer. The next meeting may be in a few hours.

Which of the following is not an input to the develop project team process: A. Human resource management plan B. Project staff assignments C. Enterprise environmental factors D. Resource calendars

Workbook, Lesson 10, page 94, #3 Answer: C While enterprise environmental factors (DDF) are common input, they are not an input to this process. The HR management plan will tell us how we are doing our training and team building, the staff assignments will tell us who we are training and team building, and the resource calendars will let us know when those resources are available for training and team building.

Which of the following is a true statement about team-building activities: A. They should only be conducted when the project is nearing completion B. Only top performers should participate C. They must be facilitated by the project manager D. They can range from brief agenda items to extended off-site activities

Workbook, Lesson 10, page 94, #4 Answer: D Team building activities can range from brief agenda items to more extensive activities. They should be conducted throughout the project, with all team members, and they need not be facilitated by the project manager to be effective.

Allison has recently assumed the project management of the office relocation project, which has been underway for a number of months. As Allison becomes familiar with the existing team members on the project, she observes their interactions and notices that they seem to be working independently and not collaboratively. When Jimmy offered a suggestion to streamline the tear-down of the cubical walls, Esmeralda, the facilities manager, became very defensive and shut the idea down quickly. In what stage of team development is the office relocation project team? A. Storming B. Norming C. Forming D. Performing

Workbook, Lesson 10, page 94, #5 Answer: A Upon reading the description of the project team, it at first appears to be that the project team is in norming. The key word in the question, is the word "defensive." Defensiveness tends to occur in teams that are storming.

Which of the following is not an objective of developing the project team? A. Improve knowledge and skills of team members in order to increase their ability to complete project deliverables, while lowering costs, reducing schedules, and improving quality B. Develop a permanent team structure that can stay in place and perform well despite organizational changes C. Improve feelings of trust and agreement among team members in order to raise morale D. Create a dynamic cohesive team culture to improve both individual and team productivity

Workbook, Lesson 10, page 94, #6 Answer: B Projects are temporary endeavors, therefore an objective would not be to develop a permanent team structure.

Questions that may arise when planning the acquisition of project team members generally include all of the following except: A. Whether the human resources come from within the organization or from external, contracted sources B. The costs associated with each level of expertise needed for the project C. Senior executive compensation D. The extent of assistance that the organization's human resource department can provide to the project management team

Workbook, Lesson 10, page 95, #10 Answer: C Senior executive compensation is typically not a question that would arise when planning the acquisition of your project team members.

You have a female team member that has met all of the requirements for promotion to a team leadership position. However, she is from a country where women are forbidden from holding leadership roles. How do you best handle this? A. Offer her the role B. Provide her with the financial compensation without the title C. Offer the role to the next person in line D. Provide her the role but do not change her title

Workbook, Lesson 10, page 95, #11 Answer: A Because she has bet the criteria for promotion, you would still offer her the position. She has the right to refuse the position if she feels that is is inappropriate for her.

The company you work for has experienced significant growth over the last few years. You have been a project manager for a number of years and have led multiple successful projects. All of your projects have leveraged co-located teams. Your manager has not assigned you to a project that will leverage the use of a virtual team. What is the first thing you should do? A. Refuse the project as you do not have experience managing a virtual team B. Identify the virtual team structure as a risk and document it on your risk register C. Modify your previous communication approach to ensure optimal and increased communication with the team members D. Leverage your plans from the previous successful projects as the basis for the current project

Workbook, Lesson 10, page 95, #12 Answer: C The first thing to evaluate would be your communication approach. What was successful on co-located teams may need to be modified for virtual teams. You do not have to refuse the project but it would be appropriate to let your manager know that it will be your first virtual project team. A virtual team, itself, will not necessarily be a risk, but there could be risks that arise as a result of the virtual team. Leveraging your plans from other projects would not incorporate the change needed for a virtual team.

Process/Output. The Key Output is provided, name the Process that creates it. Agreements

Workbook, Lesson 10, page 98, #1 Answer: Conduct Procurements

Process/Output. The Key Output is provided, name the Process that creates it. Quality management plan

Workbook, Lesson 10, page 98, #10 Answer: Plan Quality Management

As project manager, you witness two of your team members having a heated discussion in the break room. When you approach them, you realize that they are discussing the results of last night's reality TV show. How can you best handle this situation? A. Confront them, as disputes can interrupt project work B. Advise them to have personal discussions outside of work hours C. Smooth the conversation by pointing out that we all have different opinions D. Withdraw from the situation as it does not impact the project

Workbook, Lesson 10, page 95, #7 Answer: D While the question states that the discussion is "heated," there is no indication that their discussion is disrupting the work of the project or the work of the organization. As such, the most appropriate response would be to withdraw from the situation.

Why is observation and conversation a recommended technique for managing the project team? A. By observing and talking with the team, the project manager may become aware of issues and concerns that are not evident through non-interactive communication B. It is mandatory for a project manager to have interactive communication with all team members C. Interaction with the team will improve their trust in the project manager D. The project manager will be able to do more quickly identify quality control issues

Workbook, Lesson 10, page 95, #8 Answer: A Project managers that rely solely on emailed status reports may miss important details about their team members. It is important to interact with your team members to ensure that you are picking up on any issues that may not be conveyed within printed or emailed status reports.

Tools and techniques to acquire the project team include all of the following except: A. Pre-assignment B. Acquisition C. Staffing management plan D. Negoation

Workbook, Lesson 10, page 95, #9 Answer: C The staffing management plan is a component of the human resources management plan, and is not a tool/technique that is used to acquire the project team. Plans are either inputs or outputs, they are never tools/techniques. Pre-assignment, acquisition, negotiation, virtual teams, and multi-criteria decision analysis are the tools/techniques used to acquire the project team.

The project has been underway for a short period of time and two of your team members are having difficulty working together. When you approach them regarding the situation, one team member starts crying and the other team member is escalating and is now shouting. What is the best way to handle this situation? A. Allow the team members to work the issue out themselves with a problem-solving approach B. Using a compromising approach, ask each team member to come to a resolution they can both agree upon C. Using a forcing approach, directly resolve the conflict D. Using a smoothing approach, try to diffuse the emotion in the suitation

Workbook, Lesson 10, page 96, #13 Answer: D Because the team members are in a state of heightened emotion, it is unlikely they will respond well to any type of collaborative approach. The first thing to do would be to try and diffuse the emotion of the situation.

The new project you have been assigned has a very aggressive schedule and strict quality requirements as it is regulatory in nature. Upon evaluating the assigned team members, you realize that the team does not have the necessary skills to deliver upon their assignments. What is the best thing to do? A. Advise the sponsor that the project needs to be cancelled B. Place the project on-hold until appropriate resources are identified C. Document the skill gap and identify a plan to increase their knowledge D. Document the unskilled team as a risk

Workbook, Lesson 10, page 96, #14 Answer: C The best thing to do is to document the skill gap and put together a plan to increase their knowledge, ensuring to determine the cost and schedule implications of doing so. At that point, the information can be used to evaluate the project for feasibility

To ensure the best outcome for your project with the small team, you will be relocating the team members to a war room set-up so that they are co-located. This is also known as: A. Risk avoidance B. A tight matrix C. Peer-to-peer work D. Agile project management

Workbook, Lesson 10, page 96, #15 Answer: B A co-located team is also considered a tight matrix. While co-located teams are used in Agile project management approaches, they are also used in traditional project management.

Vocabulary: Incorporating multiple viewpoints and insights from different perspectives, leading to consensus and commitment

Workbook, Lesson 10, page 97, #1 Answer: Collaborating

Vocabulary: Stage of team development where team members are well-organized, interdependent, and working through issues smoothly and effectively

Workbook, Lesson 10, page 97, #10 Answer: Performing

Vocabulary: An organizational placement strategy where the project team members are physically located close to one another in order to improve communication, working relationships, and productivity

Workbook, Lesson 10, page 97, #11 Answer: Co-location

Vocabulary: A team that is geographically dispersed

Workbook, Lesson 10, page 97, #12 Answer: Virtual teams

Vocabulary: Utilizes a decision matrix to provide a systematic analytical approach for establishing criteria, such as risk levels, uncertainty, and valuation, to evaluate and rank many ideas

Workbook, Lesson 10, page 97, #13 Answer: Multi-criteria decision techniques

Vocabulary: Obtaining human resources necessary to perform project activities

Workbook, Lesson 10, page 97, #14 Answer: Acquisition

Vocabulary: Stage of team development where team members begin to work together and adjust work habits and behaviors to support the team, increasing their trust.

Workbook, Lesson 10, page 97, #15 Answer: Norming

Vocabulary: Stage of team development where team members are not working collaboratively or are not open to differing ideas and perspectives

Workbook, Lesson 10, page 97, #2 Answer: Storming

Vocabulary: One person forces a solution on another

Workbook, Lesson 10, page 97, #3 Answer: Forcing

Vocabulary: Neutralizes the emotion in the conflict but does not usually offer a long-term resolution

Workbook, Lesson 10, page 97, #4 Answer: Smoothing

Vocabulary: Formal or informal appraisals where project team members receive feedback from the people who supervise their project work

Workbook, Lesson 10, page 97, #5 Answer: Project performance appraisal

Creeping scope is a major concern of any project. The person responsible for safe-guarding customer change requests is the: A. Functional manager B. Project manager C. Project sponsor D. President

Workbook, Lesson 11, page 104, #1 Answer: B A the project manager, one of your primary responsibilities will be to guard the project against scope creep - ensuring that all changes go through the appropriate change control process.

An approved change request impacting project scope is: A. Any modification to the agreed-upon project scope baseline, as defined by the approved project scope statement, WBS, and WBS dictionary B. Any change in project personnel C. Any change in project authorization D. Any modification in technical specifications as defined in the WBS

Workbook, Lesson 11, page 104, #2 Answer: A Change requests impacting the project scope would be defined as changes to the scope baseline (scope statement, WBS, and WBS dictionary). Changes in personnel, changes in authorization, and modification of technical specifications would not necessarily be a project scope change.

This process is performed to monitor project processes associated with initiating, planning, executing, and closing. A. Monitor and Control Project Work B. Project Execution Management C. Project Development Analysis D. Execution Monitoring

Workbook, Lesson 11, page 104, #3 Answer: A This is describing the Monitor and Control Project Work progress.

A Change Control Board (CCB) is: A. Charged with making sure no changes are made to project baselines B. A group of experts external to the project C. Designated by a steering committee D. A group of stakeholders who are capable of evaluating change requests and are responsible for approving or rejecting change requests

Workbook, Lesson 11, page 104, #4 Answer: D The change control board (CCB) is made up of stakeholders with enough authority to accept/reject changes and enough knowledge of the project to understand and evaluate the change requests

Change requests: A. Can come from anyone B. Must be documented C. Must be subjected to an integrated change control process D. All of the above are correct

Workbook, Lesson 11, page 104, #5 Answer: D Change requests can come from anyone, must be documented, and must be subjected to an integrated change control process.

Which is an acceptable cause for "re-baselining" a $10 million project? A. The client has authorized a $100,000 addition to the scope of the project B. The contractor's company has instituted a quality program in which it has pledged to spend one million dollars during the next year C. The productivity in the drafting department is lower than anticipated, which has resulted in 1,000 additional hours over what was budgeted D. The engineering department has converted to a new $200,000 CAD system

Workbook, Lesson 11, page 104, #6 Answer: A A $100,000 addition of scope would be a scope change and would therefore impact the project baselines. The quality program and the new CAD system do not necessarily impact you project. The lower productivity would be a reason to preserve the baseline, as it is important to track that variance and any type of corrective actions that are taken to fix the problem.

This process is performed from project inception through completion and includes multiple change management activities. A. Perform integrated change control B. Manage project execution C. Monitor and control project work D. Manage configuration

Workbook, Lesson 11, page 104, #7 Answer: A This is describing the Perform Integrated Change Control Process

Which of the following best describes configuration management? A. Management and control of the physical and functional characteristics of the product, service, or result, or component B. Management and control of the project requirements C. The description of the product to be developed D. The management of quality as it relates to the project scope

Workbook, Lesson 11, page 105, #10 Answer: A Configuration management encompasses any changes to the technical specifications, the physical and functional characteristics, of the product, service, or results.

Which of the following change requests would most likely change the project baselines? A. A request to add additional resources to critical path activities on a project that is late B. A request to change a project team member C. A request to change the functionality of the product D. A request to change communication methods

Workbook, Lesson 11, page 105, #11 Answer: C The change that would most likely change the baselines would be changes to the functionality of a product. Adding resources (crashing), changing a team member, or changing communication methods, would not be a change to the scope.

What is the most appropriate approach to handling an unapproved change request that's already been implemented? A. Identify the individual responsible for implementing the unapproved change request and provide feedback B. Reverse the change C. Do nothing as the change has already been implemented D. Evaluate the change through the integrated change control process

Workbook, Lesson 11, page 105, #12 Answer: D Even though it has already been implemented, it is important for the change to be evaluated through the change control process. This will identify the impact of the change and make the determination if the change will stay or potentially be reversed.

Requested but unresolved changes within a contractual relationship: A. Must be added to the risk register B. Can only be resolved through mediation C. Do not involve the project manager, only senior leadership of the organization D. Could be considered a constructive change to the contract that may be disputed by one party and lead to a claim against the other party

Workbook, Lesson 11, page 105, #13 Answer: D Requested but unresolved changes could be considered a constructive change to the contract and may cause a dispute. Unresolved changes are not a risk, but rather an issue. The situation may be resolved through negotiation or other options outside of mediation. As the PM is the individual involved directly in the management of the project, it is possible that they would be involved in a contract dispute, representing the project.

The contract change control system: A. Is a component of the integrated change control system B. Is administered by an individual with procurement authority C. Manages changes to the contract with the end-user D. Is separate from the integrated change control system

Workbook, Lesson 11, page 105, #14 Answer: A The contract change control system is a component of the overall integrated change control system. It may or may not be administered by an individual with procurement authority.

Vocabulary: A source of variation that is inherent in the system and is predictable

Workbook, Lesson 13, page 121, #3 Answer: Common causes of variance

A team member made a change to the design of the deliverable based on verbal feedback received from one of the customers. The completed deliverable was rejected by the customer as it did not meet the documented requirements. What type of a change request would be needed to modify the completed deliverable? A. Scope change B. Defect repair C. Corrective action D. No change request required

Workbook, Lesson 11, page 105, #15 Answer: B Because there was not a documented and accepted change request, and despite the verbal request, this would be considered a quality issue and the fault of the project team. As such, the change request would be a defect repair.

A tool that is included in the perform integrated change control process is: A. Project management methodology B. Expert judgment C. Project management information system D. Project plan updates

Workbook, Lesson 11, page 105, #8 Answer: B The tools/techniques for the Perform Integrated Change Control Process include expert judgement (found in all integration processes), meetings, and change control tools.

The perform integrated change control process includes all of the following change management activities except: A. Reviewing and approving requested changes B. Resource leveling C. Maintaining the integrity of baselines by releasing only approved changes for incorporation into project products or services, and maintaining their related configuration and planning documentation D. Controlling and updating the scope, cost, budget, schedule, and quality requirements based upon approved changes, by coordinating changes across the entire project.

Workbook, Lesson 11, page 105, #9 Answer: B Resource leveling is done during the Develop Schedule and the Control Schedule processes, but would not be considered part of integrated change control.

Vocabulary: A structured review of the seller's progress as compared to the contract

Workbook, Lesson 11, page 106, #1 Answer: Procurement performance review

Vocabulary: A component of the overall integrated change control system that is specific to changes to the technical specifications of the project scope

Workbook, Lesson 11, page 106, #2 Answer: Configuration management

Vocabulary: A schedule forum for evaluating change requests

Workbook, Lesson 11, page 106, #3 Answer: Change control meetings

Vocabulary: A specific set of processes and tools that facilitate and contain the contract documents and correspondence

Workbook, Lesson 11, page 106, #4 Answer: Records management system

Vocabulary: A designated group of key stakeholders with responsibility for verifying, evaluating, and approving or rejecting change requests for the project

Workbook, Lesson 11, page 106, #5 Answer: Change control board

Vocabulary: The management of contested or constructive changes in an attempt to reach dispute resolution

Workbook, Lesson 11, page 106, #6 Answer: Claims administration

Vocabulary: Defines the process by which a contract can be modified and is integrated with the integrated change control system

Workbook, Lesson 11, page 106, #7 Answer: Contract change control system

Vocabulary: A change to a contract which alters the agreed-upon terms of the contract

Workbook, Lesson 11, page 106, #8 Answer: Constructive change

Which of the following is a tool and technique in the Control Scope process? A. Variance analysis B. Replanning C. Inspection D. Configuration management system

Workbook, Lesson 12, page 110, #1 Answer: A A variance analysis is a common tool/technique for the monitoring and controlling process, including the Control Scope process. A variance analysis evaluates any variance between the project baselines and the actual results.

A schedule performance index (SPI) of 0.8 suggests that the project is: A. Ahead of schedule to date B. Behind schedule to date C. On schedule D. None of the above are correct

Workbook, Lesson 12, page 110, #2 Answer: B An SPI of one indicates the project is on schedule, greater than 1 and the project is ahead of schedule and less than 1 the project is behind schedule. An SPI of 0.8 indicates the project is 20% behind schedule.

A project that has a negative cost variance and an SPI less than 1.0 means that the project is: A. Over-budget and ahead of schedule B. Under-budget and behind schedule C. Over-budget and behind schedule D. Under-budget and ahead of schedule

Workbook, Lesson 12, page 110, #3 Answer: C An SPI of one indicates the project is on schedule, greater than 1 and the project is ahead of schedule and less than 1 the project is behind schedule. A cost variance of 0 indicates the project is on-budget. A positive cost variance indicates the project is under-budget and a negative cost variance indicates the project is over-budget. As such, this project is over-budget and behind schedule. SPI: Schedule Performance Index

Based on the performance measures indicated in the following table, what is the schedule variance (SV) for case 3? ADD PICTURE Case_____PV______AC_______EV __1___$10,000___$8,000___$10,000 __2___$12,000___$10,000___$11,000 __3___$10,000___$8,000___$9,000 __4___$10,000___$8,000___$8,000 A. -1,000 B. 1,000 C. 2,000 D. -2,000

Workbook, Lesson 12, page 110, #4 Answer: A Schedule variance (SV) = earned value (EV) - planned value (PV) $9,000 - $10,000 = ($1,000)

A cost performance index (CPI) of 0.8 suggests the project is: A. Under-budget to date B. Over-budget to date C. On budget D. None of the above are correct

Workbook, Lesson 12, page 110, #5 Answer: B A CPI of one indicates the project is right on budget. A CPI less than one indicates the project is over budget and a CPI greater than one indicates the project is under budget. A CPI of 0.8 indicates the project is 20% over budget. CPI: Cost Performance Index

Which formula is used to calculate EAC? A. AC + BAC - EV B. AC / EV C. ETC - AC D. BAC - CPI

Workbook, Lesson 12, page 110, #6 Answer: A There are three formulas to calculate the estimate at completion (EAC): EAC = AC + BAC - EV EAC = BAC/CPI EAC = AC + ETC AC: Actual Cost BAC: Budget at completion CPI: Cost Performance Index EAC: Estimate at completion ETC: Estimate to Complete EV: Earned Value

Vocabulary: The result conforms or it does not

Workbook, Lesson 13, page 121, #4 Answer: Attribute sampling

Vocabulary: A histogram, ordered by frequency of occurrence, that shows how many results were generated by each identified cause

Workbook, Lesson 13, page 121, #5 Answer: Pareto chart

The $450,000 project is 75% complete as of month six. The budget was allocated at $50,000 per month for nine months and the invoices paid-to-date are $325,000. What is the TCPI of this project? A. 0.9 B. 1.11 C. ($12,500) D. $12,500

Workbook, Lesson 12, page 110, #7 Answer: A TCPI = (BAC - EV) / (BAC - AC) BAC = $450,000 EV = $337,500 AC = $325,000 TCPI = ($450,000 - $337,000) / ($450,000 - $325,000) TCPI = $112,500 / $125,000 TCPI = 0.9 AC: Actual Cost BAC: Budget at completion EV: Earned Value TCPI: To-complete Performance Index

The kitchen remodel project for the Jones family appears to be running behind. As the project manager, you evaluate the construction team's work performance information. Based on the information you receive, the $30,000 project appears to be about 40% complete. Work billed to date was $10,000 although the project budget indicates that the anticipated costs were to be $12,000 by this date. When you follow-up with the construction team lead, he estimates that there will be approximately $15,000 in remaining costs. The status of the project is: A. Ahead of schedule and under budget B. On schedule and under budget C. Behind schedule and over budget D. Behind schedule and on budget

Workbook, Lesson 12, page 111, #11 Answer: B BAC = $30,000 EV = $12,000 AC = $10,000 PV = $12,000 CV = EV - AC = $12,000 - $10,000 = $2,000 (the project is under budget) SV = EV - PV = $12,000 - $12,000 = 0 (the project is on schedule) AC: Actual Cost BAC: Budget at completion EV: Earned Value PV: Planned Value SV: Schedule Variance

The process redesign project has been underway for six months and appears to be making good progress. However, to complete your quarterly review, you conduct an earned value analysis. This is a 12 month project with a budget of $50,000. The budget is allocated at $12,500 each quarter. Based on the status reports received the project is 60% complete and billed costs are $40,000. It appears that the project is over budget so you talk to the lead analyst. She tells you that there was an unexpected software cost during the 2nd moth of the project of $7,000 (included in the 40,000 above). A good portion of the project costs that will be billed will be resource costs (approximately 300 hours at a loaded resource rate of $80/hr). The SV and SPI for this project are: A. (10,000) and .75 B. .75 and (10,000) C. 5,000 and 1.2 D. (5,000) and 1.2

Workbook, Lesson 12, page 111, #12 Answer: C BAC = 50,000 EV = $30,000 PV = $25,000 ($12,500 x two quarters / 6 months) SV = EV - PV = $30,000 - $25,000 = $5,000 SPI = EV / PV = $30,000 / $25,000 = 1.2 BAC: Budget at completion EV: Earned Value PV: Planned Value SPI: Schedule Performance Index SV: Schedule Variance

The cost performance index (CPI) is calculated as follows: A. Divide the earned value (EV) by the actual cost (AC) B. Divide the earned value (EV) by the planned value (PV) C. Subtract the actual cost (AC) from the earned value (EV) D. Subtract the planned value (PV) from the earned value (EV)

Workbook, Lesson 12, page 111, #8 Answer: A CPI = EV/AC AC: Actual Cost CPI: Cost Performance Index EV: Earned Value

If the planned value (PV) is $275,000 and the earned value (EV) is $300,000, the schedule variance (SV) is: A. $25,000 B. -$25,000 C. $125,000 D. $575,000

Workbook, Lesson 12, page 111, #9 Answer: A SV = EV - PV SV = $300,000 - $275,000 = $25,000 EV: Earned Value PV: Planned Value SV: Schedule Variance

The process redesign project has been underway for six months and appears to be making good progress. However, to complete your quarterly review, you conduct an earned value analysis. This is a 12 month project with a budget of $50,000. The budget is allocated at $12,500 each quarter. Based on the status reports received the project is 60% complete and billed costs are $40,000. It appears that the project is over budget so you talk to the lead analyst. She tells you that there was an unexpected software cost during the 2nd moth of the project of $7,000 (included in the 40,000 above). A good portion of the project costs that will be billed will be resource costs (approximately 300 hours at a loaded resource rate of $80/hr). The CV and CPI for this project are: A. (10,000) and .75 B. .75 and (10,000) C. 5,000 and 1.2 D. (5,000) and 1.2

Workbook, Lesson 12, page 112, #13 Answer: A BAC = $50,000 EV = $30,000 AC = $40,000 CV = EV - AC = $30,000 - $40,000 = ($10,000) CV = EV / AC = $30,000 / $40,000 = 0.75 AC: Actual Cost BAC: Budget at completion CV: Cost Variance EV: Earned Value

You have just started in your new role in the PMO and one of your first assignments is to evaluate a technical development project to determine if the project is on time and within budget. Upon review of relevant project documentation, you find that the costs to date have been $180,000, the project is a 16-month project, and that after six months of work they are 25% complete. The overall budget for the project is $300,000, with the following allocation: IMAGE Month--------------2-----4-----6------8-------10-----12-----14-----16 Periodic Budget---10K---15K---45K---60K---40K---50K---70K---10K When you review the project with the project manager, she tells you that they were intending to use an inside resource for all of the programming, but the individual left the company. The programmer they are now using is from a contracting firm and as such, the resource rate for him went from $40/hr to $120/hr. Because programming was the majority of the work needed for the project, this will continue to affect the costs on the project. The SV and SPI for this project are: A. (5,000) and 1.07 B. (105,000) and .42 C. 1.07 and 5,000 D. 5,000 and 1.07

Workbook, Lesson 12, page 112, #14 Answer: D BAC = $300,000 EV = $75,000 PV = $70,000 (cumulative PV through period 6) SV = EV - PV = $75,000 - $70,000 = $5,000 SPI = EV / PV = $75,000 / $70,000 = 1.07 BAC: Budget at completion EV: Earned Value PV: Planned Value SPI: Schedule Performance Index SV: Schedule Variance

Which of the following is true about risk audits? A. They must be conducted in-house in order to be effective B. They should not be included in routine project review meetings as it requires key stakeholders that may not attend review meetings C. Ideally, they should only be conducted at the completion of a project or a phase D. The project manager is responsible for ensuring that risk audits are performed at an appropriate frequency

Workbook, Lesson 13, page 118, #6 Answer: D It is the responsibility of the project manager to ensure that risk audits are performed at appropriate frequencies. They can be done in-house or by an external party and should be conducted throughout the project. Having the risk audit as part of the routine project review meetings is effective.

Vocabulary: A diagramming technique that assists in identifying causes and root causes of quality problems or risks

Workbook, Lesson 13, page 121, #6 Answer: Cause-and-effect diagram

Vocabulary: Documents that provide organized and summarized work performance information, earned value management measurements, and analyses of project work progress, status, and project forecasts

Workbook, Lesson 13, page 121, #7 Answer: Performance reports

You have just started in your new role in the PMO and one of your first assignments is to evaluate a technical development project to determine if the project is on time and within budget. Upon review of relevant project documentation, you find that the costs to date have been $180,000, the project is a 16-month project, and that after six months of work they are 25% complete. The overall budget for the project is $300,000, with the following allocation: IMAGE Month--------------2-----4-----6------8-------10-----12-----14-----16 Periodic Budget---10K---15K---45K---60K---40K---50K---70K---10K When you review the project with the project manager, she tells you that they were intending to use an inside resource for all of the programming, but the individual left the company. The programmer they are now using is from a contracting firm and as such, the resource rate for him went from $40/hr to $120/hr. Because programming was the majority of the work needed for the project, this will continue to affect the costs on the project. The ETC for this project is: A. $275,000 B. $220,000 C. $534,000 D. $500,000

Workbook, Lesson 12, page 112, #15 Answer: C Based on the scenario, there is a typical variance. To calculate the ETC, start with calculating the EAC and subtract the AC. BAC = $300,000 EV = $75,000 AC = $180,000 CPI = EV / AC = $75,000 / $180,000 = 0.42 EAC = BAC / CPI = $300,000 / 0.42 = $714,285 ETC = EAC - AC = $714,285 - $180,000 = $534,285 (round up to $534,300) AC: Actual Cost BAC: Budget at completion EAC: Estimate at completion ETC: Estimate to Complete EV: Earned Value EVM: Earned Value Management

Vocabulary: A method of identifying the causes of differences between the baseline and the actual performance

Workbook, Lesson 12, page 113, #1 Answer: Variance analysis

Vocabulary: A comparison of the earned value (EV) and the actual cost (AC)

Workbook, Lesson 12, page 113, #10 Answer: Cost performance index

Vocabulary: The difference between the earned value (EV) and the actual cost (AC) as of the status date

Workbook, Lesson 12, page 113, #11 Answer: Cost variance

Vocabulary: A projection of the amount of budget deficit or surplus, expressed as the difference between the budget at completion and the estimate at completion

Workbook, Lesson 12, page 113, #12 Answer: Variance at completion

Vocabulary: A comparison of the earned value (EV) and the planned value (PV)

Workbook, Lesson 12, page 113, #13 Answer: Schedule performance index

Vocabulary: The forecasted amount of project spending for the remainder of the project

Workbook, Lesson 12, page 113, #14 Answer: Estimate to complete

Vocabulary: The forecasted amount of total project spending

Workbook, Lesson 12, page 113, #2 Answer: Estimate at completion

Vocabulary: The planned project spending upon completion of the project

Workbook, Lesson 12, page 113, #3 Answer: Budget at completion

Vocabulary: The total costs actually incurred during a given time period

Workbook, Lesson 12, page 113, #4 Answer: Actual cost

Vocabulary: A comparison of the work remaining to the funds remaining

Workbook, Lesson 12, page 113, #5 Answer: To-Complete Performance Index

Vocabulary: The authorized budget assigned to the work that will be accomplished as of the status date

Workbook, Lesson 12, page 113, #6 Answer: Planned Value

Vocabulary: A management methodology where performance is measured by determining the planned and actual value of the work and comparing it to the earned value of the work

Workbook, Lesson 12, page 113, #7 Answer: Earned value management

Vocabulary: The difference between the earned value (EV) and the planned value (PV) as of the status date

Workbook, Lesson 12, page 113, #8 Answer: Schedule variance

Vocabulary: The value of the work already performed on the project

Workbook, Lesson 12, page 113, #9 Answer: Earned value

Inspection: A. Is not a cost-effective way to build quality into a product B. Is the best method to create quality products C. Is only effective if it is done at random intervals in a production process D. Is never an appropriate tactic during quality assurance

Workbook, Lesson 13, page 118, #1 Answer: A Because inspection is reactive, no proactive, it is not a cost effective way to build quality into a product. Quality is built-in through accurate design and development

A control chart has all of the following characteristics except: A. It illustrates how a process behaves over time B. It is used to determine whether or not a process is stable or has predictable performance C. It illustrates how various factors might be linked to potential problems or effects D. It can be used to monitor any type of output variable

Workbook, Lesson 13, page 118, #2 Answer: C A control chart does not illustrate how various factors might be linked to potential problems or effects. A cause-and-effect diagram would be more appropriate to illustrate the linkage.

You are the Project Manager for ABC project. You need to find out which issue has maximum impact on the project. Which tool should you use? A. Pareto diagram B. Control chart C. Trend analysis D. Fishbone diagram

Workbook, Lesson 13, page 118, #3 Answer: A A Pareto diagram illustrates which issues have the maximum impact on the project, as causes are illustrated in rank order.

A chart that ranks causes of poor quality performance according to overall influence is called: A. A control chart B. A fishbone diagram C. A Pareto diagram D. A trend analysis

Workbook, Lesson 13, page 118, #4 Answer: C A Pareto diagram ranks causes of poor quality by overall influence (frequency of occurring).

The following chart is an example of: IMAGE A. A control chart B. A fishbone diagram C. A Pareto diagram D. A trend analysis

Workbook, Lesson 13, page 118, #5 Answer: B The diagram is a fishbone diagram. It is also known as a cause-and-effect or Ishikawa diagram.

Vocabulary: A bar chart showing a distribution of variables

Workbook, Lesson 13, page 121, #14 Answer: Histogram

Vocabulary: A graph that shows the pattern of relationship between two variables

Workbook, Lesson 13, page 121, #15 Answer: Scatter diagram

Regarding the project deliverables, which statement is most accurate? A. Scope validation and quality control are synonymous B. QC is performed on the deliverables prior to scope validation C. Scope validation must occur before the quality can be controlled D. Controlling the quality of the product is ongoing whereas scope validation occurs once in planning

Workbook, Lesson 13, page 119, #10 Answer: B The Control Quality (QC) process is performed on the deliverables prior to scope validation by the customer or requesting party. QC ensures that the deliverables have been completed and conform to the documented requirements. Both QC and scope validation occur throughout the project.

Despite some changes in the sponsorship of your project, the team is progressing well against the project objectives. You have some new stakeholders and you are finding that they are reaching out to you frequently for clarification on the project status. What is the best thing you should do regarding this situation? A. Evaluate the communication needs and revisit the communication planning process B. Provide the new stakeholders with a copy of the communication plan C. Do nothing as you are following the agreed-upon communication plan D. Refer the new stakeholders to the new sponsor for a discussion on project communications

Workbook, Lesson 13, page 119, #11 Answer: A Given that there is apparently an issue with the communication of the project status, the best thing to do would be to evaluate the communication needs and revisit the communication planning process to ensure that the new stakeholders are getting the information they need. Providing them with a copy of the plan won't necessarily address the situation and it would not be appropriate to escalate the situation to the sponsor. As PM, it is your responsibility to ensure project communications are timely and effective.

Your development team is producing switch mechanisms for the new product. After each batch is produced it is checked through quality control to validate that the mechanisms function appropriately. This would be considered an example of: A. Variable sampling B. Random sampling C. Attribute sampling D. Common sampling

Workbook, Lesson 13, page 119, #12 Answer: C Because they are testing for one feature or function, and it is pass/fail, this would be considered attribute sampling

These two inputs to the Control Quality process are outputs of the Plan Quality Management process: A. Quality measurements and quality checklists B. Quality checklists and quality metrics C. Quality processes and quality standards D. Quality metrics and quality measurements

Workbook, Lesson 13, page 119, #13 Answer: B The quality metrics and the quality checklists are both an output of the Plan Quality Management process. The quality metrics are the operational definition of what is to be achieved or accomplished. The quality checklists document a set of steps for repeated processes.

A new key stakeholder has been identified for your project. A week after joining the team, the stakeholder has requested significant changes to the project performance report. What is the first thing you should do? A. Because it is a key stakeholder, make the requested changes B. Consult the communications management plan C. Refuse the changes given that the format was already determined D. Evaluate the requested changes and determined how to incorporate

Workbook, Lesson 13, page 119, #7 Answer: B The first thing you should do is consult the communication management plan, as it may indicate that no changes can be made to the performance report. It may also provide the process by which changes can be made. Just because it is a key stakeholder, it doesn't mean you simply implement the change to something that has been agreed-upon by the rest of the team. Refusing the changes may or may not be appropriate, depending on what is documented in the communication management plan. If changes are allowed, then the changes would be evaluated and the change request submitted through the change control board.

Risk monitoring and controlling can best be accomplished through: A. A monthly risk monitoring meeting B. Assigning specialized risk responsibilities to a team member C. Including risk management as an agenda item during periodic status meetings D. Evaluation of risks at the beginning of each phase

Workbook, Lesson 13, page 119, #8 Answer: C Risk monitoring and controlling can best be accomplished by having risk management as a standing agenda item during the project status meetings. This keeps risk management at the forefront of team discussions and ensures that team members are aware of current risk status.

The validate scope process: A. Is the process of obtaining the stakeholders' formal acceptance of the completed project scope and associated deliverables B. Refers to the final project report describing the project at completion C. Is not necessary if the project completes on time and on budget D. Occurs only when revisions or change orders are made to the project

Workbook, Lesson 13, page 119, #9 Answer: A The Validate Scope process is the process of obtaining the stakeholders' formal acceptance of the completed project scope and the associated deliverables.

Used in controlling risks, the technical performance measurement: A. Compares technical accomplishments to the project management plan's schedule of technical achievement B. Evaluates the team's progress against the cost and scope baseline C. Considers the work that is being done, the team members, the effectiveness of the team members' work, and how well they are working together D. Evaluates the earned value performance of the project to the organization's standard for performance

Workbook, Lesson 13, page 120, #14 Answer: A The technical performance measurement compares technical accomplishments to the project management plan's schedule of technical achievement.

User acceptance testing (UAT) is also known as: A. Quality control B. Quality assurance C. Customer acceptance D. Inspectino

Workbook, Lesson 13, page 120, #15 Answer: D UAT is also known as inspection. Inspection is the primary tool used in scope validation when we seek customer acceptance of the completed deliverables

Vocabulary: The result is acceptable if it falls within the range specified

Workbook, Lesson 13, page 121, #10 Answer: Tolerances

Vocabulary: A diagram format that depicts the steps and outputs of a process

Workbook, Lesson 13, page 121, #11 Answer: Flowchart

Vocabulary: A source of variation that is not inherent in the system and is not predictable

Workbook, Lesson 13, page 121, #12 Answer: Special causes of variance

Vocabulary: Examines and documents the effectiveness of risk responses in dealing with identified risks and their root causes

Workbook, Lesson 13, page 121, #13 Answer: Risk audit

Actions and activities that are necessary to satisfy completion or exit criteria for the project, and are to confirm that the project has met all sponsor, customer, and other stakeholders' requirements, are addressed: A. As part of the administrative closure procedure B. Following the plan as outlined in the quality management process C. As requested by upper management D. As the last step in project management

Workbook, Lesson 14, page 126, #2 Answer: A Administrative closure procedures include the actions and activities necessary to satisfy completion or exit criteria for the project, and to confirm that the project has met all sponsor, customer, and other stakeholders' requirements.

The buyer, usually through its authorized contract administrator, provides the seller with __________ as an output of the Close Procurements process. A. A formal written notice that the deliverables have been accepted or rejected B. Letters of commendation to all project staff C. Informal notice of acceptance of the deliverables D. A copy of the internal notice of completion provided to senior management

Workbook, Lesson 14, page 126, #3 Answer: A The buyer provides the seller with a formal written notice that the deliverables have been accepted or rejected.

Outputs from the Close Procurements process include which of the following? A. Closed procurements B. Deliverable rejection C. The request for proposal (RFP) or request for quotation (RFQ), and the seller's working proposal D. Project management plan updates

Workbook, Lesson 14, page 126, #4 Answer: A The output from the Close Procurements process will be the closed procurements.

Project files that are archived at the completion of the project include all of the following except: A. Project management plan B. Project management information system C. Risk register D. Change management documentation

Workbook, Lesson 14, page 126, #5 Answer: B The project management information system (PMIS) is a collection of tools and systems used to manager project information. As such, the PMIS would not be archived at the end of the project, but the data within it would be.

The procurement audit has all of the following characteristics except: A. It maintains a complete file to contract-related records B. It is a structured review of the procurement processes used on the project C. It is a review of the effectiveness of the procurement processes and procedures D. Its objective is to identify successes and failures that warrant recognition

Workbook, Lesson 14, page 126, #6 Answer: A The procurement audit is an event. As such, the audit does not maintain a file of contract-related records. The procurement audit is a structured review of the procurement process, and all of the previous procurement processes to determine successes and failures in the procurement processes used on the project.

As a participant in a PMP prep course: A. You must adhere to the Code B. You are not obligated to adhere to the Code C. You are automatically considered a PMI member D. Even if you are a member, you will not be obligated to adhere to the Code until you submit your PMP application

Workbook, Lesson 14, page 126, #7 Answer: B Being a participant in a PMP course does not obligate you to adhere to the PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Responsibility. You are obligated to adhere to the Code when you hold a PMI membership, commence the application process, hold a certification or credential, or volunteer.

The foundational values of the PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Responsibility are: A. Integrity, respect, honesty, and fairness B. Honesty, fairness, respect, and responsibility C. Responsibility, respect, integrity, and honesty D. Responsibility, respect, truthfulness, and integrity

Workbook, Lesson 14, page 127, #10 Answer: B The four foundational values of the code are responsibility, respect, fairness, and honesty.

You are offered an assignment to manage a project. However, the project is in an area that you have only minor experience. What should you do? A. Identify a mentor with experience in managing a project of this type B. Accept the project and do some research on the area C. Refuse the project D. Discuss your limited experience with the client and with their approval, develop a strategy to increase your knowledge

Workbook, Lesson 14, page 127, #11 Answer: D It is acceptable to be assigned a project where you have minor experience, as long as the knowledge gap is disclosed to the client and a strategy is in place to remedy the gap.

You observe a team member taking cable from the discard pile at the client job site. What is the most appropriate action for you to take? A. Do nothing, the cable was in the discard pile B. Report the action to the appropriate authorities C. Notify the team member's manager D. Remove the team member from the project

Workbook, Lesson 14, page 127, #12 Answer: B Because the individual is removing material from a client site, it could possibly be an issue of theft. The most appropriate action is to report the incident to the appropriate authorities for them to handle as needed. Notifying the team members' manager would not necessarily resolve the situation if it is a legal issue.

You heard your project has been cancelled. What is the first thing you should do? A. Check the project management plan B. Report the cancellation to your sponsor C. Have your team and vendors stop work D. Determine the appropriate contingency response

Workbook, Lesson 14, page 127, #13 Answer: C The first thing you should do is have your team and vendors stop work. This will prevent them from billing to the project for any unnecessary additional time. Theoretically, if the project isn't cancelled, they can start working again once the project is confirmed to still be active.

If final procurement negotiations cannot be reached through direct negotiation, what would be the least desirable option? A. Litigation B. Mediation C. Arbitration D. Alternative dispute resolution

Workbook, Lesson 14, page 127, #14 Answer: A The least desirable option for contractual disputes would be litigation. It is both time-consuming and expensive. Any form of alternative dispute resolution (ADR), such as mediation or arbitration, would be preferable.

Process/Output. The Key Output is provided, name the Process that creates it. Change log

Workbook, Lesson 14, page 128, #3 Answer: Perform Integrated Change Control

Process/Output. The Key Output is provided, name the Process that creates it. Closed procurements

Workbook, Lesson 14, page 128, #4 Answer: Close Procurements

Process/Output. The Key Output is provided, name the Process that creates it. Cost forecasats

Workbook, Lesson 14, page 128, #5 Answer: Control Costs

Lisa is coordinating the website marketing campaign. She reports directly to the functional manager and is hoping to leverage some of the resources within her organization to assist her in completing her project. Although she does not have significant project management experience, she does have a lot of experience with website marketing. Lisa will mostly likely influence her team through: A. Charismatic Power B. Reward Power C. Expert Power D. Positional Power

Workbook, Lesson 2, page 19, #10 Answer: Because Lisa has experience and expertise with website marketing, she will mostly likely influence her team using expert power.

In conducting a stakeholder analysis, there are a number of tools that could be used to rank and rate your stakeholders. The salience model of stakeholder classification, groups stakeholders based on: A. Their power, urgency, and legitimacy B. Their level of authority and their level of concern C. Their active involvement and their ability to effect changes D. The level of power and influence

Workbook, Lesson 2, page 19, #11 Answer: A The salience model evaluates stakeholders based on their power, urgency, and legitimacy.

As project manager, you have set aside time to conduct an analysis of your stakeholders. You realize that this may be an ongoing activity but is especially important at the beginning of your project. A significant benefit of conducting a stakeholder analysis is: A. It meets the defined and established PMO requirement B. It helps identify stakeholder relationships that can be leveraged to build coalitions and partnerships C. It identifies all of your core project team members D. It helps identify where you will need to secure subject matter experts

Workbook, Lesson 2, page 19, #12 Answer: B A stakeholder analysis allows the project manager to effectively prioritize their time based on the stakeholders level of power and interest. A stakeholder analysis also helps the project manager understand where there are relationships that can be leveraged to build coalitions and partnerships with supporters.

The organization is evaluating potential projects to invest in during the upcoming year: project A is a 5-year project with a $30,000 NPV; project B is a 1-year project with a $40,000 NPV; project C is a 1-year project with a ($70,000) NPV. Which statement is most accurate: A. Project A would be the best investment because it will generate $150,000 in profit B. Project B would be the worst investment because of the project term C. Project C may be selected first if it is a legal or regulatory requirement D. Project C would never be selected because it represents the lowest profit

Workbook, Lesson 2, page 19, #13 Answer: C The term of the project is irrelevant in this question, as it has already been factored into the NPV (net present value) calculation. Project A will generate $30,000 in profit, Project B is actually the vest investment with the highest NPV, and Project C may be selected first if its legal or regulatory, despite the fact that it will represent a loss.

The Allen-Johnson Corporation is conducing a project for their client: Alyce Inc. The statement of work has been issued. All of the following information may be included in the project statement of work, except: A. The business need for the project B. The product scope description C. How the product or service supports the organization's strategic goals D. The project manager assignment

Workbook, Lesson 2, page 19, #9 Answer: D Because the statement of work is coming from the requesting party/outside client, they would not be assigning the project manager. That would happen internal to the project group or organization. Think of the statement of work as the written request from the requesting party.

You have joined an organization as a contract project manager and have been assigned the management of a process efficiency analysis project. The operational teams have all provided subject matter experts (SMEs) and you have identified them as stakeholders within the stakeholder register. In addition, there will be a representative from human resources participating on the project. His role will be to identify any potential areas for restructuring the operational teams and potentially recommending lay-offs. How do you handle this? A. Because he has a high interest, document it accordingly in the stakeholder management strategy and provide access to all team members B. Document it on the stakeholder analysis matrix but don't let anyone see it C. Include it in the stakeholder documentation but control the dissemination to carefully identified individuals D. Pretend you never heard about it as this could potentially derail your project

Workbook, Lesson 2, page 20, #14 Answer: C General rule of thumb is to document everything, but carefully control the dissemination of that information.

The project was initiated within the marketing organization by a team lead with significant subject matter expertise. After some discussion about the cross-enterprise implications of the project, the senior vice president of marketing is identified as the most appropriate sponsor versus the team lead. Why is this the best decision? A. This indicates the relative importance and priority of the project within the organization B. This provides authority for the project manager to cross functional boundaries when carrying out project plans and activities C. This provides greater credibility with people outside of the project who may be asked to contribute resources or join the project team D. All of the above

Workbook, Lesson 2, page 20, #15 Answer: The higher in title the sponsor, typically the higher the clout of the project. Using the Senior VP as sponsor will increase the visibility of the project, is representative of the importance and priority of the project, and it provides greater credibility with people outside of the project.

Vocabulary: Developed by the customer or requesting party, it provides a description of the products or services that need to be delivered by the project

Workbook, Lesson 2, page 22, #10 Answer: Project statement of work

Vocabulary: Process related assets, which includes formal and informal plans, policies, procedures and guidelines and also includes the organizations' knowledge bases, such as lessons learned and historical information

Workbook, Lesson 2, page 22, #2 Answer: Organizational process assets (OPA)

Vocabulary: The document that confirms the business need and drivers for the project and will most likely include information on a cost benefit analysis, so as to justify the funding of the project

Workbook, Lesson 2, page 22, #3 Answer: Business case

Vocabulary: A mutually binding agreement that obligates the seller to provide the specified product or service or result and obligates the buyer to pay for it

Workbook, Lesson 2, page 22, #4 Answer: Agreement

Vocabulary: The type of power derived from the ability to influence by incenting the project team and stakeholders with something that they value

Workbook, Lesson 2, page 22, #6 Answer: Reward

All of the following may be included in the project management plan except: A. Subsidiary plans B. Performance baselines C. Project status reports D. The definition of the project phases

Workbook, Lesson 3, page 28, #1 Answer: C Think of the project management plan as the how-to guide for your project. Within that how-to guide, you would include your subsidiary plans, you performance baselines, and perhaps the definition of your project phases. Project status reports are stand-alone documents detailing the progress of the project. These are separate form the project management plan.

As you develop the project management plan for the system renovation project, you are determining the need for any subsidiary plans. Which statement is least accurate regarding subsidiary plans? A. For a small project, it would be most appropriate to only use a subsidiary plan B. The need for subsidiary plans is based upon the type of project and the organizational requirements and control needs C. The subsidiary plans are all a component of the project management plan D. The subsidiary plan details specific actions surrounding a particular aspect of the project, such as cost, schedule, and communications

Workbook, Lesson 3, page 28, #2 Answer: A There is no such thing as just a subsidiary plan - the word subsidiary implies that it is a component of something. In this case, a subsidiary plan is a component of the project management plan.

You have conducted a communication channels analysis on your large, international project. You have identified 496 communication channels. You know this means that other than you there are _____ stakeholders A. 32 B. 31 C. 30 D. 20

Workbook, Lesson 3, page 28, #3 Answer: B There are two ways to solve this problem. The easy way: plug the four answers provided into the communication channels formula n(n-1)/2. The more challenging way would be to solve it algebraically. Either way, your result will be 32. However, the question states that "this means that other than you there are _____ stakeholders." Your result was 32, so you would deduct 1 (for you), to get the correct answer of 31.

As PM, you are evaluating the various stakeholders that will be involved in the project. You have identified the key players and are now considering their role and impact on the project. What tool would be most beneficial to develop next? A. A risk register B. A stakeholder register C. A control chart D. A stakeholder engagement matrix

Workbook, Lesson 3, page 28, #4 Answer: D Because you already have identified the stakeholders, the next thing to develop would be the stakeholder engagement matrix. This will allow you to assess their level of engagement in the project, both current and desired.

Which statement is most accurate regarding the planning process group? A. The planning phase occurs at the beginning of the project B. The planning process group typically consumes the majority of the project manager's time and effort C. The planning processes create neither the subsidiary plans nor the baselines D. The planning process group has processes in all ten knowledge areas

Workbook, Lesson 3, page 28, #6 Answer: D The planning process group is the only process group with processes across all ten knowledge areas within the framework. The planning process group is not a phase and despite the fact that it holds over half of the PMBOK Guide processes, that does not equate to over half of the project manager's time. The planning processes create the subsidiary plans and the project baselines.

You have 2485 communication channels on your project. How many stakeholders do you have, other than you, on your project? A. 72 B. 70 C. 71 D. Unable to determine

Workbook, Lesson 3, page 29, #12 Answer: B With 71 stakeholders, you would have 2485 communication channels. The question states "other than you," so you will need to deduct you off the number, bringing the answer to 70. (Trust me on this one, you don't want to use the mathematic approach to this unless you absolutely love the quadratic formula! It's about time on the exam, no extra credit for doing your math out - plug in the answers to see which one works!)

You are managing a project with 32 stakeholders. Four new stakeholders are identified for your project, all of whom reside outside of your primary project location. How many additional communication channels have been created? A. 134 B. 630 C. 36 D. 500

Workbook, Lesson 3, page 29, #13 Answer: A Running the equation with 32 stakeholders would result in 496 communication channels. Running the equation with 36 stakeholders would result in 630 communication channels. The question asks for how many "additional" channels are created, so it would be the difference between 496 and 630. 630 - 496 = 134

Your project has kicked off and you are evaluating different communication technology options as proposed by the PMO. Your team is mainly a virtual team, spanning five different countries. You are expecting the project to last at least a year. Which of the following would be the least likely factor to consider when selecting the appropriate communication technology? A. Your previous organization's communication tools B. The length of the project C. The team members desire and willingness to engage with or learn a new technology D. The availability of technology within the organization

Workbook, Lesson 3, page 29, #7 Answer: A When evaluating the appropriate communication technology for you team, your previous organization's choice would not be a factor to consider. However, the length of the project, the team members "will," and the availability of technology are all factors to consider.

You have just brought two new team members onto your team; both of whom are from outside of the organization. The project has a very aggressive timeline and it is important that the team members work through their learning curve quickly regarding working within this particular organization. What is the first thing you should do? A. Provide them with a copy of the stakeholder management plan so they can understand how to work with the various stakeholders B. Schedule time to have them meet with all of the stakeholders to understand their requirements C. Provide them with a copy of the communication plan so that they can understand the acronyms and common terminology being used on the project D. Assign a few team members to work with the new members to teach them the terminology and acronymns

Workbook, Lesson 3, page 29, #8 Answer: C Before consuming the time of any additional resources, the new team members should be provided with a copy of the communication plan to develop an understanding of the terminology and acronyms that are being used on the project. Without the communication foundation, other tasks will be more challenging.

The performance measurement baselines that are included in the project management plan are: A. Change, quality, budget B. Scope, configuration, technical C. Quality, time, budget D. Scope, schedule, cost

Workbook, Lesson 3, page 29, #9 Answer: D There are three typical performance measurement baselines within the project management plan: scope baseline, and cost baseline. This aligns with the "triple constraint" of project management.

The components of the communication model include all of the following, except: A. Sender and receiver B. Encode and recode C. Noise D. Message and medium

Workbook, Lesson 3, page 30, #14 Answer: B The components of the communication model are: sender, receiver, encode, decode, message, medium, and noise. There is no "recode."

Based on a recently discovered requirement, your project team has now expanded to 75 team members. How many communication channels do you have within your team? A. 2,813 B. 2,850 C. (n(n+1))/2 D. 2,775

Workbook, Lesson 3, page 30, #15 Answer: D Using the communication channels formula: n (n-1) / 2 75 x 74 / 2 5,550 / 2 = 2,775

Vocabulary: Thoughts or ideas are translated into language by the sender

Workbook, Lesson 3, page 31, #3 Answer: Encode

Vocabulary: Biases, thoughts, or perspectives that may interfere with message translation

Workbook, Lesson 3, page 31, #4 Answer: Noise

Vocabulary: The chosen communication channel

Workbook, Lesson 3, page 31, #7 Answer: Medium

Vocabulary: The intended recipient of the information

Workbook, Lesson 3, page 31, #8 Answer: Receiver

You have just been made the Project Manager of the ABC project. You are trying to read the WBS and are unable to understand some of the WBS components. Which should be your first step to understand this? A. Refer to the WBS dictionary B. Refer to the scope statement C. Refer to the project charger D. Contact the previous project manager

Workbook, Lesson 4, page 36, #6 Answer: A The WBS dictionary will contain all of the detailed information related to each of the WBS work packages. This would be the most likely and most efficient source of information for the project manager.

All of the following are true about the project scope statement except: A. It describes the project's major objectives B. It provides a common understanding of the project scope among all project stakeholders C. It describes, in detail, the project's deliverables and the work required to create those deliverables D. It is an output of the Validate Scope process

Workbook, Lesson 4, page 36, #7 Answer: D The project scope statement is an output of the Define Scope process, not the Validate Scope process. The Validate Scope process is in the Monitoring and Controlling process group. Validate scope is securing customer acceptance on the completed deliverables.

In a group decision-making, the use of this method means that the largest block in a group decides, even if a majority is not achieved: A. Unanimity B. Majority C. Plurality D. Dictatorship

Workbook, Lesson 4, page 37, #10 Answer: C Plurality implies the largest subset of the group would decide, even if it's not a majority. For example, if you have a group of 12 people and 5 people want option A, 4 people want option B, and 3 people want option C, option A would be the selection.

Which of the following is not true of the project scope management plan? A. It provides guidance on how project scope will be defined and documented B. It provides guidance on how project scope will be verified C. It provides guidance how project scope will be managed and controlled D. It is separate from the project management plan

Workbook, Lesson 4, page 37, #11 Answer: D A subsidiary plan is always part of the project management plan and will always document how that particular aspect of the project is being managed, defined, and verified. The only thing that is separate is the charter.

With your team, you have generated a large number of potential requirements. You would like to bucket the ideas into groups for further analysis. What technique should you consider using with your team? A. Idea mapping B. Affinity diagram C. Nominal group technique D. JAD session

Workbook, Lesson 4, page 37, #12 Answer: B An affinity diagram would be the most appropriate technique to bucket the ideas into groups. Idea mapping will consolidate ideas to reflect commonalities and differences in understanding, but would not necessarily group the ideas into buckets. Nominal group technique would simply add a voting process to rank the ideas. A JAD session is a facilitated workshop and helps to work through cross-enterprise requirements.

An output of the define scope process is the: A. Work breakdown structure (WBS) B. Resource breakdown structure (RBS) C. Project scope statement D. Schedule delays control plan

Workbook, Lesson 4, page 37, #8 Answer: C The project scope statement is an output of the Define Scope process. The WBS is created duirng the Create WBS process. The RBS is an output of the Estimate Activity Resources process. There no such document as the "schedule delays control plan."

What is the WBS typically used for? A. To organize and define the total scope of the project B. To identify the logical person to be project sponsor C. To define the level of reporting the seller provides the buyer D. As a record of when work elements are assigned to individuals

Workbook, Lesson 4, page 37, #9 Answer: A The WBS is typically used to organize and define the total scope of the project, following the 100% rule - lower levels roll up to the higher levels. All work is included. The WBS would not be used to identify the project sponsor or to define reporting for the buyer. The WBS dictionary may include information on the work package owners.

Vocabulary: Focused sessions that are attended by key cross-functional stakeholders to define product requirements

Workbook, Lesson 4, page 38, #10 Answer: Facilitated workshops

Vocabulary: Any numbering system used to uniquely identify each component of the work breakdown structure

Workbook, Lesson 4, page 38, #11 Answer: Code of accounts

Vocabulary: A group creativity technique that allows a large number of ideas to be classified into groups for review and analysis

Workbook, Lesson 4, page 38, #12 Answer: Affinity diagram

Vocabulary: A technique used to develop as many potential options as possible in order to identify different approaches to execute and perform the work of the project

Workbook, Lesson 4, page 38, #13 Answer: Alternatives generation

Vocabulary: A factor in the planning process that is considered to be true, real, or certain, without proof or demonstration

Workbook, Lesson 4, page 38, #14 Answer: Assumption

Vocabulary: The approved version of a scope statement, work breakdown structure, and its associated WBS dictionary, that can be changed only through formal change control procedures and is used as a basis for comparison

Workbook, Lesson 4, page 39, #21 Answer: Scope baseline

You are in the process of developing your project schedule. You determine that you are able to leverage a one day lead for activity 7.2.9. Which statement is least accurate A. The successor activity can start one day before the predecessor activity is completed B. The precedent activity can start one day before the subsequent activity C. The predecessor/successor activities have a finish-to-start relationship D. There is a preferred relationship between the predecessor/successor activities

Workbook, Lesson 5, page 44, #1 Answer: B Only finish-to-start discretionary (AKA preferred, preferential, or soft logic) relationships can leverage lead. Using a lead, the successor activity can begin one day before ther predecessor activity has been completed. This will "overlap" the activities by one day, saving one day on the total duration. Lead means overlap tasks

The critical chain method: A. Modifies the schedule to account for limited resources B. Is an alternative to the critical path method C. Manages the total float of network paths D. Does not take into account resource availability

Workbook, Lesson 5, page 44, #2 Answer: A The critical chain method, used after determining the critical path, modifies the schedule to account for limited resources. It is not an alternative to critical path, as the critical path must be determined prior to using the critical chain. Critical chain leverages time buffers.

The PERT estimate is nine hours. The best-case estimate is four hours and the worst-case estimate is 18 hours. What is the most-likely duration estimate? A. 11 hours B. 9 hours C. 8 hours D. 5 hours

Workbook, Lesson 5, page 44, #3 Answer: C The question provides the PERT (3-point) estimate and the optimistic and pessimistic estimates. You need to solve for the most likely using the PERT formula (O + 4M + P) / 6. 9 + (4 + 4M + 18) / 6 54 + 4 + 4M + 18 54 + 22 + 4M 32 = 4M 8 = M

As PM, you are working with your team leads and you realize that you have a scheduling problem that will result in a delay of the project. What is the first thing you should do? A. Crash activities on your critical path B. Reducing project scope in order to bring the project in on time C. Fast-track activities on your critical path D. Out-source to a more appropriate team that can deliver the project in a timely manner

Workbook, Lesson 5, page 44, #4 Answer: C The first option is to fast-track activities (take activities that were going to be done sequentially and do them in parallel). This allows the project to be shortened without increasing the costs or limiting the scope. De-scoping and outsourcing would only be considered if fast-tracking and crashing did not result in the needed compression.

When crashing a task, the project team needs to focus on: A. Non-critical tasks B. As many tasks as possible C. Accelerating performance of those tasks on the critical path D. Accelerating performance by minimizing costs

Workbook, Lesson 5, page 44, #5 Answer: C Crashing accelerates the performance of activities/tasks on the critical path by increasing costs. Crashing would focus on critical activities first as crashing non-critical activities would simply result in more float and would not offer any true compression.

The critical path is established by calculating the following dates: A. Start-to-start, start-to-finish, finish-to-finish, finish-to-start B. Early start, early finish, later start, later finish C. Predecessor-to-successor, predecessor-to-predecessor, successor-to-successor D. Primary-to-secondary, primary-to-finish, secondary-to-secondary, finish-to-finish

Workbook, Lesson 5, page 44, #7 Answer: B The critical path method (CPM) determines the critical path of the schedule network by determining the early start (ES) and early finish (EF) of activities via a forward pass and the late start (LS) and late finish (LF) via a backward pass.

The precedence diagramming method provides project managers with knowledge of: A. All levels of the work breakdown structure B. Activities likely to be involved in the project integration an resource allocation functions C. A graphical representation of interdependencies of activities D. The project completion date

Workbook, Lesson 5, page 44, #8 Answer: C The precedence diagramming method (PDM) diagrams the activity relationships, with nodes representing the activities and the arrows indicating the types of relationships. The diagram itself will not provide the project completion date.

Analogous duration estimating is: A. Bottom-up estimating B. Frequently used to estimate project duration when there is a limited amount of detailed information C. Similar to multiple duration estimating D. Deductive estimating

Workbook, Lesson 5, page 45, #10 Answer: B Analogous estimating, also known as top-down estimating, is frequently used when there is not a lot of detailed information about the current project. As such, the PM will leverage a past similar project as the basis of the estimate.

When is the total duration of the project? ADD IMAGE Activity_____Duration_____Float ____1_______________4______________0 ____2______________7______________0 ____3______________3______________0 ____4______________9______________1 ____5______________16_____________0 ____6______________8______________8 ____7______________5______________2 ____8______________6______________0 A. Unable to determine B. 36 days C. 25 days D. 58 days

Workbook, Lesson 5, page 45, #11 Answer: B As there are no predecessor relationships defined in the table, the duration cannot be determined by a CPM diagram. As such, you can assume a singular critical path. To determine total duration, you would not include any activities with float, as float indicates that the particular activity is happening concurrently with another activity. Including the duration of those activities with float would be "double" counting.

The ES of the activity is day seven and the duration is six days. If the LF on the activity is 15, what statement is most accurate: A. The activity is on the critical path B. If the activity gets delayed by two days, the project will be delayed by one day C. The activity is not on the critical path D. If the activity gets delayed, there will be an impact on the project

Workbook, Lesson 5, page 45, #12 Answer: C Using CPM: ES of 7 + 6 duration - 1 + EF of 12. If the EF is 12 and the LF is 15, the activity has 3 days of float. As such, the activity is not a critical activity. If it gets delayed by two days, there would be no impact as the activity has 3 days of float.

Activity 9.2.1 has 7 days of free float. The early start of the successor activity, 9.2.2 is day 29. If activity 9.2.1 is delayed by 12 days, what is the adjusted early start of activity 9.2.2? A. 42 B. 22 C. 29 D. 34

Workbook, Lesson 5, page 45, #13 Answer: D Free float indicates the amount of time an activity can be delayed before it delays the early start (ES) of the successor activity. If the activity only has seven days of free float and it's delayed by 12 days, it is a difference of five days. The successor activity will be delayed by 5 days, changing the ES of the successor to day 34.

A schedule compression technique to determine how to obtain the greatest amount of compression for the least incremental cost is called: A. Crashing B. PERT C. Precedence diagramming method D. Fast tracking

Workbook, Lesson 5, page 45, #9 Answer: A The two scheduling compression techniques are fast-tracking and crashing. Crashing evaluates potential candidate activities for acceleration based on the lowest incremental crashing cost. Fast-tracking incurs no additional cost.

Vocabulary: A delay of the successor activity

Workbook, Lesson 5, page 48, #2 Answer: Lag

Vocabulary: An acceleration of the successor activity

Workbook, Lesson 5, page 48, #3 Answer: Lead

Vocabulary: The amount of time that an activity can be delayed without delaying the early start date of any immediately following schedule activities

Workbook, Lesson 5, page 48, #4 Answer: Free float

Vocabulary: A group of related schedule activities aggregated at some summary level, and displayed/reported as a single activity at that summary level

Workbook, Lesson 5, page 48, #5 Answer: Hammock activity

Vocabulary: A component of work performed during the course of a project

Workbook, Lesson 5, page 48, #8 Answer: Activity

Vocabulary: Any schedule activity on a critical path in a project schedule

Workbook, Lesson 5, page 48, #9 Answer: Critical activity

Vocabulary: A list of schedule activities that shows the activity description, activity identifier, and a description of the activity

Workbook, Lesson 5, page 49, #13 Answer: Activity list

Vocabulary: A specific project schedule compression technique that changes network logic to overlap activities that would normally be done in sequence

Workbook, Lesson 5, page 49, #14 Answer: Fast-tracking

Vocabulary: An analytical technique that uses three estimates to represent the optimistic, most likely, and pessimistic scenarios to calculate a weighted average

Workbook, Lesson 5, page 49, #15 Answer: Three-point estimate

Vocabulary: An estimating technique that uses values from a previous, similar project as the basis for estimating the current project

Workbook, Lesson 5, page 49, #25 Answer: Analogous estimating

Vocabulary: A logic relationship in which a successor activity cannot start until a predecessor activity has finished

Workbook, Lesson 5, page 50, #40 Answer: Finish-to-start

Vocabulary: A critical path method technique for calculating the late start and late finish dates by working backward through the schedule model from the project end date

Workbook, Lesson 5, page 50, #41 Answer: Backward pass

Vocabulary: A logical relationship in which a successor activity cannot finish until a predecessor activity has started

Workbook, Lesson 5, page 50, #42 Answer: Start-to-finish

Vocabulary: A method used to estimate the minimum project duration and determine the amount of scheduling flexibility on the logical network paths within the schedule model

Workbook, Lesson 5, page 50, #43 Answer: Critical path method

Vocabulary: Techniques used to shorten the schedule duration without reducing the project scope

Workbook, Lesson 5, page 50, #44 Answer: Schedule compression

You are working with your work package owners to determine the activity cost estimates. An activity cost estimate includes all of the following resource categories except: A. Labor B. Materials C. Equipment D. Time shortages

Workbook, Lesson 6, page 56, #1 Answer: D Resource cost estimates will include labor, materials, and equipment. Time shortages would not be a resource cost estimate.

Your team lead has suggested that you evaluate various estimating techniques in order to provide the most comprehensive estimate possible. You decide to use parametric estimating. Parametric cost estimating involves: A. Defining the parameters of the project life cycle B. Calculating individual cost estimates for each work package C. Using a statistical relationship between historical data and other variables to calculate a cost estimate D. Using the actual cost of a similar project to estimate total project costs

Workbook, Lesson 6, page 56, #2 Answer: C Parametric estimating uses a statistical relationship between variables to calculate a unit cost, which can then be applied to the number of units that will be consumed/used for the project. Individual cost estimates would be bottom-up estimating. Using the actual cost of a similar project would be analogous estimating.

The previous project manager of your newly assigned project leveraged analogous estimating to determine the project costs. Analogous estimating: A. Uses bottom-up estimating techniques B. Uses the actual of previous, similar projects as the basis for estimating the cost of the current project C. Is used most frequently in the later stages of a project D. Summarizes estimates for individual work items

Workbook, Lesson 6, page 56, #3 Answer: B Analogous estimating uses the costs from a previous similar project as the basis for the estimate. It is considered top-down and is not done on individual work items. Analogous estimating is most commonly used early in the project life cycle.

You have been assigned a project that you have minimal experience with in the past. Unfortunately, the organization has also not pursued this type of initiative previously. The leadership team is asking for an estimate of costs. Based on you limited knowledge, what type of estimate would you mostly likely provide? A. Parametric B. Phased C. Analogous D. Rough order of magnitude

Workbook, Lesson 6, page 56, #5 Answer: D Because the organization has not done this type of project previously, that minimizes the opportunity to use an analogous estimate. There are not enough known, scalable data to do a parametric estimate. A phased estimate would require knowing the near-term work in detail. Thus a ROM would be the most appropriate estimate.

Vocabulary: Analysis of strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats of an organization, project, or option

Workbook, Lesson 8, page 80, #2 Answer: SWOT analysis

Vocabulary: A documented plan of action to be used when the primary risk response is inadequate

Workbook, Lesson 8, page 80, #3 Answer: Fallback plan

You are gathering the cost estimates for the renovation project. Upon reviewing cost data on previous projects, you find that for 20-member teams, the average equipment cost was $3,800. You anticipate a 15-person team. Which statement is most accurate? A. A parametric estimate would be $2,850 B. An analogous estimate would be $2,850 C. The estimate would not be able to be determined due to pricing increases D. A budgetary estimate would be $2,850

Workbook, Lesson 6, page 56, #6 Answer: A Using a unit cost of $190 per team member, the estimate would be accomplished through parametric estimating: $190 x 15 = $2,850. Analogous would be top-down and a budgetary estimate would be based on a periodic allocation.

The difference between the cost baseline and the total project budget can be best described as: A. They are synonymous B. The total project budget includes management reserve and the cost baseline does not C. The cost baseline includes management reserve and the total project budget does not D. The total project budget is managed by the project manager and the cost baseline is managed by the team

Workbook, Lesson 6, page 56, #7 Answer: B The total project budget includes both the cost baseline (which includes the cost estimates plus contingency) and the management reserve. The project manager is responsible for managing the cost baseline, but the sponsor is typically responsible for the management reserve.

Your client requires a major scope change due to a change in the market conditions. The scope change would add costs to the project. You currently have funding in your budget contingency reserve. What is the best thing you should do? A. Escalate to the sponsor to inquire about the application of management reserve funds B. Utilize the contingency reserve until it is exhausted and then escalate if necessary C. Deny the change D. Ask the client for additional funding to cover the scope change

Workbook, Lesson 6, page 57, #11 Answer: A Contingency would not be used for major scope changes as it reserved for known-unknowns (risks that are known, just uncertain if they will occur). Simply denying the change is not appropriate without taking the appropriate steps first. Before asking the client for the additional funding, it would be appropriate to escalate to the sponsor to confirm the existence of any management reserve, as that may be the most appropriate source of funding for the major change iven that it was due to a change in market conditions and apparently outside of the control of the client. contingency reserves should be used for instances that were not a known risk

Your $85,000 project is estimated to take 12 weeks and you are 30% complete. What will the planned value (PV) be at the end of the project? A. Unable to determine until the project is 100% complete B. $59,000 C. The budget at completion (BAC) D. $7,083

Workbook, Lesson 6, page 57, #12 Answer: C The planned value (PV) at the end of the project is equal to the budget at completion (BAC). The PV is the cumulative planned value of the work to be completed by that point. At the end of the project, all work is planned to be complete, thus equaling the budget as completion.

Given the launch of the new system, you need to take into consideration the cost of associated hardware and software. Your IT team lead anticipates the costs to be approximately $18,000. However, if an upgrade is necessary, it could cost as much as $30,000. There is a chance that existing hardware can be used, which would bring the costs as low as $7,000. What is the best estimate? A. $17,167 B. $18,170 C. $18,330 D. $13,750

Workbook, Lesson 6, page 57, #8 Answer: B The best technique to determine the cost estimate would be a three-point estimate: (O + 4M +P) / 6 ($7,000 + ($ x $18,000) + $30,000) / 6 $109,000 / 6 $18,166.67

The work package owners and other team members have provided the cost estimates for their components of the project. You have evaluated the estimates provided and assessed the contingency requirements. What should you do next? A. Seek approval on the cost estimates B. Estimate the need for management reserve C. Review the cost estimates with the sponsor and key stakeholders D. Using the scheduling of the work packages and the activities, determine the project budget

Workbook, Lesson 6, page 58, #14 Answer: D Once the costs are estimated, the next step will be to apply those costs across the schedule to aggregate the costs into the periodic and overall budget, creating the cost baseline. As a project manager, you would typically not secure approval on the estimates nor review those estimates with the sponsor and key stakeholders until the overall project budget is estimated. The PM does not estimate the need for management reserve, as it is set by the sponsor and is for "unknown-unknowns" and as such, is not able to be estimated.

Vocabulary: An extremely accurate estimate of costs

Workbook, Lesson 6, page 59, #14 Answer: Definitive estimate

Vocabulary: The amount of funds or budget needed above the estimate to reduce the risk of overruns of project objectives to a level acceptable to the organization. For known-unknowns.

Workbook, Lesson 6, page 59, #2 Answer: Contingency reserve

Vocabulary: Estimating technique that uses the values from a previous, similar project as the basis for estimating.

Workbook, Lesson 6, page 59, #3 Answer: Analogous estimating

Vocabulary: An evaluation of submitted seller bids to determine which vendor would be most appropriate for the budget restrictions of the project.

Workbook, Lesson 6, page 59, #4 Answer: Vendor bid analysis

Vocabulary: A method of determining the costs incurred to ensure quality. Includes the cost of conformance and the cost of non-conformance.

Workbook, Lesson 6, page 59, #5 Answer: Cost of quality

Vocabulary: An analytical technique that uses three cost estimates to represent the optimistic, most likely, and pessimistic scenarios.

Workbook, Lesson 6, page 59, #6 Answer: Three-point estimating

Vocabulary: The document that sets out the format and establishes the activities and criteria for planning, structuring, and controlling the project costs

Workbook, Lesson 6, page 59, #7 Answer: Cost management plan

Vocabulary: An evaluation of the projected costs of the project and when those costs will be incurred to ensure that the costs will fall within the funding limit.

Workbook, Lesson 6, page 59, #8 Answer: Funding limit reconciliation

Vocabulary: A risk that remains after risk responses have been implemented

Workbook, Lesson 8, page 80, #4 Answer: Residual risk

Vocabulary: An uncertain event that, if it occurs, will have a positive impact on project objectives

Workbook, Lesson 8, page 80, #5 Answer: Opportunity

The responsibility assignment matrix (RAM) A. Is used for development of the project budget B. Is developed at the activity level and used to closely link project roles and responsibilities to project network activities C. Is used to show the connections between work that needs to be done and project team members. It can show responsibilities at various levels of detail D. Is used to identify accountabilities in individual performance appraisals

Workbook, Lesson 7, page 66, #2 Answer: C The RAM shows the work that needs to be done and the team members that will be responsible for that work. It can be done at various levels: activity, work package, deliverable.

One of the fundamental tenets of modern quality management is: A. Quality is planned and inspected in B. Quality does not cost C. Quality is planned, designed, and built in - not inspected in D. Quality requires constant inspection

Workbook, Lesson 7, page 66, #3 Answer: C One of the primary philosophies of quality management is that quality is planned designed, and built-in (proactively) versus quality being inspected in (reactive). It is not cost effective to "inspect quality in" to a product.

Precision and accuracy can best be described as: A. Precision means the values of repeated measurements are consistent while accuracy means the values are very close to the true value B. Precision means the values are very close to the true value while accuracy means the values of repeated measurements are consistent C. Precision and accuracy both mean that the values of repeated measurements are consistent D. Precision is the degree to which characteristics fulfill requirements and accuracy is a category assigned to products having the same functional use but different technical characteristics

Workbook, Lesson 7, page 66, #5 Answer: A Precision means the value of repeated measurements are consistent (getting the same result each time). Accuracy means the value is close to the true or desired value (like getting a bulls-eye in archery). Results can be precise without being accurate)

If someone in the organization has been delegated procurement authority it means that the individual is: A. Authorized to maintain an intellectual property database containing information concerning the performance of sellers on prior projects B. Authorized to initiate and conduct negotiations with prospective sellers C. Authorized to contractually bind the organization D. Authorized to review and approve payment on billings submitted by sellers

Workbook, Lesson 7, page 66, #6 Answer: C Procurement authority means that the individual has the ability to contractually bind the organization (sign contracts on behalf of the organization). The assumption on the exam is that you, as a project manager, do not have procurement authority, even if in real practice you do.

You have assumed the management of a large, multi-location project. You are evaluating the quality costs associated with the project. The cost of quality will include all of the following except: A. Training of the project team B. Product returns C. Inconsistent results D. Facilities management

Workbook, Lesson 7, page 66, #7 Answer: D The cost of quality includes the const of conformance (money spent to avoid failures) and the cost of non-conformance (money spent because of failures). Training would be considered a cost of conformance. Product returns and inconsistent results would be considered the cost of non-conformance. Facilities management is not considered cost of quality.

Your organization has conducted an extensive benchmarking study. Which statement is least accurate regarding benchmarking: A. Can determine what approaches to use B. Can determine what product life cycle to use C. Can determine what products or services to offer D. Can determine what standards to achieve

Workbook, Lesson 7, page 67, #10 Answer: B Benchmarking will not determine what product life cycle to use as there is only one product live cycle, regardless of the product. It is the project life cycle that will vary based on industry, project type, etc.

Generally, a bid differs from a proposal in that the term: A. Proposal is used when source selection will be based on price B. Proposal is used when the project time frame is limited C. Bid is used when source selection will be based on price D. Proposal disregards price considerations

Workbook, Lesson 7, page 67, #11 Answer: C The terms bid, tender, and quotation will be used when the vendor selection will be based on price: invitation for bid (IFB), tender notice, request for quotation (RFQ). Proposal will be used when vendor selection will be based on other factors beyond just price.

Jansen Bros. Construction has been selected as a contractor for the downtown construction project. The costs for equipment rental, manpower, and other supplies will be included in the contract price. If the final costs are higher or lower than anticipated, Jansen Bros will split the difference with the buyer 50/50. In addition, Jansen Bros will receive $30,000 for each day they complete their job prior to the scheduled delivery date. What type of contract are they working under? A. CPFF B. FPIF C. CPAF D. CPIF

Workbook, Lesson 7, page 67, #13 Answer: D The vendor is being reimbursed for their allowable costs and is being offered an incentive, representing a cost plus incent fee contract. Another hint on this one would be the fact that there is also a buyer/seller split. From an exam perspective, buyer/seller splits will be only on CPIF contracts.

The seller is working under a cost reimbursable contract with a 70/30 split. As an incentive from the buyer, the vendor will receive $1,500 for each day they deliver the final product early. The original cost estimate on the project was $750,000. The vendor delivered the product six days early at a final invoice price of $810,000. What is the contract value? A. $810,000 B. $801,000 C. $852,000 D. $783,000

Workbook, Lesson 7, page 67, #14 Answer: B Using the estimate of $750,000, the buyer is only responsible for 70% of any costs that exceed that $750,000. The seller exceeded the estimate by $60,000. As such, the buyer will pay: 100% of the estimate: $750,000 70% of the $60k overage: $42,000 Six x $1,500 incentive: $9,000 Total value: $801,000

Quality and grade are different in that grade: A. May or may not be an indicator of how well the product fulfills the customer's requirements B. Is the measure of how close the product is to the target value C. Is the degree to which the product meets the customer's requirements D. Is the category assigned to products that have the same technical characteristics but different functional uses

Workbook, Lesson 7, page 67, #8 Answer: A Just because something is "high" grade, it does not mean it will be high quality. For example a high grade egg that is broken is low quality. For answer D, the definition is transposed making it incorrect" grade is a category assigned to products that have the same functional use but different technical characteristics.

You are developing the SOW that will be provided to the selected vendor. Which statement is least accurate regarding the procurement SOW? A. It defines the portion of the project scope that will be included with the related contract B. It will include a description of any collateral services required C. It will be used to solicit proposals from prospective sellers D. It will include sufficient detail to allow prospective sellers to determine if they are capable of providing the product or service

Workbook, Lesson 7, page 67, #9 Answer: C The procurement statement of work (SOW) does not solicit proposals, as it is the request for proposal (RFP) that would do so. However, while the procurement statement of work (SOW) does not solicit the proposals it is typically included as part of the RFP.

Vocabulary: The values of repeated measurements are consistent

Workbook, Lesson 7, page 70, #1 Answer: Precision

Vocabulary: A narrative description of products, services, or results to be supplied by the seller

Workbook, Lesson 7, page 70, #10 Answer: Procurement statement of work

Vocabulary: A type of contract involving payment to the seller for the seller's cost plus a fee typically representing the seller's profit

Workbook, Lesson 7, page 70, #11 Answer: Cost-reimbursable contract

Vocabulary: Method that identifies which factors may influence specific variables of a product or a process

Workbook, Lesson 7, page 70, #12 Answer: Design of experiments

Vocabulary: The degree to which a set of characteristics fulfills requirements

Workbook, Lesson 7, page 70, #13 Answer: Quality

Vocabulary: The buyer pays the seller a set amount and the seller can earn an additional amount if the seller meets pre-defined performance criteria

Workbook, Lesson 7, page 70, #14 Answer: Fixed price incentive fee contract

Vocabulary: The measured value is very close to the true or desired value

Workbook, Lesson 7, page 70, #2 Answer: Accuracy

Vocabulary: The buyer reimburses the seller for the seller's allowable costs plus a fixed fee usually calculated as a percentage of the estimated cost

Workbook, Lesson 7, page 70, #3 Answer: Cost plus fixed fee contract

Vocabulary: A category or rank used to distinguish items that have the same functional use but different technical characteristics

Workbook, Lesson 7, page 70, #4 Answer: Grade

Vocabulary: A general contract type where the buyer pays the seller a set amount regardless of the seller's cost

Workbook, Lesson 7, page 70, #5 Answer: Firm fixed price contract

Vocabulary: A type of contract that is a hybrid contractual arrangement containing aspects of both cost-reimbursable and fixed-price contracts

Workbook, Lesson 7, page 70, #6 Answer: Time and material contract

Vocabulary: A component of the project or program management plan that describes how an organization's quality policies will be implemented

Workbook, Lesson 7, page 70, #7 Answer: Quality management plan

Vocabulary: The process of auditing of the quality requirements and the results from quality control measurements to ensure appropriate quality standards and operational definitions are used

Workbook, Lesson 7, page 71, #20 Answer: Quality assurance

Vocabulary: The process of comparing cost, cycle time, productivity, or quality to another that is considered industry standard or best practice

Workbook, Lesson 7, page 71, #21 Answer: Benchmarking

Vocabulary: Criteria that is open to interpretation by different individuals, not easily measureable

Workbook, Lesson 7, page 71, #31 Answer: Subjective criteria

Vocabulary: A tally sheet that can be used as a checklist when gathering data

Workbook, Lesson 7, page 71, #32 Answer: Checksheet

Along with your sponsor, you are working with your key stakeholders regarding the approach to risk management on the construction project. After extended discussion, one of your key stakeholders approaches you to discuss their concerns. She states that renovating the work area o her team will be extremely disruptive and she is concerned that if the work is not completed on time, it will have a negative impact on her team during the busy holiday season. What should you do next? A. Escalate the situation to the project sponsor to determine if the project can be rescheduled B. Provide the stakeholder with a copy of the risk register C. Communicate to the other key stakeholders that the risk threshold is any schedule delay D. Document that the stakeholder has minimal risk tolerance for any schedule delays

Workbook, Lesson 8, page 76, #1 Answer: D The most appropriate response would be to document the risk tolerance. Escalating to the sponsor for rescheduling would not be appropriate because the schedule has been developed and based on the existing schedule the project will launch before the holiday season. Providing the stakeholder with a copy of the risk register will not have an effect on the situation. Communicating that any schedule delay is the risk threshold would also not be appropriate, as there could be situations of schedule delay that are able to be managed.

You were assigned the strategic development project which is your first large project for your new organization. You carefully documented the risk management plan, identified the project risks, analyzed the risks both qualitatively and quantitatively, and planned your risk responses. What did you do wrong? A. You did not engage your team, stakeholders, and other potential information sources in your risk processes B. Nothing, all processes were completed per the PMBOK Guide recommendations C. Quantitative risk analysis was not necessary D. You did not work with your sponsor to identify risks

Workbook, Lesson 8, page 76, #3 Answer: A It would be impossible for the project manager to be able to fully and accurately identify and assess all risks impacting the project and it is important that other individuals are leveraged for their knowledge and experience.

Vocabulary: An uncertain event that it if occurs, has a positive or negative effect on a project's objectives

Workbook, Lesson 8, page 80, #6 Answer: Project risk

Vocabulary: A risk response planning technique that shifts the impact of a threat to a third party, together with ownership of the response

Workbook, Lesson 8, page 80, #7 Answer: Risk transference

There was a software risk associated with the infrastructure project. To mitigate the risk, you leveraged a software provider that has been known to be compatible with your organization's systems. However, upon install, you realize that the new software is causing a major problem. What is the next thing to do? A. Implement the contingent response strategy B. Implement the residual risk plan C. Implement the risk mitigation strategy D. Implement the fallback plan

Workbook, Lesson 8, page 76, #4 Answer: D Because you already took a proactive response, the next step would be to implement the fallback plan. Fallback plans are used when the original response is not effective. Contingent response strategies are used only if the risk even occurs. In this scenario, if the risk was deemed to be a lower impact, a contingent response strategy would have been utilized instead of a proactive mitigation approach. Residual risk plan is not a recognized term. The mitigation strategy was already used.

There is a meeting in Europe for the organization's senior leadership team. To reduce the risk associated with having the executives all on one p lane, you send no more than two executives on the same flight. What risk strategy are you using? A. Risk avoidance B. Risk transference C. Active risk acceptance D. Risk mitigation

Workbook, Lesson 8, page 77, #11 Answer: D Because they are "reducing" the risk, this would be risk mitigation. Mitigation reduces the probability and/or the impact.

There is a potential opportunity if your product is first to market. You decide to team up with another business in order to increase the chances that you will make it to market first. What risk strategy are you using? A. Enhancement B. Sharking C. Exploitation D. Teaming agreement

Workbook, Lesson 8, page 77, #12 Answer: B The act of partnering with a vendor to pursue an opportunity (a positive risk) would be risk sharing. This can also serve to enhance the opportunity, but because they mention a relationship with a vendor, it is considered risk sharing.

Mitigation is to threats as __________ is to opportunities. A. Enhancement B. Exploitation C. Acceptance D. Tolerance

Workbook, Lesson 8, page 77, #13 Answer: A Mitigation decreases the probability and/or impact of a negative risk while enhancement increases the probability and/or impact of a positive risk.

Which of the Following is a true statement about risks? A. If a risk is identified in a risk response plan, then that means that risk has already happened B. Once a risk has happened, you refer to the risk management plan to determine what action needs to be taken C. A risk that was not planned but has happened is called a trigger D. Risk identification happens in all phases of the project

Workbook, Lesson 8, page 77, #8 Answer: D Risk identification is not a "one-and-done" type of activity. Risk identification is occurring throughout all phases of your project. Risks are identified in the risk register, not the response plan. The risk register will detail the actions to be taken if the risk occurs, not the risk management plan. The risk management plan is focused on how risk management will be approached overall. A trigger is a pre-cursor event that means a risk is about to or has occurred.

The organization is a very sensitive to any risk impacting the project budget or schedule. You are working with your team and subject matter experts to conduct a quantitative risk analysis on the identified risks. Which statement is least accurate? A. The output of quantitative risk analysis techniques are typically probability distributions B. A Monte Carlo simulation takes into consideration both cost and schedule risks C. A tornado diagram only represents schedule risk data D. Decision trees are used for both schedule and cost risks

Workbook, Lesson 8, page 77, #9 Answer: Tornado diagrams only display cost risk data, not schedule risk data. Monte Carlo simulations and decision trees can evaluate both cost and schedule implications. A probability distribution, showing the uncertainties in the identified variables, is a common way to display data from these quantitative risk analysis techniques.

Upon discussion with the work package owner you learn that based on the vendor used, there are four potential durations for the work. There is a 20% chance of using a local vendor, with a duration using an international vendor, with a duration of 27 days; the remaining possibility is to do the work in-house, with a duration of 15 days. What is the best estimate to use? A. 16 days B. 17 days C. 10.5 days D. 11 days

Workbook, Lesson 8, page 78, #14 Answer: B .2 x 12 = 2.4 .3 x 18 = 5.4 .1 x 27 = 2.7 .4 x 15 = 6 (Because the sum of the probabilities of the prior three options only equals 60%, there must be a 40% probability for the fourth option. The sum of the probabilities always adds up to 100%). 2.4 + 5.4 + 2.7 + 6 = 16.5 (round up to 17 for the best answer)

You have been presented with three options for purchasing materials for your project. Option A will cost $40,000. With Option A, there is as 30% probability additional support will cost $12,000 and 70% probability additional support will cost $18,000. Option B will cost $38,000. With Option B, there is a 60% probability additional support will cost $15,000 and a 40% probability additional support will cost $30,000. Option C will cost $25,000. With Option C, there is a 75% probability additional support will cost $18,000 and a 25% probability additional support will cost $40,000. There is a 30% probability the organization will pursue Option A and a 40% probability the organization will pursue Option C. Based on the probability of the selection process, what is the value of Option B? A. $21,000 B. $11,400 C. $59,999 D. $17,700

Workbook, Lesson 8, page 78, #15 Answer: D Because of the length of this question, it is important to skip to the end of the question to see what they are asking about. This is especially important prior to doing extensive mathematical problems. The question only asks about the value of Option B. The first step would be to determine the probability Option B will occur: Option A = 30% probability Option C = 40% probability Option B must be a 30% probability The next step would be to determine the expected monetary value and the total value based on the information provided: For Option B: Original estimate = $38,000 (.6 x $15,000 = $9,000) + (.4 x $30,000 = $12,000) = $21,000 (EMV) $38,000 + $21,000 = $59,000 (Total Value) The last step would be to multiply the total value by the probability of Option B occurring: .3 x $59,000 = $17,700

Vocabulary: A diagram to compare available alternatives and their implications

Workbook, Lesson 8, page 80, #1 Answer: Decision Tree

Vocabulary: A special type of bar chart used in a sensitivity analysis for comparing the relative cost impact of risks

Workbook, Lesson 8, page 80, #13 Answer: Tornado diagram

Vocabulary: A grid for mapping the probability of each risk occurrence and its impact on project objectives if that risk occurs

Workbook, Lesson 8, page 80, #14 Answer: Probability/impact matrix

Which of the following is false about advertising as a tool and technique of the conduct procurements process? A. It is sometimes required on government projects B. it can often be used to expand the existing lists of potential sellers C. It can cause public pressure resulting in bid disputes D. It can be placed in general circulation publications, such as newspapers, or in specialty publications, such as professional journals

Workbook, Lesson 9, page 86, #4 Answer: C Advertising procurement opportunities is sometimes required based on the type of procurement, especially in government projects. Advertising may expand the response pool and the procurement can be advertised in general and/or specialty publications. Advertising the procurement does not cause public pressure resulting in bid disputes.

Evaluation criteria are developed and used to rate or score proposals. These criteria have all of the following characteristics except: A. They generally require specification of the name of transportation organization responsible for delivery of procured items B. They can be limited to purchase price if the procurement item is readily available from a number of acceptable sellers C. They can be subjective, such as, "The proposed project manager needs to have documented previous experience with similar projects" D. They can be objective, such as, "The project manager needs to be a certified Project Management Professional (PMP)"

Workbook, Lesson 9, page 86, #5 Answer: A All statements are true and accurate other than the answer that states they specify the name of the transportation organization responsible for delivery. It is not a given that all procurements will require delivery via a transportation organization.

The primary goal of a bidder's conference is: A. To ensure that all prospective sellers have a clear and common understanding of the procurement B. To allow certain bidders to receive preferential treatment C. To determine if certain information in the procurement request was missing D. To determine which sellers will be responding to the procurement request

Workbook, Lesson 9, page 86, #6 Answer: A The objective of the bidder's conference is to provide open access to information for all prospective bidders. This prevents any preferential treatment. As a benefit of doing a bidder's conference, it may help to alert the buyer to missing information and also provide a preview of what sellers may be bidding on the initiative.

This is the process of communicating and working with stakeholders to meet their needs and address issues as they occur: A. Manage Stakeholder Engagement B. Distribute Information C. Identify Stakeholders D. Conduct Stakeholder Analysis

Workbook, Lesson 9, page 86, #7 Answer: A The Manage Stakeholder Engagement process is the process responsible for communicating and working with stakeholders to meet their needs and address issues. The only other PMBOK Guide process listed in the answers is the Identify Stakeholders process, but this question is not describing that process.

Your project team has completed the first deliverables for the project. What do you do next? A. Check the deliverables for accuracy through quality assurance B. Provide the deliverables to the customer for review and approval C. Notify the sponsor that the deliverables are complete D. Evaluate the deliverables through quality control

Workbook, Lesson 9, page 87, #12 Answer: D As the deliverables are being completed, they will be evaluated through the Control Quality (QC) process to ensure they are correct and conform to requirements. QA does not evaluate deliverables, but rather QC measurements. The deliverables must be reviewed through QC before given to the customer in the Validate Scope process for review and approval.

Although your project has been progressing very will and has been relatively stable against the project baselines, there have recently been some unexpected costs that are causing the project to trend over-budget. Upon review with your sponsor, she advises you to not send out the monthly performance report or discuss the situation with the other key stakeholders as she fears it will cause unnecessary concern. What is the best thing for you to do? A. Document that the sponsor requested the performance report not to be distributed B. Meet with the key stakeholders off-line to advise them of the situation C. Distribute the performance report per the terms of the communication plan D. Wait to distribute the performance report until the next reporting cycle

Workbook, Lesson 9, page 87, #13 Answer: C As part of your professional responsibility, you are still bound to provide transparent and timely information and follow the approved communication plan. Therefore the performance report should still be distributed based on the communication plan.

Throughout the project, you have consistently provided the stakeholders with an updated status report on the progress of the project in order to manage their expectations. This includes providing updates on any changes that have been approved. As a result of actively managing stakeholders' expectations: A. The project is more likely to come in on time and on budget B. The project is more likely to have increased acceptance C. The project is more likely to have improved communication D. The project is more likely to have lower attrition

Workbook, Lesson 9, page 87, #8 Answer: B By actively managing the stakeholders' expectations, it increases the changes of project acceptance. PMI cites one of the most common reasons for project failure is due to failing to manage expectations. It's not about giving your customer everything they want but you must give them what they expect. It is up to the project manager and the team to manage those expectations.

Used in quality assurance, this chart links a goal to the steps to achieving that goal, aiding the team in anticipating problems: A. PDPC B. PDM C. EVM D. PERT

Workbook, Lesson 9, page 88, #15 Answer: A The process decision program charts (PDPC) would be a tool to aid the team in anticipating problems. PDM is the precedence diagramming method, used to display the relationships between activities. EVM is earned value management, used to determine the status of the schedule and the budget. PERT is program evaluation and review technique, which estimates the optimistic, most likely, and pessimistic estimates.

Vocabulary: Structured, independent reviews to determine whether project activities comply with organizational and project policies, processes, and procedures

Workbook, Lesson 9, page 89, #2 Answer: Quality audit

Vocabulary: Provides a pass/fail mechanism on potential sellers

Workbook, Lesson 9, page 89, #3 Answer: Screening system

Vocabulary: Meetings with prospective sellers prior to the preparation of a bid or proposal

Workbook, Lesson 9, page 89, #4 Answer: Bidder conference

Vocabulary: A project document used to document and monitor elements under discussion or in dispute between project stakeholders

Workbook, Lesson 9, page 89, #5 Answer: Issue log

If you are a new project manager in an organization, where might you try to find the defined project life cycle for that organization? A. The product life cycle B. The organization's project management methodology C. The PMBOK Guide D. The intranet

Workbook, Practice Exam 1, Lessons 1-4, page 132, #5 Answer: B The defined project life cycle for the organization would be found in that organization's project management methodology

How many project life cycles cam be contained within one life cycle? A. 3 B. 1 C. There can be no project life cycles within a product life cycle D. Multiple

Workbook, Practice Exam 1, Lessons 1-4, page 132, #6 Answer: D A product life cycle can have multiple project life cycles. It is a one-to-many relationship: one product life cycle may have multiple project life cycles.

Which statement below is most accurate regarding a PMO? A. The PMO rarely monitors compliance with project management standards, policies, procedures, and templates via project audits B. The PMO is managed by the key stakeholders involved in the project C. The PMO may be involved in the selection, management, and deployment of shared or dedicated project resources D. The PMO usually has budget and procurement authority for projects within the portfolio

Workbook, Practice Exam 1, Lessons 1-4, page 132, #7 Answer: C The PMO may be involved in the selection, management, and deployment of shared or dedicated project resources. The PMO typically monitors compliance with project management standards and policies but they typically do not have budget or procurement authority. The PMO is typically staffed with dedicated PMO resources versus key stakeholders from the various projects.

Which of the following is a true statement about operations? A. There is not a monitoring and controlling element B. Resources are freely available to the operations of an organization C. Team members are often temporary and transitional D. Work does not terminate when its current objectives are met but instead will follow new directions to support the organization's strategic plans

Workbook, Practice Exam 1, Lessons 1-4, page 132, #8 Answer: D Operations do not terminate, but continue to follow new directions under support of the strategic direction of the organization. Operations are monitored and controlled, team members are typically permanent, and as with projects, resources are constrained or limited.

You have been assigned to work on the process redesign project. Based on the stakeholder requirements, you have completed your scope statement. What is the next process you should do? A. Distribute scope statement B. Create scope baseline C. Collect requirements D. Create WBS

Workbook, Practice Exam 1, Lessons 1-4, page 133, #11 Answer: D Because you have the requirements and the scope statement, it implies that you have completed the Collect Requirements and the Define Scope processes. The next process would be Create WBS.

This process is part of the initiating process group and the stakeholder knowledge area: A. Identify stakeholders B. Develop communication strategy C. Develop project charter D. Create communication plan

Workbook, Practice Exam 1, Lessons 1-4, page 133, #13 Answer: A The Identify Stakeholders process is in the initiating process group and the stakeholder knowledge area.

What statement best describes the role of a project manager: A. Project managers monitor the progress of program components to ensure the overall goals, schedules, budget, and benefits of the program will be met B. Project managers are not responsible for the management of the project team to meet project objectives C. Project managers manage or coordinate the portfolio management staff D. Project managers monitor and control the work of producing the products, services, or results that the project was undertaken to produce

Workbook, Practice Exam 1, Lessons 1-4, page 133, #14 Answer: D Project managers monitor and control the work of producing the project's product, service, or result. Project managers are responsible for the management of the project team. Project managers do not monitor program components nor do they coordinate portfolio staff.

This is the concept of continuously improving and detailing a plan as more detailed and specific information becomes available: A. Progressive elaboration B. Ensuring scope creep is possible C. Developing your project management plan D. Thinking outside the box

Workbook, Practice Exam 1, Lessons 1-4, page 133, #15 Answer: A Progressive elaboration continuously improves and details a plan as more information becomes available.

In project management, if one factor changes, it will most likely impact other factors. What is this concept called? A. Progressive elaboration B. Triple constraint C. Project reality D. Process groups

Workbook, Practice Exam 1, Lessons 1-4, page 133, #16 Answer: B This is the concept of the triple constraint: scope, time, and cost. When one constraint changes, more than likely (not always), the others will be affected.

This process produces the stakeholder register: A. Develop project charter B. Collect requirements C. Identify stakeholders D. Develop project management plan

Workbook, Practice Exam 1, Lessons 1-4, page 133, #9 Answer: C The stakeholder register is an output of the Identify Stakeholders process

Which item best describes the difference between a project manager and the PMO? A. Project managers manage major program scope changes while the PMO focuses on specific project objectives B. Project managers control assigned project resources while the PMO optimizes the use of shared organizational resources C. Project managers optimize the use of shared organizational resources while the PMO controls project resources D. Project managers manage methodologies while the PMO manages project constratins

Workbook, Practice Exam 1, Lessons 1-4, page 134, #17 Answer: B Project managers do not manage program scope changes, optimize the use of shared organizational resources, nor manage methodologies. They do control assigned project resources.

All of the following statements about the project life cycle and the product life cycle are true except: A. The product life cycle generally starts with the business plan, and continues through idea, to product, ongoing operations, and product divestment B. The project life cycle also identifies the transitional actions at the end of the project to link the project to ongoing operations of the performing organization C. Generally, a product life cycle is contained within the project life cycle D. Generally, a project life cycle is contained within the product life cycle

Workbook, Practice Exam 1, Lessons 1-4, page 134, #18 Answer: C A product life cycle is not contained within a project life cycle. A product life cycle can have multiple project life cycles.

A program is considered to be: A. A strategy for dealing with project risks B. Two or more phases of a project C. A collection of related projects D. A collection of related portfolios

Workbook, Practice Exam 1, Lessons 1-4, page 134, #19 Answer: C A program is a collection of related projects.

Which statement is most accurate regarding progressive elaboration? A. It is the same as scope creek B. It is usually used for longer term projects or projects where there is not clear definition at the start C. Long term projects will be defined in detail but short-term projects only have high-level definition D. It is a key tool used in the decomposition of work packages

Workbook, Practice Exam 1, Lessons 1-4, page 134, #21 Answer: B Progressive elaboration is typically used for longer term projects or projects where there is not clear definition at the start of the project. Progressive elaboration will start with a high-level description and then define and refine those details as the project progresses.

In which organizational structure does the PM function more as an expediter or coordinator of project activities? A. Strong matrix B. Weak matrix C. Balanced matrix D. Projectized

Workbook, Practice Exam 1, Lessons 1-4, page 134, #22 Answer: B In a weak matrix organization, there is no true project manager. The resource assigned would be more of a coordinator or expeditor of project activities without any real "management" capabilities.

All of the following would generally be part of a project life cycle, except: A. Organizing and preparing B. Starting the project C. Managing the product in operations D. Carrying out the project work

Workbook, Practice Exam 1, Lessons 1-4, page 134, #23 Answer: C The project life cycle would not include managing the product once it reaches operations.

The project charter: A. Is an optional document B. Is signed by the sponsor and documents the business needs and the current understanding of the customer's needs C. Cannot be completed without the project manager assignment D. States that the project does not align with the strategic direction of the organization

Workbook, Practice Exam 1, Lessons 1-4, page 134, #24 Answer: B The project charter is signed by the sponsor and documents the business need and current understanding of the customer's needs. The charter may exist prior to the project manager assignment. It is considered mandatory and it commits that the project aligns with the strategic direction of the organization.

In a matrix structure: A. Employees are typically assigned 50% of the time to functional tasks and 50% of the time to project tasks B. Employees' administrative, development, and performance management are typically focused with their functional manager with proportional performance and development input by project managers C. Employees are equally answerable to both functional and project managers D. Employees are answerable to the project manager, but report both to the functional and project manager

Workbook, Practice Exam 1, Lessons 1-4, page 135, #25 Answer: B In a matrix structure the functional manager would be responsible for the employee's administrative management, but the project manager would be expected to provide proportional feedback. For example, if the team member is on your project 30% of the time, you should contribute 30% to their performance appraisal. The employee is not equally answerable to both the PM and the functional manager, as the functional manager "owns" the employee and would be the ultimate decision maker on that employees role and responsibilities.

The project manager has the highest authority in this type of an organizational structure: A. Functional B. Matrix C. Projectized D. Weak matrix

Workbook, Practice Exam 1, Lessons 1-4, page 135, #30 Answer: C A project manager would have the highest authority in a projectized organizational structure

A chart of accounts: A. Is not used to monitor project costs by WBS elements B. Is developed as part of the project charter C. Provides a graphical representation of project costs in relation to the project schedule D. Is any numbering system used to monitor project costs by category

Workbook, Practice Exam 1, Lessons 1-4, page 135, #33 Answer: D A chart of accounts, also known as a code of accounts, is any time of unique number system used to monitor project costs by category. The chart of accounts numbering is used on the WBS.

While collecting requirements, you want to solicit feedback from a group of experts in a format where they are best enabled to give their individual and honest feedback. What group creativity technique would be best in this situation? A. Interviewing B. Delphi technique C. Affinity diagram D. Nominal group technique

Workbook, Practice Exam 1, Lessons 1-4, page 136, #34 Answer: B The Delphi technique would be the most appropriate to capture honest (anonymous) feedback from a group of experts.

Which of the following is not a characteristic of both projects and operations? A. Follows the project life cycle B. Limited by constraints C. Performed by individuals D. Planned, executed, monitored, and controlled

Workbook, Practice Exam 1, Lessons 1-4, page 136, #35 Answer: A Both projects and operations are limited by constraints, performed by individuals, and are planned, executed, and monitoring and controlled. Only projects follow a project life cycle.

In general, a project manager's technical skills: A. Should not be considered when selecting a project manager B. Must be equal to or higher than any other team member's skills C. Must be sufficiently high to understand technical issues and explain technical decisions to others D. Are the most important criterion for selecting a project manager

Workbook, Practice Exam 1, Lessons 1-4, page 136, #36 Answer: C A project manager's technical skill must be sufficiently high to understand the technical issues of the project and be able to explain technical decisions to others. Technical skills should be considered when selecting a project manager but are not necessarily the most important criterion.

A project scheduler may typically be found in what type of an organization? A. Strong matrix B. Functional C. Weak matrix D. Projectized

Workbook, Practice Exam 1, Lessons 1-4, page 136, #37 Answer: D A project scheduler is a defined project resource. Project schedulers and other defined project support staff would be found in a projectized organizational structure.

This technique captures information from a panel of experts in an anonymous format. A. Affinity diagram B. Focus group C. Delphi technique D. Nominal group technique

Workbook, Practice Exam 1, Lessons 1-4, page 136, #38 Answer: C The Delphi technique captures information from experts in an anonymous format, usually via a survey mechanism. The feedback is consolidated and then redistributed out for further comment and review.

Which statement below is true regarding control accounts? A. A control account is a quality tool that ensures proper authorization is secured B. A control account may include one or more work packages, but each work package must be associated with only one control account C. A control account may be associated with only one work package, but each work package can be associated with multiple control accounts D. Control accounts are only added at the highest level of the WBS

Workbook, Practice Exam 1, Lessons 1-4, page 137, #42 Answer: B A control account may include one or more work packages, but each work package must be associated with only one control account. Control accounts and work packages have a one-to-many relationship. You cannot split a work package across multiple control accounts.

What statement is most accurate regarding scope creek and progressive elaboration? A. Unmanaged progressive elaboration increases the incidence of scope creek B. Scope creek is unmanaged changes to the scope while progressive elaboration refines the project details C. Progressive elaboration should be managed by the work package owners while the project manager should manage scope creek D. Scope creek and progressive elaboration are synonymous

Workbook, Practice Exam 1, Lessons 1-4, page 137, #43 Answer: B Scope creep is any unmanaged changes to the project scope, whereas progressive elaboration is adding detail as more information becomes available on the project.

You have updated the knowledge repository that contains general information for the stakeholders. What communication method was used? A. Pull B. Push C. Interactive D. Meeting

Workbook, Practice Exam 1, Lessons 1-4, page 138, #53 Answer: A Updating information in a knowledge repository would be considered pull communication as the recipients would need to go proactively retrieve the information if they wanted it.

Your landscaping project is nearing completion and your team has begun planting the flowers within the planters. You review the requirements documentation and realize that the flowers should have been yellow and not the pink ones that are being planted. The customer has not yet seen the flowers that were planted. What type of change request would you submit? A. Defect repair B. Corrective action C. Scope change D. Preventive action

Workbook, Practice Exam 1, Lessons 1-4, page 138, #54 Answer: A Because this is a quality issue, it would be considered a defect repair. Corrective actions are typically for cost or schedule problems. Quality issues are defect repairs, regardless of whether the customer has seen the problem or not.

You have a number of time-sensitive issues on which you need information from your stakeholders. What would be the most appropriate communication method? A. Push B. Pull C. Interactive D. On-line meeting

Workbook, Practice Exam 1, Lessons 1-4, page 138, #55 Answer: C For time-sensitive issues, you would want to use the i interactive communication to ensure an immediate response.

You and your team are doing your best to collect requirements from a large number of stakeholders. Your key stakeholders are located in different geographic regions. In addition, you will need to seek feedback from some industry experts regarding a few confidential components of the project. What statements is most accurate? A. Interviewing would be best used for the experts and the Delphi technique is most appropriate for the key stakeholders B. Surveys would be best used for the key stakeholders and observations would be most appropriate for the other stakeholders C. Any of the group creativity techniques would be appropriate for they key stakeholders and surveys would be best for the industry experts D. The Delphi technique would be best used for the experts and interviews would be most appropriate for the key stakeholders

Workbook, Practice Exam 1, Lessons 1-4, page 139, #59 Answer: D For key stakeholders, you will always want to use interviews as it is imperative to collect their requirements accurately so as to increase the chance of project success. For industry experts providing confidential feedback, the Delphi technique would be most appropriate. Surveys would not be appropriate for either group, as you have to assume a low response rate with surveys.

Which statement is least accurate regarding the project statement of work? A. It may be received from the customer as part of the bid document for external projects B. It is a narrative description of products or services to be delivered by the project C. Details the business need and the product scope description D. Will most likely include a cost-benefit analysis to justify project funding

Workbook, Practice Exam 1, Lessons 1-4, page 139, #60 Answer: D The project statement of work (SOW) is coming from the requesting party and as such, would not likely include a cost-benefit analysis to justify the project funding. This justification is within the business case completed by the sponsor.

Originally you had 15 stakeholders on your project. That number has now increased by 3 new members. Four stakeholders are senior executives. How many additional communication channels have been added? A. 105 B. 153 C. 48 D. 45

Workbook, Practice Exam 1, Lessons 1-4, page 139, #61 Answer: C Using the communication channels formula n (n - 1) / 2, you will need to run the formula twice. Once with 15 stakeholders and again with 18 stakeholders. The difference would represent the number of new channels: 15 (14) / 2 = 105 18 (17) / 2 = 153 153 - 105 = 48

You are in the process of creating the WBS. Which of the following is the output? A. WBS B. Scope statement C. Scope baseline D. WBS dictionary

Workbook, Practice Exam 1, Lessons 1-4, page 139, #63 Answer: C During the Create WBS process, you will be creating the WBS and the WBS dictionary. When you add the WBS and the WBS dictionary to the previously developed scope statement, you will have the scope baseline as the output.

Your project team has 8 team members. Given that information, how many communication channels exist? A. 28 B. 32 C. 16 D. n (n + 1) / 2

Workbook, Practice Exam 1, Lessons 1-4, page 140, #64 Answer: A Using the communication channel formula n (n - 1) / 2 8 (7) / 2 56 / 2 = 28

Which of the following would not be considered an enterprise environmental factor? A. Financial and market conditions B. Organizational culture C. Availability of human resources D. PMO project templates

Workbook, Practice Exam 1, Lessons 1-4, page 140, #65 Answer: D Enterprise environmental factors are things that we "consider," that may have an impact on our project. PMO project templates would be considered organizational process assets - things we use.

You are mentoring a fellow project manager who is new to the organization. She is about to begin a project and would like to know the most appropriate tasks for initiating her project and in what order they would occur. Which statement is most accurate? A. The charter should be approved prior to defining the high-level scope B. The SOW should be completed prior to developing the project charter C. The contract should be executed prior to developing the SOW D. The stakeholder analysis should be completed prior to performing the project assessment

Workbook, Practice Exam 1, Lessons 1-4, page 140, #66 Answer: B From a proper sequencing perspective, the first thing needed to launch a project is the project statement of work (SOW). This is the request coming from the requesting party. The sponsor will use the SOW to validate a business case to pursue the project. If the project is being done for an external party, a contract (agreement) will be executed. Once those are in place, the project charter is created.

The project management plan may include all of the following except: A. Process improvement plan B. Scope baseline C. Project funding requirements D. Risk management plan

Workbook, Practice Exam 1, Lessons 1-4, page 140, #68 Answer: C The project management plan does not include the project funding requirements. Typically, the high-level funding requirements will be documented in the project charter and the detailed funding requirements will be developed with the budget. All "plans" and all "baselines" are part of the project management plan.

One of your work package owners reports that their component may be delayed due to the absence of a key team member. He asks for a replacement resource. This would be an example of: A. Progressive elaboration B. Scope creek C. Preventive action D. Corrective action

Workbook, Practice Exam 1, Lessons 1-4, page 140, #71 Answer: C Because the component may be delayed and isn't late yet, the replacement resource would be considered a preventive action.

In order to collect requirements, the PMO has suggested that you schedule some facilitated workshops. Which statement is least accurate regarding facilitated workshops? A. They must be conducted in-person to be effective B. They are attended by key cross-functional stakeholders C. They are a technique to quickly define requirements and reconcile stakeholder differences D. They may be called JAD or QFD sessions

Workbook, Practice Exam 1, Lessons 1-4, page 141, #72 Answer: A Facilitated workshops can be conducted via virtual team meeting tools and still be effective.

Which statement is least accurate regarding the processes within the stakeholder knowledge area: A. They identify the project stakeholders and their influence on the project B. They document the roles and responsibilities required for the project C. They insure appropriate generation and distribution of project information to stakeholders D. They provide consistent information to manage expectations

Workbook, Practice Exam 1, Lessons 1-4, page 141, #73 Answer: B Specific roles and responsibilities will be documented within the human resources knowledge area, versus in the stakeholder knowledge area. However, on the stakeholder register, it is not uncommon to identify the role that the stakeholder is playing in the project (team lead, contributor, sponsor, etc).

Project intranets and home pages are examples of _____ communication: A. Open access B. Free will C. Pull D. Push

Workbook, Practice Exam 1, Lessons 1-4, page 141, #74 Answer: C Because the recipient would need to go out and proactively retrieve the information, intranets and home pages are considered pull communication.

In shortening the project duration, the first action to take is to: A. Change the project scope B. Crash as many activities as possible C. Fast-track activities on the critical path D. Consume the float on the critical path

Workbook, Practice Exam 2, page 150, #3 Answer: C The first action to take would be to fast-track the activities as it does not reduce the scope and it does not add any costs to the project.

The activity duration estimating technique that uses optimistic, pessimistic, and most likely calculation is: A. CPM B. CERT C. PERT D. Gantt

Workbook, Practice Exam 2, page 150, #4 Answer: C A PERT (program evaluation and review technique) estimate uses optimistic, pessimistic and most likely estimates to come up with a weighted estimate.

All of the following statements are true about analogous estimating except: A. It is essentially a combination of historical information and parametric estimating B. It is frequently used when there is a lack of detailed information about the current project C. It is critical that the historical project is as similar as possible to the current project D. It is less costly and time-consuming, but also less accurate

Workbook, Practice Exam 2, page 151, #12 Answer: A Analogous estimating is used when there isn't detailed information about the current project. It is important the historical project be as similar as possible to the current project. Analogous estimating is less time consuming than the other estimating techniques, but it will not be as accurate. Analogous estimating is not the same as parametric estimating. While parametric also uses historical information, it leverages a statistical relationship between variables to calculate the estimate.

A cost baseline should not include: A. Estimates of the most likely project costs B. Contingency cost C. Assumptions for the estimates D. Management resserve

Workbook, Practice Exam 2, page 151, #14 Answer: D The cost baseline includes the cost estimates, the contingency, and the assumptions that were made. The cost baseline does not include the management reserve.

Given the launch of the new system, you also need to take into consideration the cost of associated hardware and software. Your IT team lead anticipates the costs to be approximately $18,000. However, if an upgrade is necessary, it could cost as much as $30,000. There is a chance that existing hardware can be used, which would bring the costs as low as $7,000. What is the best estimate for this portion of the project? A. $19,166 B. $9,166 C. $36,333 D. $18,000

Workbook, Practice Exam 2, page 151, #15 Answer: D Using a PERT estimate: (O + 4M + P) / 6 ($7,000 + 4($18,000) + $30,000) / 6 ($7,000 + $72,000 + $30,000) / 6 $109,000 / 6 = $18,166 The closest answer, using general rules of rounding, would be $18,000

You are the project manager of the data backup project. Your team lead has given you a cost estimate that she feels is accurate to within 5% of the actual costs. What type of estimate did she give you? A. Budgetary B. Rough order of magnitude C. Definitive D. Phased

Workbook, Practice Exam 2, page 151, #9 Answer: C An estimate within a 5% confidence range is very accurate from a project management perspective. This would be considered a definitive estimate.

All of the following statements are true about three-point estimating except? A. Uses a weighted average to calculate the most appropriate duration B. It uses both historical information and analogous estimating C. It can be calculated as: (O + 4(M) + P) / 6 D. It can be used for both cost and duration

Workbook, Practice Exam 2, page 152, #18 Answer: B Three-point estimating is calculated as: (O + 4M + P) / 6 Three-point uses a weighted average and can be used for both cost and duration. While it may leverage historical information, it does not use analogous estimating.

Activity A has a finish-to-start relationship with Activity B. Activity A has a duration of 10 days. Activity B has a duration of 6 days with a 3-day lead. What is the duration of the activities? A. 13 days B. 16 days C. 19 days D. 10 days

Workbook, Practice Exam 2, page 152, #19 Answer: A Activity A is 10 days, Activity B is 6 days for a total duration of 16 days. The lead allows you to start Activity B three days early (for a savings of three days). 10 + 6 - 3 = 13 days

When leveling resources on a project: A. It is preferred to let project management software do the job for you B. It is preferred that the project manager manually determines where to adjust resources C. The project manager needs to add resources D. A change in project scope is usually required

Workbook, Practice Exam 2, page 152, #20 Answer: B The project manager should manually optimize (level or smooth) the project resources as the project manager has a better understanding of the human factors associated with the project team. The software will evaluate all resources as equal and may alter the project schedule in an undesired manner.

You have been assigned to work on the process redesign project. Based on the stakeholder requirements, you have completed your scope statement. What is the next thing you should do? A. Collect Requirements B. Create WBS C. Create Scope Baseline D. Distribute Scope Statement

Workbook, Practice Exam 2, page 152, #21 Answer: B You have completed the Collect Requirements process and the Define Scope process (as evidenced by the completion of the scope statement), so the next process would be to Create WBS.

Free float is: A. The amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the finish date of the project B. The amount of lead time for activities that are not on the critical path C. Calculated by subtracting early finish time from late start time (EF-LS) D. The amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the early start of a subsequent activity

Workbook, Practice Exam 2, page 152, #22 Answer: D Free float is the amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the early start of the successor activity. Total float effects the overall project completion date. It is calculated by subtracting the late start (LS) of the activity from the early start (ES) of the successor activity and subtracting one.

This process produces the stakeholder register: A. Develop project charter B. Identify stakeholders C. Collect requirements D. Develop project management plan

Workbook, Practice Exam 2, page 152, #23 Answer: B The stakeholder register is an output of the Identify Stakeholders process.

Your work package owner has submitted the following information: There will be three resources involved in the work, each working five hours per day with no work on the weekends. The start date will be Monday, 1 March and the completion date is Friday, 19 March. Monday, 8 March is a holiday. What is the elapsed time of the work? A. 14 days B. 3 weeks C. 15 days D. 2.4 weeks

Workbook, Practice Exam 2, page 153, #27 Answer: B The work will span three weeks: The weeks of 1 March, 8 March, and 15 March

Your work package owner has submitted the following information: There will be three resources involved in the work, each working five hours per day with no work on the weekends. The start date will be Monday, 1 March and the completion day is Friday, 19 March. Monday, 8 March is a holiday. What is the effort of the work? A. 14 days B. 3 weeks C. 15 days D. 2.4 weeks

Workbook, Practice Exam 2, page 153, #28 Answer: A The duration will be the work days: The week of 1 March: 5 work days The week of 8 March: 4 work days The week of 15 March: 5 work days 5 + 4 + 5 = 14 days

A preferred dependency is the same as all of the following except: A. Discretionary B. Expert C. Preferential D. Soft logic

Workbook, Practice Exam 2, page 154, #33 Answer: B Preferred dependencies are also known as preferential, discretionary, or soft logic.

You have assessed the following critical activities for crashing: Activity___OrigCost___CrashCost___OrigDur___CrashDur 1.1____________10k____________12k_____________12d_____________8d 2.1____________8k____________15k_____________20d_____________13d 3.1____________5k____________11k______________25d____________22d 4.1____________11k____________12k_____________30d____________20d 5.1____________3k____________4k______________10d_____________6d IMAGE If you crashed the three best candidates, what would be the adjust cost and duration? A. $41,000 / 79 days B. $43,000 / 80 days C. $44,000 / 76 days D. $42,000 / 74 days

Workbook, Practice Exam 2, page 155, #35 Answer: A The first step would be to calculate incremental crash cost for each activity: (difference in crash cost) / (difference in duration) Activity 1.1 = $2,000 / 4 days = $500/day Activity 2.1 = $7,000 / 7 days = $1,000/day Activity 3.1 = $6,000 / 3 days = $2,000/day Activity 4.1 = $1,000 / 10 days = $100/day Activity 5.1 = $1,000 / 4 days = $250/day The best candidates to crash would be Activities 1.1, 4.1, and 5.1 The adjusted cost: $12,000 + $8,000 + $5,000 + $12,000 + $4,000 = $41,000 The adjusted duration: 8 + 20 + 25 + 20 + 6 = 79 days

Which statement is most accurate regarding lag? A. There are no resources involved B. It is fundamentally the same as float C. It is an acceleration of a successor activity D. It would be represented by a negative number on a PDM

Workbook, Practice Exam 2, page 155, #38 Answer: A There are no resources involved in a lag - it is just time that has to pass. Lag is a delay in the successor activity, not related to float, and it is a positive number on a schedule network diagram.

You have been managing the development project for six months. Upon recent evaluation, you determine that the TCPI is 1.27. which statement is most accurate? A. The project is 27% ahead of schedule B. The project needs to be 27% more efficient with resources C. The project is 27% over budget D. The project is using the resources 27% more efficiently than planned

Workbook, Practice Exam 4, page 188, #7 Answer: B TCPI is an efficiency ratio. A TCPI > 1 indicates that the project is not operating efficiently. The 1.27 indicates that the project needs to be 27% more efficient with resources in order to achieve the budget and work objectives.

You are evaluating the following component of the schedule: activity one has a duration of 4 days, activity two has a duration of 3 days, activity three has a duration of 8 days, activity four has a duration of 5 days (and is dependent upon activities one, two, and three completing), activity five has a duration of 7 days (and is dependent upon activity four completing), and activity six has a duration of 4 days (and is also dependent upon activity four completing). If activity two gets delayed by 4 days, what is the impact to the schedule? A. There is no impact B. The duration gets delayed by 5 days C. The amount of free float on the activity decreases to 2 days D. There is more than one critical path

Workbook, Practice Exam 2, page 156, #39 Answer: A IMAGE NEEDED! Based on the diagram, Activity Two has 5 days of float. As such, if it gets delayed by four days, there will be no impact.

Activity Z1 is 9 days and activity Z2 is 12 days. The activities have a finish to finish relationship. What is the difference between the best and worst case durations? A. 12 days B. 9 days C. 21 days D. 3 days

Workbook, Practice Exam 2, page 158, #59 Answer: B In a finish-to-finish relationship, the best case scenario is that they are happening concurrently, finishing the same day. The worst case scenario would be that the activities are completed sequentially with Z1 finishing before starting Z2. Best case would be 12 days (concurrent) and worst case would be 21 days (sequential). The difference between best and worst case is the 9 days.

There are 20 SMEs on your project from various functional areas across the organization. What statement best describes your responsibility regarding performance appraisals for those resources? A. Because you are working in a functional organization, the functional managers are responsible for their performance appraisals B. You are expected to contribute to their performance appraisals proportional to the amount of time they spend on your project C. Given that they are in a SME role, there is no need to provide performance feedback D. The only time it is appropriate for a project manager to provide feedback is when the resources report directly to them

Workbook, Practice Exam 2, page 159, #60 Answer: B Within a functional or matrix organization, the project manager is expected to contribute proportionately to the amount of time they participate on the project.

Which of the following is a true statement about the product life cycle: A. There can be multiple product life cycles within a single project life cycle B. The product life cycle spans a shorter time duration than a project life cycle C. The product life cycle has phases, however they are usually non-overlapping D. A project manager manages the entire product life cycle

Workbook, Practice Exam 2, page 159, #61 Answer: C The product life cycle has sequential, generally non-overlapping phases: ideation, creation, introduction, growth, maturity, decline, and retirement

The project management plan is considered a mandatory document. Key benefits of having a project management plan include all of the following except: A. The project management plan documents the scope of the project B. The project management plan provides protection for the organization should the project manager or key staff no longer be available C. The project management plan clarifies the approach and communicates the project approach to the project management team D. The project management plan documents the change control process to minimize scope creek

Workbook, Practice Exam 2, page 159, #63 Answer: A The scope statement documents the scope of the project, not the project management plan

Upon developing your schedule you realize that your project has multiple critical paths. Because of this: A. You should consider adding in time buffers on the critical paths B. You should consider additional management reserve C. You should escalate the situation to your project sponsor D. You should take an active risk acceptance approach

Workbook, Practice Exam 2, page 159, #64 Answer: A Your project having multiple critical paths implies increased risk on your project: if one activity slips, it could impact your overall project. As such, you should consider adding duration buffers to account for that risk. This is considered active risk acceptance, but adding the buffers is the most correct (more specific) answer.

The project management team process groups would best be described as: A. Being defined based on the project's methodology B. Sequential and non-overlapping C. Representing the phases of a project D. Being applied iteratively with many processes repeated during the project

Workbook, Practice Exam 2, page 159, #65 Answer: D The process groups are applied iteratively with many processes repeated throughout the project. They are not phases.

The website redesign project is 50% completed. You are working with your team members on some development activities. You learn that activity 10.17 and activity 10.18 have a start-to-start dependency relationship with a 4-day lag. 10.17 is 12 days and 10.18 is 15 days. What is the best case duration? A. 19 days B. 27 days C. 12 days D. 15 days

Workbook, Practice Exam 2, page 159, #66 Answer: A The best case duration is that the activities are happening concurrently, however, the four day lag must be factored in prior to starting activity 10.18. As such, the best case duration is 19 days (4 + 15).

Of your 35 stakeholders, you have identified four as being key stakeholders. A key stakeholder would be considered: A. Anyone who is participating actively on the project B. The individuals who will be funding the project C. The sponsor and the project manager D. Anyone in a decision-making or management role who is impacted by the project outcome

Workbook, Practice Exam 2, page 160, #68 Answer: D A key stakeholder is anyone in a decision-making or management role.

You are developing your project schedule with your team leads. A team member has inquired regarding the correct usage of leads, lags, and float. Which statement is most accurate? A. Lead and lag are used in sequential activity relationships, whereas float may occur during concurrent activities B. Float is used in sequential activity relationships, whereas float may occur during concurrent activities C. Lag can only be applied to activities with finish-to-start relationships, whereas lead can be found in all relationship types D. Float represents the time that can be saved during sequential activities

Workbook, Practice Exam 2, page 160, #73 Answer: A Leads and lags are applied in sequential activity relationships, whereas float occurs when you have concurrent activities of different durations.

The project schedule is being developed and upon review of the information submitted from your team members, you see that there are a number of activities that are less than 8 hours. In what situation would it be unacceptable to have an activity that is less than 8 hours on the schedule? A. The activity cannot be logically combined with any other activity B. The activity will be completed by a specialized resource that is doing limited work on the project C. The work package owner wants the work to be granular for increased control D. The work package owner wants to "call out" the particular activity as important

Workbook, Practice Exam 2, page 161, #74 Answer: C Generally speaking, schedule activities should be between eight and eighty hours for proper management and control. Less than eight hours, and it becomes too granular for the project manager to manage effectively. The exceptions to this would be when the activity cannot be combined with another activity, when it's a specialized resource, or if the activity needs to be called out as specifically important.

During this stage of team development, project team members are working independently and achieving project goals: A. Performing B. Developing C. Norming D. Collaborating

Workbook, Practice Exam 3, page 171, #10 Answer: C When team members are working independently and achieving goals, this would be considered norming. If they are working independently and meeting or exceed project goals, it would be the performing stage.

You just completed the initial analysis phase of you project and reported your findings to the sponsor. The project has significant uncontrollable risks and as such, your sponsor decides to cancel the project. Cancelling a troubled project is an example of: A. Mitigating project risk B. Avoiding the risk C. Transferring the risk D. Exploiting the project

Workbook, Practice Exam 3, page 172, #15 Answer: B Cancelling a project is considered risk avoidance - it eliminates the risks associated with the project.

An easy and objective method for evaluating proposals is a: A. Screening system B. Weighting system C. Team-based evaluation system D. Voting system

Workbook, Practice Exam 3, page 172, #16 Answer: B A weighting system is an easy and objective method of evaluating proposals, as it allows for scoring the criteria based on what is most important to the procurement and the project. A screening system is used to "screen" potential vendors/sellers.

Which of the following allows potential sellers to ask questions about the project and its requirements A. Sellers meeting B. Advertising bids C. Bidders conference D. Annual meeting

Workbook, Practice Exam 3, page 172, #17 Answer: C A bidder's conference allows potential sellers to ask questions about the project and the requirements. Also known as pre-bid conference, vendor conference, or seller conference.

As the project manager for a relatively small, internal project you had not considered the need for team-building activities when you were developing your cost and schedule estimates. However, the PMO manager has asked you to include some type of estimates in your final project information. What statement is least accurate regarding the project manager's role in the project team-building? A. The project manager should use appropriate rewards and recognition and create a team identity B. Team-building activities can be especially valuable for virtual teams C. The project manager must incorporate team-building activities on a set schedule D. The project manager should try to move the team through stages of team development

Workbook, Practice Exam 3, page 172, #19 Answer: C Team building does not have to be on a set schedule to be effective

Which of the following is a lower consideration in determining the appropriate recognition and rewards for your project team: A. Making it meaningful to the team member B. Cultural considerations C. Leveraging the existing organizational program D. The length of time participants will be on your project

Workbook, Practice Exam 3, page 173, #23 Answer: D Regardless of the time your project team will be working together, as project manager, you should be incorporating the appropriate rewards and recognition.

Why is it important for the project manager to be aware of the contract terms and conditions being used for the project procurements? A. The project manager may be responsible for ensuring that the terms and conditions are met B. The project manager has procurement authority and will be signing the contract C. The project manager will be paying the vendor and will need to leverage the terms and conditions to dictate payment requirements D. The project manager will be responsible for the final contract negotiations based on the contract terms

Workbook, Practice Exam 3, page 174, #28 Answer: A The project manager should be aware of the contract terms and conditions as they may be responsible for ensuring that the terms and conditions of the contract are being met. The PM typically does not have procurement authority and will not be signing the contract, nor will they be paying the vendor or responsible for the final contract negotiations.

Personnel assessment tools are used to: A. Provide feedback to the functional managers B. Assess the project team's effectiveness C. Provide an evaluation of the project's performance D. Engage the PMO or functional managers

Workbook, Practice Exam 3, page 174, #30 Answer: B Personnel assessment tools are used to assess the project team's effectiveness

Your project team has been making strong progress on the six month project despite a significant amount of resistance within the organization. You were recently made aware, however, of some conflict between two of your key team members. What is the most appropriate action for you to take? A. Confront the issue as soon as possible B. Take a forcing approach as there is already resistance within the organization C. Because they are key team members, take an accommodating approach to neutralize the emotion D. Allow the team members some time to resolve the issue on their own before intervening

Workbook, Practice Exam 3, page 174, #31 Answer: D Because there is no indication that the conflict is impacting the project work, it would be most appropriate to allow the team members time to resolve the conflict on their own without interference from the project manager.

The calculated schedule variance on your project is $8,000. Last month it was $10,000, and the month previous it was $18,000. Which statement is most accurate? A. The project is trending under-budget B. The project is trending behind of schedule C. The project is trending ahead of schedule D. The project is trending over budget

Workbook, Practice Exam 4, page 189, #10 Answer: B While the project is not yet behind schedule, the consistently decreasing schedule variance indicates that it is trending towards being behind schedule. A positive schedule variance indicates the project is ahead of schedule, a negative schedule variance indicates the project is behind schedule.

As you evaluate a vendor bid of $350,000, you take into consideration the probability and impact of any delays. You determine that there is a 65% probability that the vendor will come in behind schedule at a cost of $125,000 and there is a 35% probability that the vendor will come in early for a savings of $50,000. What is the total value of the bid? A. $286,250 B. $63,750 C. $448,750 D. $413,750

Workbook, Practice Exam 3, page 175, #35 Answer: D There is a 65% probability the vendor will come in $125,000 over the estimate and a 35% probability that they will come in $50,000 under the estimate. 0.65 x $125,000 = $81,250 (positive number as it is a potential additional cost) 0.35 x ($50,000) = ($17,000) (negative number as it is a potential saving off of the original bid) EMV = $81,250 + ($17,500) = $63,750. Total value = $350,000 + $63,750 = $413,750

You are the Project Manager of the construction project. The project is being executed in a hurricane-prone area. Due to the potential risk of storms to the project, you buy insurance for hurricanes and tropical storms. This is an example of: A. Transfer of risk B. Risk mitigation C. Risk avoidance D. Risk contingency planning

Workbook, Practice Exam 3, page 175, #38 Answer: A

You are conducting a quantitative risk analysis on your project in relation to potential profits earned from a new product. The estimated base profit is $350,000. There is a 20% chance that it will exceed expectations at a value of $180,000, there is a 50% chance that it will meet expectations at a value of $40,000, and a 30% chance it will not meet expectations at a value of ($140,000). What is the expected monetary value of the risk? A. $364,000 B. ($364,000) C. ($14,000) D. $14,000

Workbook, Practice Exam 3, page 175, #39 Answer: D There is a 20% probability that the profit will increase by $180,000; a 50% probability it will increase by $40,000, and a 30% probability it will decrease by $140,000. 0.2 x $180,000 = $36,000 0.50 x $40,000 = $20,000 0.30 x ($140,000) = ($42,000) (negative number as it is a loss from the profit) EMV: $36,000 + $20,000 + ($42,000) = $14,000

According to Herzberg, these factors do not give positive satisfaction, although dissatisfaction results from their absence A. Extrinsic B. Motivators C. Hygiene D. Y factors

Workbook, Practice Exam 3, page 178, #60 Answer: C Hygiene factors do not give positive satisfaction, but dissatisfaction can result from their absence.

The CPFF contract states that the sub-contractor will be paid for costs associated with digging the trenches, estimated at approximately $15,000. In addition, they will receive an additional payment of $7,500 (50% of the estimated costs). What would the contract value be if the final costs associated with the job were $20,000? A. $30,000 B. $22,500 C. $27,500 D. $35,00

Workbook, Practice Exam 3, page 179, #65 Answer: C For a cost plus fixed fee (CPFF) contract, the contract value would be the final costs ($20,000) plus the pre-determined fixed fee ($7,500). Contract value would be $27,500.

The simplest form of this contract type is a purchase order: A. FPIF B. FFP C. CPIF D. CPFF

Workbook, Practice Exam 3, page 179, #66 Answer: B The simplest form of a firm fixed price (FFP) contract is a purchase order.

During the development phase of your project, you will be using a vendor for a key component of the product manufacturing. However, prior to development, your team will need to conduct a rigorous analysis to determine the manufacturing needs and requirements. If you needed to enter into a contractual relationship with the vendor prior to completion of the analysis, what contract type would most likely be used? A. CPFF B. FP_EPA C. FFP D. CPAF

Workbook, Practice Exam 3, page 180, #73 Answer: A Because the analysis is not complete, it would not be possible to enter into a fixed price contract, as there is not clear definition as to what the seller will be delivering. It is very unlikely that a seller would agree to enter into a cost plus award fee (CPAF) contract as they would not be guaranteed any profit on the job.

This technique involves choosing a part of a population for inspection and testing: A. Quality control B. Flowcharting C. Quality metrics D. Statistical sampling

Workbook, Practice Exam 3, page 180, #74 Answer: D Selecting a representative population for testing and inspection is statistical sampling.

The contract states that the company will pay the staffing agency $50 per hour for the contract resource, with a not-to-exceed value of $10,000. What type of contract is being used? A. FFP B. CPAF C. Time and material D. CPIF

Workbook, Practice Exam 3, page 180, #75 Answer: C A time and material contract would pay time and expense (T&E) and will also have a not-to-exceed value.

The deliverables are an output of what process? A. Develop project management plan B. Monitor and control project work C. Perform quality control D. Direct and manage project work

Workbook, Practice Exam 4, page 188, #1 Answer: D Deliverables are an output of the Direct and Manage Project Work process. They will then become an input to the Control Quality process where: -they will be checked for correctness against the requirements -upon verification, the deliverables will become "verified deliverables"

Procurement documents are an output of what process? A. Control procurements B. Plan procurement management C. Conduct procurements D. Define scope

Workbook, Practice Exam 4, page 188, #5 Answer: B The procurement documents are an output of the Plan Procurement Management process. Procurement documents are used to solicit proposals or responses from potential vendors. The procurement documents will be updated to include the executed agreement (or contract) in subsequent procurement processes. Procurement documents can include: -Request for proposal (RFP) -Request for quotation (RFQ) -Invitation for bid (IFB) -Tender notice

You are three months into a 6-month, $195,000 project. Invoices paid to date are $37,500 and the planned costs at three months were $75,000. What is the to-complete performance index? A. 1.625 B. 0.78 C. 0.62 D. 1.25

Workbook, Practice Exam 4, page 188, #6 Answer: C TCPI is calculated as: (Budget at Completion - Earned Value) / (Budget at Completion - Actual Costs) Budget at Completion (BAC) is provided; $195,000 Earned Value (EV) = BAC x % Complete = $97,500 AC is provided; $37,500 ($195,000 - $97,500) / ($195,000 - $37,500) $97,500 / $157,500 = 0.62 This indicates that the project has 38% more money than work remaining (a positive situation).

If you have the completed stakeholder register, what process have you completed? A. Plan stakeholder management B. Management stakeholders C. Identify stakeholders D. Develop project charter

Workbook, Practice Exam 4, page 189, #11 Answer: C The stakeholder register is an output of the "Identify Stakeholders" process.

The SPI of your project is 0.8 and your planned value at this point in your project is $125,000. How much value have you earned in your project? A. $100,000 B. $225,000 C. Unable to determine D. $25,000

Workbook, Practice Exam 4, page 189, #12 Answer: A The formula for schedule performance index (SPI) is: SPI - earned value (EV) / planned value (PV). We are provided with: SPI = 0.8 PV = $125k SPI x PV = EV 0.8 x $125k = $100k

Financial databases, lessons learned, issue and defect management databases, and previous project files are all considered components of the: A. Enterprise environmental assets B. Project management office requirements C. Change control processes D. Corporate knowledge base

Workbook, Practice Exam 4, page 189, #13 Answer: D Items listed are considered components of the corporate knowledge base, which is part of the organizational process assets (OPA).

The ratio of earned value to planned value: A. Cost variance B. Cost performance index C. Schedule performance index D. To-complete performance index

Workbook, Practice Exam 4, page 189, #14 Answer: C The ratio of earned value (EV) to planned value (PV) is the formula for the schedule performance index (SPI). SPI = EV / PV

The cost variance on your project is ($18,000) and your earned value is $92,000. What are your actual costs? A. $110,000 B. $74,000 C. Unable to determine D. $98,000

Workbook, Practice Exam 4, page 189, #15 Answer: A The formula for cost variance (CV): CV = earned value (EV) - actual costs (AC) $92k + $18k = $110k The negative costs variance indicates that your project is currently over budget

The $75,000 project is 80% complete and has a cost variance of ($12,000). Which statement is most accurate? A. The project is over budget B. The project is behind schedule C. The project is under budget D. The project will not meet the project budget objectives

Workbook, Practice Exam 4, page 189, #9 Answer: A A negative cost variance indicates that the project is currently over budget. Although it is currently over budget it does not necessarily mean that the project will not meet budget objectives, as corrective actions may be pursued.

The documented start and finish dates of activities, actual costs and durations, percent of work physically completed would all be considered: A. Work performance information B. Work performance data C. Work performance inputs D. Work performance reports

Workbook, Practice Exam 4, page 190, #16 Answer: B The items listed represent work performance data, which is an output of Direct and Manage Project Work. Work performance data can be thought of as "raw" data. Work performance data is an input to multiple Monitoring and Controlling processes where it will be analyzed. The output from those processes will be work performance information. The work performance information will be an input to the Monitor and Control Project Work process where the output will be the work performance reports. Data > Information > Reports

The difference between the project schedule and the schedule baseline could best be described as: A. The project schedule is updated throughout the project but the schedule baseline is only updated when there's an approved changed to scope B. The terms are synonymous C. The baseline is created before the schedule D. The schedule baseline is updated throughout the project and then compared to the project schedule

Workbook, Practice Exam 4, page 190, #17 Answer: A The project schedule is considered the "living" schedule that is updated throughout the project as needed. The schedule baseline is a "frozen" version of the schedule, part of the project management plan, that should only be updated when there is a significant authorized change to scope.

A review of the effectiveness of risk responses in dealing with the identified risks and their root causes. A. Risk audit B. Risk response review C. Risk monitoring and controlling D. Risk evaluation

Workbook, Practice Exam 4, page 190, #19 Answer: A A risk audit, a tool/technique from the Control Risks process, is a structured review of the effectiveness of the risk responses.

Determining if the remaining reserve is adequate by evaluating the amount of contingency reserves remaining to the amount of risk remaining. A. Contingency evaluation B. Monitoring and controlling C. Reserve analysis D. Management reserve consideration

Workbook, Practice Exam 4, page 190, #20 Answer: C A reserve analysis, a fairly common Tool/Technique in the PMBOK Guide, refers to an evaluation of the amount of contingency time and money compared to the amount of risk (or uncertainty) remaining on the project. Theoretically, projects are risk-declining and if the amount of risk decreases, the amount of reserve should decrease accordingly, with an extra funding being released back to the organization.

Identified upper and lower measurements that established limits that if the repeated results fall within those limits, the process is considered stable: A. Tolerances B. Thresholds C. Control limits D. Appetite

Workbook, Practice Exam 4, page 190, #22 Answer: C Control limits are represented on a control chart, typically three standard deviations from the mean. If results of any type of output sampling fall outside of those control limits, the process is considered unstable.

Requirements documentation and the requirements traceability matrix are: A. Both outputs of the Collect Requirements Process B. Both outputs of the Define Scope Process C. Outputs of both Plan Scope Management and Plan Requirements Management D. Both outputs of Create Scope Basline

Workbook, Practice Exam 4, page 190, #23 Answer: A The requirements documentation and requirements traceability matrix are both outputs of the Collect Requirements process in the project scope management knowledge area/planning process group.

The results of the quality control activities that are fed back to the QA process for use in re-evaluating and analyzing the quality standards and processes: A. Quality metrics B. Quality results C. Quality measurements D. QC data

Workbook, Practice Exam 4, page 191, #24 Answer: C The quality measurements are an output of the Control Quality (QC) process. These are the actual measurements resulting from the QC activities - for example, defect rate, error rate, etc. These measurements are evaluated against the quality metrics that were identified in the Plan Quality Management process, in QA to determine if the right processes and standards are in place.

A comparison of the earned value and the planned value: A. Cost variance B. Schedule performance index C. Schedule variance D. Cost performance index

Workbook, Practice Exam 4, page 191, #25 Answer: B Schedule Performance Index (SPI) is a comparison of earned value (EV) to planned value (PV). The SPI formula is: SPI = EV / PV

The activity attributes are to the activity list as what is to the WBS? A. WBS dictionary B. WBS details C. Work package attributes D. Work descriptions

Workbook, Practice Exam 4, page 191, #26 Answer: A The activity attributes provide the back-end details related to each of the activities on the activity list. The WBS dictionary provides the back-end details of the work packages contained within the WBS.

The value of the work already completed on the project: A. Earned value B. Estimate to complete C. Estimate at completion D. Planned value

Workbook, Practice Exam 4, page 191, #27 Answer: A The value of the work already completed on the project is the "earned value." Earned Value (EV) Budget at Completion (BAC) EV = BAC x % Complete Percentage complete may be either time-based (i.e. 3 weeks into a 6-week project would be 50%) or effort-based

The authorized budget assigned to the work that will be accomplished as of the status date: A. Actual costs B. Earned value C. Estimate to complete D. Planned value

Workbook, Practice Exam 4, page 191, #28 Answer: D Planned value (PV) is the planned value of the work to be accomplished by the status date. PV at the end of the project is equal to the budget at completion (BAC).

Which of the following is not a component of the scope baseline? A. Scope statement B. Work breakdown structure C. Scope deliverables D. Work breakdown structure dictionary

Workbook, Practice Exam 4, page 191, #29 Answer: C The scope baseline includes the scope statement (an output of the Define Scope process), the work breakdown structure (WBS), and the WBS dictionary.

Which output is completed first: the stakeholder register or the stakeholder management plan? A. The stakeholder register B. The stakeholder management plan C. The are both completed simultaneously D. There is no relationship between the two

Workbook, Practice Exam 4, page 191, #30 Answer: A In the Initiating process group, the stakeholder register is an output of the Identify Stakeholders process. Using the information in the stakeholder register, the stakeholder management plan describes how the stakeholders will be involved in the project and how to maintain engagement and increase involvement by those stakeholders.

The schedule forecasts will be an output of what process? A. Control schedule B. Forecast schedule C. Develop schedule D. Develop project management plan

Workbook, Practice Exam 4, page 191, #31 Answer: A In the Control Schedule process within the Monitoring and Controlling process group, the schedule forecast will be created based upon a variance analysis of actual to planned activities.

At six months in, your $785,000 project is 35% complete and the TCPI is 0.74 and you've spent $95,000 to date. What is the earned value of the project? A. $595,000 B. $580,900 C. $690,000 D. $274,750

Workbook, Practice Exam 4, page 191, #32 Answer: D To calculate earned value (EV) take the budget at completion (BAC) and multiply it by the percent complete. EV = BAC x % Complete $785k x 0.35 = $274,750 Please not that the TCPI and the actual costs (AC) were not needed in this problem and were simply noise.

You have secured written authorization for you project. What process has been completed? A. Develop project charter B. Develop project management plan C. Direct and manage project work D. Document project authorization

Workbook, Practice Exam 4, page 192, #33 Answer: A The objective of the Develop Project Charter process is to secure written authorization of the project, as demonstrated by the executed project charter.

Which statement is most accurate? A. The define scope process precedes the create work breakdown structure process B. The WBS must be complete in order to define scope C. The scope baseline is an output of the define scope process D. The scope statement is produced after the WBS

Workbook, Practice Exam 4, page 192, #34 Answer: A There are four processes within the Project Scope Management Knowledge Area / Planning Process Group that are done sequentially: Plan Scope Management, Collect Requirements, Define Scope, and Create WBS. In order to develop the WBS, the scope statement must be complete. The scope statement is an output of the Define Scope process and as such, precedes the development of the WBS.

The project has earned value of $87,750. Costs-to-date have been, $110,000, and the budget is $195,000. What percent complete is this project? A. 80% B. 45% C. Unable to determine D. 56%

Workbook, Practice Exam 4, page 192, #36 Answer: B Earned value (EV) is calculated as: EV = Budget at Completion (BAC) x Percent Complete As we are solving for Percent Complete, we would divide the EV of $87,750 by the BAC of $195,000. $87,750 / $195,000 = 0.45

Your project has earned value of $300,000 despite invoices totaling $325,000. You've calculated your TCPI as 1.14. What is your budget? A. $500,000 B. $325,000 C. $342,000 D. $370,500

Workbook, Practice Exam 4, page 192, #37 Answer: A The formula for TCPI (to-compete performance index) is: (Budget at Completion - Earned Value) / (Budget at Completion - Actual Costs) (BAC - EV) / (BAC - AC) (BAC - $300k) / (BAC - $325k) = 1.14 ($500k - $300k) / ($500k - ($325k) = 1.14 $200k / $175k = 1.4

Which statement is most accurate: A. The cost estimates are the project budget B. The cost estimates, applied across the schedule, create the budget C. The project budget is developed first and then decomposed into cost estimates D. The budget may be progressively elaborated whereas the cost estimates must be determined completely at the start of the project.

Workbook, Practice Exam 4, page 192, #38 Answer: B There are two processes that lead to the cost baseline: Estimate Costs and Determine Budget. First costs are estimated across the project, in as much detail as is feasible for the particular stage of the project. Those costs are then applied across the schedule to determine the budget and create the cost baseline. Both the project budget and the cost estimates may be progressively elaborated.

The scope baseline is an output of what process? A. Plan scope management B. Define scope C. Collect requirements D. Create WBS

Workbook, Practice Exam 4, page 192, #39 Answer: D There are three scope planning processes that lead to the development of the scope baseline: Collect requirements - outputs are the requirements documentation and the requirements traceability matrix Define scope - output is the scope statement Create WBS - output is the scope baseline (consisting of the scope statement, the WBS, and the WBS dictionary)

The test plan design must be approved by the project engineer prior to implementation. This represents what type of dependency? A. Hard logic B. Preferential C. External D. Manatory

Workbook, Practice Exam 4, page 192, #40 Answer: B A preferential dependency (also known as a preferred, discretionary, or soft logic dependency) is based on past experience, best practice, industry, or organizational standard. Given that there is no physical dependency on the design being approved prior to being implemented, meaning the design could be physically implemented without the approval, it is considered preferential. Do not let the word "must" through you off. On these dependencies, you will be looking for a physical limitation to indicate a mandatory/hard logic dependency.

Based on the information contained in this graphic, what is the status of the project? INSERT IMAGE A. Under budget but trending over budget B. Behind schedule and under budget C. Ahead of schedule and over budget D. Over budget and behind schedule

Workbook, Practice Exam 4, page 193, #41 Answer: D While evaluating a project's status using an Earned Value Management (EVM) chart, you will always compare Actual Cost (AC) to Earned Value (EV) to determine the status of the budget and Planned Value (PV) (the blue line) to Earned Value (EV) to determine the status of the schedule. Given that the EV is less than the AC (we've earned less than we've spent), the project appears to be over budget. Given that the EV is also less than the PV (we've earned less than we've planned to have earned at this point), the project appears to be behind schedule. A project that is progressing well will have an EV the same as, or higher than, the AC and the PV.

The project has earned value of $87,750. Costs-to-date have been $110,000, and the budget is $195,000. What is the status of the project? A. Appears ahead of schedule B. Appears over budget C. Appears both over budget and behind schedule D. Unable to determine based on information provided

Workbook, Practice Exam 4, page 193, #42 Answer: B Using the information provided, you can only determine the status of the budget: Cost Variance (CV) = Earned Value (EV) - Actual Costs (AC) $87,750 - $110k = ($22,250) A negative cost variance indicates that the project is currently $22,250 over budget.

Which statement about the deliverables is most accurate A. Deliverables are created through the scope processes B. Deliverables are evaluated through the validate scope process prior to final review during the control quality process C. Deliverables are verified once they have gone through the control quality process D. Accepted deliverables will be provided to the requesting party for verification in the validate scope process.

Workbook, Practice Exam 4, page 193, #43 Answer: C The deliverables are an output of the Direct and Manage Project Work process. Upon completion, they are first evaluated by the Control Quality process, where they now become "verified" deliverables. The verified deliverables are an input to the Validate Scope process where they now become "accepted" deliverables. Deliverables > Verified Deliverables > Accepted Deliverables

Which statement is most accurate regarding resource leveling and resource smoothing? A. Resource smoothing must occur before resource leveling B. Resource leveling may alter the critical path whereas resource smoothing will not C. Resource smoothing may alter the critical path whereas resource leveling will not D. The terms smoothing and leveling are synonymous

Workbook, Practice Exam 4, page 193, #44 Answer: B There are two resource optimization techniques: resource leveling and resource smoothing. Resource leveling is always done first and may alter the critical path. Resource smoothing is done after leveling and uses any float that may be available to "smooth out" the level of effort. As such, you may not be able to optimize all resources when you smooth. Resource smoothing does not alter the critical path.

Your project has a schedule variance of $2,750 and a cost variance of $7,950. What statement best describes the status of your project? A. The project is under budget and behind schedule B. The project is over budget and behind schedule C. The project is over budget and ahead of schedule D. The project is under budget and ahead of schedule

Workbook, Practice Exam 4, page 193, #45 Answer: D A positive schedule variance (SV) indicates that the earned value (EV) of the project is greater than the planned value (PV), indicating that the project is ahead of schedule. A positive cost variance (CV) indicates that the earned value (EV) of the project is greater than the actual costs (AC), indicating that the project is under budget.

Based on the information in the graphic, what is the current status of the project? INSERT IMAGE A. The project is ahead of schedule and over budget B. The project is behind schedule and under budget C. The project is over budget and behind schedule D. The project is under budget and ahead of schedule

Workbook, Practice Exam 4, page 194, #46 Answer: D Using the Earned Value Management (EVM) graphic, and evaluating status compared to the Earned Value (EV) of the project, you can determine: The project is under budget as the EV is greater than the Actual Costs (AC). The project is ahead of schedule as the EV is greater than the Planned Value (PV) (blue line)

Based on the graphic, if there's a 35% probability that Option A will occur, what is the value of Option B? INSERT IMAGE A. $37,800 B. $24,570 C. $37,700 D. $58,000

Workbook, Practice Exam 4, page 194, #47 Answer: B If there is a 35% probability that Option A will occur, there must be a 65% probability that Option B will occur. For the expected monetary value (EMV) calculation, if there is a 10% probability of $18k, there is a 90% probability of $40k. 0.9 x $40k = $36k 0.1 x $18k = $1,800 EMV = $36k + $1,800 = $37,800 There is only a 65% probability of Option B, so you multiply the $37,800 by the 65% probability: 0.65 x $37,500 = $24,570

An efficiency ratio that compares the work remaining on the project to the funds remaining on the project. A. Schedule performance index B. Planned value C. To-complete performance index D. Cost performance index

Workbook, Practice Exam 4, page 194, #48 Answer: C To-complete performance index (TCPI) is an efficiency ratio, comparing work remaining to funds remaining: TCPI = (Budget at completion - earned value) / (Budget at completion - actual cost)

The difference between the estimate to complete and the estimate at completion forecasts can best be described as: A. Actual cost B. Earned value C. Variance at completion D. Cost variance

Workbook, Practice Exam 4, page 195, #49 Answer: A Estimate to complete (ETC) is the projection of the remaining costs to complete the project. Estimate at completion (EAC) is the projection of overall project spending - including both the actual costs and the estimate to complete.

The costs associated with assessing the quality of a product is considered: A. CMMI B. Cost of conformance C. Cost of nonconformance D. Cost benefit analysis

Workbook, Practice Exam 4, page 195, #50 Answer: B The cost of quality encompasses the cost of conformance and the cost of non-conformance. The cost of conformance is money spent to avoid failures and as such, the costs associated with assessing the quality of the product, would be considered the costs of conformance.

You are evaluating your $89,000 project. The project is estimated to take six months and you have completed month two. After reviewing invoices, you determined that the paid-to-date amount is $27,000. The budget has been allocated as follows: Month 1: $4,000 Month 2: $12,000 Month 3: $23,000 Month 4: $25,000 Month 5: $15,000 Month 6: $10,000 Which statement is most accurate? A. The project is ahead of schedule B. The project is over-budget C. The project is behind schedule D. The variance at completion is negative

Workbook, Practice Exam 4, page 195, #51 Answer: A For this question, you will calculate the following variables: budget at completion (BAC) = $89k. At 33% complete, the calculated Earned Value (EV) is $29,370. The actual costs (AC) are $27k and the planned value (PV) is $16k (the cumulative planned spending of the first two months). Schedule variance (SV) = EV - PV = $29,270 - $16k = $13,370. A positive SV indicates the project is ahead of schedule.

You are a PMP and you are having dinner with a friend to celebrate his new job. Over dinner he tells you that the PMP was a requirement of the job, but that he "fudged" his application knowing that the company didn't verify the information. How do you handle this? A. Do nothing B. Report your friend to PMI C. Report your friend to his employer D. Advise your friend to be honest with his employer

Workbook, Practice Exam 4, page 195, #52 Answer: B Because the PMP is a professional credential, any known violations are to be reported to PMI. If, as a PMP, you do not report the violation, you can be found in violation.

You have completed all of the project deliverables as defined within the project scope statement. As you are working to close the project and distribute the lessons learned and final project report, your manager assigns you to another project. Which statement is most accurate? A. The project is considered closed because of the reassignment and the completed deliverables B. The project is open until all requirements are met C. The sponsor is able to consider the project closed D. The PMO would take over the responsibility of the project

Workbook, Practice Exam 4, page 195, #53 Answer: B A project is not considered complete until all requirements are met, for both the project and the product. Even if your manager re-assigns you, the project is still considered open and should be identified as such, and escalate as appropriate.

You are evaluating four vendors with the following bids Vendor A: $33,000 Vendor B: $37,000 Vendor C: $28,000 Vendor D: $31,000 Based on historical information, there is a 70% chance that Vendor A will have a 20% cost overrun. There is a 48% chance that Vendor B will have a 25% cost overrun. There is a 55% chance that Vendor C will have a 40% cost overrun. There is a 30% chance that Vendor D will have a 25% cost overrun. Which vendor is the best option? A. Vendor B B. Vendor C C. Vendor A D. Vendor D

Workbook, Practice Exam 4, page 196, #58 Answer: D To calculate the answer: Vendor A: A 20% cost overrun would be $6,600, multiplied by the 70% probability = $4,620, bringing the total value for Vendor A to $37,620 ($33k + $4,620 = $37,620) Vendor B: A 25% cost overrun would be $9,250, multiplied by the 48% probability = $4,400, bringing the total value for Vendor B to $41,440 ($37k + $4,440 = $41,440) Vendor C: A 40% cost overrun would be $11,200, multiplied by the 55% probability = $6,160, bringing the total value for Vendor C to $34,160 ($28k + $6,160 = $34,160) Vendor D: A 25% cost overrun would be $7,750, multiplied by the 30% probability = $2,325, bringing the total value for Vendor D to $33,325 ($31k + $2,325 = $33,325)

The result is rated on a scale that measures the degree of conformity: A. Variable B. Attribute C. Specific D. Acceptance

Workbook, Practice Exam 4, page 196, #59 Answer: A Variable sampling measures the result on a scale to determine the degree of conformity, versus an attribute sampling which measures the result as either pass or fail.

A source of variation that is not inherent in the system and is not predictable. A. Common B. Random C. Special D. Conditional

Workbook, Practice Exam 4, page 196, #60 Answer: C Special causes of variance are unusual and difficult to predict. Compare special causes of variance to common causes of variance (Also known as random variance), which are predictable variances.

The forecasted estimate at completion is $75,000. You have spent $38,000 to date and have earned value of $46,000. The variance at completion is $9,000. What is the budget at completion? A. $29,000 B. $83,000 C. $84,000 D. $121,000

Workbook, Practice Exam 4, page 197, #62 Answer: C Using the following variables: Estimate At Completion (EAC) = $75k Actual Costs (AC) = $38k Earned Value (EV) = $46k Variance At Completion (VAC) = $9k use the VAC formula to back into the budget at completion (BAC). VAC = BAC - EAC $9k = BAC - $75k $84k = BAC

Which statement is most accurate regarding the control quality process? A. It is a successor to scope definition and scope validation B. It precedes quality assurance and scope validation C. It is a successor to deliverable acceptance D. It precedes plan quality management

Workbook, Practice Exam 4, page 197, #63 Answer: B The Control Quality (QC) process precedes both the Validate Scope process (considered scope verification) and the Perform Quality Assurance (QA) process. QC precedes Validate Scope as deliverables must be checked for correctness before being provided to the customer for acceptance. QC precedes QA as the QC measurements are required in order to perform the quality audits of QA.

The difference between a quality metric and a quality measurement can best be described as: A. A metric describes an attribute whereas a measurement is an actual value B. A metric is an actual value whereas a measurement is how it will be calculated C. A measurement describes an attribute whereas a metric is an actual value D. A measurement is an actual value whereas a metric is how it will be documented

Workbook, Practice Exam 4, page 197, #64 Answer: A A quality metric is the definition of what the team intends to achieve. Quality metrics are an output of the Plan Quality Management process. Quality control measurements are a measurement of the actual results that are being accomplished. Quality control measurements will be an output of the Control Quality (QC) process.

You are calculating the CPI for your project and have the following results: Month 1: 1.10 Month 2: 0.98 Month 3: 0.99 Month 4: 1.09 Month 5: 1.12 Month 6: 1.03 Month 7: 0.97 This could best be described as: A. Random variance B. Special variance C. Abnormal variance D. Controlled variance

Workbook, Practice Exam 4, page 197, #65 Answer: A Given that the variance is consistent and stable without extreme outlying values, this would be considered random (or common) variance. Random variance is normal process variation.

As your project begins producing the XJ9000 component, your QC team is inspecting them to ensure that they each power-on. This is an example of: A. Variance evaluation B. Attribute sampling C. Variable sampling D. Special variance review

Workbook, Practice Exam 4, page 197, #66 Answer: B Because they are testing for a pass/fail result (it either turns on or it doesn't), it would be considered attribute sampling.

Which statement is most accurate regarding tolerances and control limits? A. They are one in the same B. Only control limits can be demonstrated in a control chart C. Tolerances are typically subjective whereas control limits are typically mathematically defined D. Control limits are typically subjective whereas tolerances are typically mathematically defined

Workbook, Practice Exam 4, page 197, #67 Answer: C Both tolerances and control limits can be depicted on a control chart, however, while control limits are typically mathematically defined as three standard deviations from the mean, tolerances are based on preference and are therefore more subjective.

Your project has a CPI of 0.98 and a schedule variance of ($12,000). Which statement is most accurate? A. The project is ahead of schedule and over budget B. The project is behind schedule and under budget C. The project is over budget and behind schedule D. The project is under budget and ahead of schedule

Workbook, Practice Exam 4, page 198, #69 Answer: C Because the cost performance index (CPI) is less than one, reflecting that the project has a lower earned value (EV) than actual cost (AC), the project is considered over budget. A negative schedule variance (SV), reflecting that the project has a lower earned value (EV) than planned (PV), indicates that the project is behind schedule.

Which statement most accurately describes a verified deliverable? A. The deliverable has been evaluated through quality control B. The deliverables has been accepted by the customer C. The deliverables has been reviewed through quality assurance D. The deliverables has been checked against the scope statement

Workbook, Practice Exam 4, page 198, #71 Answer: A A verified deliverable is an output of the Perform Quality (QC) process, meaning that the deliverable has been checked for correctness and conformance to requirements.