Preflight

What are the alternate airport requirements? (14 CFR 91.169c

1-2-3 Rule—If from 1 hour before to 1 hour after your planned ETA at the destination airport, the weather is forecast to be at least 2,000-foot ceilings and 3-mile visibilities, no alternate is required. If less than 2,000 and 3 miles, an alternate must be filed using the following criteria: a. If an IAP is published for that airport, the alternate airport minimums specified in that procedure or, if none are specified, the following minimums— • Precision approach procedure: ceiling 600 feet and visibility 2 statute miles. • Nonprecision approaches: ceiling 800 feet and visibility 2 statute miles. b. If no IAP has been published for that airport, the ceiling and visibility minimums are those allowing descent from the MEA, approach, and landing under basic VFR.

What are the four methods a pilot may use to conduct and then log IAPs? (FAA InFO 15012)

1. Actual instrument flight conditions flown in an aircraft; 2. Simulated instrument flight conditions, using a view-limiting device, flown in an aircraft with a safety pilot; 3. Simulated instrument flight conditions conducted in any FAA-approved full flight simulator (FFS), flight training device (FTD), aviation training device (ATD); or 4. A combination of methods 1 through 3 as prescribed by §61.57(c)(4), or (5).

What requirements must be met before a pilot can log an IAP for currency or training? (FAA InFO 15012)

1. When conducted in an aircraft, full flight simulator, flight training device, or aviation training device, the pilot must operate that aircraft or authorized training device solely by reference to instruments. (14 CFR 61.51(g)(1)) 2. When conducted in an aircraft, full flight simulator, flight training device, or aviation training device, the pilot must be established on each required segment of the IAP to the minimum descent altitude (MDA) or decision altitude/decision height (DA/DH). 3. When conducted in an aircraft simulating instrument flight conditions, a full flight simulator, a flight training device, or an aviation training device, the simulated instrument meteorological conditions (IMC) must continue to MDA or DA/DH. 4. When conducted in an aircraft, the flight must be conducted under actual or simulated instrument flight conditions. (14 CFR 61.51(g)(1)) 5. When conducted in an aircraft maneuvering in IMC, the aircraft transitions from IMC to visual flight conditions on the final approach segment of the IAP prior to or upon reaching MDA or DA/DH.

What are the standard temperature and pressure values for sea level? (AC 00-6)

15°C and 29.92" Hg are standard at sea level

If the air temperature is +6°C at an airport elevation of 1,200 feet and a standard (average) temperature lapse rate exists, what will be the approximate freezing level?

4,200 MSL; 6° at the surface divided by the average temperature lapse rate of 2°C results in a 3,000-foot freezing level, converted to sea level by adding the 1,200-foot airport elevation.

After filing an IFR flight plan, can you depart VFR and pick up your IFR clearance in the air? (FAA-H-8083-16)

A VFR departure can be used as a tool that allows you to get off the ground without having to wait for a time slot in the IFR system; however, departing VFR with the intent of receiving an IFR clearance in the air can also present serious hazards worth considering. A VFR departure dramatically changes the takeoff responsibilities for you and for ATC: a. Upon receiving clearance for a VFR departure, you are cleared to depart; however, you must maintain separation between yourself and other traffic. b. You are also responsible for maintaining terrain and obstruction clearance as well as remaining in VFR weather conditions. You cannot fly in IMC without first receiving your IFR clearance. c. Departing VFR relieves ATC of these duties, and basically requires them only to provide you with safety alerts as workload permits. d. You must maintain VFR until you have obtained your IFR clearance and have ATC approval to proceed on course in accordance with your clearance. If you accept this clearance and are below the minimum IFR altitude for operations in the area, you accept responsibility for terrain/obstruction clearance until you reach that altitude.

What is a dryline and why is knowledge of its location important to you? (AC 00-6)

A dryline is a low-level boundary hundreds of miles long that separates moist and dry air masses. In the U.S, it typically lies north-south across the southern and central High Plains during the spring and early summer, where it separates moist air from the Gulf of Mexico to the east and dry desert air from the southwestern states to the west. Severe and sometimes tornadic thunderstorms often develop along a dryline or in the moist air just to the east of it, especially when it begins moving eastward

If your route of flight takes you towards a low-pressure system, what kind of weather in general can you expect? What if you were flying towards a high-pressure system? (AC 00-6)

A low-pressure system is characterized by rising air, which is conducive to cloudiness, precipitation and bad weather. A high-pressure system is an area of descending air which tends to favor dissipation of cloudiness and good weather.

What is the function of a magnetometer? (FAA-H-8083-6)

A magnetometer is a device that measures the strength of the earth's magnetic field to determine aircraft heading. It provides this information digitally to the AHRS, which relays it to the PFD.

What conditions are necessary for a pilot to log instrument time? (14 CFR 61.51)

A person may log instrument time only for that flight time when the person operates the aircraft solely by reference to instruments under actual or simulated instrument flight conditions.

An applicant for an instrument rating must have at least how much and what type of flight time as pilot? (14 CFR 61.65)

A person who applies for an instrument-airplane rating must have logged the following: a. 50 hours of cross-country flight time as PIC, of which 10 hours must have been in an airplane; b. 40 hours of actual or simulated instrument time in the Part 61 areas of operation, of which 15 hours must have been received from an authorized instructor who holds an instrument airplane rating, and the instrument time includes: • 3 hours of instrument flight training from an authorized instructor in an airplane that is appropriate to the instrument-airplane rating within 2 calendar months before the date of the practical test; • Instrument flight training on cross country flight procedures, including one cross country flight in an airplane with an authorized instructor, that is performed under IFR, when a flight plan has been filed with an ATC facility, and that involves a flight of 250 NM along airways or ATC-directed routing, an instrument approach at each airport, and 3 different kinds of approaches with the use of navigation systems.

How can a pilot obtain the latest GPS NOTAMs? (AIM 1-1-17)

A pilot can specifically request GPS aeronautical information from an FSS briefer during preflight briefings. Also, NOTAMs about known GPS service disruptions can be found at https://notams.aim.faa.gov/notamSearch/.

If a pilot allows his/her instrument currency to expire, what can be done to become current again? (14 CFR 61.57, 91.109)

A pilot is current for the first 6 months following his/her instrument checkride or proficiency check. If the pilot has not accomplished at least 6 approaches (including holding procedures, intercepting/tracking courses through the use of navigation systems) within this first 6 months, he/she is no longer legal to file and fly under IFR. To become legal again, the regulations allow a "grace period" (the second 6-month period), in which a pilot may get current by finding an "appropriately rated" safety pilot, and in simulated IFR conditions only, acquire the 6 approaches, etc. If the second 6-month period also passes without accomplishing the minimum, a pilot may reinstate his/her currency by accomplishing an instrument proficiency check given by an examiner, an authorized instructor, or an FAA-approved person to conduct instrument practical tests.

What is a "ridge"? (AC 00-6)

A ridge (also called a ridge line) is an elongated area of relatively high atmospheric pressure. Air moving out of a high or ridge depletes the quantity of air; therefore, these are areas of descending air. Descending air favors dissipation of cloudiness; hence the association of high pressure and good weather.

How does an altimeter work? (FAA-H-8083-15)

A sensitive altimeter is an aneroid barometer that measures the absolute pressure of the ambient air and displays it in terms of feet or meters above a selected pressure level. The "sensitive element" in a sensitive altimeter is a stack of evacuated, corrugated bronze aneroid capsules. The air pressure acting on these aneroids tries to compress them against their natural springiness, which tries to expand them. The result is that their thickness changes as the air pressure changes. Stacking several aneroids increases the dimension change as the pressure varies over the usable range of the instrument.

What are "squall line" thunderstorms? (AC 00-24)

A squall line is a non-frontal, narrow band of active thunderstorms. Often it develops ahead of a cold front in moist, unstable air, but it may also develop in unstable air far removed from any front. The line may be too long to easily detour and too wide and severe to penetrate. It often contains severe steady-state thunderstorms and presents the single most intense weather hazard to aircraft. It usually forms rapidly, reaching a maximum intensity during the late afternoon and the first few hours of darkness

What is a "trough"? (AC 00-6)

A trough (also called a trough line) is an elongated area of relatively low atmospheric pressure. At the surface when air converges into a low, it cannot go outward against the pressure gradient, nor can it go downward into the ground; it must go upward. Therefore, a low or trough is an area of rising air. Rising air is conducive to cloudiness and precipitation; hence the general association of low pressure and bad weather.

What are the two main categories of aircraft icing? (AC 00-6)

Aircraft icing in flight is usually classified as being either structural icing or induction icing. Structural icing refers to the ice that forms on aircraft surfaces and components, while induction icing refers to ice in the engine's induction system

When utilizing GPS for IFR navigation, are you required to have an alternate means of navigation appropriate for the route of flight? (AIM 1-1-17, FAA-H-8083-6)

Aircraft using GPS TSO-C129 or TSO-C196 (non-WAAS) navigation equipment under IFR must be equipped with an approved and operational alternate means of navigation appropriate to the flight. During preflight, ensure that this equipment is onboard and operational, and that all required checks have been performed (e.g., 30-day VOR check). Active monitoring of alternative navigation equipment is not required if the GPS receiver uses RAIM for integrity monitoring. Active monitoring of an alternate means of navigation is required when the RAIM capability of the GPS equipment is lost.

What documents are required on board an aircraft prior to flight? (14 CFR 91.9, 91.203)

Airworthiness Certificate (14 CFR 91.203) Registration Certificate (14 CFR 91.203) Radio Station License (if operating outside of U.S.; an FCC regulation) Operating Limitations—AFM/POH and supplements, placards, markings (14 CFR 91.9) Weight and balance data (current) Compass Deviation Card (14 CFR 23.1547) External Data Plate/Serial Number (14 CFR 45.11)

When can you cancel your IFR flight plan? (AIM 5-1-15)

An IFR flight plan may be canceled at any time the flight is operating in VFR conditions outside of Class A airspace. Pilots must be aware that other procedures may be applicable to a flight that cancels an IFR flight plan within an area where a special program, such as a designated TRSA, Class C airspace, or Class B airspace, has been established

What display information will be lost when an AHRS failure occurs? (FAA-H-8083-6)

An inoperative attitude indicator (red X) on a PFD indicates failure of the AHRS.

What are the required tests and inspections to be performed on an aircraft? Include inspections for IFR. (14 CFR 91.409, 91.403, 91.417, 91.171, 91.411, 91.413, 91.207)

Annual inspection within the preceding 12 calendar months. (14 CFR 91.409) Airworthiness directives and life-limited parts complied with, as required. (14 CFR 91.403, 91.417) VOR equipment check every 30 days (for IFR ops). (14 CFR 91.171) 100-hour inspection, if used for hire or flight instruction in aircraft flight instructor provides. (14 CFR 91.409) Altimeter, altitude reporting equipment, and static pressure systems tested and inspected (for IFR ops) every 24 calendar months. (14 CFR 91.411) Transponder tests and inspections, every 24 calendar months. (14 CFR 91.413) Emergency locator transmitter, operation and battery condition inspected every 12 calendar months. (14 CFR 91.207)

What are "area charts"? (AIM 9-1-4)

Area charts show congested terminal areas such as Dallas/Ft. Worth or Atlanta at a large scale. They are included with subscriptions to any conterminous U.S. set Low (Full set, East or West sets). Revised every 56 days.

At what rate does atmospheric pressure decrease with an increase in altitude? (AC 00-6)

Atmospheric pressure decreases approximately 1" Hg per 1,000 feet.

What instruments contain gyroscopes? (FAA-H-8083-15)

Attitude indicator, heading indicator and turn coordinator/indicator.

Is the attitude indicator subject to errors? (FAA-H-8083-15)

Attitude indicators are free from most errors, but depending upon the speed with which the erection system functions, there may be a slight nose-up indication during a rapid acceleration and a nose-down indication during a rapid deceleration. There is also a possibility of a small bank angle and pitch error after a 180° turn. On rollout from a 180° turn, the AI will indicate a slight climb and turn in the opposite direction of rollout. These inherent errors are small and correct themselves within a minute or so after returning to straight-and-level flight.

What type of error is the heading indicator subject to? (FAA-H-8083-25)

Because of precession (caused by friction), the heading indicator will creep or drift from the heading it is set to. The amount of drift depends largely upon the condition of the instrument (worn and dirty bearings and/or improperly lubricated bearings). Additionally, the gyro is oriented in space and the earth rotates in space at a rate of 15 degrees in 1 hour; therefore, discounting precession caused by friction, the heading indicator may indicate as much as 15 degrees of error per every hour of operation.

Explain the difference between being "current" and being "proficient." (FAA-H-8083-2, FAA-P-8740-36)

Being "current" means that a pilot has accomplished the minimum FAA regulatory requirements within a specific time period so he or she can exercise the privileges of the certificate. It means that you're "legal" to make a flight, but does not necessarily mean that you're proficient or competent to make that flight. A "proficient" pilot is capable of conducting a flight with a high degree of competence; proficiency requires that the pilot have a wide range of knowledge and skills. Being proficient is not about just being "legal" in terms of the regulations, but is about being smart and safe in terms of pilot experience and competence

Where can NOTAM information be obtained? (AIM 5-1-1, 5-1-3)

Call the flight service station 1800WXBRIEF. b. NOTAM search: https://notams.aim.faa.gov/notamSearch/ c. Flight service flight briefing website: www.1800wxbrief.com d. Flight Information Services (FIS-B via ADS-B In)

What is the definition of the term "ceiling"? (P/CG)

Ceiling is defined as the height above the Earth's surface of the lowest layer of clouds or obscuring phenomena reported as "broken," "overcast," or "obscuration," and not classified as "thin" or "partial."

How do you determine the stability of the atmosphere? (AC 00-6)

Changes in atmospheric stability are inversely related to temperature (density) changes with height. If temperature lapse rates increase, then stability decreases. Conversely, if temperature lapse rates decrease, then stability increases. Most of these changes occur as a result of the movement of air, but diurnal (day/night) temperature variations can play a significant role. Several stability indexes and other quantities exist that evaluate atmospheric stability and the potential for convective storms. The most common of these are Lifted Index (LI) and Convective Available Potential Energy (CAPE). Observed CAPE values in thunderstorm environments often exceed 1,000 joules per kilogram, and in extreme cases may exceed 5,000 joules per kilogram.

Name the three types of structural ice that may occur in flight. (AC 00-6)

Clear Icing—or glaze ice, is a glossy, clear, or translucent ice formed by the relatively slow freezing of large, supercooled water droplets. Clear icing conditions exist more often in an environment with warmer temperatures, higher liquid water contents, and larger droplets. It forms when only a small portion of the drop freezes immediately while the remaining unfrozen portion flows or smears over the aircraft surface and gradually freezes. Rime Icing—a rough, milky, and opaque ice formed by the instantaneous freezing of small, supercooled water droplets after they strike the aircraft. Rime icing formation favors colder temperatures (colder than -15°C), lower liquid water content, and small droplets. It grows when droplets rapidly freeze upon striking an aircraft. The rapid freezing traps air and forms a porous, brittle, opaque, and milky-colored ice. Mixed Icing—a mixture of clear ice and rime ice and forms as an airplane collects both rime and clear ice due to small-scale variations in liquid water content, temperature, and droplet sizes. Mixed ice appears as layers of relatively clear and opaque ice when examined from the side. Mixed icing poses a similar hazard to an aircraft as clear ice. It may form horns or other shapes that disrupt airflow and cause handling and performance problems. Note: In general, rime icing tends to occur at temperatures colder than -15°C, clear when the temperature is warmer than -10°C, and mixed ice at temperatures in between. This is only general guidance. The type of icing will vary depending on the liquid water content, droplet size, and aircraft-specific variables.

What are the general characteristics of the weather a pilot would encounter when operating near a cold front? A warm front? (FAA-H-8083-25)

Cold Front—As the front passes, expected weather can include towering cumulus or cumulonimbus, heavy rain accompanied by lightning, thunder and/or hail; tornadoes possible; during passage, poor visibility, winds variable and gusting; temperature/dew point and barometric pressure drop rapidly. Warm Front—As the front passes, expected weather can include stratiform clouds, drizzle, low ceilings and poor visibility; variable winds; rise in temperature

Describe the different types of fronts. (AC 00-6)

Cold front—occurs when a mass of cold, dense, and stable air advances and replaces a body of warmer air. Occluded front—A frontal occlusion occurs when a fast-moving cold front catches up with a slow-moving warm front. Two types: cold front occlusion and warm front occlusion. Warm front—The boundary area formed when a warm air mass contacts and flows over a colder air mass. Stationery front—When the forces of two air masses are relatively equal, the boundary or front that separates them remains stationary and influences the local weather for days. The weather is typically a mixture of both warm and cold fronts.

Explain the following types of NOTAMs: (D) NOTAMS, FDC NOTAMs, Pointer NOTAMs, Military NOTAMs, and SAA NOTAMs. (AIM 5-1-3)

D) NOTAMs—Information that requires wide dissemination via telecommunication, regarding enroute navigational aids, civil public-use airports listed in the Chart Supplement U.S., facilities, services, and procedures. b. FDC NOTAMs—Flight information that is regulatory in nature including, but not limited to, changes to IFR charts, procedures, and airspace usage. c. POINTER NOTAMs—issued by a flight service station to highlight or point out another NOTAM; for example, an FDC NOTAM. These NOTAMs assist users in cross-referencing important information that may not be found under an airport or NAVAID identifier. d. MILITARY NOTAMs—these pertain to U.S. Air Force, Army, Marine, and Navy navigational aids/airports that are part of the NAS. e. SAA NOTAMs—issued when Special Activity Airspace will be active outside the published schedule times and when required; SAA includes special use airspace (restricted area, military operations area [MOA], warning area, and alert area airspace), instrument and visual military training routes, aerial refueling tracks and anchors

You have just experienced an alternator failure and your electrical system is being powered by the main battery. How much time do you have before the main battery fails? (FAA-H-8083-16)

Depending on electrical load and condition of the battery, sufficient power may be available for an hour or more of flight or for only a matter of minutes. The pilot must be familiar with all aircraft systems requiring electricity and which systems will continue to operate without power.

When logging instrument time, what should be included in each logbook entry? (14 CFR 61.51)

Each entry must include the location and type of each instrument approach accomplished and the name of the safety pilot, if required

What are Enroute High-Altitude Charts? (AIM 9-1-4)

Enroute high-altitude charts are designed for navigation at or above 18,000 feet MSL. This four-color chart series includes the jet route structure; VHF NAVAIDs with frequency, identification, channel, geographic coordinates; selected airports; reporting points. Revised every 56 days.

What are Enroute Low-Altitude Charts? (AIM 9-1-4, FAA-H-8083-15)

Enroute low-altitude charts provide aeronautical information for navigation under IFR conditions below 18,000 feet MSL. These charts are revised every 56 days. All courses are magnetic and distances are nautical miles.

Which altitude for the route of flight does the requested altitude represent—initial, lowest, or highest? (AIM 5-1-9)

Enter the planned cruising level for the first or the whole portion of the route to be flown, in terms of flight level, expressed as "F" followed by 3 figures (for example, F180; F330), or altitude in hundreds of feet, expressed as "A" followed by 3 figures (for example, A040; A170).

Is a pilot required to fly the entire approach procedure in order to log it for currency? (FAA InFO 15012

Except when being radar vectored to the final approach course, or otherwise directed through an appropriate ATC clearance to a specific IAP, pilots must execute the entire IAP commencing at an IAF or associated feeder route and fly the initial segment, the intermediate segment, and the final segment of an IAP. If the pilot completes these segments, or receives vectors to the final approach course, he or she may log the IAP

What is Flight Information Service (FIS) and how does it work? (FAA-H-8083-25, AIM 7-1-11)

Flight Information Service-Broadcast (FIS-B) is a ground broadcast service provided through the Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast (ADS-B) services network over the 978 MHz Universal Access Transceiver (UAT) data link. The FAA FIS-B system provides pilots and flight crews of properly-equipped aircraft with a flight deck display of aviation weather and aeronautical information.

What is the definition of the term "flight time"? (14 CFR Part 1

Flight time means pilot time that commences when an aircraft moves under its own power for the purpose of flight and ends when the aircraft comes to rest after landing.

How does fog form? (AC 00-6)

Fog forms when the temperature and dew point of the air become identical (or nearly so). This may occur through cooling of the air to a little beyond its dew point (producing radiation fog, advection fog, or upslope fog), or by adding moisture and thereby elevating the dew point (producing frontal fog or steam fog)

What are the factors necessary for a thunderstorm to form and what are the three stages of thunderstorm development? (AC 00-6)

For a thunderstorm to form, the air must have sufficient water vapor, an unstable lapse rate, and an initial upward boost (lifting) to start the storm process in motion. During its lifecycle, a thunderstorm cell progresses through three stages: a. Cumulus—characterized by a strong updraft. b. Mature—precipitation reaches the surface. The precipitation descends through the cloud and drags the adjacent air downward, creating a strong downdraft alongside the updraft c. Dissipating—downdrafts characterize the dissipating stage and the storm dies rapidly.

What corrective action is needed if the pitot tube freezes? If the static port freezes? (FAA-H-8083-15

For pitot tube—Turn pitot heat on. For static system—Use alternate air if available or break the glass on the VSI. The VSI is not required for instrument flight and breaking the glass provides the altimeter and the ASI a source of static pressure.

What restrictions apply concerning filing an airport as an alternate when using TSO-C129 and TSO-C196 (non-WAAS) GPS equipment? (AIM 1-1-17)

For the purposes of flight planning, any required alternate airport must have an available instrument approach procedure that does not require the use of GPS. This restriction includes conducting a conventional approach at the alternate airport using a substitute means of navigation that is based upon the use of GPS. For example, these restrictions would apply when planning to use GPS equipment as a substitute means of navigation for an out-of-service VOR that supports an ILS missed approach procedure at an alternate airport. In this case, some other approach not reliant upon the use of GPS must be available. This restriction does not apply to RNAV systems using TSO-C145/-C146 WAAS equipment.

How will loss of a magnetometer affect the AHRS operation? (FAA-H-8083-6)

Heading information will be lost. Exam Tip: If you are flying a technically advanced aircraft (GPS, FMS, autopilot) for the checkride, be capable of describing the failure modes for each piece of equipment and how one component failure could affect another system component (e.g., how an AHRS failure would affect the autopilot). Study the AFM supplements and have thorough knowledge of the normal, abnormal and emergency operation of each system component.

During the preflight inspection in an aircraft that doesn't have an MEL, you notice that an instrument or equipment item is inoperative. Describe how you will determine if the aircraft is still airworthy for flight. (14 CFR 91.213(d), AC 91-67, FAA-H-8083-25)

I will ask myself the following questions to determine if I can legally fly the airplane with the inoperative equipment item: a. Are the inoperative instruments or equipment part of the VFR-day type certification? b. Are the inoperative instruments or equipment listed as "Required" on the aircraft's equipment list or "Kinds of Operations Equipment List (KOEL)" for the type of flight operation being conducted? c. Are the inoperative instruments or equipment required by 14 CFR §91.205, §91.207 or any other rule of 14 CFR Part 91 for the specific kind of flight operation being conducted? (For example, VFR, IFR, day, night.) d. Are the inoperative instruments or equipment required to be operational by an AD? If the answer is "Yes" to any of these questions, the aircraft is not airworthy and maintenance is required before I can fly. If the answer is "No" to any of these questions, then the inoperative instruments or equipment must be removed (by an A&P) from the aircraft, or deactivated and placarded "Inoperative." Note: See Appendix 3 for further explanation of this regulation.

Explain the process you will use to obtain a good weather briefing prior to your flight. (FAA-P-8740-30)

I will get a "big picture" of weather patterns by watching television (The Weather Channel, etc.) and/or the internet several days prior to my flight. b. On the day or evening before my flight, I'll obtain an outlook briefing from Flight Service and/or download weather and forecast charts from the internet. c. As close to departure time as possible, with my preliminary flight planning complete (basic route, altitudes, preliminary alternates), I'll call Flight Service or log on to 1800wxbrief for my standard briefing. I can also access weather products on the internet or other sources (making sure the products are suitable for aviation use and are current). d. If my standard briefing is several hours prior to my flight or the weather is questionable, I'll call an FSS for an abbreviated briefing just before takeoff.

What if your destination and alternate airports don't have a Terminal Area Forecast to determine the weather conditions at your planned ETA. How will you determine the forecast weather at ETA? (AC 00-45)

I will use the Graphical Forecasts for Aviation (GFA) to determine ceilings and visibilities. By selecting the "Forecast" and "CIG/VIS" tabs, I can then use the Zulu Time slider bar to obtain forecast weather at my ETA.

What minimums are to be used on arrival at the alternate? (14 CFR 91.169c)

If an instrument approach procedure has been published for that airport, the minimums specified in that procedure are used

For IFR flight, what is the maximum allowable error for an altimeter? (FAA-H-8083-15)

If the altimeter is off field elevation by more than 75 feet, with the correct pressure set in the Kollsman window, it is considered to be unreliable

What instrument indications should you expect to observe should it become necessary to use an alternate source of static pressure vented inside the airplane? (FAA-H-8083-15)

In many unpressurized aircraft equipped with a pitot-static tube, an alternate source of static pressure is provided for emergency use. If the alternate source is vented inside the airplane where static pressure is usually lower than outside, selection of the alternate static source may result in the following indications: Altimeter—will indicate higher than the actual altitude Airspeed—will indicate greater than the actual airspeed Vertical speed—will show a momentary climb, then stabilize, if in level flight

When a display failure occurs, what other system components will be affected? (AFM/POH)

In some systems, failure of a display will also result in partial loss of navigation, communication, and GPS capability. Reference your specific AFM/POH.

If a failure of one of the displays (PFD or MFD) occurs in an aircraft with an electronic flight display, what will happen to the remaining operative display? (FAA-H-8083-6)

In the event of a display failure, some systems offer a "reversion" capability to display the primary flight instruments and engine instruments on the remaining operative display.

What are the different types of aircraft speeds? (FAA-H-8083-15)

Indicated Airspeed (IAS)—IAS is shown on the dial of the instrument, uncorrected for instrument or system errors. Calibrated Airspeed (CAS)—CAS is the speed at which the aircraft is moving through the air, which is found by correcting IAS for instrument and position errors. The POH/AFM has a chart or graph to correct IAS for these errors and provide the correct CAS for the various flap and landing gear configurations. Equivalent Airspeed (EAS)—EAS is CAS corrected for compression of the air inside the pitot tube. EAS is the same as CAS in standard atmosphere at sea level. As the airspeed and pressure altitude increase, the CAS becomes higher than it should be, and a correction for compression must be subtracted from the CAS. True Airspeed (TAS)—TAS is CAS corrected for nonstandard pressure and temperature. TAS and CAS are the same in standard atmosphere at sea level. Under nonstandard conditions, TAS is found by applying a correction for pressure altitude and temperature to the CAS.

Define and state how to determine the following altitudes: Indicated altitude True altitude Absolute altitude Pressure altitude Density altitude

Indicated altitude—altitude is read directly from the altimeter (uncorrected) after it is set to the current altimeter setting (QNH) in the Kollsman window. True altitude—the vertical distance of the aircraft above sea level (MSL). Airport, terrain, and obstacle elevations on aeronautical charts are true altitudes. Absolute altitude—vertical distance above the terrain, above ground level (AGL). An altimeter set to the proper pressure reading (QFE setting) indicates zero feet at touchdown. It is referred to as QFE. Pressure altitude—indicated altitude with altimeter set to 29.92 in. Hg. Pressure altitude is used to compute density altitude, true altitude, true airspeed (TAS), and other performance data. Density altitude—pressure altitude corrected for variations from standard temperature.

What display information will be affected when an ADC failure occurs? (FAA-H-8083-6)

Inoperative airspeed, altitude, and vertical speed indicators (red Xs) on the PFD indicate the failure of the air data computer.

What are the limitations of the vertical-speed indicator? (FAA-H-8083-15)

It is not accurate until the aircraft is stabilized. Sudden or abrupt changes in the aircraft attitude will cause erroneous instrument readings as airflow fluctuates over the static port. These changes are not reflected immediately by the VSI due to the calibrated leak.

What are the limitations the airspeed indicator is subject to? (FAA-H-8083-15)

It must have proper flow of air in the pitot/static system.

On an ICAO flight plan, item 15 requires you to enter your planned cruise speed. Explain what this speed represents. (AIM 5-1-9)

It represents the true airspeed for the first or the whole cruising portion of the flight, in terms of knots, expressed as N followed by 4 digits (for example, N0485), or Mach number to the nearest hundredth of unit Mach, expressed as M followed by 3 digits (for example, M082).

What are the limitations of an attitude indicator? (FAA-H-8083-25)

Limits depend upon the make and model of the instrument; bank limits are usually from 100° to 110°, and pitch limits are usually from 60° to 70°. If either limit is exceeded, the instrument will tumble or spill and will give incorrect indications until restabilized. Some modern attitude indicators are designed so they will not tumble.

State the general characteristics in regard to the flow of air around high and low pressure systems in the northern hemisphere. (AC 00-6)

Low pressure—Air flows inward, upward, and counterclockwise. High pressure—Air flows outward, downward, and clockwise.

How does the magnetic compass work? (FAA-H-8083-15)

Magnets mounted on the compass card align themselves parallel to the Earth's lines of magnetic force.

While en route in IMC, ATC clears you to climb to a new altitude. After establishing the appropriate pitch attitude and power setting, your altimeter and VSI correctly indicate a climb, but your airspeed indicator indicates that your airspeed is increasing. What could be the problem? (FAA-H-8083-15, FAA-H-8083-25)

Moisture (including ice), insects, or other foreign matter may have caused a pitot tube blockage. If the pitot tube ram pressure hole and drain hole have become obstructed, the ASI operates like an altimeter as the aircraft climbs and descends. During a climb, the airspeed increases; during a descent, the airspeed decreases. The danger is that a pilot will not recognize the problem and during a climb, will attempt to reduce airspeed by increasing pitch attitude and/or reducing power, possibly resulting in a stall in IMC.

When will ATC delete from the system a departure flight plan that has not been activated? (AIM 5-1-13)

Most centers have this parameter set so as to delete these flight plans a minimum of 2 hours after the proposed departure time or Expect Departure Clearance Time (EDCT). To ensure that a flight plan remains active, pilots whose actual departure time will be delayed 2 hours or more beyond their filed departure time are requested to notify ATC of their revised departure time

What additional aircraft documentation should be onboard an aircraft equipped with an IFR-approved GPS? (FAA-H-8083-6)

Most systems require an Airplane Flight Manual Supplement (AFMS) and Cockpit Reference Guide or Quick Reference Guide to be onboard as a limitation of use.

What information must a pilot-in-command be familiar with before a flight? (14 CFR 91.103)

NOTAMs Weather reports and forecasts Known ATC traffic delays Runway lengths at airports of intended use Alternatives available if the planned flight cannot be completed Fuel requirements Takeoff and landing performance data Remember: NWKRAFT

May portable electronic devices be operated on board an aircraft? (14 CFR 91.21)

No person may operate nor may any PIC allow the operation of any portable electronic device: a. On aircraft operated by an air carrier or commercial operator; or b. On any other aircraft while it is operated under IFR. Exceptions are: portable voice recorders, hearing aids, heart pace-makers, electric shavers or any other portable electronic device that the operator of the aircraft has determined will not cause interference with the navigation or communication system of the aircraft.

Does adjusting the altimeter's Kollsman window have any effect on the altitude that is displayed to an ATC controller? Why? (FAA-H-8083-15)

No, the encoding altimeter measures the pressure referenced to 29.92" Hg (pressure altitude) and delivers this data to the transponder. When a pilot adjusts the barometric scale to the local altimeter setting, the data sent to the transponder is not affected. This is to ensure that all Mode C aircraft are transmitting altitude data referenced to a common pressure level. ATC equipment adjusts the displayed altitudes to compensate for local pressure differences allowing display of targets at correct altitudes.

Must a flight instructor be present if you are planning on using an aviation training device to maintain your IFR currency? (14 CFR 61.51, 61.57

No. A pilot may accomplish the recency of experience requirements in a full flight simulator, flight training device, or aviation training device, provided the device represents the category of aircraft for the instrument rating privileges to be maintained and the pilot performs the tasks and iterations in simulated instrument conditions. A logbook or training record must specify the training device, time, and the content. An instructor is not required to be present

You have just executed a missed approach at your destination airport due to un-forecast weather and during the climb, you are unable to contact ATC. You make the decision to proceed to your filed alternate. Does ATC know what your filed alternate is? Can you divert to a different alternate than what is filed? (AIM 5-1-9)

No. Although alternate airport information filed in a flight plan will be accepted by air traffic computer systems, it will not be presented to controllers. If diversion to an alternate airport becomes necessary, pilots are expected to notify ATC and request an amended clearance. There is no requirement for you to proceed to your filed alternate. You may select any airport that you determine is appropriate, considering actual conditions (weather, fuel remaining, etc.) at the time. Note: In this case, if unable to contact ATC, you would proceed to your alternate or any other airport that you determine is necessary and will result in a safe outcome for your flight. Selecting and filing an alternate is mainly a fuel planning requirement and is done to ensure that you have enough fuel to execute a plan B in the event you cannot land at your destination

When flying an IAP in IMC, does the FAA require the ceiling to be at MDA or DA/DH before the approach may be logged? (FAA InFO 15012

No; the two possible outcomes are the aircraft will transition from IMC to VMC allowing a landing (in accordance with §91.175), or the aircraft will remain in IMC and execute a missed approach at the MAP or DA/DH. In both cases, the pilot may log the IAP.

What are NOTAMs? (AIM 5-1-3)

Notices To Airmissions (NOTAM)—Time critical aeronautical information, which is of either a temporary nature or not known sufficiently in advance to permit publication on aeronautical charts or in other operational publications, receives immediate dissemination via the National NOTAM System. It is aeronautical information that could affect a pilot's decision to make a flight. It includes such information as airport or primary runway closures, changes in the status of navigational aids, ILS's, radar service availability, and other information essential to planned en route, terminal, or landing operations.

Explain how the use of a "personal minimums" checklist can help a pilot control risk. (FAA-H-8083-9

One of the most important concepts that safe pilots understand is the difference between what is "legal" in terms of the regulations, and what is "smart" or "safe" in terms of pilot experience and proficiency. One way a pilot can control the risks is to set personal minimums for items in each risk category. These are limits unique to that individual pilot's current level of experience and proficiency. Exam Tip: The evaluator will ask you if you have established your own personal minimums. Prior to the checkride, complete a personal minimums worksheet if you have not already done so. Also, at some point during the test, the evaluator will present you with a scenario to determine if you will actually adhere to your personal minimums—be prepared. See Appendix 3 for a copy of the FAA's Personal Minimums Worksheet.

Can a pilot who does not hold a medical certificate but does possess BasicMed authorization act as a safety pilot? (AC 68-1, FAA BasicMed FAQ

Only if the pilot is acting as PIC while performing the duties of a safety pilot. The statutory language prescribing BasicMed says it only applies to people acting as PIC. BasicMed cannot be exercised by safety pilots who are not acting as PIC yet are required crewmembers.

What are the various compass errors? (FAA-H-8083-15)

Oscillation error—Erratic movement of the compass card caused by turbulence or rough control technique. Deviation error—Due to electrical and magnetic disturbances in the aircraft. Variation error—Angular difference between true and magnetic north; reference isogonic lines of variation. Dip errors: a. Acceleration error—On east or west headings, while accelerating, the magnetic compass shows a turn to the north, and when decelerating, it shows a turn to the south. Remember: ANDS—Accelerate North, Decelerate South b. Northerly turning error—As the airplane turns, the force that results from the magnetic dip causes the float assembly to swing in the opposite direction that the float turns resulting in a false turn indication opposite from the direction of actual turn. Because of this lag of the compass card, or float assembly, a northerly turn should be continued past arrival at the desired heading by the lag correction value. One rule of thumb to correct for this lag error is to continue the turn 15° plus half of the latitude. c. Southerly turning error—When turning in a southerly direction, the forces are such that the compass float assembly leads rather than lags resulting in a false excessive turn indication. The compass card, or float assembly, should not be allowed to exceed the rollout point. To correct for this leading error, the aircraft should not be allowed to pass the rollout lead point ahead of the desired compass heading by 15° + half of the latitude. Remember: UNOS—Undershoot North, Overshoot South

Other than fog, what are several other examples of IFR weather producers? (AC 00-6)

Other examples of common IFR producers are low clouds (stratus), haze, smoke, blowing obstructions to vision, and precipitation. Fog and low stratus restrict navigation by visual reference more often than all other weather phenomena

Describe the function of the following avionics equipment acronyms: PFD, MFD, AHRS, ADC, FMS, FD, TAWS, TIS. (FAA-H-8083-6)

PFD—primary flight display. A PFD provides increased situational awareness to the pilot by replacing the traditional six instruments used for instrument flight with an easy-to-scan display that provides the horizon, airspeed, altitude, vertical speed, trend, trim, and rate of turn, among other key indications. MFD—multi-function display. A cockpit display capable of presenting information such as navigation data, moving maps, aircraft systems information (engine monitoring), or should the need arise, PFD information. AHRS—attitude and heading reference system. An integrated flight system composed of three-axis sensors that provide heading, attitude, and yaw information for an aircraft. GPS, solid state magnetometers, solid state accelerometers, and digital air data signals are all combined in an AHRS to compute and output highly reliable information to the cockpit primary flight display. ADC—air data computer. An aircraft computer that receives and processes ram air, static air, and temperature information from sensors, and provides information such as altitude, indicated airspeed, vertical speed, and wind direction and velocity to other cockpit systems (PFD, AHRS, transponder). FMS—flight management system. A computer system containing a database to allow programming of routes, approaches, and departures that can supply navigation data to the flight director/autopilot from various sources, and can calculate flight data such as fuel consumption, time remaining, possible range, and other values. FD—flight director. An electronic flight calculator that analyzes the navigation selections, signals, and aircraft parameters. It presents steering instructions on the flight display as command bars or crossbars for the pilot to position the nose of the aircraft over or follow. TAWS—terrain awareness and warning system. Uses the aircraft's GPS navigation signal and altimetry systems to compare the position and trajectory of the aircraft against a more detailed terrain and obstacle database. This database attempts to detail every obstruction that could pose a threat to an aircraft in flight. TIS—Traffic Information Service is a ground-based advanced avionics traffic display system which receives transmissions on locations of nearby aircraft from radar-equipped air traffic control facilities and provides alerts and warnings to the pilot.

As an instrument rated pilot, can you fly IFR under BasicMed? (AC 68-1)

Pilots can fly as BasicMed (in covered aircraft) under VFR or IFR. There is no prohibition against flying in IMC, but BasicMed doesn't change the requirement to hold an instrument rating and be instrument current to act as PIC under IFR. Further, BasicMed does not relieve an aircraft from the requirement to be approved for IFR operations for flight under IFR

What instrument approach procedures may you flight plan to use as the planned approach at the required alternate when using TSO-C145/-C146 (WAAS) equipment? (AIM 1-1-18)

Pilots with TSO-C145/C146 WAAS receivers may flight plan to use any instrument approach procedure authorized for use with their WAAS avionics as the planned approach at a required alternate, with certain restrictions.

When flight planning an RNAV route, where should your route begin and end? (AIM 5-1-8)

Plan the random route portion of the flight plan to begin and end over appropriate arrival and departure transition fixes or appropriate navigation aids for the altitude stratum within which the flight will be conducted. The use of normal preferred departure and arrival routes (DP/STAR), where established, is recommended.

What are the errors that the airspeed indicator is subject to?

Position error—caused by the static ports sensing erroneous static pressure; slipstream flow causes disturbances at the static port preventing actual atmospheric pressure measurement. It varies with airspeed, altitude, configuration and may be a plus or minus value. Density error—changes in altitude and temperature are not compensated for by the instrument. Compressibility error—caused by the packing of air into the pitot tube at high airspeeds, resulting in higher than normal indications. It usually occurs above 180 KIAS.

What are preferred routes and where can they be found? (P/C

Preferred routes are those established between busier airports to increase system efficiency and capacity. Preferred routes are listed in the Chart Supplement U.S.

Before conducting an IFR flight using GPS equipment for navigation, what basic preflight checks should be made? (FAA-H-8083-15)

Preflight preparations should include: a. Verify that the GPS is properly installed and certified for the planned IFR operation. b. Verify that the databases (navigation, terrain, obstacle, etc.) have not expired. c. Review GPS and WAAS NOTAMs. d. Review GPS RAIM availability for non-WAAS receivers. e. Review operational status of ground-based NAVAIDs and related aircraft equipment (e.g., 30-day VOR check) appropriate to the route of flight, terminal operations, instrument approaches at the destination, and alternate airports at ETA. f. Determine that the GPS receiver operation manual or airplane flight manual supplement is onboard and available for use.

When must a pilot file an IFR flight plan? (AIM 5-1-8)

Prior to departure from within or prior to entering controlled airspace, a pilot must submit a complete flight plan and receive clearance from ATC if weather conditions are below VFR minimums. The pilot should file the flight plan at least 30 minutes prior to the estimated time of departure to preclude a possible delay in receiving a departure clearance from ATC

All (D) NOTAMs will have keywords contained within the first part of the text. What are several examples of these keywords? (AIM 5-1-3)

RWY, TWY, APRON, AD, OBST, NAV, COM, SVC,AIRSPACE, ODP, SID, STAR, CHART, DATA, IAP, VFP, ROUTE, SPECIAL, SECURITY, (U) or (O)

Explain the function of RAIM. (FAA-H-8083-6)

Receiver autonomous integrity monitoring (RAIM) is the self-monitoring function performed by a TSO-129 certified GPS receiver to ensure that adequate GPS signals are being received at all times. The GPS alerts the pilot whenever the integrity monitoring determines that the GPS signals do not meet the criteria for safe navigation use.

What are two important characteristics of gyroscopes? (FAA-H-8083-15)

Rigidity—the characteristic of a gyro that prevents its axis of rotation tilting as the Earth rotates; attitude and heading instruments operate on this principle. Precession—the characteristic of a gyro that causes an applied force to be felt, not at the point of application, but 90 degrees from that point in the direction of rotation. Rate instruments such as the turn coordinator use this principle.

Does an aircraft have to remain stationary during AHRS system initialization? (FAA-H-8083-6)

Some AHRSs must be initialized on the ground prior to departure. The initialization procedure allows the system to establish a reference attitude used as a benchmark for all future attitude changes. Other systems are capable of initialization while taxiing as well as in-flight.

During preflight you notice several static discharge wicks are missing from your airplane. Explain the function of the static wicks and the problems that could occur inflight if they are missing. (FAA-H-8083-16

Static dischargers, or wicks, are installed on aircraft to reduce radio receiver interference caused by corona discharge emitted from the aircraft as a result of precipitation static. Precipitation static occurs when an aircraft encounters airborne particles during flight (rain or snow) and develops a negative charge. The problems created by P-static range from serious, such as complete loss of VHF communications and erroneous magnetic compass readings, to the annoyance of high-pitched audio squealing.

Describe the types of icing found in stratiform clouds; also in cumuliform clouds. (AC 00-6

Stratified clouds—both rime and mixed are found in stratiform clouds. Icing in middle and low-level stratiform clouds is confined, on the average, to a layer between 3,000 and 4,000 feet thick. A change in altitude of only a few thousand feet may take the aircraft out of icing conditions, even if it remains in clouds. The main hazard lies in the great horizontal extent of stratiform clouds layers. Cumuliform Clouds—icing is usually clear or mixed with rime in the upper levels. The icing layer is smaller horizontally, but greater vertically than in stratiform clouds. Icing is more variable in cumuliform clouds because the factors conducive to icing depend on the particular cloud's stage of development. Icing intensities may range from a trace in small cumulus to severe in a large towering cumulus or cumulonimbus, especially in the upper portion of the cloud where the updraft is concentrated and super-cooled large drops (SLDs) are plentiful.

Why do surface winds generally flow across the isobars at an angle? (AC 00-6)

Surface friction causes winds to flow across isobars at an angle.

When is a RAIM check required? (AIM 5-1-16)

TSO-C129 (non-WAAS) equipped aircraft—If TSO-C129 (non-WAAS) equipment is used to solely satisfy the RNAV and RNP requirement, GPS RAIM availability must be confirmed for the intended route of flight (route and time) using current GPS satellite information. TSO-C145/C146 (WAAS) equipped aircraft—If TSO-C145/C146 (WAAS) equipment is used to satisfy the RNAV and RNP requirement, the pilot/operator need not perform the prediction if WAAS coverage is confirmed to be available along the entire route of flight. Outside the U.S. or in areas where WAAS coverage is not available, operators using TSO-C145/C146 receivers are required to check GPS RAIM availability. Note: In the event of a predicted, continuous loss of RAIM of more than five (5) minutes for any part of the intended flight, the flight should be delayed, canceled, or re-routed where RAIM requirements can be met. Pilots should assess their capability to navigate (potentially to an alternate destination) in case of failure of GPS navigation

Where can updated information be obtained about changes to aeronautical charts that occurred between chart publication dates? (AIM 9-1-4)

The Chart Supplement U.S. provides a means for pilots to update visual charts between edition dates. The Chart Supplement U.S. is published every 56 days while sectional aeronautical and VFR terminal area charts are generally revised every six months

What conditions must exist in order to log "actual" instrument flight time?

The FAA has never defined the term "actual" instrument time. 14 CFR Part 61 defines "instrument flight time" as that flight time when a person operates an aircraft solely by reference to instruments under actual or simulated instrument flight conditions. A reasonable guideline for determining when to log "actual instrument time" would be any flight time that is accumulated in IMC conditions with flight being conducted solely by reference to instruments. The definition of IMC is weather conditions below the VFR minimums specified for visual meteorological conditions. VFR minimums are found in 14 CFR §91.155.

How does the vertical-speed indicator work? (FAA-H-8083-15)

The VSI is a rate-of-pressure-change instrument that gives an indication of any deviation from a constant pressure level. Inside the VSI instrument case is an aneroid. Both the inside of the aneroid and the inside of the instrument case are vented to the static system. The case is vented through a calibrated orifice that causes the pressure inside the case to change more slowly than the pressure inside the aneroid. Changing pressures inside the case and the aneroid compress and expand the aneroid, moving the pointer upward or downward indicating a climb, a descent, or level flight.

What is necessary for structural icing to occur? (AC 00-6)

The aircraft must be flying through visible water such as rain or cloud droplets; temperature must be at the point where moisture strikes the aircraft at 0°C or colder.

What are the fuel requirements for flight in IFR conditions? (14 CFR 91.167

The aircraft must carry enough fuel (considering weather reports, forecasts and weather conditions) to complete the flight to the first airport of intended landing, fly from that airport to the alternate airport, and fly after that for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed. Note: "Complete the flight," as used in this regulation, means the aircraft has enough fuel to be flown to, and land at, the first airport of intended landing. Having fueled the aircraft with only enough fuel to "attempt an approach" would fall short of the regulatory requirement (FAA legal interpretation)

How does the airspeed indicator operate? (FAA-H-8083-15)

The airspeed indicator measures the difference between ram pressure from the pitot head and atmospheric pressure from the static source.

What is the definition of the term "freezing level" and how can you determine where that level is? (AC 00-6)

The freezing level is the lowest altitude in the atmosphere over a given location at which the air temperature reaches 0°C. It is possible to have multiple freezing layers when a temperature inversion occurs above the defined freezing level. Potential sources of icing information for determining its location are: GFA, PIREPS, AIRMETs, SIGMETs, convective SIGMETs, low-level significant weather charts, surface analysis (for frontal location and freezing precipitation) and winds and temperatures aloft (for air temperature at altitude). Pilots can use graphical data including freezing level graphics, the current icing product (CIP), and forecast icing product (FIP). These products are available at the NWS Aviation Weather Center website: www.aviationweather.gov/icing/.

How does the attitude indicator work? (FAA-H-8083-25)

The gyro in the attitude indicator is mounted on a horizontal plane and depends upon rigidity in space for its operation. The horizon bar represents the true horizon and is fixed to the gyro; it remains in a horizontal plane as the airplane is pitched or banked about its lateral or longitudinal axis, indicating the attitude of the airplane relative to the true horizon.

What limitations does the magnetic compass have? (FAA-H-8083-15)

The jewel-and-pivot type mounting gives the float freedom to rotate and tilt up to approximately 18° angle of bank. At steeper bank angles, the compass indications are erratic and unpredictable.

What information does the turn coordinator provide? (FAA-H-8083-15)

The miniature aircraft in the turn coordinator displays the rate of turn, rate of roll and direction of turn. The ball in the tube indicates the quality of turn (slip or skid). Slip—ball on the inside of turn; not enough rate of turn for the amount of bank. Skid—ball to the outside of turn; too much rate of turn for the amount of bank.

Can a GPS with an expired database be used for navigation under IFR? (AIM 1-1-17, AIM 5-1-16, AC 90-100)

The navigation database contained in the GPS/FMS must be current if the system is to be used for IFR approaches. Some units allow enroute IFR operations with an expired database if the navigation waypoints are manually verified by referencing an official current source, such as a current enroute chart. To determine equipment approvals and limitations, refer to the AFM or AFM supplements.

How often are GPS databases required to be updated? (FAA-H-8083-15)

The navigation database is updated every 28 days. Obstacle databases may be updated every 56 days and terrain and airport map databases are updated as needed.

How does the heading indicator work? (FAA-H-8083-25)

The operation of the heading indicator works on the principle of rigidity in space. The rotor turns in a vertical plane, and fixed to the rotor is a compass card. Since the rotor remains rigid in space, the points on the card hold the same position in space relative to the vertical plane. As the instrument case and the airplane revolve around the vertical axis, the card provides clear and accurate heading information.

How does a pilot determine the type and status of an instrument approach light system at the destination airport? (FAA-H-8083-3)

The pilot should check the Chart Supplement U.S. and any NOTAMs to determine the availability and status of lighting systems, light intensities and radio-controlled light system frequencies. An FSS briefer will also have access to any recent changes in the status of airport lighting systems

How can a pilot determine what type of operations a GPS receiver is approved for? (FAA-H-8083-6

The pilot should reference the FAA-approved AFM and AFM supplements to determine the limitations and operating procedures for the particular GPS equipment installed.

Who is responsible for determining if an aircraft is in an airworthy condition? (14 CFR 91.7)

The pilot-in-command is responsible.

What instruments operate from the pitot/static system? (FAA-H-8083-15)

The pitot/static system operates the altimeter, vertical-speed indicator, and airspeed indicator. All three instruments receive static air pressure for operation with only the ASI receiving both pitot and static pressure.

What are the recency-of-experience requirements to be PIC of a flight under IFR? (14 CFR 61.57)

The recency-of-experience requirements are: a. A flight review; b. To carry passengers, 3 takeoffs and landings within the preceding 90 days in an aircraft of the same category, class and type, if a type rating is required (landings must be full stop at night or in a tailwheel). c. Within the 6 calendar months preceding the month of the flight, performed and logged in actual weather conditions or under simulated conditions using a view-limiting device, at least the following tasks in an airplane: • Six instrument approaches. • Holding procedures and tasks. • Intercepting and tracking courses through the use of navigational electronic systems. Note: 14 CFR §61.57(c) allows the use of an aircraft and/or a full flight simulator, flight training device, or aviation training device for maintaining instrument experience, subject to certain limitations. Remember: 6-6-HIT. 6 approaches in previous 6 months including Holding, Intercepting and Tracking courses.

What are the required qualifications for a person to act as a "safety pilot"? (14 CFR 61.3, 61.23, 91.109

The safety pilot must: a. Possess at least a private pilot certificate with category and class ratings appropriate to the aircraft being flown. b. Possess an appropriate medical certificate (the safety pilot is acting as a required crewmember). c. If the flight is to be conducted on an IFR flight plan, the person acting as PIC of the flight must hold an instrument rating and be instrument current

Explain the difference between a stable atmosphere and an unstable atmosphere. Why is the stability of the atmosphere important? (FAA-H-8083-25, AC 00-6)

The stability of the atmosphere depends on its ability to resist vertical motion. A stable atmosphere makes vertical movement difficult, and small vertical disturbances dampen out and disappear. In an unstable atmosphere, small vertical air movements tend to become larger, resulting in turbulent airflow and convective activity. Instability can lead to significant turbulence, extensive vertical clouds, and severe weather.

What factor primarily determines the type and vertical extent of clouds? (AC 00-6)

The stability of the atmosphere determines type and vertical extent of clouds.

For aircraft with electronic flight instrumentation, what is the function of the standby battery? (FAA-H-8083-15)

The standby battery is held in reserve and kept charged in case of a failure of the charging system and a subsequent exhaustion of the main battery. The standby battery is brought online when the main battery voltage is depleted to a specific value, approximately 19 volts. Generally, the standby battery switch must be in the ARM position for this to occur, but pilots should refer to the aircraft flight manual (AFM) for specifics on an aircraft's electrical system

After an alternator failure and depletion of the main battery, what items will still receive power from the standby battery? (FAA-H-8083-15)

The standby battery powers the essential bus and allows the PFD to be utilized. The essential bus usually powers the following components: AHRS (attitude and heading reference system) ADC (air data computer) PFD (primary flight display) Navigation radio #1 Communication radio #1 Standby indicator light

On takeoff, as you climb away from the runway into IMC, you notice that your vertical speed indicator is indicating zero, your airspeed indicator is still alive but doesn't seem accurate, and the altimeter is frozen. What is the problem? (FAA-H-8083-25)

The static system is blocked and you would observe the following: Airspeed indicator—Accurate at the altitude frozen as long as static pressure in the indicator and the system equals outside pressure. If the aircraft descends, the airspeed indicator would read high (outside static pressure would be greater than that trapped). If the aircraft climbs, the airspeed indicator would read low. Altimeter—Indicates the altitude at which the system is blocked. Vertical speed—Will indicate level flight

What do the NOTAM terms "UNRELIABLE" and "MAY NOT BE AVAILABLE" indicate when used in conjunction with GPS and WAAS NOTAMs? (AIM 1-1-17, 1-1-18

The terms "UNRELIABLE" and "MAY NOT BE AVAILABLE" are cautions indicating that the expected level of service might not be available. "UNRELIABLE" does not mean there is a problem with GPS signal integrity. If GPS service is available, pilots may continue operations. If the LNAV or LNAV/VNAV service is available, pilots may use the displayed level of service to fly the approach. The term MAY NOT BE AVBL is used in conjunction with WAAS NOTAMs and indicates that due to ionospheric conditions, lateral guidance may still be available when vertical guidance is unavailable. Under certain conditions, both lateral and vertical guidance might be unavailable. This NOTAM language is a pilot advisory that the expected level of WAAS service (LNAV/VNAV, LPV, LP) might not be available.

How does the turn coordinator operate? (FAA-H-8083-15)

The turn part of the instrument uses precession to indicate direction and approximate rate of turn. A gyro reacts by trying to move in reaction to the force applied, thus moving the miniature aircraft in proportion to the rate of turn. The inclinometer in the instrument is a black glass ball sealed inside a curved glass tube that is partially filled with a liquid. The ball measures the relative strength of the force of gravity and the force of inertia caused by a turn.

How does the vacuum system operate? (FAA-H-8083-25)

The vacuum or pressure system spins the gyro by drawing a stream of air against the rotor vanes to spin the rotor at high speeds, essentially the same as a water wheel or turbine operates. The amount of vacuum or pressure required for instrument operation varies by manufacturer and is usually between 4.5 to 5.5 in. Hg. One source of vacuum for the gyros installed in light aircraft is the vane-type engine-driven pump, mounted on the accessory case of the engine

What are the limitations of the heading indicator? (FAA-H-8083-25)

They vary with the particular design and make of instrument: on some heading indicators in light airplanes, the limits are approximately 55 degrees of pitch and 55 degrees of bank. When either of these attitude limits are exceeded, the instrument "tumbles" or "spills" and no longer gives the correct indication until it is reset with the caging knob. Many modern instruments used are designed in such a manner that they will not tumble.

What aircraft instruments/equipment are required for IFR operations? (14 CFR 91.205)

Those required for VFR day and night flight plus: Generator or alternator of adequate capacity Radios (nav. and comm. equipment suitable for the route to be flown) Altimeter (sensitive) Ball (slip/skid indicator of turn coordinator) Clock (sweep second hand or digital presentation) Attitude indicator Rate of turn (turn coordinator) Directional gyro DME or RNAV (for flight at FL240 and above if VOR equipment is required for the route)

What are the intensity categories of aircraft structural icing? (AIM 7-1-21

Trace—ice becomes noticeable; rate of accumulation slightly greater than rate of sublimation; a representative accretion rate for reference purposes is less than ¼ inch (6 mm) per hour on the outer wing. The pilot should consider exiting the icing conditions before they become worse. b. Light—rate of ice accumulation requires occasional cycling of manual deicing systems to minimize ice accretions on the airframe. A representative accretion rate for reference purposes is ¼ inch to 1 inch (0.6 to 2.5 cm) per hour on the unprotected part of the outer wing. The pilot should consider exiting the icing condition. c. Moderate—the rate of ice accumulation requires frequent cycling of manual deicing systems to minimize ice accretions on the airframe. A representative accretion rate for reference purposes is 1 to 3 inches (2.5 to 7.5 cm) per hour on the unprotected part of the outer wing. The pilot should consider exiting the icing condition as soon as possible. d. Severe—the rate of ice accumulation is such that ice protection systems fail to remove the accumulation of ice and ice accumulates in locations not normally prone to icing. A representative accretion rate for reference purposes is more than 3 inches (7.5 cm) per hour on the unprotected part of the outer wing. By regulation, immediate exit is required.

Can a pilot perform the required database updates or must this action be accomplished by authorized maintenance personnel? (14 CFR 43.3)

Updates of databases of installed avionics may be performed by pilots provided they can be initiated from the flight deck, performed without disassembly of the avionics unit, and performed without the use of tools and/or special equipment. Updating databases for self-contained, front-panel, or pedestal-mounted GPS units is a non-maintenance task, and does not require an entry in the aircraft logbook.

The FAA has transitioned to using the ICAO format flight plans for all flights. When is it mandatory to use one? (AIM 5-1-9)

Use of an ICAO flight plan is: a. Mandatory for assignment of RNAV SIDs and STARs or other PBN routing, b. Mandatory for all IFR flights that will depart U.S. domestic airspace, and c. Recommended for domestic IFR flights

How can the use of the "PAVE" checklist during preflight help a pilot to assess and mitigate risk? (FAA-H-8083-9

Use of the PAVE checklist provides pilots with a simple way to remember each category to examine for risk during flight planning. The pilot divides the risks of flight into four categories: Pilot—illness, medication, stress, alcohol, fatigue, emotion (I'M SAFE), proficiency, currency Aircraft—airworthiness, aircraft equipped for flight, proficiency in aircraft, performance capability enVironment—weather hazards, type of terrain, airports/runways to be used, conditions External pressures—meetings, people waiting at destination, desire to impress, desire to get there, etc.

Name several types of power sources commonly used to power the gyroscopic instruments in an aircraft. (FAA-H-8083-15)

Various power sources used are: electrical, pneumatic, venturi tube, wet-type vacuum pump, and dry-air pump systems. Aircraft and instrument manufacturers have designed redundancy into the flight instruments so that any single failure will not deprive the pilot of his/her ability to safely conclude the flight. Gyroscopic instruments are crucial for instrument flight; therefore, they are powered by separate electrical or pneumatic sources. Typically, the heading indicator and attitude indicator will be vacuum-driven and the turn coordinator electrically-driven.

When temperature and dew point are close together (within 5°), what type of weather is likely? (AC 00-6)

Visible moisture is likely, in the form of clouds, dew or fog.

Can a handheld GPS receiver be used for IFR operations? (AIM 1-1-17)

Visual flight rules (VFR) and hand-held GPS systems are not authorized for IFR navigation, instrument approaches, or as a principal instrument flight reference. During IFR operations they may be considered only as an aid to situational awareness.

When is an instrument rating required? (14 CFR 61.3, 61.133, 91.135, 91.157)

When operations are conducted: a. Under instrument flight rules (IFR flight plan), b. In weather conditions less than the minimum for VFR flight, c. In Class A airspace, d. Under Special VFR within Class B, Class C, Class D and Class E surface areas between sunset and sunrise e. When carrying passengers for hire on cross-country flights in excess of 50 nautical miles or at night.

What restrictions apply to flight planning when using WAAS avionics at the alternate airport? (AIM 1-1-18)

When using WAAS avionics at an alternate airport, flight planning must be based on flying the RNAV (GPS) LNAV or circling minima line, or minima on a GPS approach procedure, or conventional approach procedure with "or GPS" in the title. 14 CFR Part 91 non-precision weather requirements must be used for planning. Upon arrival at an alternate, when the WAAS navigation system indicates that LNAV/VNAV or LPV service is available, then vertical guidance may be used to complete the approach using the displayed level of service.

Are you required to have an instructor present when a using time in an FFS, FTD, or ATD to acquire instrument aeronautical experience for a pilot certificate or rating? (14 CFR 61.51)

Yes, an instructor must be present. A person may use time in a full flight simulator, flight training device, or aviation training device for acquiring instrument aeronautical experience for a pilot certificate or rating, provided an authorized instructor is present to observe that time and signs the person's logbook or training record to verify the time and the content of the training session.

During preflight planning, you notice that your destination airport has no published instrument approach procedure. The weather is forecast to be 3,000-foot ceilings with 5 miles of visibility within the 1 hour before to 1 hour after your ETA. Are you required to file an alternate airport? (14 CFR 91.169

Yes; 14 CFR §91.169 requires that each person filing an IFR flight plan must include in it the following information: a. Information required under 14 CFR §91.153 (VFR flight plan information), and b. An alternate airport. An alternate airport must be included in the IFR flight plan unless the conditions prescribed in 14 CFR §9l.169(b )(1) and (2) are satisfied: "§91.169(b)(1)...The first airport of intended landing has a Part 97 standard instrument approach procedure (SIAP) or a special instrument approach procedure issued by the Administrator; and §91.169(b)(2)...Appropriate weather reports or weather forecasts, or a combination of them, indicate the following for at least 1 hour before and for 1 hour after the ETA, the ceiling will be at least 2,000 feet above the airport elevation and the visibility will be at least 3 statute miles." In this case, the first airport of intended landing does not have a published SIAP, although it does have the required weather of at least 2,000-foot ceilings and 3 miles of visibility from 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA. Therefore, the requirements of §91.169(b)(1) and (2) have not been completely satisfied and the pilot is required to include the information specified in §91.169(a)(1) and (2)

Are electronic chart systems (electronic flight bags) approved for use as a replacement for paper reference material (POH and supplements, charts, etc.) in the cockpit? (AC 91-78)

Yes; electronic flight bags (EFBs) can be used during all phases of flight operations in lieu of paper reference material when the information displayed is the functional equivalent of the paper reference material replaced and is current, up-to-date, and valid. It is recommended that a secondary or back-up source of aeronautical information necessary for the flight be available.

What pertinent information should a weather briefing include? (AIM 7-1-5)

a. Adverse conditions b. VFR flight not recommended c. Synopsis d. Current conditions e. Enroute forecast f. Destination forecast g. Winds aloft h. Notices to Airmen (NOTAMs) i. ATC delay In addition, pilots may obtain the following from FSS briefers upon request: information on special use airspace (SUA) and SUA-related airspace, including alert areas, MOAs, MTRs (IFR, VFR, VR, and SR training routes), warning areas, and ATC assigned airspace (ATCAA); a review of the printed NOTAM publication; approximate density altitude data; information on air traffic services and rules; customs/immigration procedures; ADIZ rules; search and rescue; GPS RAIM availability for 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA or a time specified by the pilot; and other assistance as required.

While en route, how can a pilot obtain updated weather information? (FAA-H-8083-25)

a. FSS on 122.2 or appropriate frequency; use of RCO frequency, if available. b. ATIS/ASOS/AWOS. c. Datalink weather—cockpit display of FIS-B information. d. ATC (workload permitting)

What are some examples of other sources of weather information? (AIM 7-1-2, 7-1-8, 7-1-9, 7-1-11)

a. Leidos Flight Services via the Internet. Pilots can receive preflight weather data and file domestic VFR and IFR flight plans: http://www.1800wxbrief.com or call 1-800-WXBRIEF. b. Weather and aeronautical information available from numerous private industry sources. c. Flight Information Services (FIS-B via ADS-B In).

During preflight planning, what type of meteorological information should you be aware of with respect to icing? (AC 91-74)

a. Location of fronts—the front's location, type, speed, and direction of movement. b. Cloud layers—the location of cloud bases and tops; this is valuable when determining if you will be able to climb above icing layers or descend beneath those layers into warmer air. c. Freezing level(s)—important when determining how to avoid icing and how to exit icing conditions if accidentally encountered. d. Air temperature and pressure—icing tends to be found in low-pressure areas and at temperatures at or around freezing. e. Precipitation—knowing the location and type of precipitation forecast will assist in avoiding areas conducive to severe icing.

What type of errors is the altimeter subject to? (FAA-H-8083-15)

a. Mechanical errors—Differences between ambient temperature and/or pressure can cause an erroneous indication on the altimeter. b. Inherent errors—Non-standard temperature and pressure. Warmer than standard air—The air is less dense and the pressure levels are farther apart. The pressure level for a given altitude is higher than it would be in air at standard temperature, and the aircraft is higher than it would be if the air were cooler. True altitude is higher than indicated altitude whenever the temperature is warmer than International Standard Atmosphere (ISA). Colder than standard air—The air is denser and the pressure levels are closer together. The pressure level for a given altitude is lower than it would be in air at standard temperature, and the aircraft is lower than it would be if the air were warmer. True altitude is lower than indicated altitude whenever the temperature is colder than ISA. Extreme cold altimeter errors—A correctly calibrated pressure altimeter indicates true altitude above mean sea level (MSL) when operating within ISA parameters of pressure and temperature. When operating in extreme cold temperatures (i.e., +10°C to -50°C), pilots may wish to compensate for the reduction in terrain clearance by adding a cold temperature correction. High pressure to low pressure—If an aircraft is flown from an area of high pressure to an area of lower pressure without adjusting the altimeter, the true altitude of the aircraft will be lower than indicated altitude. Low pressure to high pressure—If an aircraft is flown from an area of low pressure to an area of higher pressure without adjusting the altimeter, the true altitude of the aircraft will be higher than indicated altitude. Remember: High to Low or Hot to Cold—look out below!

What are several methods a pilot can use to satisfy the predictive RAIM requirement (RAIM check)? (AIM 1-1-17, 5-1-16)

a. Operators may contact a Flight Service Station to obtain non-precision approach RAIM. Briefers will provide RAIM information for a period of 1 hour before to 1 hour after the ETA, unless a specific time frame is requested by the pilot. b. Use the Service Availability Prediction Tool (SAPT) on the FAA enroute and terminal RAIM prediction tool at: http://sapt.faa.gov/default.php c. Use a third-party interface, incorporating FAA/Volpe Center RAIM prediction data without altering performance values to predict RAIM outages for the aircraft's predicted flight path and times. d. Use the receiver's installed RAIM prediction capability (for TSO-C129a/Class A1/B1/C1 equipment) to provide non-precision approach RAIM

Name several types of fog. (AC 00-6)

a. Radiation fog b. Advection fog c. Upslope fog d. Frontal fog or precipitation-induced fog e. Steam fog

What other useful information can be found in the Chart Supplement U.S. which might be helpful in route planning? (Chart Supplement U.S.)

a. Special notices—prohibited areas, aerobatic and glider practice areas, noise abatement etc. b. ARTCCs—low and high altitude transmitter site frequencies c. FSS frequencies d. Routes/waypoints—low and high altitude preferred routes; VFR waypoints e. GPS Q routes f. VOR receiver checkpoints and VOTs g. Aeronautical chart bulletins

During preflight planning, how can you mitigate the total risk encountered en route when the possibility of operating in or around icing conditions exists? (AC 91-74)

a. When determining routes, consider the climb performance of the airplane and the route's minimum altitude, particularly in mountainous terrain. Airplane climb performance will be degraded if ice is encountered. b. If the aircraft is loaded near maximum gross weight, climb performance will be degraded, which could increase the time spent in icing conditions. c. Determine icing exit strategies during preflight. Determine if climbing or descending will be viable options based on the planned route of flight. This includes required altitudes in order to maintain clearance from terrain, airspace, published routes, departure procedures, arrival procedures and approaches. d. Extra fuel may be necessary because of additional fuel needed to operate icing systems. Additionally, excess drag or weight caused by ice formation may require extra power to maintain altitude or airspeed, increasing fuel consumption. e. When choosing alternate airports, remember that if structural icing occurs, higher approach speeds and consequently additional runway length may be required for landing.