PSI Practice Exam

How does a noncancelable policy differ from a guaranteed renewable policy? 1. With the noncancelable policy, the insurer may increase the premiums by classifications. 2. With the noncancelable policy the insurer may increase premiums only based on the terms of the policy. 3. With the noncancelable policy, the insured may never increase the premiums under any circumstances. 4. With a guaranteed renewable policy, the insured may renew annually, with the noncancelable the insured may not cancel the policy.

2. With the noncancelable policy the insurer may increase premiums only based on the terms of the policy.

What is the primary advantage for obtaining a reinstatement of a policy rather than obtaining a new one? 1. No proof of insurability is required 2. insured original issue age is used 3. No application is required 4. outstanding loans are cancelled

2. insured original issue age is used

What is a MIB report? 1. credit information on an applicant used in the underwriting process 2. medical information on an applicant for assessing life or health insurance risk 3. information on an applicant's moral character collected from interviews of associates 4. information on an applicant's medical condition collected via a physician's physical examination.

2. medical information on an applicant for assessing life or health insurance risk

Which of the following refers to how often a premium is paid? 1. level 2. mode 3. net 4. ratio

2. mode

Which is a disadvantage to a flexible premium annuity? 1. the purchaser does not determine the premium amount 2. the actual amount of the annuity benefit cannot be determined in advance 3. it makes assumptions about future premium payment amounts 4. the tax implications are less favorable for the purchaser

2. the actual amount of the annuity benefit cannot be determined in advance

When can the premiums of an individually owned health insurance policy be deducted from the individual's income tax? 1. when the taxpayer's medical expenses exceed 5.0% of adjusted gross income during a taxable year 2. when the taxpayer's medical expenses exceed 7.5% of adjusted gross income during a taxable year 3. any taxpayer who itemizes deductions may deduct their health insurance premiums 4. never because only group owned health insurance premiums may be deducted.

2. when the taxpayer's medical expenses exceed 7.5% of adjusted gross income during a taxable year

All of the following are tax qualified retirement plans EXCEPT 1. 401(k) 2. 403(b) 3. Section 529 plan 4. SIMPLE IRA

23. Section 529 plan

How long after being entitled to disability benefits will an individual be eligible to receive Medicare benefits? 1. immediately 2. 1 year 3. 2 years 4. at age 65

3. 2 years

Which of the following is TRUE of a point of service plan? 1. Patients must submit claim forms for all services received. 2. The difference in cost between in-network and out-of-network is relatively small. 3. A patient's care is coordinated by an in-network primary care physician. 4. A patient may see any provider for any condition for the same cost and does not need to consult a primary care physician.

3. A patient's care is coordinated by an in-network primary care physician.

In which of the following does a covered employee agree to a reduction in compensation so the amount can be used to cover medical expenses? 1. Consumer Driven Health Plan (CDHP) 2. Health Reimbursement Account (HRA) 3. Flexible Spending Account (FSA) 4. Healthcare Savings Account (HSA)

3. Flexible Spending Account (FSA)

What does it mean if a health policy is conditionally renewable? 1. Insurer may elect NOT to renew based on the health of the insured. 2. Insurer may elect NOT to renew for any reason only on the policy anniversary or premium due date. 3. Insurer may elect NOT to renew only under conditions specified in the policy. 4. Insurer may elect NOT to review if the insured exceeds the maximum number of claims.

3. Insurer may elect NOT to renew only under conditions specified in the policy.

What is an impairment rider? 1. It indefinitely extends the time to provide the proof of loss until after an impairment is resolved. 2. It allows the reinstatement of a policy when an impairment is deemed to have caused the policy lapse. 3. It lists specific conditions in the contract that are excluded from the contract 4. It states that a contract can be cancelled and premiums refunded if the policyholder was mentally impaired at time of issue.

3. It lists specific conditions in the contract that are excluded from the contract

In a case where an individual's health is insured by both their own policy and their spouse's policy, which policy pays in the event of an illness? 1. Only the individual's policy pays. 2. Both policies pay the full amount. 3. The individual's policy pays first, the spouse's policy pays the remaining up to coverage amount. 4. The policy that was purchased first pays first, the second policy pays the remaining up to coverage amount.

3. The individual's policy pays first, the spouse's policy pays the remaining up to coverage amount.

In a home healthcare benefit, all of the following are eligible expenses EXCEPT 1. intermittent part-time nursing care; 2. physical, occupational, or speech therapy; 3. blood transfusions 4. medical social services;

3. blood transfusions

Which of the following is covered by a dread disease policy? 1. mental health and related psychiatric illnesses 2. hospital stays that extend beyond the usual and customary time frame 3. illnesses that do not occur frequently but incur significant costs when they do occur 4. a newly acquired illness that is contracted by a person with a pre-existing condition

3. illnesses that do not occur frequently but incur significant costs when they do occur

Which of the following is characteristic of a nonqualified plan? 1. defined vesting schedule 2. plan established by the employer 3. plan does not meet federal guidelines for tax benefits 4. employer contributions are deductible business expenses

3. plan does not meet federal guidelines for tax benefits

All of the following are ownership rights EXCEPT 1. changing the beneficiary of the policy 2. borrowing funds against cash value 3. switching the policy from one insured to another 4. assigning all of the rights of the policy to another person

3. switching the policy from one insured to another

All of the following are required signatures on a life insurance application EXCEPT 1. the agent. 2. the applicant. 3. the minor in a juvenile policy. 4. the proposed insured.

3. the minor in a juvenile policy.

All of the following are characteristics of variable whole life EXCEPT 1. the premium is level 2. there is no guaranteed cash value 3. there is no guaranteed minimum death benefit. 4. the agent must be licensed in both insurance and securities.

3. there is no guaranteed minimum death benefit.

In noncontributory plans, which percentage of eligible members must participate? 1. 0% 2. 50% 3. 75% 4. 100%

4. 100%

All of the following are nonforfeiture options EXCEPT 1. Cash surrender value 2. Extended term insurance 3. Reduced paid-up insurance 4. Cash dividend option

4. Cash dividend option

Which of the following is the most common method to supplement Medicare coverage? 1. Medicaid 2. Group health insurance 3. Employer Health Insurance 4. Coverage offered by private insurers

4. Coverage offered by private insurers

Which of the following is TRUE of an equity-indexed annuity? 1. It is a variable annuity. 2. It may decrease in value. 3. It requires a securities license to sell. 4. It has a guaranteed minimum interest rate.

4. It has a guaranteed minimum interest rate.

Which of the following amends the Social Security Act to make Medicare secondary to group health plans? 1. ADEA 2. ERISA 3. OBRA 4. TEFRA

4. TEFRA

Which of the following is TRUE for a flexible premium annuity? 1. The actual amount of the annuity benefit is determined in advance. 2. A single set amount premium is paid by the annuitant on an annual basis. 3. The company promises to pay the annuitant an amount each period beginning after a single lump sum payment. 4. The purchaser has the option to vary the amount of each premium payment falling between a minimum and maximum amount.

4. The purchaser has the option to vary the amount of each premium payment falling between a minimum and maximum amount.

When should a buy-sell agreement include a provision for the buy-out of an owner's business interest in the event of a disability? 1. When a company is newly purchased and it is likely the new owner will be disabled within a year. 2. When a takeover of a company with an owner who is in ill-health occurs. 3. When there is a buy-sell agreement funded with disability insurance to buyout the interest of a deceased owner or partner. 4. When there is a buy-sell agreement funded with life insurance to buyout the interest of a deceased owner or partner.

4. When there is a buy-sell agreement funded with life insurance to buyout the interest of a deceased owner or partner.

A group conversion option may be used in all the following instances EXCEPT 1. the termination of the master policy. 2. loss of coverage due to loss of employment. 3. loss of eligibility on the part of a class of insureds. 4. a life-changing event, such as marriage, divorce, or childbirth.

4. a life-changing event, such as marriage, divorce, or childbirth.

All of the following are characteristics of COBRA EXCEPT 1. qualifying events. 2. notification statements. 3. continuation of coverage. 4. change in medical privacy procedures.

4. change in medical privacy procedures.

The group conversion option is allowed for all of the following EXCEPT 1. termination of the master policy. 2. loss of group coverage due to termination of employment. 3. upon the loss of eligibility on the part of a class of insureds. 4. during the annual benefits enrollment period.

4. during the annual benefits enrollment period.

A consumer report used to determine eligibility for insurance may include all of the following EXCEPT 1. character. 2. reputation. 3. credit information. 4. medical underwriting exam.

4. medical underwriting exam.

All of the following are classifications of risk EXCEPT 1. substandard. 2. preferred. 3. declined. 4. non-nicotine.

4. non-nicotine.

During which period of a Disability Income Policy is coverage effective but during which no benefits will be paid under the policy? 1. benefit period 2. elimination period 3. grace period 4. probationary period

4. probationary period

All of the following are TRUE regarding incomplete applications EXCEPT 1. the underwriting department will return the application to the agent. 2. the applicant will have to wait additional time before coverage begins. 3. there will be a delay in the underwriting process. 4. the incomplete application can be accepted with the missing information added later.

4. the incomplete application can be accepted with the missing information added later.

If the insurer wishes to share an applicant's HIV status, the applicant must be given full notice of all of the following EXCEPT 1. insurer's practices with respect to the treatment of this information. 2. the applicant's rights to maintain privacy. 3. an opportunity to refuse the dissemination of the information. 4. the treatment procedures that are covered by the policy.

4. the treatment procedures that are covered by the policy.

Managed care plans increase efficiency by all of the following means EXCEPT 1. increasing beneficiary cost sharing. 2. controlling inpatient admissions and length of stay. 3. selectively contracting with health care providers. 4. transferring the management of costs to the insureds.

4. transferring the management of costs to the insureds

All of the following are requirements to qualify for Social Security disability benefits EXCEPT when 1. credited with the appropriate number of quarters of coverage. 2. total and permanent disabled for at least 5 months. 3. disability expected to last for 12 months or end in death. 4. unable to work in occupation in which the worker was trained or educated.

4. unable to work in occupation in which the worker was trained or educated.

In order for an insurer to increase the premium on a noncancelable policy, which of the following MUST be true? 1. The premium increase must be in the contract at the time it is issued. 2. The insured develops a medical condition that increases risk. 3. The insured reaches the age of 65. 4. The premium increase must be in line with current inflation rates.

1. The premium increase must be in the contract at the time it is issued.

How does the per capita rule apply to proceeds from a life insurance policy? 1. The proceeds are divided equally among living primary beneficiaries. 2. The secondary beneficiary receives the proceeds if the primary beneficiary is no longer living. 3. The proceeds go to the policyholder's estate when no beneficiary is living. 4. The proceeds go to the descendants of the primary beneficiaries

1. The proceeds are divided equally among living primary beneficiaries.

Which is the primary purpose of Health Reimbursement Accounts (HRAs)? 1. To assist covered employees with the payment of medical expenses on a high deductible plan funded through pre-tax contributions. 2. To assist covered employees on standard group health insurance plans by using post tax contributions to fund an account to pay medical expenses. 3. To assist employees who work for small companies to pay medical expenses on high coinsurance policies. 4. To reimburse employees who choose not to participate in the group health coverage provided by their employer.

1. To assist covered employees with the payment of medical expenses on a high deductible plan funded through pre-tax contributions.

Which of the following lists the three common types of permanent individual life insurance? 1. Variable Life, Whole Life, Universal Life 2. Whole Life, Incidental Life, Term Life 3. Universal Life, AD&D,Term Life 4. Group Life, Whole Life, Variable Life

1. Variable Life, Whole Life, Universal Life

Under which situation must insurable interest exist between the applicant and insured at the time of application? 1. When a third-party applicant names themselves beneficiary. 2. When the applicant and the insured are the same person. 3. When the beneficiary is a member of the applicant's immediate family 4. When a third-party applicant names the insured's company as beneficiary.

1. When a third-party applicant names themselves beneficiary.

When will a policy pay on a UCR basis? 1. When particular benefits are not listed on a payment schedule 2. When a surgical procedure is not pre-approved by the insurer 3. When the provider charges a different amount than is listed on the payment schedule 4. When the treatment is received in a different geographic area than where the insured lives

1. When particular benefits are not listed on a payment schedule

When a policy or certificate containing an accelerated benefit provision is applied for or delivered, the producer is responsible for providing the applicant a summary of coverage that includes all of the following EXCEPT 1. a detailed and comprehensive summary of the accelerated benefit 2. definitions of the conditions or occurrences triggering payment of the benefit 3. an explanation of any effects an accelerated benefit on the cash value, death benefit, premium payments, and loans. 4. a statement that benefit payments may adversely affect eligibility for Medicaid

1. a detailed and comprehensive summary of the accelerated benefit

Which of the following policy types is considered double indemnity? 1. accidental death 2. key employee 3. term life 4. whole life

1. accidental death

For an individual long-term care policy there is an annual dollar limit for tax deductions that is based on which of the following? 1. age 2. cost of care 3. policy value 4. premium cost

1. age

What is the return of premium rider? 1. an increasing amount of term insurance that always equals the total of premiums paid up to the current point 2. a provision that allows the insured to cancel the policy in the first two years and have premiums refunded 3. an increasing amount of term insurance that equals the cash value of the policy at any point in time 4. a provision that states the insurer must return any premiums paid during the free-look period

1. an increasing amount of term insurance that always equals the total of premiums paid up to the current point

Which type of receipt makes the insurer liable for the risk from the date of application, regardless of the applicant's insurability? 1. binding receipt 2. conditional receipt 3. inspection receipt 4. temporary receipt

1. binding receipt

According to the time of payment of claims provision, the insurer must make the payment immediately after receiving proof of loss EXCEPT 1. for claims involving periodic payments. 2. if the death is a suicide or due to a pre-existing condition. 3. when the policy is in the incontestability period 4. if the insured is able to eventually return to work.

1. for claims involving periodic payments.

Current assumption whole life policies are sensitive to which of the following? 1. interest rates 2. age of the insured 3. health of the insured 4. current cash value of the policy

1. interest rates

Why is rehabilitation considered worthy of federal help under workers' compensation? 1. it reduces insurance losses and helps regain the worker's dignity 2. the costs to states are prohibitive so federal funding is required 3. states do not have the means to provide rehabilitative services 4. because under the Americans with Disabilities Act it is required

1. it reduces insurance losses and helps regain the worker's dignity

What type of insurance should a company purchase if it wants to insure the life of its CEO? 1. key person insurance 2. BOE insurance 3. group life policy 4. industrial life insurance

1. key person insurance

Which problem was universal life insurance designed to address? 1. low interest rates during periods of high inflation 2. high interest rates during periods of low inflation 3. increased risk of death due to aging 4. lack of a fixed death benefit

1. low interest rates during periods of high inflation

Which of the following is a characteristic of Preferred Provider Organizations (PPOs)? 1. prearranged costs for services rendered 2. providers receive a flat monthly amount for each user 3. ability to receive care at the same cost from any provider 4. emergency treatment is restricted to pre-selected hospitals

1. prearranged costs for services rendered

A basic vision care package includes all of the following EXCEPT 1. safety glasses. 2. the annual eye exam. 3. lenses and frames. 4. contact lenses.

1. safety glasses.

When the courts look at a contract to determine the intent of the parties which of the following is considered? 1. the entire contract 2. the relevant portions of the contract 3. any material added to the basic contract 4. any words that have ambiguous definitions

1. the entire contract

What is the purpose of Stranger-originated life insurance (STOLI)? 1. the policy is originated primarily or solely for the purpose of resale 2. the policy is written so as to avoid proof of insurable interest 3. it is a method of insuring a person who has been previously declined. 4. it is a fraudulent policy meant for financial gain of someone unknown to the insured.

1. the policy is originated primarily or solely for the purpose of resale

Whose responsibility is it to make sure that the company is notified of a death claim at the earliest possible opportunity (in most cases)? 1. the producer 2. the insured 3. the insured's estate 4. the funeral director

1. the producer

Which of the following occurs immediately after the application is submitted and the initial premium paid? 1. the underwriting process begins 2. the applicant's references are checked 3. the beneficiaries are selected 4. the insurance goes into effect.

1. the underwriting process begins

When does insurable interest come into play in a life insurance policy? 1. when the applicant for the policy is not the insured 2. when a charity is named beneficiary of the policy 3. when a beneficiary is irrevocable 4. when the free look period ends

1. when the applicant for the policy is not the insured

States generally define a true "group" for insurance as requiring a minimum of how many participants? 1. 5 2. 10 3. 50 4. 100

2. 10

Which is the major reason why long term care insurance is becoming increasingly important? 1. It is easy to make a profit from investing in long term care 2. As life expectancy increases, the chances of needing long term care also increase 3. Nursing homes only accept Medicare as a secondary insurance source. 4. Many younger people are developing life-threatening conditions and require hospice care.

2. As life expectancy increases, the chances of needing long term care also increase

Obtaining consumer information reports under false pretenses is prosecutable by which of the following? 1. USA Patriot Act 2. Fair Credit Reporting Act 3. State laws where the applicant resides 4. Securities and Exchange Commission

2. Fair Credit Reporting Act

Which policy provision permits the policyowner to take a specified number of days to examine the contract, and allows for cancellation and a full refund if the policyowner rejects the terms or costs? 1. Exclusions 2. Free look 3. Grace period 4. Insuring Clause

2. Free look

Short term disability insurance generally only covers injuries due to which of the following? 1. Occupational injuries 2. Non-occupational injuries 3. injuries covered during the enrollment period 4. injuries not covered by other insurance

2. Non-occupational injuries

Which of the following is defined as the dollar amount beyond which the insured no longer participates in payment of medical expenses? 1. Deductible 2. Stop Loss Limit 3. Maximum Benefit 4. Coinsurance

2. Stop Loss Limit

Which of the following is true about a decreasing term life policy? 1. The cash value of the policy decreases over time. 2. The face amount reaches zero at policy expiration. 3. Premiums decrease over time but the amount of coverage remains constant. 4. Commonly sold as a rider to another type of policy to provide an additional death benefit.

2. The face amount reaches zero at policy expiration.

What happens with the lifetime maximum benefit limit has been reached? 1. The insurer will pay all of the remaining medical costs for as long as the policy is in force. 2. The insured will pay all of the remaining medical costs for as long as the policy is in force. 3. The provider who has reached the limit will no longer receive payments from the insurer. 4. A new policy is issued and the maximum benefit limit is reset to zero ($0).

2. The insured will pay all of the remaining medical costs for as long as the policy is in force.

Why are insurance policies considered conditional contracts? 1. Certain conditions need to be met to make the contract legally enforceable. 2. The policy is conditional upon approval from the underwriting process. 3. There are conditions included that can make the policy invalid. 4. They can be deemed invalid at a future date if misrepresentations were made.

1. Certain conditions need to be met to make the contract legally enforceable.

Which of the following coverage types pays a monthly cash benefit following the elimination period for total disability due to accident or sickness? 1. Disability income insurance 2. Credit disability insurance 3. Recurrent disability insurance 4. Workers compensation disability insurance

1. Disability income insurance

What specific new procedures does the USA Patriot Act require of insurance companies? 1. Establish an anti-money laundering program 2. Investigate applicants for potential terrorist links 3. Report large transactions by charitable organizations 4. To take action against employees for failure to implement the Act.

1. Establish an anti-money laundering program

Why is relying solely on employer group life insurance generally considered inadequate for most individual's needs? 1. It is financially insufficient to cover end of life expenses. 2. It is meant to cover funeral expenses only. 3. It does not pay off the insured's mortgage. 4. It is based on salary amounts that are too low.

1. It is financially insufficient to cover end of life expenses.

Which type of annuity covers two or more annuitants and provides monthly income only until the first annuitant dies? 1. Joint life annuity 2. Life annuity 3. Survivorship life annuity 4. Temporary annuity

1. Joint life annuity

Which of the following was specifically designed to address STOLI and IOLI practices? 1. NCOIL Act 2. Fair Credit Reporting Act 3. State Insurance Statutes 4. HIPAA

1. NCOIL Act

What procedure is used by an insurer to protect itself in the event a dispute arises and the applicant and the agent do not recall the changes that were made in a completed application? 1. The applicant and possibly the agent initial any changes made. 2. The applicant and the agent sign a document that outlines changes made. 3. An arbitration agreement is signed at the time of the signing of the application. 4. All changes must be approved by the underwriter prior to the submission of the application.

1. The applicant and possibly the agent initial any changes made.

Under normal conditions which of the following is TRUE for proof of loss when a single loss is claimed? 1. The insured has 90 days from the date of loss to provide proof of loss. 2. The insured has 30 days from the date of loss to provide proof of loss. 3. The insured is not required to file proof of loss if unable to submit it at time of loss. 4. The insured has two years to file proof of loss if unable to submit it at the time of loss.

1. The insured has 90 days from the date of loss to provide proof of loss.