Section 8 Clinical Laboratory
992. The parasite whose adult resembles a whip and whose eggs have bipolar plugs is A. Stronyloides stercoralis B. Trichuris vulpis C. Toxocara canis D. Toxascaris leonina
Q
290. What tick is the vector for Lyme disease? A. Argas persicus B. Ixodes scapularis C. Otobius megninii D. Rhipicephalus sanguineus
B. Ixodes scapularis
48. Plasma is composed of A. 90% water and 10% dissolved substances B. 80% water and 20% dissolved substances C. 70% water and 30% dissolved substances D. 60% water and 40% dissolved substances
A. 90% water and 10% dissolved substances
601. A canine RBC is A. A bioconcave disk-shaped cell B. A concave disk-shaped cell D. A biconvex disk-shaped cell D. A convex disk-shaped cell
A. A bioconcave disk-shaped cell Disocyte is an archaic term for the bioconcave disk shape of an RC.
581. A standard solution is defined as A. A control used to calibrate laboratory instruments B. Water used to calibrate laboratory instruments C. Alcohol used to calibrate laboratory instruments D. Acetone used to calibrate laboratory instruments
A. A control used to calibrate laboratory instruments A standard solution is commonly distilled water; it is a solution that acts as a control to equilibrate laboratory instruments.
604. The third solution of the Diff-Quik (modified Wright-Giemsa) stain is A. A counterstain B. A fixative C. A rinse D. Isotonic saline
A. A counterstain The blood smear slide is dipped first in the fixative, followed by the red eosinophilic stain, and then the blue basophilic countertain.
38. Leukopenia is A. A decrease in white blood cells B. An increase in white blood cells C. A bone marrow disease D. A type of blood cancer
A. A decrease in white blood cells
47. When evaluating the liver of dogs and cats, AST should be evaluated in conjunction with A. ALT B. Lipase C. LDH D. Glucose
A. ALT ALT: alanine aminotransferase or alanine transaminase. It is an enzyme found in large amounts in the hepatocytes of dogs, cats, and primates. Serum ALT increases if hepatocytes are damaged. AST: aspartate aminotransferase or aspartate transaminase. It is an enzyme present in all tissues of the body (cardiac muscle, skeletal muscle, liver). AST should be evaluated with ALT for dogs and cats. Increased ALT with normal to mildly elevated AST may indicated reversible liver damage. Marked elevation in ALT and AST indicate hepatocellular necrosis. Increased AST with normal ALT may indicate that the source of AST is not liver.
63. Horses typically have higher ___ values than other species. A. AST B. ALP C. ALT D. GGT
A. AST Test method should be specific to the species being tested, or the horse specimen should be diluted before beginning the testing.
618. The extent of which measurements agree with the true value of the quantity measured is A. Accuracy B. Reliability C. Quality control D. Precision
A. Accuracy
57. A false positive urine glucose reading may result from administration of A. Acetaminophen B. Morphine C. NaCl D. NaOH
A. Acetaminophen
430. The normal pH of an omnivore is generally A. Acidic B. Alkaline C. Neutral D. Paradoxical
A. Acidic
499. Keeping the urine ___ will keep struvite crystals dissolved in solution. A. Acidic B. Basic C. Isosthenuric D. Dilute
A. Acidic
705. In dogs and cats the blood chemistry tests most commonly used to evaluate liver function are A. Alanine transaminase and aspartate aminotransferase B. Electrolytes and blood urea nitrogen C. Gamma-glutamyl transferase and sorbitol dehydrogenase D. Amylase and lipase
A. Alanine transaminase and aspartate aminotransferase These enzymes are found in hepatocytes and are used in small animals to evaluate liver function; GGT and SDH are primarily measured to evaluate liver function in horses.
364. Which squares of the Neubauer hemocytometer are used to count leukocytes? A. All nine large squares B. All 25 small squares of the central primary square C. Four small corner squares and the small central square of the central primary square D. Four small squares of the central primary square
A. All nine large squares
473. An antigen epitope is made up of uniquely shaped A. Amino acids B. Carbohydrates C. Cells D. Fatty acids
A. Amino acids
711. Serum chemistry tests for acute pancreatitis include A. Amylase and lipase B. Lipase and trypsin C. Amylase and trypsin D. Amylase, lipase, and trypsin
A. Amylase and lipase Although amylase, lipase, and trypsin are produced and secreted by the pancreas, only amylase and lipase are measured in the serum. Trypsin can be qualitatively measured by the feces as an assessment of chronic pancreatitis.
317. Fluid samples collected through fine-needle aspiration should be collected into A. An EDTA tube B. A heparinized syringe C. A clot tube D. A citrate tube
A. An EDTA tube EDTA will best preserve any cells present in the sample.
605. A FeLV snap test is an enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) that tests specially for FeLV group-specific viral A. Antigen B. Antibody C. Antigen and antibody D. Antigen or antibody
A. Antigen
7. An iodine scrub on skin would result in A. Antisepsis B. Disinfection C. Fumigation D. Sterilization
A. Antisepsis Antisepsis is destruction or inhibition of microbes on skin or living tissue; disinfection is the same but on inanimate objects. Sterilization is the complete destruction of living organisms.
523. Combined immunodeficiency is most commonly seen in what animal? A. Arabian horses B. Jersey cattle C. Doberman pinschers D. Siamese cats
A. Arabian horses Combines immunodeficiency is a genetic disease commonly seen in Arabian horses or Arabian crosses.
3. Bacterial endospores A. Are resistant to heat and desiccation B. Are a form of asexual reproduction C. Are a consequence of mating D. Are highly susceptible to antiseptics
A. Are resistant to heat and desiccation Bacterial endospores are "survival capsules" that allow the organisms to survive harsh environments, but they are not a form of reproduction.
80. Calcium oxalate crystals A. Are seen with ethylene glycol toxicity B. Have a characteristic coffin-lid appearance C. Are seen with hepatic disease D. Have three to six sides
A. Are seen with ethylene glycol toxicity
2. Which of the following is an important function of bacterial fimbriae? A. Attachment B. Locomotion C. Ion transport D. Antibiotic resistance
A. Attachment It is an appendage that can be found on many Gram-negative and some Gram-positive bacteria that is thinner and shorter than a flagellum.
368. Kidney disease results in accumulation of metabolic waste in the blood, a condition known as A. Azotemia B. Bilirubinemia C. Hypernatremia D. Hyperkalemia
A. Azotemia Azotemia means there is presence of urea or other nitrogenous elements in the blood.
353. What biochemical tests are not considered part of a primary hepatic profile? A. BUN and creatinine B. Cholestatic enzymes C. Hepatocellular leakage enzymes D. Total protein and albumin
A. BUN and creatinine BUN and creatinine are biochemical test of the renal profile.
1. What is the morphology of Vibrio sp. bacteria? A. Bacillus B. Coccus C. Spirochete D. Coccobacillus
A. Bacillus Vibrios are gram negative, curved rods.
715. Arterial blood is the preferred sample for measurement of blood levels of A. Bicarbonate B. Chloride C. Sodium D. Magnesium
A. Bicarbonate Bicarbonate levels are often assayed in blood gas analysis to detect alterations in acid-base balance. The preferred sample is heparinized arterial whole blood.
648. EDTA, sodium citrate, and sodium oxalate anticoagulants work by A. Binding calcium B. Chelating potassium C. Forming soluble complexes D. Removing fibrinogen
A. Binding calcium Most anticoagulants work by forming insoluble complexes with calcium.
658. Performing a group of blood chemistry tests to evaluate the overall health of an animal is A. Biochemical profiling B. Quality-control assurance C. A complete body count D. Prognostic evaluation
A. Biochemical profiling
27. The etiologic agent of Lyme disease is A. Borellia burgdorferi B. Coronavirus C. Lentivirus D. Pasteurella multocida
A. Borellia burgdorferi
491. What species has a grossly lobulated kidney? A. Bovine B. Canine C. Equine D. Feline
A. Bovine
504. Fresh urine appears what color when myoglobulinuria is present? A. Brown B. Colorless C. Red D. White
A. Brown
534. How are diseases caused by prions though to be transmitted? A. By ingestion B. By direct contact C. By inhalation D. By injection
A. By ingestion Diseases caused by prions, such as spongiform encephalopathies, are thought to be transmitted by ingestion.
361. Phosphorus concentrations in the body are usually inversely related to the concentration of what substance? A. Calcium B. Magnesium C. Potassium D. Sodium
A. Calcium
507. What is not considered an electrolyte? A. Calcium B. Sodium C. Potassium D. Chloride
A. Calcium Calcium, a mineral, is not considered an electrolyte.
216. What ion increases with malignancy, particularly with lymphosarcoma? A. Calcium B. Phosphorus C. Magnesium D. Potassium
A. Calcium It is a cancer of the lymphocytes (a type of blood cell) and lymphoid tissues. Lymphoid tissue is normally present in many places in the body including lymph nodes, spleen, liver, gastrointestinal tract and bone marrow. In dogs, this is one of the most common causes of hypercalcemia.
721. In an animal with a history of bone resorption or convulsions, blood chemistry analysis is commonly performed to measure blood levels of A. Calcium and phosphorus B. Urea nitrogen and creatinine C. Aspartate aminotransferase and alanine transaminase D. Sodium and potassium
A. Calcium and phosphorus Calcium plays a role in bone development, transmission of nerve impulses, and muscle contraction. Calcium concentrations are usually inversely related to phosphorus concentrations.
326. The best method of urine collection to assess the patency of the urethra is A. Catheterization B. Manual expression C. Free catch D. Cystocentesis
A. Catheterization If the urethra is not patent, it will not be possible to pass a urinary catheter. If there is a partial obstruction, it is possible to manually express the bladder or collect a sample by free catch. Cystocentesis involves direct puncture of the bladder, entirely bypassing the urethra.
656. If you are unable to perform chemistry tests on a sample for a week, you should A. Centrifuge the sample, separate the serum, and freeze it. B. Place the sample in the refrigerator. C. Place the sample in the freezer. D. Centrifuge the sample, separate the serum, and refrigerate it.
A. Centrifuge the sample, separate the serum, and freeze it.
116. A pedigree chart is a A. Chart that shows the ancestry of a particular family B. Chart that shows the crossing of two independent alleles C. Square to show a monohybrid cross D. Square to show a dihybrid cross
A. Chart that shows the ancestry of a particular family
286. The genus that is commonly know as the fur mite is A. Cheyletiella spp. B. Trixacarus spp. C. Psoroptes spp. D. Notoedres spp.
A. Cheyletiella spp. Cheyletiella, also known as walking dandruff, is commonly known as the fur mite because of where it is normally found.
45. Decrease in albumin may occur in A. Chronic liver disease B. A carnivorous diet C. Gastroenteritis D. A vegetarian diet
A. Chronic liver disease Albumin is produced by the liver.
23. Which of the following is a gram-positive bacterium? A. Clostridium B. Pasteurella C. Pseudomonas D. Salmonella
A. Clostridium The rest are all gram-negative organisms.
597. A target cell is also called a A. Codocyte B. Schistocyte C. Spherocyte D. Discocyte
A. Codocyte Codocyte is an archaic term still seen in some texts. Target cell is a more descriptive term (an RBC looks like a target).
6. A bacterial genus can best be described as A. Composed of one or more species B. Composed of classes C. Composed of families D. Belonging to a species
A. Composed of one or more species
557. What animal has a very short estrus with ovulation occurring in metestrus? A. Cow B. Mare C. Queen D. Sow
A. Cow In the cow, estrus is 12 hours only, and ovulation occurs in metestrus.
89. Smudge cells are A. Created while spreading blood for making a blood smear B. Seen with Papanicolaou stains only C. Created during the blood smear staining process D. Specific to species with nucleated RBCs only
A. Created while spreading blood for making a blood smear
167. What are the two diagnostic forms of Giardia? A. Cysts and trophozoites B. Merozoites and schizonts C. Oocysts and sporocysts D. Ova and L3 larvae
A. Cysts and trophozoites Giardia cysts are the infective form and are passed in formed feces; the trophozoite form is more apt to be seen in water feces.
426. Lyme disease is transmitted via A. Deer tick B. Lone star tick C. American dog tick D. Brown dog tick
A. Deer tick The deer tick Ixodes scapularis
297. In what host do the sexually mature adult parasites live? A. Definitive B. Intermediate C. Transport D. Secondary
A. Definitive
586. A substance that has be lyophilized has been A. Dehydrated B. Rehydrated C. Thawed D. Frozen
A. Dehydrated
568. Decreased total protein can suggest all of the following, except A. Dehydration B. Renal disease C. Overhydration D. Gastrointestinal losses
A. Dehydration An increased total protein is most indicative of dehydration.
310. In what analysis could heartworm microfilariae appear as an incidental finding? A. Differential cell count B. Modified Knott test C. Difil test D. ELISA test
A. Differential cell count All of the tests listed are tests specific for heartworm Only the differential cell count, for which a blood smear is examined, may accidentally or incidentally reveal the presence of microfilariae.
130. The nonpathogenic gram-positive rods found on skin are A. Diphtheroids B. Coliforms C. Anaerobes D. Dermatophytes
A. Diphtheroids
304. The least sensitive diagnostic technique for finding microfilariae is A. Direct examination of blood B. Buffy coat method C. Modified Knott technique D. Difil test
A. Direct examination of blood All of the techniques are concentrating methods, except for the direct examination of a whole blood sample.
331. Bilirubinuria is considered a normal finding in what species? A. Dog B. Cats C. Horses D. Sheep
A. Dog Small amounts of bilirubin are considered normal findings in dogs.
549. When do most bitches normally ovulate? A. Early in estrus B. Early in diestrus C. Late in estrus D. Late in proestrus
A. Early in estrus
546. What cytologic finding on a transtracheal aspiration from a cow is consistent with finding larva of Dictyocaulus viviparous? A. Eosinophils B. Anaplastic epithelial cells C. Mesothelial cells D. Lymphocytes
A. Eosinophils
603. The destruction of erythrocytes outside of the blood vessels is called A. Extravascular hemolysis B. Extravascular hemoglobinemia C. Intravascular hemolysis D. Intravascular hemoglobinemia
A. Extravascular hemolysis Key words are "outside the blood vessels." Extra, outsidee; vascular, vessels; hemo, blood cells; lysis, breakdown.
342. The best sample to examine for specific gravity of canine urine is the A. First morning sample B. Midday sample C. Late afternoon sample D. Last sample of the day
A. First morning sample The first urine sample of the morning tends to be the most concentrated, thereby indicating the ability of the patient's kidney to concentrate urine.
461. Myiasis is an infestation of A. Flies B. Mites C. Ticks D. Lice
A. Flies Myiasis is caused by flies laying eggs in living tissue, which then hatch, and the larvae eat the tissue.
433. Cysts of what organism may be seen on a fecal flotation? A. Giardia B. Mycoplasma (haemobartonella) C. Toxoplasmosis D. Trichomonas
A. Giardia In addition, the trophozoite form may be seen in diarrheic feces, but cysts are the infective stage.
429. A renal cast is A. Glycoprotein mold of the renal tubules B. Calculi formed in the urinary tract C. Crystals stuck together D. Calculi formed in the renal medulla
A. Glycoprotein mold of the renal tubules Casts are cylindrical molds of the renal tubules in which they are formed and are made up of glycoprotein.
528. Which of the following is most commonly associated with myocotoxicosis? A. Grains and forage B. Cryptococcosis C. Water D. Histoplasmosis
A. Grains and forage Grains and forage are most commonly associated with mycotoxicosis, which is due to a toxin produced by certain types of fungi growing on the feedstuffs.
122. Nutritive media will A. Grow almost all types of bacteria B. Grow only some types of bacteria C. Differentiate certain types of bacteria D. Grow gram-negative bacteria only
A. Grow almost all types of bacteria
699. Laser-flow technology is used in A. Hematology analyzers B. Chemistry analyzers C. Coagulation analyzers D. Electrolyte analyzers
A. Hematology analyzers Laser-flow technology is used to determine blood cell concentrations, white blood cell differential, and other hematology parameters.
389. Which of the following statements is true in regard to using hemolyzed serum in a dry chemistry analyzer? A. Hemolyzed serum can falsely elevate some results. B. Hemolyzed serum can falsely decrease some results. C. Hemolyzed serum is corrected by adding saline. D. Hemolyzed serum is corrected by adding sterile water.
A. Hemolyzed serum can falsely elevate some results. Hemolysis and lipemia may elevate the enzyme concentration.
78. Epithelial cells in urine are estimated as the average number per A. High-power field B. Low-power field C. Medium-power field D. Oil-immersion field
A. High-power field 40x objective
269. What characteristic is not found in toxic neutrophils? A. Howell-Jolly bodies B. Vacuolated cytoplasm C. Dohle bodies D. Basophilic cytoplasm
A. Howell-Jolly bodies Howell-Jolly bodies are remnants of nuclear material found in erythrocytes, not leukocytes.
43. Creatinine concentrations in serum are influenced by A. Hydration level B. Amylase concentration C. Liver disease D. Insulin production
A. Hydration level
229. Most newborn animals are A. Hypogammaglobulinemic B. Hypergammaglobulinemic C. Hypobetaglobulinemic D. Hyperbetaglobulinemic
A. Hypogammaglobulinemic Newborns rely on the antibodies they receive from the colostrum the first few days of life for protection against infectious disease. These antibodies are gamma globulins.
484. What is not seen in a DIC? A. Icterus B. Hemorrhage C. Thrombocytopenia D. Prolonged activated clotting time
A. Icterus Icterus is not seen in a disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). Because this is an abnormal activation of all of the coagulation pathway, hemorrhage, thrombocytopenia, and a prolonged activated clotting time (ACT) are all seen.
221. Which of the following would not be an acceptable action if a control value is out of range? A. Ignore the result; it is a simple outlier (sporadic result) B. Call the technical representative from the company C. Repeat the test using the same reagent D. Repeat the test using a new reagent
A. Ignore the result; it is a simple outlier (sporadic result) Some action must be taken, and even simply repeating the test and getting a good value shows that the out-of-range value was probably a simple outlier, especially when you know the control usually falls within its normal range.
155. A left shift refers to an increased number of A. Immature neutrophils B. Immature RBCs C. Immature platelets D. Immature lymphocytes
A. Immature neutrophils Left shift typically refers to increased numbers of immature neutrophils that may include any stage, from bands to more immature forms.
522. What is being measures or tested for when trying to diagnose failure of passive immunity in a foal? A. Immunoglobulins B. Plasma cells C. Lymphocytes D. Fibrinogen
A. Immunoglobulins
141. To make a smear with anemic blood, A. Increase the angle of the pusher slide B. Decrease the angle of the pusher slide C. Use a large drop of blood D. Wait for the drop of blood to partially dry
A. Increase the angle of the pusher slide Anemic blood is thinner in consistency, and using the normal angle creates too long a smear. Increasing the angle shortens the smear.
173. In a healthy animal, diminished water intake or loss of water would result in ___ urine specific gravity. A. Increased B. Decreased C. Isosthenuric D. Isotonic
A. Increased The kidneys would preserve water but still remove the wastes, resulting in more concentrated urine.
54. With significant dehydration in an otherwise healthy patient which of the following would likely be seen on a urinalysis and CBC? A. Increased urine SG and increased PCV B. Increased urine SG and decreased PCV C. Decreased urine SG and decreased PCV D. Decreased urine SG and increased PCV
A. Increased urine SG and increased PCV With loss of fluid, both urine and the plasma will become more concentrated.
132. Fungal cultures are A. Incubated at room temperature B. Incubated in a microaerophilic environment C. Incubated at body temperature D. Incubated in anaerobic environment
A. Incubated at room temperature
392. Transmission of coccidia occurs by A. Ingesting oocysts B. Direct bodily contact C. Transmammary transmission D. Transplacental transmission
A. Ingesting oocysts
131. To get the best results, all fecal cultures are A. Inoculated onto BAP, CNA, and TSB B. Inoculated onto MAC, SS, and GN C. Inoculated onto MH, SS, and THIO D. Inoculated onto BAP, MAC, and SS
A. Inoculated onto BAP, CNA, and TSB
697. Enzymes are proteins most often found in highest concentration A. Inside cells B. Outside cells C. In the blood D. In the urine
A. Inside cells
67. Electrolytes are commonly measured by what method? A. Ion-specific electrodes B. Refractometry C. Adsorption D. Enzymatic digestion
A. Ion-specific electrodes A popular electrolyte analyzer, the IDEXX VetLyte, uses ion-specific electrodes to measure sodium, potassium, and chloride.
133. Staphylococcus aureus A. Is catalase-positive B. Is coagulase-negative C. Grows in an anaerobic environment only D. Is gram-negative
A. Is catalase-positive The enzyme, catalase, is produced by bacteria that respire using oxygen, and protects them from the toxic by-products of oxygen metabolism.
584. The scanning objective on a binocular microscope A. Is used to focus and orient the viewer when reading a slide B. Is the 40x objective C. Is the 10x objective D. Is used when looking for coccidia
A. Is used to focus and orient the viewer when reading a slide The scanning objective on a binocular microscope is the lowest magnification power (usually 4x) and should be the first objective used to bring the sample into view and focus.
693. Enzymes with similar activities but different physical and chemical properties, as well as different tissues of origin, are A. Isoenzymes B. Coenzymes C. Cofactors D. Activators
A. Isoenzymes Some enzymes found in different tissues occur as isoenzymes. The serum concentration of an enzyme that occurs as isoenzymes is the total of the concentrations of all of the isoenzymes present. The source of a particular isoenzyme can be identified by determining which isoenzyme is present in a patient's sample.
593. Which of the following is correct when describing a large lymphocyte? A. It has the same function as a small lymphocyte. B. Its primary function is phagocytosis. C. It has a small amount of cytoplasm. D. Its nucleus stains dark blue with Wright stain.
A. It has the same function as a small lymphocyte. The function of the lymphocyte does not change, regardless of size.
466. Which of the following is another term for icterus? A. Jaundice B. Xanthochromia C. Ketonemia D. Hemoglobinuria
A. Jaundice
386. The mucin clot test is performed on A. Joint fluid B. Plasma C. Serum D. Urine
A. Joint fluid
502. Urine often has a sweet odor if which of the following is present? A. Ketones B. Bacteria C. Bilirubin D. Protein
A. Ketones
208. What organ conserves nutrients, removes waste products, maintain blood pH, and controls blood pressure? A. Kidney B. Liver C. Pancreas D. Spleen
A. Kidney In addition, the kidney maintains homeostasis by regulating water and electrolyte levels and producing the hormone important in RBC production.
589. What two cell types can be counted using a Unopette and hemocytometer? A. Leukocytes and thrombocytes B. Epithelial cells and erythrocytes C. Thrombocytes and epithelial cells D. Monocytes and plasma cells
A. Leukocytes and thrombocytes RBC Unopettes are inaccurate. WBCs and platelets can still be counted using a Unopette for dilution and a hemacytometer for the count. It is not possible to accurately differentiate WBC types on the hemocytometer. Epithelial cells are not counted; they are a skin contaminant from the blood draw.
679. In wet chemistry technology, the amount of chemical substance in the blood is determined by measuring the A. Light passing through or absorbed by the final sample B. Heat generated by the end product C. Light reflected from the slide or card D. Volume, temperature, and pH of the final sample
A. Light passing through or absorbed by the final sample Light passing through the sample is measured as the percent of transmittance (T) and light not passing through is measured as absorbance.
87. Mesothelial cells are cells that A. Line the pleural, peritoneal, and visceral surfaces B. Are square with usually one round to oval nucleus C. Line blood and lymph vessels D. Are squamous with blue to purple oval inclusions
A. Line the pleural, peritoneal, and visceral surfaces They can be hard to distinguish from macrophages once they have been activated.
292. An ectoparasite known both for its host specificity and site specificity is the A. Louse B. Mite C. Tick D. Flea
A. Louse
190. What media is selective for gram-negative bacteria? A. MacConkey B. BAP (blood agar plate) C. Mannitol salt agar D. Mueller-Hinton agar
A. MacConkey BAP: supports growth of both gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria. Mannitol sugar agar: selects for staphylococci. Mueller-Hinton: used for antimicrobial sensitivity testing.
417. Which of the following is an example of a selective medium? A. MacConkey B. Mueller-Hinton C. Trypticase soy agar with 5% sheep blood D. Trypticase soy agar
A. MacConkey Selective agar "selects for" a particular type of growth, like gram-negative organisms. Most gram-positive organisms will not grown on MacConkey's. The other three will growth both gram-negative and gram-positive organisms.
624. The sum of all values divided by the number of values is the A. Mean B. Mode C. Median D. Standard deviation
A. Mean
379. A California mastitis test A. Measures leukocytes in the milk of each quarter B. Measures trypsin-like factor in the milk of each quarter C. Measures bacterial cells in the whole milk of the udder D. Measures cellular nuclear protein in the whole milk of the udder
A. Measures leukocytes in the milk of each quarter The total white cell count of milk is reflected by the degree of precipitation or gel formation.
458. Occult heartworm infections are those in which A. Microfilariae are absent B. L3 larvae are absent C. Adults are absent D. Antibodies are absent
A. Microfilariae are absent Occult heartworm infections are those in which microfilariae are absent; this is very common.
194. What microorganism is an etiologic agent of ringworm? A. Microsporum sp. B. Mycobacterium sp. C. Micrococcus sp. D. Moraxella sp.
A. Microsporum sp. Microsporum canis accounts for a large percentage of canine and feline ringworm cases; two species of Trichophyton also cause the infection in dogs and cats.
612. Cheyletiella spp. are A. Mites B. Nematodes C. Lice D. Ticks
A. Mites Cheyletiella spp. are mites commonly found on rabbits, dogs, and cats and are commonly called the walking dandruff mite.
565. How do transfusion reactions in the cat differ from transfusion reactions in the dog? A. More severe in the cat B. More acute in the dog C. Severe pruritus in the cat D. More severe in the dog
A. More severe in the cat Although rare, transfusion reactions in the cat are much more severe than those in the dog and may occur with the first transfusion, which does not occur in the dog.
108. A plasmid is a A. Nonchromosomal, circular strand of bacterial genome B. Chromosomal, circular strand of bacterial genome C. Nonchromosomal, circular strand viral particle D. Chromosomal, circular strand viral particle
A. Nonchromosomal, circular strand of bacterial genome
443. What equine parasite produces microfilariae, which causes patchy alopecia and depigmentation? A. Onchocerca B. Oxyuris C. Habronema D. Psoroptes
A. Onchocerca
480. What large cell with multiple separate nuclei is found in bone marrow? A. Osteoclast B. Megakaryocyte C. Osteoblast D. Monoblast
A. Osteoclast The osteoclast is a normal large cell in the marrow with separate multiple nuclei. The megakaryocyte is similar, except that the nuclei are all attached and not separate. The osteoblast and monoblast are also large cells, but have a single nucleus.
494. What is becoming a common type of urolith in cats? A. Oxalate B. Silica C. Urate D. Cystine
A. Oxalate Oxalate is becoming a common type of urolith, a stone in the urinary tract, in cats.
396. The main function of the neutrophil is A. Phagocytosis B. Hypersensitivity reaction C. Allergic reaction D. Immune response
A. Phagocytosis
226. To dilute a serum sample for retesting when the value is out of the instrument's linearity range, use A. Physiologic saline B. 5% saline C. 5% dextrose D. Sterile water
A. Physiologic saline Physiologic saline is most like serum in composition.
472. What is not associated with a responsive anemia? A. Poikilocytosis B. Reticulocytosis C. Anisocytosis D. Polychromasia
A. Poikilocytosis Poikilocytosis, which is a variation in the red cell shape, is not associated with a responsive anemia. Anisocytosis (variation in cell size), reticulocytosis (elevation of reticulocytes), and polychromasia (variation in color) are all seen in responsive anemias.
147. Reticulocytes on a modified Wright stain (e.g., Diff-Quik) appear A. Polychromatic B. Hypochromic C. Hyperchromic D. Crenated
A. Polychromatic Polychromasia is a slight bluish tinge caused by RNA that is not completely gone from the RBC. A hypochromic RBC is a cell that has insufficient hemoglobin and has more central pallor than normal. Hyperchromasia is a condition that does not really exist, but spherocytes look hyperchromic; they appear darker than normal. Crenated RBCs have evenly spaced, short projections all around the cells, which are artifacts.
613. Which of the following is not a fecal flotation medium? A. Potassium hydroxide B. Zinc sulfate C. Sodium nitrate D. Sugar solution
A. Potassium hydroxide Potassium hydroxide is used to clear hair during fungal examinations.
640. Ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA) is the anticoagulant of choice for hematology because it A. Preserves blood cell morphology B. Simultaneously stains and preserves blood cells C. Destroys red cells while preserving white cells D. Destroys white cells while preserving red cells
A. Preserves blood cell morphology
670. False decreases in serum glucose levels can be caused by A. Prolonged contact with red blood cells before separating the serum B. Refrigerating the serum sample before analysis C. Freezing the serum sample before analysis D. A lipemic sample
A. Prolonged contact with red blood cells before separating the serum Erythrocytes use glucose for energy; serum and plasma must be separated from cells as soon as possible after blood collection.
482. In a normal marrow sample, what cell should be the most immature? A. Prorubricyte B. Metamyelocyte C. Rubricyte D. Myelocyte
A. Prorubricyte
137. Which of the following is considered a serious primary pathogen in birds, reptiles, and amphibians? A. Pseudomonas B. Shigella C. Staphylococcus D. Micrococcus
A. Pseudomonas
51. What color blood collection tube top indicates that heparin is the anticoagulant? A. Purple B. Green C. Blue D. Gray
A. Purple Blue: citrate Gray: sodium fluoride
583. A QBC evaluated the blood for A. Quantitative buffy coat B. Qualitative blood count C. Quality blood count D. Quantitative buffy cells
A. Quantitative buffy coat QBC stands for quantitative buffy coat, in which a machine quantitates the numbers of various white blood cells that are concentrated in the buffy coat of a spun, specialized hematocrit tube.
533. What color do acid-fast organisms stain when stained with an acid-fast stain? A. Red B. Blue C. Green D. Black
A. Red
253. Macrocytic anemia suggests A. Regeneration B. Lack of hemoglobin C. Iron deficiency D. Bone marrow pathology
A. Regeneration Macrocystosis is usually an indication that there is ongoing regeneration or erythrocytes, because immature cells are larger in size than fully mature erythrocytes.
653. What condition will not cause hemolysis? A. Removing the needle from the syringe to place blood in a collection tube B. Freezing a whole blood sample C. Vigorously mixing a sample after collection D. Forcing a blood sample through the needle
A. Removing the needle from the syringe to place blood in a collection tube
178. WBCs in urine sediment may be confused with A. Renal epithelial cells B. Transitional epithelial cells C. Squamous epithelial cells D. Caudate epithelial cells
A. Renal epithelial cells The size ranges for the two cell types overlap.
94. Polychromasia in an immature RBC will appear as a ___ on a blood smear stained with new methylene blue stain. A. Reticulocyte B. Dohle body C. Barr body Schistocyte
A. Reticulocyte Polychromasia: Erythrocytes (RBCs) that have a bluish tint when stained with regular blood stains and are reticulocytes (granular precipitates) with NMB.
688. Coagulation test would be useful for diagnosing A. Rodenticide poisoning B. Thyroid function C. Adrenal function D. Ethylene glycol poisoning
A. Rodenticide poisoning Rodenticides act by prolonging coagulation times.
202. What agar is used for antimicrobial susceptibility testing? A. Sabouraud agar B. Mueller-Hinton agar C. MacConkey agar D. Kligler iron agar
A. Sabouraud agar Sabouraud's is for fungi. MacConkey selects for gram-negative bacteria. Kligler iron is for differential of enterobacteriaceae.
296: A local dairy farmer has just acquired some livestock from Louisiana and is concerned that they may have Fasciola hepatica. What fecal examination method will give you the best chance of finding eggs of this parasite? A. Sedimentation B. Centrifugal flotation C. Simple flotation D. Direct smear
A. Sedimentation Because the eggs of Fasciola hepatica are heavy, they sink rather than float.
642. What is the noncellular portion of coagulated whole blood called after it has been centrifuged? A. Serum B. Plasma C. Anticoagulant D. Hemolysin
A. Serum
168. Compared to a roundworm ova, coccidia appear A. Smaller B. The same size C. Twice as large D. Three times as large
A. Smaller Oocyst size for Isospora canis is 32 to 53 by 26 to 43 microns, compared to Toxocara canis ova, which is 90 by 75 microns.
713. The principle extracellular cation that is commonly measured in a blood chemistry profile is A. Sodium B. Potassium C. Chloride D. Bicarbonate
A. Sodium
10. In the bacterial name Borrelia burgdorferi, what does burgdorferi represent? A. Species B. Genus C. Family D. Class
A. Species
630. What organ has both lymphatic and hematologic functions? A. Spleen B. Pancreas C. Tonsil D. Liver
A. Spleen
631. What organ has storage sinuses that hold blood and release it into circulation when the need for oxygen is increased? A. Spleen B. Pancreas C. Parathyroid D. Liver
A. Spleen
324. The largest of the epithelial cells found in urine are the A. Squamous epithelial cells B. Caudate epithelial cells C. Transitional epithelial cells D. Renal epithelial cells
A. Squamous epithelial cells
60. Amylase acts to break down A. Starches and glycogen B. Fats and carbohydrates C. Fats and starches D. Protein and amino acids
A. Starches and glycogen
197. The species of this genus can cause strangles in horses. A. Streptococcus B. Clostridium C. Pseudomonas D. Malassezia
A. Streptococcus Strangles is an upper respiratory tract disease caused by Streptococcus equi. Spread by secretions or fomites. Clinical signs include swelling of the lymph nodes, under the mandible, in the guttural pouches, and in the throat. Streptococcus spp. are normally present in the environment, intestine, and oral cavities but are important pathogens.
325. The most common uroliths found in feline and canine urine are A. Struvite B. Calcium oxalate C. Urate D. Cystine
A. Struvite
691. In blood chemistry testing, the substance on which an enzyme acts is the A. Substrate B. Sediment C. Proenzyme D. Product
A. Substrate Each enzyme has a specific substrate; enzymes are often named for the substrate on which they act.
553. What is an example of a cornified vaginal epithelial cell? A. Superficial cell B. Ciliated columnar epithelial cell C. Parabasal cell D. Intermediate cell
A. Superficial cell The superficial cell, which often resembles a potato chip, is an example of a cornified vaginal epithelial cell.
380. What is the best method to obtain a sample when attempting to determine whether dermatophytes are present? A. Take hair from the periphery of the lesion B. make an impression smear of the entire lesion. C. Take hair from the center of the lesion. D. Perform a skin scrape from the center of the lesion.
A. Take hair from the periphery of the lesion
537. Cestodes are A. Tapeworms B. Flukes C. Roundworms D. Thorny-headed worms
A. Tapeworms
273. Secondary hemostasis refers to A. The coagulation cascade B. Vascular spasm C. Clot lysis D. Platelet plug formation
A. The coagulation cascade Vascular spasm and platelet plug formation occur during primary hemostasis. Clot lysis occurs after the traumatized tissue has healed.
469. What does not occur when you change from the low-power objective to the high-power objective when using a microscope? A. The field becomes brighter. B. The field of view is smaller. C. The image is magnified. D. More details are seen.
A. The field becomes brighter. As you change from the low-power objective to the high-power objective when using a microscope, the image is magnified, the field of view is smaller, more details are seen, and the field becomes darker, not lighter, so you need to increase the light.
105. Antibody titer is a test that measures A. The level of antibody in serum B. The level of antigenic response C. The level of antibody in a virus D. The level of antigen in a virus
A. The level of antibody in serum
463. Which statement is true about Dirofilaria infection in the cat? A. The life span of heartworms in cats is shorter than in dogs. B. Microfilariae are commonly seen in cat infections. C. Adult worm burdens in cats is similar in numbers to dogs. D. Dirofliaria causes a severe anemia in cats.
A. The life span of heartworms in cats is shorter than in dogs. Heartworms in cats usually live up to 2 to 3 years, compared to 5 to years in dogs. They also have fewer and smaller adult worms, and microfilaremia is uncommon. Cats overall are more resistant hosts of heartworms than are dogs.
113. Epistasis is A. The masking of a trait by another trait B. Traits that are due to the interaction of several pairs of alleles C. A cross in which each allele makes a comparable contribution to the trait D. A cross of three alleles over two alternate alleles
A. The masking of a trait by another trait An example of epistasis is the case of a black cat with tabby stripes; the stripes cannot be seen because of the black color.
690. The group of values for a particular blood constituent, derived when a laboratory has repeatedly assayed samples from a significant number of clinically normal animals of a given species, is called A. The reference range B. The biochemical profile C. The standard curve D. Quality control
A. The reference range
398. What information do the RBC indices yield? A. The size, weight, and hemoglobin concentration of an average RBC B. The combined size, weight, and hemoglobin concentration of all RBCs C. The specific type of anemia present D. The packed cell volume
A. The size, weight, and hemoglobin concentration of an average RBC
574. "Railroad tracks" on a blood smear most often occurs when A. The slide is made with inconsistent pressure B. The smear is made too fast C. The slide is not clean D. The blood drop is too big
A. The slide is made with inconsistent pressure Railroad tracks do not allow a nice monolayer for viewing and occur during the push/pull phase of a blood smearing, when too much pressure or inconsistent pressure is maintained on the push/pull slide.
101. Allergy shots cause A. The suppressor T-cell population to increase B. A reduction in the formation of IgG antibodies C. A reduction in the formation of IgE antibodies D. An increase in the B-cell population
A. The suppressor T-cell population to increase
724. The gland that is evaluated by measurement of blood levels of T3 and T4 is the A. Thyroid gland B. Pancreas C. Pituitary gland D. Thymus
A. Thyroid gland The thyroid gland secretes thyroid hormone (thyroxine), which is a combination of T3 and T4; T4 is also converted to T3 in the tissues.
726. Blood chemistry analysis is commonly performed to evaluate function of the ___ in an animal showing lethargy, obesity, mild anemia, infertility, and alopecia. A. Thyroid gland B. Pancreas C. Thymus D. Adrenal glands
A. Thyroid gland These are all signs of hypothyroidism.
32. What parasite has only the cat as its definitive host? A. Toxoplasma gondii B. Giardia Iamblia C. Isospora rivolta D. Balantidium coli
A. Toxoplasma gondii
36. Which of the following would be a parenteral route of pathogen transmission? A. Transfusion B. Contaminated food C. Droplet infection D. Direct contact
A. Transfusion
419. The Fungassay test medium is selective for what organism? A. Trichophyton B. Trichuris C. Toxoplasma D. Tritrichomonas
A. Trichophyton Ringworm organisms use the dextrose in Fungassay agars.
172. Which of the following protozoan parasites of cattle causes abortion or fetal resorption? A. Tritrichomonas B. Eimeria C. Giardia D. Cryptosporidium
A. Tritrichomonas Tritrichomonas causes reproductive problems; the other three can cause diarrhea.
614. Which of these is not a stage of a protozoan life cycle? A. Trophite B. Trophozoite C. Cyst D. Oocyst
A. Trophite The trophozoite is the motile stage of a flagellate protozoon and is the vegetative multiplying form. The cyst is the encysted form that has lost the flagellum. Schistocytes are the infective stage of coccidia.
622. When would you absolutely not have to use a control solution? A. Two hours after you got acceptable results and no changes have occurred B. When you change a lot number of a reagent C. When there is a shift change in laboratory personnel D. When you perform instrument maintenance
A. Two hours after you got acceptable results and no changes have occurred
53. Which of the following substances used to evaluate kidney filtration and function is excreted by the kidneys and up to 40% reabsorbed by the tubules? A. Urea B. Creatinine C. Glucose D. Sodium
A. Urea Urea is excreted by the kidneys, and up to 40% is reabsorbed by the tubules for reexcretion. Rate of reabsorption is inversely proportional to the amount of urine output; therefore, urea evaluates both filtration and function.
427. Pollakiuria is A. Urinating frequently, small volume voided B. Complete lack of urine production C. Excessive drinking and urinating D. Excessive urination at night
A. Urinating frequently, small volume voided Pollakiuria is commonly seen in blocked cats, who squat frequently to urinate but void small amounts only.
608. The correct medical term for a urinary bladder stone is A. Urolith B. Cystolith C. Renal calculus D. Cystic calculus
A. Urolith Uro means "urinary bladder"; lith means "stone".
56. Glycosuria exists A. When blood glucose levels exceed the renal threshold for absorption of glucose B. When blood glucose levels are lower than the renal threshold for absorption of glucose C. When urine glucose levels are lower than the renal threshold for absorption of glucose D. When urine glucose levels are higher than the serum threshold for absorption of glucose
A. When blood glucose levels exceed the renal threshold for absorption of glucose Excess glucose is flushed from the body into the urine.
367. If eosinophil Unopettes are available, they can be used to indirectly determine the total count of avian A. White blood cells B. Red blood cells C. Platelets D. Heterophils
A. White blood cells
114. Females have which of the following sex chromosome designations? A. XX B. YY C. YZ D. XY
A. XX
50. Icteric serum is what color? A. Yellow B. Red C. Brown D. Green
A. Yellow Icteric: jaundice; result of excess bilirubin in the blood. Jaundice is a medical condition with yellowing of the skin or whites of the eyes, arising from excess of the pigment bilirubin and typically caused by obstruction of the bile duct, by liver disease, or by excessive breakdown of red blood cells.
332. Sadie, A 17-year-old spayed female domestic shorthair cat, is in the final stages of chronic renal failure. On presentation, you expect to find that her urine specific gravity will probably be A. 1.002 B. 1.012 C. 1.030 D. 1.060
B. 1.012 Animals in the final stages of chronic renal failure are isosthenuric, that is, they have urine specific gravities of between 1.008 to 1.012
76. The average urine specific gravity for a healthy adult cat is A. 1.025 B. 1.030 C. 1.035 D. 1.040
B. 1.030
308. What is the minimum number of minutes a fecal flotation should stand before examination? A. 5 minutes B. 10 minutes C. 20 minutes D. 30 minutes
B. 10 minutes Fecal samples that do not stand for a long enough time may not reveal the presence of ova. Standing for an excessive amount of time may distort the ova present, complicating their identification.
307. Fecal specimens should be examined routinely with what objective? A. 4x B. 10x C. 40x D. 100x
B. 10x
100. Which of the following combinations of objective lenses is the best for hematology work? A. 10x, 40x, 50x B. 10x, 40x, 100x C. 40x, 50x, 100x D. 40x, 100x, 150x
B. 10x, 40x, 100x
11. The temperature that must be reached in an autoclave to destroy microorganisms is ___. A. 110 C B. 121 C C. 170 C D. 240 C
B. 121 C
109. According to the Punnett square, in a cross of Bb x Bb, the F1 generations will be made up of A. 25% and 75%, or 1:3 B. 25%, 50%, and 25%. or 1:2:1 C. 25%, 25%, 25%, and 25%, or 1:1:1:1 D. 20%, 30%, and 50%, or 1:1:2
B. 25%, 50%, and 25%. or 1:2:1
322. The normal numbers of erythrocytes and leukocytes in urine sediment do not exceed A. 1 per high-power field B. 3 to 5 per high-power field C. 5 to 10 per high-power field D. More than 10 per high-power field
B. 3 to 5 per high-power field
354. The total serum protein is 7.3 g/dl and the albumin is 3.5 g/dl. What are the globulin value and the A/G ratio, respectively? A. 2.09 g/dl, 1.67 B. 3.8 g/dl, 0.92 C. 10.8 g/dl, 1.09 D. 14.6 g/dl, 1.35
B. 3.8 g/dl, 0.92 Globulin is not measured directly, rather it is calculated by subtracting serum albumin from the total protein value. In this case, 7.3 - 3.5, or 3.8 g/dl. The A/G ratio would be 3.5 divided by 3.8, which is 0.92
382. The red-top Vacutainer tube should sit at room temperature for ___ before centrifugation, allowing the clot to form. A. 5 minutes B. 30 minutes C. 1 hour D. 0 minutes (No clot will form).
B. 30 minutes Blood should be allowed to thoroughly form the fibrin clot matrix by resting at room temperature 20 to 30 minutes before centrifugation.
666. For most blood chemistry examinations, serum or plasma samples are stable at refrigerated temperatures for A. 4 to 7 hours B. 4 to 7 days C. 4 to 7 weeks D. 4 to 7 months
B. 4 to 7 days General recommendation; chemicals in serum or plasma are more stable when refrigerated than at room temperature.
265. Which erythrocyte count is within the normal reference range for a healthy adult cat? A. 35,000/microliter B. 6,250,000/microliter C. 7500/microliter D. 257,000/microliter
B. 6,250,000/microliter
406. Given a WBC count of 10,000/microliter and a relative value of 65% neutrophils, calculate the absolute value of neutrophils. A. 65/microliter B. 6500/microliter C. 650/microliter D. 65,000/microliter
B. 6500/microliter The white blood cell count is multiplied by the relative value (%) to determine the absolute value of each type of cell present.
471. The average canine erythrocyte is often used as a ruler to estimate the sizes of other cells. What is the average diameter of an adult canine red blood cell? A. 20 microns B. 7 microns C. 12 microns D. 3 microns
B. 7 microns
409. What would be considered a normal WBC count for a healthy adult horse? A. 30 x 10^3/microliter B. 8 x 10^3/microliter C. 3 x 10^6/microliter D. 8 x 10^6/microliter
B. 8 x 10^3/microliter
106. By definition, an allergen is A. Produced in response to an antigen B. A material that invokes an allergic response C. A process of mutation D. Serum that contains antibodies
B. A material that invokes an allergic response
218. A 95% sensitivity in reference to a serology test kit refers to A. Effects of other influences on test results B. Ability of the test to properly identify a diseased patient's serum C. Ability of the test to give accurate results if stored properly D. How easily a test can be run
B. Ability of the test to properly identify a diseased patient's serum A sensitivity of 95% implies that the assay will identify positive samples 95 out of 100 times when the patient has the disease. Specificity refers to the ability of a test to identify negative samples when the disease is absent.
716. The term A/G ratio refers to the blood ratio of A. Alpha globulins to gamma globulins B. Albumin to glucose C. Ammonia to glucose D. Aspartate aminotransferase to gamma-glutamyl transferase
B. Albumin to glucose The A/G ratio is commonly determined as part of a liver profile.
365. Which squares of the Neubauer hemocytometer are used to count platelets? A. All nine large squares B. All 25 small squares of the central primary square C. Four small corner squares and the small central square of the central primary square D. Four small squares of the central primary square
B. All 25 small squares of the central primary square
596. A blast cell is not a characteristic of A. An immature cell B. An old, degenerating cell C. A neoplasm arising in the bone marrow D. A lymphocytic reaction to an antigenic stimulus
B. An old, degenerating cell A blast cell, by definition, is a reactive and/or young cell.
514. A false positive test result is one in which the A. Animal is affected and the test is negative B. Animal is not affected and the test is positive C. Animal is not affected and the test is negative D. Animal is affected and the test is positive
B. Animal is not affected and the test is positive
512. What is the term for a substance that stimulates antibody production? A. Immunoglobulin B. Antigen C. T cell D. Plasma cell
B. Antigen
134. Streptococci A. Are catalase-positive B. Are catalase-negative C. Resemble shooting stars when grown in tube media D. Are never hemolytic like Staphylococcus
B. Are catalase-negative
683. Ninety-nine percent of the domestic short-hair cats in the United States have what blood type? A. A B. B C. AB D. O
B. B Purebred cats more often have type A blood.
12. The humoral immune system involves A. Monocytes B. B cells C. T cells D. Erythrocytes
B. B cells B cells produce antibodies used for humoral immunity.
535. What cytologic finding is not is not associated with neutrophil degeneration? A. Pyknosis B. Basophilic stippling C. Karyolysis D. Cytoplasm vacuoles
B. Basophilic stippling Basophilic stippling is seen in erythrocytes.
508. What is a useful liver test not found on most in-house panels? A. Bilirubin B. Bile acids C. Creatine phosphokinase D. Alanine aminotransferase
B. Bile acids
358. The current test of choice for evaluation liver function is A. Ammonia assay B. Bile acids C. Bilirubin D. Alanine aminotransferase
B. Bile acids All test listed evaluate liver function, but bile acides, preprandial and postprandial, are considered the function test of choice.
527. What organism is a large, thick-walled yeast, often seen budding, which may infect the skin as well as deeper structures? A. Histoplasma B. Blastomyces C. Coccidioides D. Dermatophilus
B. Blastomyces
578. Impedance is A. Used in analytic instruments to stop a test B. Blockage of light or electric current in analytic instruments C. Lack of synchronicity between the jugular pulse and the heartbeat D. Inability to feel pedal pulses
B. Blockage of light or electric current in analytic instruments Impedance is commonly used to test blood samples in an instrument that passes a current of light or electricity through the sample. The change in current is measured as impedance.
247. Arterial blood is the most commonly used for A. Hematology B. Blood gases C. Blood chemistry D. Organ function tests
B. Blood gases Venous blood is generally used for all of the listed laboratory tests, except for blood gases
532. What color do fungal organisms stain with Gram stain? A. Red B. Blue C. Green D. Black
B. Blue Fungal organisms stain blue (gram-positive) with Gram stain.
421. The causative agent of Lyme disease is A. Bordetella bronchiseptica B. Borrelia burgdorferi C. Moraxella bovis D. Mycoplasma pulmonis
B. Borrelia burgdorferi Borrelia burgdorferi is the causative agent of Lyme disease transmitted via the deer tick.
276. A good presurgical screening test for von Willebrand disease is a(n) A. Total platelet count B. Buccal mucosal bleeding time C. Activated clotting time D. Activated partial thromboplastin time
B. Buccal mucosal bleeding time Because von Willebrand disease is a disorder of primary hemostasis---that is, the coagulation cascade is normal---buccal mucosal bleeding time (BMBT) is the best screening test of those listed.
555. What sample is normally the least cellular? A. Semen B. CSF B. Synovial fluid D. Chylous effusion
B. CSF The CSF is normally the least cellular with only 5 to 25 cells/mm^3
372. The most common urine crystal seen in horses and rabbits is A. Calcium oxalate B. Calcium carbonate C. Triple phosphate D. Ammonium biurate
B. Calcium carbonate They have turbid urine because of calcium carbonate crystals.
258. Under the microscope you observe a leukocyte that you identify as an eosinophil. The eosinophil cytoplasm contains numerous rod-shaped granules. This blood sample is most likely from a healthy adult A. Dog B. Cat C. Horse D. Cow
B. Cat All of the species listed have round to globoid granules in their eosinophils. Only the cat has rod-shaped granules.
268. Heinz bodies may be a normal finding in up to 5% of the erythrocytes in what species? A. Dogs B. Cats C. Horses D. Cows
B. Cats
330. Lipuria is seen most commonly in what species? A. Dogs B. Cats C. Horses D. Cows
B. Cats
187. Fat droplets in urine samples are most commonly seen in A. Dogs B. Cats C. Horses D. Cows
B. Cats Feline renal epithelial cells have a high fat content, and fat droplets are released when these cells disintegrate.
572. A monolayer of cells on a blood smear is best described as A. A feathered edge B. Cells with no overlapping or touching C. Cells touching each other very closely with some overlapping D. The body of the blood smear
B. Cells with no overlapping or touching A monolayer (mono means "one") is a layer of cells one cell thick onlyl; therefore, there is no overlapping of blood cells, and they are not bunched together, distorting shape.
205. What serum component can be used as a screening test for hypothyroidism? A. ALT B. Cholesterol C. Total protein D. Creatine kinase
B. Cholesterol Measuring cholesterol is useful, because the thyroid hormone controls synthesis and destruction of cholesterol.
536. Postprandial lipemia is caused by A. Proteins B. Chylomicrons C. Carbohydrates D. Fatty acids
B. Chylomicrons
52. Which of the following substances is a by-product of muscle metabolism, produced at a constant rate, and filtered out by the renal glomeruli? A. Urea B. Creatinine C. Glucose D. Sodium
B. Creatinine
717. A by-product of muscle metabolism that is commonly used to evaluate glomerular filtration in a blood chemistry profile is A. Urea nitrogen B. Creatinine C. Alanine transaminase D. Aspartate aminotransferase
B. Creatinine
543. Which of these is a coccidia organism? A. Giardia B. Cryptosporidium C. Bunostomum D. Taenia
B. Cryptosporidium Giardia is a protozoa, but not a coccidian. Bunostomum is a hookworm. Taenia is a tapeworm.
611. Which of these is not a characteristic of Dirofilaria immitis? A. 310 micro long B. Curved tail C. Straight tail D. Tapered head
B. Curved tail Dirofilaria immitis has a straight tail.
328. What change would not be seen in stale urine? A. Bacterial overgrowth B. Decrease in pH C. Cellular degeneration D. Cast degeneration
B. Decrease in pH Urine becomes more basic over time, raising the pH rather than lowering it.
321. When using DIff-Quik to stain bone marrow smears, it is especially important to A. Use freshly filtered stain B. Dip the smear twice as long as blood smears C. Rinse thoroughly with distilled water D. Let the smear dry for 30 minutes before staining
B. Dip the smear twice as long as blood smears Bone marrow smears are much thicker than blood smears, and so a larger period of staining time is necessary to adequately identify the various cells present.
609. Urine specific gravity readings indicate A. Dissolved minerals B. Dissolved solids C. Number of cells in the urine D. Amount of bacteria present
B. Dissolved solids
636. For proper calibration what solution should be used to calibrate a refractometer? A. Tap water B. Distilled water C. Plasma D. Urine
B. Distilled water Refractometers should be checked daily with distilled water to ensure that they zerto to a specific gravity of 1.000
279. An intracellular parasite, which appears as a structure called morula, found in the cytoplasm of leukocytes, is A. Babesia B. Ehrlichia C. Anaplasma D. Theileria
B. Ehrlichia
143. A correction for nucleated red blood cells is done to avoid a falsely A. Elevated PCV B. Elevated WBC count C. Decreased PCV D. Decreased WBC count
B. Elevated WBC count Total WBC counts done either manually or by instrument will result in increased WBCs, because the nuclei of the immature RBCs do not lyse and are counted as nucleated WBCs.
548. CSF may be checked for antibodies to help diagnose what disease? A. Cryptosporidiosis B. Equine protozoal meningitis C. Toxoplasmosis D. Equine infectious anemia
B. Equine protozoal meningitis In equine protozoal meningitis (EPM), the diagnostic test requires CSF to measure antibodies.
91. Amino acids, iron, vitamin B12, folic acid, vitamin B6, and the trace metals cobalt and nickel are all required to produce what cell? A. Leukocytes B. Erythrocytes C. Thrombocytes D. Plasma cells
B. Erythrocytes Erythrocytes aka red blood cells.
481. What marrow finding is consistent with a responsive anemia? A. Myeloid hypoplasia B. Erythroid hyperplasia C. Erythroid hypoplasia D. Myeloid metaplasia
B. Erythroid hyperplasia Erythroid hyperplasia, increased red cell production in the marrow, is consistent with responsive anemia.
411. The term for red blood cell formation is A. Hematopoiesis B. Erythropoiesis C. Hematopoietin D. Leukopoiesis
B. Erythropoiesis
198. A normal gastrointestinal inhabitant in turkeys, chickens, and humans that can cause serious urinary tract infections, diarrhea, and tissue infections is A. Leptospira sp. B. Escherichia coli C. Pasteurella multocida D. Staphylococcus intermedius
B. Escherichia coli A strain of this organism, Escherichia coli O157:H7, is a cause of food-borne illness associated with eating undercooked, contaminated ground beef.
455. The fecal sedimentation technique is often needed to diagnose the presence of what bovine parasite? A. Dictyocaulus viviparous B. Fasciola hepatica C. Moniezia sp. D. Strongyloides westeri
B. Fasciola hepatica The sedimentation technique is often needed to diagnose the presence of Fasciola hepatica, which is a fluke with heavy ova that may not float.
13. Which is a lentivirus? A. Coronavirus B. Feline immunodeficiency virus (FIV) C. Herpes virus D. Parvovirus
B. Feline immunodeficiency virus (FIV) Lentiviruses cause slowly developing diseases.
540. Trematodes are A. Tapeworms B. Flukes C. Roundworms D. Thorny-headed worms
B. Flukes
301. The modified Knott technique for microfilaria has what two additives for ease of heartworm diagnosis? A. Alcohol and Gram stain B. Formalin and new methylene blue stain C. Wright stain and formalin D. New methylene blue and Wright stain
B. Formalin and new methylene blue stain
69. Which of the following is not an electrolyte? A. Calcium B. Glucose C. Phosphorous D. Potassium
B. Glucose
655. If whole blood is allowed to stand at room temperature for an extended time, A. Potassium levels may decrease. B. Glucose levels may decrease. C. There are no chemical changes. D. Ammonia levels may increase.
B. Glucose levels may decrease.
191. The catalase and coagulase tests are used in the presumptive identification of A. Gram-negative bacteria B. Gram-positive bacteria C. Saprophytes D. Dermatophytes
B. Gram-positive bacteria These tests help differentiate the gram-positive cocci and small gram-positive bacilli bacteria.
503. What type of cast is the most common one found in urine? A. Leukocyte B. Waxy B. Granular D. Erythrocyte
B. Granular
606. Before beginning other diagnostics of the urine, a ___ examination of urine is recommended. A. Darkfield B. Gross C. Taste D. Microscopic
B. Gross Gross examination, looking at the sample in its presenting form, is required for all samples, including urine, blood, and feces, before beginning diagnostics.
22. Types of effector T cells include A. B cells B. Helper T cells C. Monocytes D. Erythrocytes
B. Helper T cells
343. Mr. Downing has brought in a urine sample from Cleo, his 6-year-old female spayed Cocker spaniel. The color of the urine appears red. On centrifugation of the sample, you find that the supernatant is now clear. Most likely the red color was due to A. Hemoglobinuria B. Hematuria C. Myoglobinuria D. Uroglobinuria
B. Hematuria Hematuria is the presence of intact red blood cells in the urine. During centrifugation, only intact red blood cells settle out, changing the color of the supernatant from red to clear.
669. False elevations of potassium and inorganic phosphorus levels can be expected in a serum sample that is A. Lipemic B. Hemolyzed C. Icteric D. Refrigerated
B. Hemolyzed Hemolysis releases intracellular components into the surrounding fluid (serum or plasma). Among these intracellular components, potassium is the principal cation; levels of potassium in the serum or plasma, therefore, increase in hemolysis. Most of the phosphorus inside erythrocytes; inorganic phosphorus is found in the serum or plasma. Organic phosphorus released in hemolysis may interfere with the phosphorus assay performed on serum or plasma.
171. Ruminant ova such as Haemonchus, Ostertagia, Trichostrongylus, and Cooperia resemble canine A. Roundworms B. Hookworms C. Tapeworms D. Whipworms
B. Hookworms These parasites and canine hookworms all belong to the order Strongylidae, and all have typical "strongyle" (or "strongylid") eggs.
184. Mucus is normally often seen in ___ urine. A. Dog B. Horse C. Cat D. Cow
B. Horse Mucus threats may be seen occasionally in other species. They are easily overlooked because of their faint appearance in the background.
440. Which of the following is the largest intermediate form of a tapeworm? A. Cysticerus B. Hydatid cyst C. Coenurus D. Cysticercoid
B. Hydatid cyst The hydatid cyst is the largest intermediate form of a tapeworm. Cysticercus, coenurus, and cysticercoid are all smaller intermediate forms of tapeworms.
492. In order for glycosuria to occur, which of the following must also be present? A. Uremia B. Hyperglycemia C. Ketonemia D. Azoturia
B. Hyperglycemia Hyperglycemia is high blood sugar.
599. Spherocytes may be seen on a blood smear from a dog suffering from A. DIC B. IMHA C. Ethylene glycol poisoning D. Venomous snakebite
B. IMHA Immune-mediated hemolytic anemia may be characterized by spherocytes; you may see RBC fragments (schistocytes) in DIC and echinocytes (crenated cells) in snake-bite. Look for the monohydrate form of calcium oxalate crystals in urine sediment in antifreeze poisoning.
677. What sample condition cannot be minimized by proper animal preparation or proper sample collection and handling? A. Hemolysis B. Icterus C. Lipemia D. Evaporation
B. Icterus Icterus is a condition that cannot be corrected or prevented by proper sample collection or handling. It is frequently seen in animals with liver disease or hemolytic anemia. Hemolysis is most attributed to technician error, although hemolysis may occur in some anemias. Lipemia can usually be prevented or minimized by fasting the animal before collection.
587. Prolonged exposure of serum to the blood cells before the serum is removed from the clot can result in A. Increased serum glucose B. Increased serum phosphorus C. Increased serum enzyme activity D. Increased serum sodium
B. Increased serum phosphorus Glucose will decrease, enzyme activity may be decreased, and potassium, not sodium, will increase.
376. Postrenal azotemia refers to A. Increases in BUN resulting from severe renal disease B. Increases in BUN resulting from an inability to urinate C. Decreases in BUN resulting from severe renal disease D. Increases in BUN resulting from dehydration
B. Increases in BUN resulting from an inability to urinate Pathologic conditions occurring after the kidney, in the bladder and urethra, result in anuria or oliguria.
21. What is the function of interferon? A. Destroys toxins B. Inhibits viruses C. Kills bacteria D. Inactivates protozoa
B. Inhibits viruses Interferons are a group of signaling proteins made and released by host cells in response to the presence of several viruses.
135. Enterobacteriaceae are found in what part of the body? A. Lungs B. Intestines C. Skin D. Stomach
B. Intestines
5. In the Gram stain procedure, the mordant is A. Crystal violet B. Iodine C. Alcohol D. Safranin
B. Iodine Iodine fixes crystal violet in gram-positive bacteria.
651. Sodium citrate is used for coagulation tests because it chelates calcium, allowing the coagulation process to be easily reversed by addition of A. Thrombin B. Ionized calcium C. Prothrombin D. Fibrinogen
B. Ionized calcium
124. Triplicate soy agar A. Contain 25% sheep blood B. Is a nutritive media C. Is used for observation of bacterial fermentation reactions D. Is also called chocolate agar plate
B. Is a nutritive media
244. Which statement concerning EDTA is false? A. It is the anticoagulant of choice for hematology. B. It is the anticoagulant of choice for blood gas analysis. C. It is the anticoagulant found in a lavender-top Vacutainer. D. EDTA binds calcium in the blood.
B. It is the anticoagulant of choice for blood gas analysis The anticoagulant of choice for blood gas analysis is heparin.
692. The rate of an enzymatic reaction is measured while it is in progress during what type of reactions? A. End point B. Kinetic C. Thermocouple D. Progressive
B. Kinetic Kinetic methods measure the rate of an enzymatic reaction while it is in progress and usually involve serial measurements of the product per unit of time. In end-point reactions, the product formed from enzyme activity is measured after the reaction has stopped.
230. Which of the following is not a serology test? A. Latex agglutination B. Kinetic reaction C. Rapid immunomigration (RIM) D. ELISA
B. Kinetic reaction Kinetic reaction refers to the way in which enzymes are measured.
15. A non-Gram staining bacterium is A. Clostridium B. Leptospira C. Pseudomonas D. Staphylococcus
B. Leptospira
629. Which of these is not a function of the lymphatic system? A. Transport of waste materials B. Leukocyte production C. Removal of excess tissue fluid D. Protein transport
B. Leukocyte production Leukocyte production takes place in bone marrow.
671. Drawing a blood sample from an animal that has recently eaten may result in a sample that is A. Hemolyzed B. Lipemic C. Icteric D. Anemic
B. Lipemic Postprandial lipemia is common in a nonfasted animal.
362. Cholesterol and triglycerides are plasma A. Proteins B. Lipids C. Enzymes D. Electrolytes
B. Lipids
381. The anticoagulant of choice for avian and reptile hematology is A. Potassium oxalate B. Lithium heparin C. Sodium citrate D. Sodium fluoride
B. Lithium heparin Lithium heparin causes the least amount of morphologic changes in avian and reptile cells.
708. Blood levels of cholesterol, triglycerides, and total protein are all used to evaluate function of the A. Kidneys B. Liver C. Pancreas D. Adrenal glands
B. Liver
710. Blood levels of total bilirubin are used primarily to evaluate function of the A. Kidneys B. Liver C. Pancreas D. Bile ducts
B. Liver The liver conjugates bilirubin.
31. Which of the following is an important function of bacterial flagella? A. Attachment B. Locomotion C. DNA replication D. Ion transport
B. Locomotion
351. A good initial urinary screening test for suspected Cushings disease is A. Endogenous ACTH B. Low-dose dexamethasone suppression test C. ACTH stimulation D. Cortisol/creatinine ratio
B. Low-dose dexamethasone suppression test Only the cortisol/creatinine ratio is a test of urine. All other tests listed use blood.
77. Urine crystals are estimated as the average per A. High-power field B. Low-power field C. Medium-power field D. Oil-immersion field
B. Low-power field 10x objective
357. The stain used to stain undigested fecal starch is A. New methylene blue B. Lugol iodine C. Sudan D. Gentian violet
B. Lugol iodine
520. The ANA test is the best test to diagnose what disorder? A. Immune-mediated hemolytic anemia B. Lupus erythematosus C. Pemphigus complex diseases D. Rheumatoid arthritis
B. Lupus erythematosus
590. Phagocytes include all of the following except A. Neutrophils B. Lymphocytes C. Monocytes D. Macrophages
B. Lymphocytes Lymphocytes act in the body's immune system. All the other cells can phagocytize.
254. The bone marrow is not a major site of production for what cell type? A. Erythrocytes B. Lymphocytes C. Neutrophils D. Eosinophils
B. Lymphocytes The major sites for production for lymphocytes are the lymphoid organs and peripheral lymphoid tissue (thymus, lymph nodes, spleen, tonsils); they are produced only secondarily in the bone marrow.
251. Which pair are both agranulocytes? A. Monocytes and neutrophils B. Lymphocytes and monocytes C. Eosinophils and basophils D. Lymphocytes and eosinophils
B. Lymphocytes and monocytes Granulocytes are those leukocytes that contain granules, including neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils.
684. Quality-control sera used in most laboratories are supplied in what form? A. Liquid B. Lyophilized C. Pellets D. Capsules
B. Lyophilized Quality-control sera is generally lyophilized (freeze-dried) and must be reconstituted before use.
261. What test is usually considered of little diagnostic value? A. MCV B. MCH C. MCHC D. RDW
B. MCH The MCHC is considered the most accurate of all the indices.
477. What erythrocyte index gives an indication of the average size of a red blood cell? A. MCHC B. MCV C. M/E ratio D. Reticulocyte count
B. MCV The mean corpuscular volume (MCV) gives an indication of the average size of a red blood cell. The mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration (MCHC) gives an indication of the average amount of hemoglobin in a red blood cell.
344. Struvite crystals are composed of A. Calcium potassium carbonates B. Magnesium ammonium phosphates C. Oxalates D. Urates
B. Magnesium ammonium phosphates
479. A pleomorphic nucleus has A. Many colors B. Many shapes C. Many nucleoli D. Undergone many divisions
B. Many shapes
501. Basophils share characteristics with what tissue cell? A. Macrophage B. Mast cell C. Phagocyte D. Plasma cell
B. Mast cell
272. The precursor cell of a thrombocyte is a A. Thromboblast B. Megakaryocyte C. Metakaryocyte D. Prothrombocyte
B. Megakaryocyte
271. The erythrocyte precursor that has a round, dense to completely pyknotic nucleus is a A. Rubricyte B. Metarubricyte C. Prorubricyte D. Rubriblast
B. Metarubricyte
623. The value that occurs most often in a set of observations is A. Mean B. Mode C. Median D. Standard deviation
B. Mode
232. What type of antibodies are used in serology test kits? A. Autoantibodies B. Monoclonal antibodies C. Neutralizing antibodies D. Sensitizing antibodies
B. Monoclonal antibodies Monoclonal antibodies are very specific antibodies that are commercially produced for use against specific antigenic portions of a disease organism.
157. What order of maturation is correct? A. Myeloblast, myelocyte, promyelocyte, metamyelocyte B. Myeloblast, promyelocyte, myelocyte, metamyelocyte C. Promyelocyte, metamyelocyte, myelocyte, band D. Promyelocyte, myelocyte, band, segemented neutrophil
B. Myeloblast, promyelocyte, myelocyte, metamyelocyte
457. Stomach bots are common in horses, but where are bots found in sheep? A. Small intestines B. Nasal passages C. Rumen D. Perianal region
B. Nasal passages Oestrus ovis, sheep nose bot flu, deposits its larvae in the nostrils.
592. Basophils are most commonly found in what tissues? A. Eyeball B. Near blood vessels C. Avascular tissues D. Bone marrow
B. Near blood vessels Basophils are localized around the blood vessels.
9. Compared to bacteria, fungi A. Grow better at alkaline pH B. Need less moisture to survive C. Are less resistant to osmotic pressure D. Are smaller
B. Need less moisture to survive
401. Dohle bodies are found in what type of blood cell? A. Erythrocyte B. Neutrophil C. Platelet D. Nucleated RBC
B. Neutrophil
97. The first phagocytes to respond to an infection are A. Lymphocytes B. Neutrophils C. Monocytes D. Eosinophils
B. Neutrophils
156. What special stain would be used in assessing anemia? A. Lactophenol cotton blue B. New methylene blue C. Gram D. Acridine orange
B. New methylene blue New methylene blue is used to detect reticulocytes. Lactophenol cotton blue is used for identification of fungal elements. Gram stain is for bacteria. Acridine orange is a special stain used in a hematology analyzer.
556. What is seen in necrospermia on a semen evaluation? A. No sperm are present. B. No sperm motility C. Decreased sperm count D. Abnormal sperm cells
B. No sperm motility In necrospermia all of the sperm are dead, and there is no motility or movement. This may also occur if the sample is cold. The term for "no sperm present" is azoospermia.
16. A hospital-acquired disease is A. Endemic B. Nosocomial C. Ergasteric D. Iatrogenic
B. Nosocomial
176. Crystals in urine sediment often indicate A. Uroliths B. Nothing C. Inflammation D. Urethral blockage
B. Nothing Often crystal formation is temperature dependent. If allowed to cool, dissolved substances come out of the solution. Sometimes there is a correlation between crystalluria and the presence of uroliths.
439. A skin scraping is used to diagnose what parasite? A. Bovicola B. Notoedres C. Otodectes D. Ctenocephalides
B. Notoedres The skins scraping is used to diagnose the mite Notoedres, which infests cat. Bovicola is a louse. Otodectes is an ear mite. Ctenocephalides is flea.
295. What can the ELISA heartworm test detect that the Difil cannot? A. Dipetalonema B. Occult infection C. Microfilaria D. Anemia
B. Occult infection The Difil is a filter test that detects the presence of microfilariae only, whereas the ELISA test may detect presence of the antigen of adult parasites in an occult infection.
638. When using a centrifuge, it is important to do the following each time you use it, except A. Balance the tubes B. Open the lid as the centrifuge is stopping. C. Set the timer D. Check tube holders for leaked liquid.
B. Open the lid as the centrifuge is stopping. The lid should be kept close until the centrifuge comes to a complete stop.
615. What are the tips of Trichuris vulpis ova called? A. Caps B. Opercula C. Ends D. Morulae
B. Opercula The opercula are the clear dots or caps on the ends of the Trichuris vulpis ova.
294. A buffy coat examination for microfilaria can be made in conjunction with what other hematologic procedure? A. Leukocyte count B. Packed cell volume C. Differential count D. Hemoglobin
B. Packed cell volume Only the PCV uses a sample collected in a microhematocrit tube and centrifuged. This procedure is necessary for examination of the buffy coat as well.
209. The small intestine receives digestive enzymes from the A. Kidney B. Pancreas C. Liver D. Spleen
B. Pancreas In addition, the pancreas secretes insulin and glucagon to regulate glucose metabolism.
442. What parasite uses snails as intermediate hosts? A. Toxocara B. Paragonimus C. Taenia D. Dipetalonema
B. Paragonimus Paragonimus, the lung fluke of dogs and cats, uses snails as intermediate hosts.
245. In which group of animals would you normally expect to find nucleated RBCs? A. Goat, chicken, snake B. Parrot, turkey, iguana C. Snake, goose, lamb D. Parakeet, calf, turkey
B. Parrot, turkey, iguana
24. Which of the following is a gram-negative bacterium? A. Clostridium B. Pasteurella C. Staphylococcus D. Leptospira
B. Pasteurella The rest are gram-positive or non-Gram staining.
689. The calibrated device used to deliver a specific volume of patient sample when performing blood chemistry analysis is a A. Cuvette B. Pipette C. Graduated flask D. Graduated cylinder
B. Pipette A pipette is usually automatic and delivers microliter volumes of patient sample.
643. What is the noncellular portion of anticoagulated whole blood called after it has been centrifuged? A. Serum B. Plasma C. Anticoagulant D. Hemolysin
B. Plasma
714. The principal intracellular cation that is commonly measured in a blood chemistry profile is A. Sodium B. Potassium C. Chloride D. Bicarbonate
B. Potassium
431. What is the name of the time period between the ingestion of the infective stage of a parasite and the passing of eggs from the adult parasite in the feces? A. Pubescent B. Prepatent C. Paratenic D. Vector
B. Prepatent
139. Candida albicans may cause many different diseases, especially when there is a predisposing condition such as A. Vegetarian diet B. Primary bacterial infection C. Prolonged analgesic use D. Carnivorous diet
B. Primary bacterial infection
277. The veterinarian must be careful not to injure the sciatic nerve when performing a bone marrow aspirate from which of the following sites? A. Wings of the ileum B. Proximal femur C. Proximal humerus D. Proximal tibia
B. Proximal femur The sciatic nerve is located in the gluteal region, in close proximity to the proximal femur.
681. To verify the accuracy of blood chemistry results in the laboratory, the technician should use A. Standard solutions B. Quality-control sera C. Pooled samples D. A reference manual
B. Quality-control sera Quality-control serum is free-dried (lyophilized) and must be rehydrated before use. It contains specific quantities of chemical constituents; the range of acceptable values for each chemical constituent is provided by the manufacturer. It is analyzed as if it were patient serum, and the results are compared with the known values provided. Control serum is used for technician, reagent, and instrument assessment. Results within the acceptable ranges provided by the manufacturer help sure the accuracy of test results.
547. What color does mucus stain with Diff-Quik stain? A. Blue B. Red C. Brown D. Green
B. Red
223. The term normal is referring to A. Calibration standard values B. Reference ranges C. Control values D. Positive values
B. Reference ranges Normal values and reference ranges are synonymous, referring to the range of values that is established when running a test on many healthy animals of the same species.
664. To preserve blood constituents in the event that sample analysis is delayed for 8 hours, serum or plasma should be A. Lyophilized and reconstituted before analysis B. Refrigerated and warmed to room temperature before analysis C. Placed in a 37 degree Celsius water bath and brought to room temperature before analysis D. Left at room temperature until analyzed
B. Refrigerated and warmed to room temperature before analysis Refrigeration is an acceptable means of preserving chemical constituents; the period or preservation varies for each constituent. Freezing prolongs the preservation of chemicals but may affect some test results. Samples stored at room temperature are not as stable; however, refrigerated or frozen samples should be allowed to warm to room temperature before analysis.
619. The ability of a method to be both accurate and precise is A. Accuracy B. Reliability C. Quality control D. Precision
B. Reliability
206. During a glucose tolerance test, glucose levels in a diabetic animal will A. Show an initial peak then diminish to normal B. Remain high throughout the test C. Show a delayed peak at the end of the test period D. Show below normal levels throughout the test.
B. Remain high throughout the test A diabetic animal does not has sufficient insulin to metabolize the glucose load given at the beginning of the test.
516. What should be the course of action for a healthy-appearing cat that tests positive for feline leukemia with an ELISA test? A. Euthanasia B. Retest in 4 to 8 weeks C. Retest in a year D. Vaccinate
B. Retest in 4 to 8 weeks Should retest in 4 to 8 weeks or run an IFA test.
561. Adult heartworms are normally found in the A. Left ventricle B. Right ventricle C. Pulmonary veins D. Vena cava
B. Right ventricle Also in the pulmonary arteries.
316. A cytologic sample collected with a cotton swab should be applied to a microscope slide with a ___ action. A. Smearing B. Rolling C. Dabbing D. Rubbing
B. Rolling
62. ALT is also known as A. AST B. SGPT C. SGOT D. GGT
B. SGPT Formerly called SGPT (serum glutamic pyruvic transaminase).
635. What error is not detectable through use of a quality-control program? A. Poor technique B. Sample quality C. Equilibrium malfunctions D. Reagent contamination or degeneration
B. Sample quality It is not possible to tell, through the use of quality-control measures, whether the samples are of acceptable quality. Example: a red-top tube may not have been handled properly before separating, but the instrument may still produce a value; however, it may not be accurate.
460. What parasite causes a very pruritic disease in dogs? A. Cheyletiella B. Sarcoptes C. Demodex D. Dermacentor
B. Sarcoptes
646. When mailing glass slides, you must not A. Send unstained slides. B. Send slides with samples preserved in formalin. C. Send slides in cardboard mailers. D. Send labeled slides.
B. Send slides with samples preserved in formalin. Slides should not be sent in the same package as formalin samples, because the fumes can affect the slides.
515. What term is used to describe the ability of a test to determine true positives? A. Selectivity B. Sensitivity C. Specificity D. Sensibility
B. Sensitivity Sensitivity is the ability to determine true positives. Specificity is the ability of a test to determine true negatives.
661. The preferred sample for most blood chemistry tests is A. Whole blood B. Serum C. Plasma D. Hemolyte
B. Serum Serum is usually preferred over plasma, because some anticoagulants interfere with test results. Fibrin clots in some plasma samples may also interfere but can be removed by further centrifugation. Whole blood is usually unacceptable because of the presence of blood cells and the potential for hemolysis.
58. Hypoglycemia may result from A. Insufficient insulin B. Serum remaining in the RBCs too long C. Cushing disease D. Heavy lactation after giving birth
B. Serum remaining in the RBCs too long Cells continue to utilize glucose at a rate of 7% to 10% per hour.
84. Which of the following cells has a high nuclear-cytoplasmic ratio; course, clumped, dark-staining chromatin; and a sky blue cytoplasm? A. Neutrophil B. Small lymphocyte C. Basophil D. Eosinophil
B. Small lymphocyte
659. When plasma is required for blood chemistry analysis, the anticoagulant of choice is A. EDTA B. Sodium or lithium heparin C. Sodium or lithium oxalate D. Sodium fluoride
B. Sodium or lithium heparin Heparin interferes the least with chemical assays.
123. Selective media grow A. All types of bacteria B. Some types of bacteria only C. And differentiate certain types of bacteria D. Gram-negative bacteria only
B. Some types of bacteria only Selective media contain inhibitors to growth of other types of bacteria, for example, CNA.
391. When preparing cytology samples for microscopic evaluation, what is the best technique to use? A. Wet prep B. Squash prep C. Modified Knott prep D. Willis prep
B. Squash prep The squash preparation yields excellent cytologic smears.
162. Finding proglottids around a dog's anus indicates infection with A. Flukes B. Tapeworms C. Pinworms D. Hookworms
B. Tapeworms Proglottids or tapeworm segments may be found around the anus before dropping to the ground. Dogs are not hosts to pinworms.
26. Rocky Mountain spotted fever is more prevalent in A. The Northeastern United States B. The Southeastern United States C. The Pacific Northwest D. The Rocky Mountains
B. The Southeastern United States Despite its name, most cases occur far from the Rocky Mountains.
44. Nonrenal causes of increased levels of urea might include A. The amount of carbohydrate ingested B. The amount of protein ingested C. Insufficient insulin D. Insufficient ADH
B. The amount of protein ingested Urea is produced by the metabolism of protein.
585. When using a liquid reagent-based chemistry analyzer, the higher the concentration of the substance, A. The more light that will pass through the solution B. The less light that will pass through the solution C. The amount of light passing through the solution will remain unchanged. D. The more the amount of light passing through the solution will fluctuate
B. The less light that will pass through the solution This is he principle of Beer's law.
72. For cytologic evaluation of urine, which of the following conditions should be observed? A. The specimen should be refrigerated as soon as possible. B. The specimen should be centrifuged as soon as possible. C. The specimen may sit at room temperature for up to 6 hours. D. The specimen may be frozen for later analysis.
B. The specimen should be centrifuged as soon as possible. This is necessary to concentrate any cells present; they are then removed from the supernatant.
312. What is the main reason that flotation solutions with specific gravities over 1.300 are not commonly used? A. As very saturated solutions, they are difficult to make. B. They would distort ova. C. They would be prohibitively expensive. D. It is not necessary, because all ova have a specific gravity lower than 1.300.
B. They would distort ova. The more concentrated a flotation solution, the more likely it is to distort ova.
544. Mesothelial cells are most likely seen in samples from what collection procedure? A. Arthrocentesis B. Thoracocentesis C. Transtracheal aspiration D. Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) tap
B. Thoracocentesis Mesothelial cells, from the body wall, are most likely seen from thoracocentesis.
111. When T cells are processed in the ___, they develop specific antigen receptors on their cell membranes. A. Transitional eptihelium B. Thymus C. Terminal ileum D. Thyroid
B. Thymus
632. What organ releases T cells? A. Thyroid B. Thymus C. Splenic trabeculae D. Tonsils
B. Thymus The thymus processes thymocytes and releases then as T cells.
239. An impression smear is the technique to use for ___ analysis. A. Vaginal cytology B. Tissue sample C. Semen D. Fine-needle aspirate
B. Tissue sample Diseased tissue removed during a surgical procedure is cut, and the exposed portion is pressed to a microscope slide and stained for cytologic analysis.
418. Trypticase soy agar with 5% sheep blood is used A. As an enrichment medium B. To show hemolytic reactions C. To select for Staphylococcus spp. D. To inhibit growth of Salmonella spp.
B. To show hemolytic reactions Alpha hemolysis refers to partial hemolysis of the RBCs and shows as a greenish color; beta hemolysis refers to total hemolysis of the RBCs surrounding the colonies and results in a clear zone.
674. A serum sample that is extremely icteric generally derives its color from an increased level of A. Lipids B. Total bilirubin C. Electrolytes D. Glucose
B. Total bilirubin Icterus is caused by an increase in the total bilirubin in the blood; total bilirubin is a combination of conjugated and unconjugated bilirubin. Icteric (or yellow) serum or plasma is frequently seen in animals with liver disease or hemolytic anemia.
46. Fibrinogen is considered a part of A. Total plasma albumin B. Total plasma protein C. Total serum protein D. Total serum globulin
B. Total plasma protein
475. The refractometer is used to determine A. Hematocrit B. Total protein C. Hemoglobin D. Erythrocyte count
B. Total protein
287. The sarcoptic mange mite of the guinea pig is A. Sarcoptes caviae B. Trixacarus caviae C. Notoedres caviae D. Psoroptes caviae
B. Trixacarus caviae
521. What is the best method to diagnose food allergies in dogs? A. Measure antibodies B. Try hypoallergenic diets C. Perform ELISA test D. Perform skin biopsy
B. Try hypoallergenic diets Place the patient on hypoallergenic diets for 10 weeks with no other foods.
189. Which of these is a primary medium and would be used for initial inoculation of a sample? A. Triple-sugar iron B. Trypticase soy agar with 5% sheep blood C. Citrate D. Urea
B. Trypticase soy agar with 5% sheep blood The other three media are differential media used to help identify isolated bacteria, especially gram-negative bacteria.
387. If a 1:1 dilution of a serum sample is made before analyzing the serum chemistries, the results must be multiplied by A. One B. Two C. Ten D. One hundred
B. Two One part sample, one part diluent.
727. Chemistry evaluation of the kidney includes measurement of metabolic wastes in the blood in the form of A. Aspartate aminotransferase and alanine transaminase B. Urea nitrogen and creatinine C. Ammonia and pyruvic acid D. Bilirubin and urobilinogen
B. Urea nitrogen and creatinine Urea nitrogen and creatinine are metabolic wastes measured to evaluate renal function.
495. What test on the urine dipstick is the least useful in animals? A. Glucose B. Urobilinogen C. Protein D. Ketones
B. Urobilinogen The urobilinogen test on the urine dipstick is the least useful in animals, because it is designed to detect a blocked bile duct, which rarely occurs in animals.
88. Supravital staining is A. Use of a stain that has extreme toxicity so that vital processes can be stopped abruptly B. Use of a stain that has low toxicity so that the vital processes can be studied in live cells C. Use of a stain for nuclear material only D. Use of a stain for phase contrast microscopy only
B. Use of a stain that has low toxicity so that the vital processes can be studied in live cells
485. What clotting disorder is stimulated by hypothyroidism? A. Hemophilia A B. Von Willebrand disease C. Disseminated intravascular coagulation D. Coumarin toxicity
B. Von Willebrand disease Von Willebrand disease is stimulated by hypothyroidism, resulting in the appearance of clinical signs.
150. The buffy coat in a spun hematocrit tube consists of A. WBCs B. WBCs and platelets C. WBCs and NRBCs D. Platelets and NRBCs
B. WBCs and platelets If the WBCs and/or platelets are elevated, you can see the larger, whiter layer on top of the WBC column in a spun-down hematocrit tube.
539. What adult parasite would be described as having a slender anterior end with its mouth at the tip and a thickened posterior extremity? A. Heartworm B. Whipworm C. Tapeworm D. Hookworm
B. Whipworm
37. Phagocytes are a type of A. Red blood cell B. White blood cell C. Platelet D. Antibody
B. White blood cell
647. What is the disadvantage of using vacuum blood collection tubes? A. Collection tubes can be used sequentially. B. Withdrawal pressure is not easily controlled. C. Rapid sample collection D. Blood enters the tube and mixes rapidly.
B. Withdrawal pressure is not easily controlled. Withdrawal pressure can be controlled with a syringe but not with a vacuum-tube system.
315. What is a proper lens cleaner to use for the care and maintenance of a compound microscope? A. Saline B. Xylene C. Hydrogen peroxide D. Sodium bicarbonate
B. Xylene
82. MCHC is expressed in A. percent B. g/dl C. mg/dl D. mg/L
B. g/dl
49. To separate plasma from the cellular components, blood tubes should be counterbalanced and centrifuged for ____ minutes and ____ rpm. A. 2; 1000 B. 5; 1000 C. 10; 2000 D. 15; 2000
C. 10; 2000
256. Erythrocyte life span vary from species to species, but the average is generally considered to be A. 60 days B. 75 days C. 120 days D. 180 days
C. 120 days
403. Given a PCV of 42%, which of the following is the estimated hemoglobin value? A. 7 g/dl B. 6 g/dl C. 14 g/dl D. 12 g/dl
C. 14 g/dl The PCV value is divided by 3 to determine the estimated hemoglobin value.
517. A new in-house test has been developed with 80% sensitivity and 100% specificity. What does this mean? A. 20% will be false positive. B. 100% of positives will be identified. C. 20% will be false negative. D. 80% of negatives will be identified.
C. 20% will be false negative. An 80% sensitivity and 100% specificity for a test procedure means that 20% of the tests will result in false negative results. The 100% specificity indicates that all the negative patients will be determined.
416. Incubation time to grow aerobic bacteria is typically A. 6 hours B. 12 hours C. 24 hours D. 48 hours
C. 24 hours
662. As a general rule, sufficient blood should be collected from the animal to yield enough serum, plasma, or whole blood to run each test how many times? A. 1 B. 5 C. 3 D. 7
C. 3 Technician, reagent, or equipment error may result in the need to repeat a test. Some results may require dilution of the sample and retesting. It is good practice to initially collect enough blood in case repeat testing is necessary.
71. When performing urinalysis testing, the sample should be analyzed within ___ minutes or refrigeration is required. A. 10 B. 20 C. 30 D. 40
C. 30
201. The temperature of a bacterial incubator would most likely be A. 4 C B. 25 C C. 37 C D. 56 C
C. 37 C A temperature of 37 C is close to body temperature of many animals and supports the growth of most pathogens.
248. When you view a specimen under a compound microscope using the 40x objective and a 10x ocular, the total magnification of the specimen being viewed is A. 4x B. 40x C. 400x D. 4000x
C. 400x The magnification of the ocular lens multiplied by the magnification of the objective used equals the total magnification.
526. In healthy adult horses, the ratio of circulating neutrophils and marginated neutrophils is ___. A. 80:20 B. 70:30 C. 50:50 D. 25:75
C. 50:50 The circulating pool of neutrophils and the marginal pool of neutrophils are the same size.
59. Blood cells continue to utilize glucose at a rate of ___% to ___% per hour if allowed to remain in contact with the serum. A. 3; 5 B. 5; 7 C. 7; 10 D. 10; 12
C. 7; 10
542. When an Isospora oocyst is infective, how many sporozoites does it contain? A. 2 B. 4 C. 8 D. 16
C. 8 Each oocyst contains eight infective sporozoites.
395. The average estrous cycle of the dog lasts ___ days. A. 21 B. 16 C. 9 D. 3
C. 9
525. When analyzing two serum samples (one drawn while the animal is sick, and one drawn later while the animal is convalescent), a positive diagnosis is indicated by A. 50% drop in antibody titers B. Two elevated antibody titers C. A four fold rise in antibody titer D. A rising antigen level
C. A four fold rise in antibody titer
627. When interpreting quality-control data, a trend is defined as A. A change in the analytic system that happens abruptly and continues at a new level B. An abrupt change from high to low and then from low to high control levels C. A gradual change in control values, either to increase or decrease over a period of 6 consecutive days D. An increase or decrease in which control values are distributed on one side of a mean line and maintained at a constant level
C. A gradual change in control values, either to increase or decrease over a period of 6 consecutive days
146. RBCs with multiple, irregularly spaced projections are A. Crenated cells B. Schistocytes C. Acanthocytes D. Anisocytes
C. Acanthocytes Acanthocytes have a few projections and may be of uneven length. Crenated cells have shorter projections that are evenly spaced around the cell. Schistocytes are pieces of RBCs, and anisocytes are RBCs that show varying sizes (anisocytosis).
242. Excess anticoagulant in a blood tube will A. Affect red blood cells only B. Affect white blood cells only C. Affect red blood cells and white blood cells D. Not affect the cellular components of blood
C. Affect red blood cells and white blood cells Excess anticoagulant will dilute the blood sample, affecting both morphology and cell counts.
33. What is not a method of culturing animal viruses? A. Laboratory animal inoculation B. Cell culture C. Agar plate inoculation D. Embryonated egg inoculation
C. Agar plate inoculation Viruses multiple in living cells only.
212. Gamma globulins can be estimated by subtracting A. Total protein from fibrinogen B. Heated total protein value from unheated total protein value C. Albumin from serum total protein D. Alpha globulins from beta globulins
C. Albumin from serum total protein The three major proteins comprising total protein are fibrinogen, albumin, and globulin. By using serum, the fibrinogen is gone, leaving only the albumin and globulin fractions.
505. What urinalysis finding is consistent with bacterial cystitis in the dog and cat? A. Oliguria B. Negative nitrate C. Alkaline pH D. Glycosuria
C. Alkaline pH
397. The main function of the eosinophil is A. Phagocytosis B. Autoimmune reaction C. Allergic reaction D. Immune reaction
C. Allergic reaction
20. Which statement is true regarding circulating leukocytes in a healthy adult cow? A. Always decrease in number during infections B. Always decrease in number during inflammations C. Always include more than one cell type D. Always phagocytic
C. Always include more than one cell type The WBC response to infections and inflammation will vary depending on the severity and longevity of the condition. Not all WBCs are phagocytic all of the time.
180. Bacteria in urine sediment may be confused with A. Fat droplets B. Sperm C. Amorphous phosphates or urates D. Calcium carbonate crystals
C. Amorphous phosphates or urates Amorphous crystals are granular in appearance and may be confused with cocci; however, many bacteria found in urine are rods that do not look like these crystals.
580. Which of these is not a random laboratory error? A. Variation in glassware B. Electronic or optical inconsistency C. Anisocytosis D. Contamination
C. Anisocytosis Anisocytosis is a medical term meaning that a patient's red blood cells are of unequal size. Anisocytosis is the only selection that would be an abnormality of the substance being evaluated. All of the other answers are mechanical properties of the instrumentation, and any inconsistencies with these will cause laboratory error.
436. What does the occult heartworm test actually detect? A. Microfilariae B. L3 larvae C. Antibodies D. Immature female heartworms
C. Antibodies
118. An anomaly may be defined as A. The breakage of two chromosomes, resulting in repair in an abnormal arrangement B. All or part of a chromosome is missing C. Any deviation from normal D. An alternate form of a gene
C. Any deviation from normal Anomalies would include things such as malocclusions, hip dysplasia, and collie eye.
148. What way of reporting WBC differential results is most useful? A. As percentages B. As relative numbers C. As absolute numbers D. As decimal numbers
C. As absolute numbers Absolute numbers are based on the total WBC count. Percentages are based on 100 cells counted on the differential. Relative numbers and decimal numbers do not pertain.
719. Kidney disease leads to accumulation of metabolic waste in the blood, a condition known as A. Hypernaturia B. Hypernatremia C. Azotemia D. Azoturia
C. Azotemia Elevated levels of nitrogenous waste products accumulate in the blood, especially urea nitrogen. Hypernatremia is an increase in sodium levels in the blood; hypernaturia is an increase in sodium levels in the urine.
129. When culturing a swab for bacterial identification, which of the following media should be used? A. TSI, BAP, CAMPY B. EMB, BAP, MAC C. BAP, CNA, MAC D. CNA, TSI, MSA
C. BAP, CNA, MAC
278. Which intracellular parasite appears fairly large, paired, and teardrop-shaped when viewed microscopically? A. Mycoplasma felis (Haemobartonella felis) B. Anaplasma marginale C. Babesia canis D. Ehrlichia canis
C. Babesia canis
195. The species of this genus are common contaminants and the causative agent of anthrax. A. Escherichia B. Corynebacterium C. Bacillus D. Enterobacter
C. Bacillus Bacillus spp. are among the most common laboratory contaminants, but Bacillus anthracis is a pathogen of many mammals.
85. Which of the following cells has cytoplasmic granules that stain blue to blue-black and gray-blue cytoplasm, often with small vacuoles? A. Neutrophil B. Small lymphocyte C. Basophil D. Eosinophil
C. Basophil
390. The Ictotest is used to determine A. Ketonuria B. Bile salts in urine C. Bilirubinuria D. Proteinuria
C. Bilirubinuria
349. Uric acid is the major nitrogenous waste in A. Cattle B. Horses C. Birds D. Dogs
C. Birds
701. A calibration verification on the sensors for PCO2 and PO2 is part of the procedure done by an instrument that is measuring A. Electrolytes B. Hematology parameters C. Blood gases D. Blood chemistries
C. Blood gases Dissolved carbon dioxide and oxygen are blood gases.
39. Undulating fever is a zoonotic disease caused by A. Listeria species B. Toxoplasma species C. Brucella species D. Hemophilus species
C. Brucella species The Brucella bacteria can cause fluctuating or undulant, fever in humans that is a symptom of human brucellosis.
270. What laboratory test evaluates primary hemostasis? A. Activated clotting time B. Activated partial thromboplastin time C. Buccal mucosal bleeding time D. One-step prothrombin time
C. Buccal mucosal bleeding time Buccal mucosal bleeding time is the only test listed that evaluates primary hemostasis. The others evaluate secondary hemostasis.
217. EDTA plasma cannot be used for testing ___ plasma levels because EDTA forms a complex with it. A. Magnesium B. Phosphorus C. Calcium D. Potassium
C. Calcium EDTA combines with calcium to prevent clot formation, resulting in a falsely decreased blood calcium concentration .
685. In blood chemistry assays, reconstituted control serum A. Can be used just once a month to assure analyzer reliability B. Is used when patient values are abnormal C. Can be separated into aliquots, frozen, and thawed for later use D. Can be tightly capped and kept in the refrigerator for up to a month
C. Can be separated into aliquots, frozen, and thawed for later use Reconstituted controlled serum is not stable for more than a few days when refrigerated, and an entire bottle is rarely used before it expires. After reconstituting one bottle, several aliquots are placed in small tubes and frozen. These aliquots can be thawed one at a time, thereby extending the use of the serum and cutting supply costs.
327. Which of the following statements regarding casts is false? A. A few hyaline or granular casts may be seen in normal urine. B. All casts are cylindric with parallel sides. C. Casts dissolve in acidic urine. D. Casts may be disrupted with high-speed centrifugation and rough sample handling.
C. Casts dissolve in acidic urine. Casts generally dissolve in basic urine, that is, urine that has been standing for some time before being examined. The rest of the statements are true.
375. What species has multiple forms of reticulocytes? A. Horse B. Cow C. Cat D. Dog
C. Cat Cats have two forms of reticulocytes, punctate and aggregate; only the aggregate form is counted.
298. Occult heartworm infections occur in approximately 90% of A. Dogs B. Horses C. Cats D. Humans
C. Cats
145. The platelets of what species tend to clump easily? A. Dogs B. Horses C. Cats D. Cows
C. Cats Cat platelets have a tendency to clump, so it is important to examine the blood smear for clumping if a machine count gives a low reading.
299. Unlike a histologic section, a wet mount of parasite eggs is three-dimensional, therefore when examining the slider under the microscope, you must A. Lower the condenser all the way down to see all objects. B. Close the iris diaphragm to be able to view all objects. C. Continually adjust the focus to view all objects. D. Use the highest power objective to view all objects.
C. Continually adjust the focus to view all objects.
413. What diagnostic test is used to diagnose autoimmune hemolytic anemia? A. Red cell fragility test B. Modified Knott C. Coombs D. Coggins
C. Coombs
339. Hoover was diagnosed with a urinary tract infection 2 weeks ago and was put on a course of amoxicillin. The veterinarian has asked that he return for a recheck to make sure the infection is resolved. The collection method of choice for this patient would be A. Catheterization B. Free catch C. Cystocentesis D. Manual expression
C. Cystocentesis Cystocentesis is the method of choice for collecting a sterile urine sample. All other methods listed yield a sample that is potentially contaminated.
186. The best urine sample for culture is a A. Bladder and expression sample B. Metabolism cage collection C. Cystocentesis sample D. Voided sample
C. Cystocentesis sample Microbial contamination is more likely to occur with the other three collection methods.
86. Papanicolaou stains are specialized stains used in which of the following procedures? A. Red blood cell evaluation B. Platelet evaluation C. Cytologic evaluation D. Parasitic evaluation
C. Cytologic evaluation
498. What breed of dog has the most problems with uric acid stones? A. Basenji B. German shepherd C. Dalmatian D. Shetland sheepdog
C. Dalmatian Dalmatians have the most problems with uric acid stones, because they lack the enzyme uricase to break down the uric acid.
464. An elevated hematocrit can indicate what situation is present? A. Hyperglycemia B. Anemia C. Dehydration D. Leukocytosis
C. Dehydration An elevated hematocrit usually indicates dehydration is present. A low hematocrit indicates anemia is present.
263. An elevated hematocrit is most commonly associated with A. Polycythemia B. Anemia C. Dehydration D. Leukocytosis
C. Dehydration The most common cause of an elevated hematocrit is dehydration. This is a relative increase, resulting from a decreased blood fluid component.
55. Water deprivation tests should never be performed on patients with A. High MCV B. Suspected sufficient ADH C. Dehydration D. Suspected tubular malfunction
C. Dehydration The patient is already stressed because of a preexisting condition, and the body may have already begun to produce ADH; therefore, it is not a good scientific baseline.
18. Hemolysins A. Coagulate blood B. Break down fibrin C. Destroy red blood cells D. Indicate a viral infection
C. Destroy red blood cells
550. What does pseudocyesis occur in the bitch's cycle? A. Proestrus B. Estrus C. Diestrus D. Anestrus
C. Diestrus Pseudocyesis, or false pregnancy, is a normal event in the bitch and occurs during diestrus.
531. Which of the following is a Romanowsky-type stain? A. Gram stain B. New methylene blue C. Diff-Quik D. Sedi-Stain
C. Diff-Quik
446. Which of the following parasites is not zoonotic? A. Toxoplasma B. Echinococcus C. Dipylidium D. Giardia
C. Dipylidium
126. The most important laboratory procedure for microbiologic diagnosis is A. Inoculation of blood agar B. Antimicrobial susceptibility testing C. Direct microscopic examination of the specimen D. Serologic testing
C. Direct microscopic
434. What is a tick-borne organism found in dogs? A. Toxoplasma B. Isospora C. Ehrlichia D. Cryptosporidium
C. Ehrlichia Ehrlichiosis is a tick-borne disease seen in dogs. Toxoplasmosis, coccidiosis, and cryptosporidiosis are not spread by ticks.
199. What family of bacteria is the largest group of potential pathogens and the most frequently isolated bacteria? A. Actinomycetaceae B. Bacteroidaceae C. Enterobacteriaceae D. Micrococcaceae
C. Enterobacteriaceae The normal habitat of these small, gram-negative rods are the intestinal tracts of animals and humans and the soil.
352. Proteins that induce chemical changes in other substances but are not changed themselves are called A. Activators B. Buffers C. Enzymes D. Substrates
C. Enzymes
302. An animal that tested positive for heartworm infection might also have an elevation of which of the following blood cells? A. Leukocytes B. Lymphocytes C. Eosinophils D. Monocytes
C. Eosinophils Eosinophils are often found in greater numbers in the blood of animals that are allergic of have parasitic infections.
524. What species has the largest eosinophil granules? A. Bovine B. Canine C. Equine D. Feline
C. Equine
388. Which of these is least likely to interfere with blood chemistry test results? A. Postprandial serum B. Icteric serum C. Fasting serum D. Hemolyzed serum
C. Fasting serum Lipemic, icteric, and hemolyzed sera may interfere with chemistry testing.
560. Intact erythrocytes in unstained urine sediment may be confused with A. Casts B. Crystals C. Fat cells D. Microorganisms
C. Fat cells
210. Bile acids aid in the digestion of A. Proteins B. Carbohydrates C. Fats D. Globulins
C. Fats Bile acids are synthesized by the liver from cholesterol and released into the intestine.
300. What major disadvantage is common to both the direct smear and fecal sedimentation methods of fecal examination? A. Neither is a concentrating method. B. They both test a very small sample only. C. Fecal debris will make microscopic examination difficult. D. Both are more time consuming to perform than standard flotation methods.
C. Fecal debris will make microscopic examination difficult. Fecal sedimentation is a concentrating method that tests a large sample. A direct smear is quick to perform, yet tests only a very small sample. Both these methods contain much fecal debris, making examination difficult.
309. The instrument specifically designed to collect a fecal sample directly from the animal's rectum is a A. Fecal extractor B. Fecal spoon C. Fecal loop D. Fecal scoop
C. Fecal loop
509. The x-ray film digestion test measures the activity of A. Lipase B. Fecal amylase C. Fecal trypsin D. Glucose
C. Fecal trypsin The x-ray film digestion test usually measures fecal trypsin, which is lacking in pancreatic atrophy.
408. What species has both punctate and aggregate forms of reticulocytes in peripheral blood smears? A. Canine B. Porcine C. Feline D. Bovine
C. Feline Felines have both punctate and aggregate reticulocytes, although only the aggregate is counted.
602. DIC is commonly represented by schistocytosis. The schistocytes are made when A. Normal erythrocytes are phagocytized by leukocytes. B. Leukocytes are fragmented. C. Fibrin strands cut the erythrocytes apart. D. Erythrocytes lose intracellular contents while remaining intact.
C. Fibrin strands cut the erythrocytes apart. DIC causes the body's clotting abilities to malfunction, and fibrin strands slice through the RBCs, destroying their ablity to function as well.
428. It is important to keep cytology samples and unstained slides away from ___ so the samples can later be stained properly. A. Acetone B. Ether C. Formalin D. Saline
C. Formalin Formalin fumes can affect the staining quality of cytology samples.
181. Casts seen in urine sediments are A. Mucous threads filled with amorphous sediment B. Always significant C. Formed in the renal tubules D. Artifacts
C. Formed in the renal tubules Casts are cylinders composed of protein that is secreted by the renal tubules and may contain cells of various stages of disintegration, if they were present in the tubule regions.
334. What method of urine sample collection would not be associated with traumatic hematuria? A. Catheterization B. Manual expression C. Free catch D. Cystocentesis
C. Free catch Only the free-catch method involves no iatrogenic traumatization of the patient's urinary tract.
8. Lyophilization is A. Holding at 72 degrees C for 15 seconds B. Competitive inhibition C. Freeze-drying D. Sterility testing
C. Freeze-drying
633. What tissue processes B cells before they are sent to peripheral lymphoid tissue? A. GLNB B. GALB C. GALT D. GLAN
C. GALT Gut-associated lymph tissue (GALT) is often compared to the bursa of Fabricius in birds, where B lymphocytes are processed before being sent to peripheral lymphoid tissue.
706. In horses the blood chemistry tests most commonly used to evaluate liver function are A. Alanine transaminase and aspartate aminotransferase B. Electrolytes and blood urea nitrogen C. Gamma-glutamyl transferase and sorbitol dehydrogenase D. Amylase and lipase
C. Gamma-glutamyl transferase and sorbitol dehydrogenase
28. In the name Staphylococcus aureus, Staphylococcus is the A. Order B. Family C. Genus D. Species
C. Genus
703. Dextrostix and Visidex strips are rapid quantitative tests for blood levels of A. Aspartate aminotransferase B. Alanine transaminase C. Glucose D. Urea nitrogen
C. Glucose
720. In a diabetic animal, blood chemistry analysis is commonly performed to monitor insulin therapy by measuring blood levels of A. Sodium B. Potassium C. Glucose D. Insulin
C. Glucose Insulin's effect on blood glucose levels is monitored in a diabetic animal.
414. What Vacutainer tube yields plasma via centrifugation? A. Red top B. Red/black mottled top C. Green/gray mottled top D. Yellow top
C. Green/gray mottled top
672. Centrifuging a blood sample at high speed for a prolonged period may result in A. Lipemia B. Icterus C. Hemolysis D. Bacterial contamination
C. Hemolysis
673. Improper handling of a blood sample after it has been collected may result in A. Lipemia B. Icterus C. Hemolysis D. Leukocytosis
C. Hemolysis
348. The two most common problems encountered in samples to be evaluated for clinical chemistry are A. Coagulation and separation B. Dilution and concentration C. Hemolysis and lipemia D. EDTA and heparin
C. Hemolysis and lipemia Hemolysis and lipemia are the most common factors that affect clinical chemistry analysis.
641. The substance that prevents a blood sample from clotting is A. Antihistamine B. Chloramphenamine C. Heparin D. Lithium
C. Heparin
529. What systemic fungus is small and often found in the cytoplasm of macrophages? A. Aspergillus B. Bastomyces C. Histoplasma D. Cryptococcus
C. Histoplasma
456. What small animal parasite ova resemble strongyle ova in horses? A. Ascarid B. Whipworm C. Hookworm D. Coccidia
C. Hookworm Hookworm ova are similar to strongyle ova often seen in horses. Ascarids are roundworms. The whipworm has an operculated egg. Coccidia oocysts are smaller than strongyle ova.
400. In which of the following species is rouleaux formation common? A. Rats B. Dogs C. Horses D. Pigs
C. Horses
74. Normal voided urine is clear, except in which of the following species? A. Dogs B. Cats C. Horses D. Cows
C. Horses
140. An increased amount of ___ seen on a stained peripheral blood smear is a sign of RBC regeneration. A. Hypochromasia B. Crenation C. Howell-Jolly bodies D. Dohle bodies
C. Howell-Jolly bodies Howell-Jolly body is the last remaining remnant of the nucleus before it is totally gone from the immature RBC. Hypochromasia may very well be present with RBC regeneration but is not a sign: crenation is an artifact, and Dohle bodies are a sign of toxic change in neutrophils.
110. The type of immunity that is the function of B cells that transform into plasma cells and productive protective proteins, called antibodies, against antigens is A. Cell mediated B. Autoimmunity C. Humoral D. Anaphylaxis
C. Humoral
231. Which of these immune responses refers to the production of antibodies? A. Innate B. Cell-mediated C. Humoral D. Cytotoxic
C. Humoral The humoral immune response involves the B-lymphocyte production of antibodies.
559. In what endocrine disorder is polyuria and polydipsia not commonly seen? A. Hyperadrenocorticism B. Diabetes insipidus C. Hyperparathyroidism D. Diabetes mellitus
C. Hyperparathyroidism Polydipsia/Polyuria (PU/PD) is not commonly seen in hyperthyroidism. PU/PD is a common clinical sign in hyperadrenocorticism, diabetes insipidus, and diabetes mellitus.
594. A toxic neutrophil can be identified by all of the following characteristics, except A. Cytoplasmic vacuolization B. Cytoplasmic basophilia C. Hypersegmentation D. Dohle bodies
C. Hypersegmentation Hypersegmentation is a normal change in an aging neutrophils that has been in circulation for a long time.
695. The blood chemistry unit of activity for enzyme concentration is typically expressed as ___. A. mg/dl B. g/dl C. IU/L D. mEq/L
C. IU/L IU/L = international units per liter, sometimes expressed as U/L = units per liter
519. Which of these immunoglobulins is found on mucous membranes and is stimulated by intranasal vaccines? A. IgG B. IgM C. IgA D. IgE
C. IgA
370. An example of specific immunity would be A. Mucociliary escalator B. Fine hairs in the trachea C. IgM antibodies to toxoplasmosis D. Nasal secretions
C. IgM antibodies to toxoplasmosis Nonspecific or nonadaptive immunity includes physical and chemical barriers in the body to ward off antigen attacks.
513. What technology is used in hematology analyzers? A. Ion-specific B. End-point assay C. Impedance D. Reflectometry
C. Impedance Ion-specific technology is used in electrolyte analyzers; end-point analysis is a type of technology used in liquid chemistry analyzers; reflectometry is used in dry chemistry analyzers.
678. The technology of dry chemistry differs from that of wet chemistry in that the reagents in dry chemistry are supplied A. In lyophilized pellets B. In liquid solutions C. Impregnated on slides, cards, or strips D. In powdered capsules
C. Impregnated on slides, cards, or strips
360. A box of reagents for blood chemistry analysis labeled for storage at 8 degrees Celsius should be stored A. In the freezer B. At room temperature C. In the refrigerator D. In the incubator
C. In the refrigerator 8 degrees Celsius is approximately 46 degrees Fahrenheit, which is refrigerator temperature (F = 9/5 C + 32).
207. Total protein levels are ___ in a dehydrated animal. A. Unaffected B. Decreased C. Increased D. Variable
C. Increased In a dehydrated animal, fluid leaves the blood to enter the dehydrated tissues, leaving the blood concentrated.
369. Prerenal azotemia refers to A. Increases in BUN resulting from severe renal disease B. Decreases in BUN resulting from severe renal disease C. Increases in BUN resulting from dehydration, shock, and/or decreased blood flow to the kidneys D. Increases in BUN resulting from inability to urinate
C. Increases in BUN resulting from dehydration, shock, and/or decreased blood flow to the kidneys Prerenal azotemia is due to a pathologic condition that occurs prerenally, resulting from decreased blood flow, shock, and heart disease.
575. When preparing a large tissue for biopsy, 10% formalin can be A. Added to the container to just cover the specimen B. Diluted with alcohol for shipping C. Injected into the specimen D. Diluted with water for shipping
C. Injected into the specimen Ideally a biopsy specimen should have formalin contact within a centimeter of tissue. Large masses that cannot be sliced for smaller specimens should be injected with formalin for better preservation.
99. The chemical regulator of the cellular immune response is A. Vasopressin B. Mucin C. Interleukin D. Mucopolysaccharide
C. Interleukin Leukocytes secrete various interleukins. These small, soluble proteins stimulate cellular activities, such as cell proliferation, cell activation, and release or inhibition of more cytokines, all of which help regulate the immune response.
14. A prodromal period A. Is the time before signs and symptoms appear B. Immediately precedes convalescence C. Involves early signs and symptoms D. Involves acute signs and symptoms
C. Involves early signs and symptoms
704. An available technology for determination of blood electrolyte levels is A. Electromagnetic fluctuation B. Scanning electron microscopy C. Ion selective electrode D. Immunoelectrophoresis
C. Ion selective electrode Ion selective electrode and flame photometry are two methods of measuring electrolytes. Some electrolytes can also be measured using photometric or dry chemistry methods.
102. IgA A. Is a class of antibody that possesses 10 antigen-binding sites B. Makes up approximately 80% of the antibody pool in plasma C. Is found in body secretions D. Is found on lymphocyte membranes
C. Is found in body secretions igA is found in body secretions such as tears, mucus, and colostrum.
127. Dermatophyte test medium A. Is used to identify organisms that produce hemolysis B. Will grow gram-positive organisms only C. Is used to identify fungal pathogens D. Will grow gram-negative organisms only
C. Is used to identify fungal pathogens
350. Which of the following statements regarding creatinine is false A. It is an indicator of the glomerular filtration rate. B. It is produced as a result of normal muscle metabolism. C. It is a less reliable indicator of renal function than BUN D. It is usually evaluated in conjunction with the BUN and urine specific gravity.
C. It is a less reliable indicator of renal function than BUN Creatinine is the most reliable indicator of kidney function.
246, Common blood collection sites in the avian patients are the A. Saphenous and cephalic veins B. Retro orbital and toenail clip C. Jugular and cutaneous ulnar veins D. Tail and cephalic veins
C. Jugular and cutaneous ulnar veins The jugular and cutaneous ulnar vein (wing vein), along with the medial metatarsal vein, are the most common blood collection sites in this species.
182. The presence of protein in the urine may indicate A. Acid-base imbalance B. Hemolytic anemia C. Kidney disease D. Diabetes mellitus
C. Kidney disease In kidney disease, excessive amounts of protein enter the glomerular filtrate and are not reabsorbed, resulting in protein in the urine.
718. Serum electrolyte levels should be determined when evaluating function of the A. Liver B. Pancreas C. Kidneys D. Heart
C. Kidneys The kidneys play a role in electrolyte regulation.
93. Basophilic stippling may be seen in erythrocytes of patients with which of the following pathologic conditions? A. Hypersegmented neutrophils B. Iron deficiency C. Lead poisoning D. Vitamin C toxicity
C. Lead poisoning Basophilic stippling: Presence of small, blue-staining granules in the erythrocyte (RBC).
680. In dry chemistry technology, the amount of chemical substance in the blood is determined by measuring the A. Light passing through or absorbed by the final sample B. Heat generated by the end product C. Light reflected from the slide, card, or strip D. Volume, temperature, and pH of the final sample
C. Light reflected from the slide, card, or strip Technology of reflective photometric principles are used in dry chemistry analyzers.
64. What blood chemistry test is not a test for liver damage? A. ALT B. GGT C. Lipase D. Bile acids
C. Lipase Lipase is a test of pancreatitis.
211. Fibrinogen is produced in the A. Pancreas B. Bone marrow C. Liver D. Spleen
C. Liver Acute inflammation or tissue damage can elevate fibrinogen.
255. Looking under the microscope at a blood smear, you see erythrocytes that are elliptical, not nucleated, and lacking central pallor. This blood was most likely collected from a healthy adult A. Bird B. Horse C. Llama D. Snake
C. Llama Horse erythrocytes are round and anucleated. Bird and reptile erythrocytes are usually oval in shape and nucleated.
152. Monocytes typically have A. Segmented nuclei B. Band-shaped nuclei C. Lobular nuclei D. No nuclei
C. Lobular nuclei Monocyte nuclei are not segmented and are usually lobed, although occasionally they may be round or band shaped. Then you must identify the basis of other characteristics.
234. Which is least likely to be a sign of allergy? A. Face rubbing B. Ear problems C. Loss of appetite D. Skin rashes
C. Loss of appetite The other three responses are typical signs of allergies.
214. It is useful to measure electrolyte values when an animal has A. Suspected pancreatitis B. Suspected liver disease C. Lost fluids D. Broken bones
C. Lost fluids Electrolyte measurements help assess the severity of the fluid loss.
142. Which of the RBC indices indicates cell size? A. MCH B. MCHC C. MCV D. MPV
C. MCV MCV: mean cell volume MCH: mean cell hemoglobin MCHC: mean cell hemoglobin concentration MPV: mean platelet volume
500. What is the main constituent of a struvite crystal? A. Calcium carbonate B. Calcium oxalate C. Magnesium phosphate D. Silica
C. Magnesium phosphate
645. When mailing serum samples to a reference laboratory, which of these would you not want to do? A. Label all samples. B. Include test request papers and case history. C. Mail samples out on Saturday. D. Pack the sample so that if breakage occurs, the package will not leak.
C. Mail samples out on Saturday.
394. Which of the following would be considered an abnormal finding on healthy canine external ear canal cytology? A. Cerumen B. Epithelial cells C. Malassezia D. Debris
C. Malassezia Malassezia pachydermatis is a common cause of otitis externa.
462. What causes the sensitivity of the occult heartworm test to decrease? A. No microfilariae present B. Female worms only C. Male worms only D. No clinical signs
C. Male worms only The sensitivity of the occult heartworm test is zero when only male worms are present.
626. The value that represents the center of a set of values is A. Mean B. Mode C. Median D. Standard deviation
C. Median
470. A leukocyte count will be falsely elevated by which of the following in the peripheral blood? A. Spherocytosis B. Reticulotyes C. Metarubricytes D. Bands
C. Metarubricytes A leukocyte count will be falsely elevated because of metarubricytes, nucleated erythrocytes, in the peripheral blood, because the counting procedures count all nucleated cells.
121. An attenuated antigen is a ___ antigen. A. Dead B. Multivalent C. Modified D. Transferred
C. Modified
399. Where on the blood smear would you select to start your WBC differential count? A. Thickest area B. Feathered edge C. Monocellular layer D. Thinnest area
C. Monocellular layer The monolayer is selected because the cells are barely touching one another but not so far apart that ou would not be able to count 100 WBCs.
98. Which of the following cells is usually associated with a chronic infection or inflammation? A. Lymphocytes B. Neutrophils C. Monocytes D. Eosinophils
C. Monocytes
163. The intermediate host for heartworms is the A. Flea B. Rodent C. Mosquito D. Snail
C. Mosquito Several species of mosquitoes serve as intermediate hosts for heartworms.
582. The best way to decrease light intensity in a microscope, other than to turn the light source down, is to A. Open the diaphragm. B. Change the ocular. C. Move the condenser down. D. Move to a lower lens power.
C. Move the condenser down. Doing any of the other selections will actually increase the light source availability that is refracted into the lens.
478. What is the most immature cell in the granulocyte series? A. Megakaryoblast B. Leukoblast C. Myeloblast D. Progranuloblast
C. Myeloblast The myeloblast, an immature granulocyte, is the most immature cell in the granulocyte series. The megakaryoblast is the most immature cell in the thrombocyte series.
262. On a complete blood count (CBC), all of the following findings could be expected in a patient with an infection, except A. Neutrophilia B. Leukocytosis C. Narrow buffy coat D.. A left shift
C. Narrow buffy coat A large buffy coat would be expected in a patient with an infection, because the buffy coat is composed of leukocytes, and an elevated white cell count is to be expected in response to infection.
563. What has occurred in neonatal isoerythrolysis? A. Neonates make antibodies against its erythrocytes. B. Neonate inherits antibodies against its erythrocytes. C. Neonate ingests antibodies against its own erythrocytes in the colostrum. D. Neonate cannot make T or B cells.
C. Neonate ingests antibodies against its own erythrocytes in the colostrum. In neonatal isoerythrolysis, the neonate gets antibodies against its own erythrocytes in the colostrum. This occurs naturally in thoroughbred and standard-bred horses and can also be seen in bitches that have had transfusions. The young animal develops a hemolytic anemia.
432. What protozoan disease causes an ascending paralysis in young dogs and abortion in cattle? A. Cryptosporidiosis B. EEE C. Neosporosis D. Brucellosis
C. Neosporosis
371. What blood cell is also known as a PMN? A. Basophil B. Eosinophil C. Neutrophil D. Monocyte
C. Neutrophil The PMN, or polymorphonuclear cell, refers to the neutrophil.
366. Heterophils in the avian species are the equivalent of the mammalian A. Monocytes B. Eosinophils C. Neutrophils D. Basophils
C. Neutrophils Birds have heterophils instead of neutrophils.
151. What cells are phagocytic? A. Granulocytes B. Lymphocytes C. Neutrophils and macrophages D. Macrophages and lymphocytes
C. Neutrophils and macrophages Neutrophils and macrophages (called monocytes in the blood) are phagocytes. Granulocytes include basophils and eosinophils and have other primary functions.
17. Tetanus is considered A. Endemic B. Contagious C. Noncommunicable D. Epizootic
C. Noncommunicable
153. Which one of these would not affect a manual WBC count? A. Condenser in the farthest "up" position A. Length of time that the hemocytometer has been loaded C. Objective lens used D. Mini clots in the blood
C. Objective lens used The same number of cells are counted, no matter what objective is used. Poor positioning of the condenser obscures the WBCs. Too much time on the hemocytometer dries the diluted blood and could affected the count. Mini clot traps WBCs and would affect the count.
219. Veterinary reference ranges for blood chemistry values A. Are generally established by each individual veterinary clinic B. Include values from diseased and normal animals C. Often come with an analyzer and have been established by the company D. Are helpful to refer to but are not necessary
C. Often come with an analyzer and have been established by the company Establishing normal ranges must be done in a statistically correct manner and is usually something an individual clinic will not do.
243. What is the difference between a red-top Vacutainer and one with a mottled red-and-black top? A. One contains diatomaceous earth and the other does not. B. One contains silicone and the other does not. C. One contains serum separator gel and the other does not. D. One contains anticoagulant and the other does not.
C. One contains serum separator gel and the other does not.
264. The hematology analyzer is not functioning properly. A good mathematical method to estimate hemoglobin is A. Two times the PCV B. One half the PCV C. One third the PCV D. Three times the PCV
C. One third the PCVC. One third the PCV
483. What test is used to confirm a diagnosis of warfarin (rodenticide) toxicity? A. Thrombocyte count B. Calcium level C. One-step prothrombin time D. Partial thromboplastin time
C. One-step prothrombin time The one-step prothrombin time, which measures the extrinsic coagulation pathway, is used to confirm a diagnosis of warfarin (rodenticide) toxicity.
220. If a test result is a false positive, it means that the result is A. Within the reference range and the disease is absent B. Within the reference range and the disease is present C. Outside the reference range and the disease is absent D. Outside the reference range and the disease is present
C. Outside the reference range and the disease is absent Abnormal test results (outside of the normal reference range) imply disease conditions; but sometimes a test result is outside of the reference range, but the animal does not have the disease. This is called a false positive.
729. Measurement of blood levels of amylase and lipase is used to evaluation the function of the A. Kidneys B. Liver C. Pancreas D. Adrenal glands
C. Pancreas The pancreas secretes these digestive enzymes; levels are elevated in acute pancreatitis.
551. If neutrophils are the predominant cell type seen in an aspirated sample, what else of significance should you look for in the sample? A. Extracellular microorganisms B. Marcophages C. Phagocytized microorganisms D. Ruptured RBCs
C. Phagocytized microorganisms This would help differentiate an inflammatory response (no microorganisms) from an infectious response (neutrophils are phagocytizing microorganisms). Extracellular microorganisms could be the result of contamination.
725. Measurement of blood levels of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) and ACTH is used to evaluate function of the A. Thyroid gland B. Pancreas C. Pituitary gland D. Adrenal glands
C. Pituitary gland TSH and ACTH are both secreted by the anterior pituitary gland (adenohypophysis) gland, which is under the control of the hypothalamus. Blood levels of these hormones may be used to evaluate pituitary gland function.
518. What cell produces immunoglobulins? A. Hepatocyte B. T lymphocyte C. Plasma cell D. Myeloblast
C. Plasma cell Plasma cells produce immunoglobulins, also known as antibodies.
449. What parasite causes malaria? A. Babesia B. Trypanosoma C. Plasmodium D. Anaplasma
C. Plasmodium Various species of Plasmodium causes malaria in humans birds.
600. Acanthocytes are A. Crenated cells B. Spherocytes C. Poikilocytes D. Schistocytes
C. Poikilocytes Acanthocytes are a descriptive morphologic change in the shape of red blood cells.
318. Preparation for fine-needle aspirate of a joint or body cavity would include A. Preparation as for venipuncture B. Washing as for venipuncture C. Preparation as for surgery D. Washing the area with physiologic saline
C. Preparation as for surgery Preparation of a joint or body cavity demands the same aseptic preparation as for a surgical procedure.
467. What is the function of the megakaryocyte? A. Phagocytosis B. Produces granulocytes C. Produces thrombocytes D. Produces plasma cells
C. Produces thrombocytes The megakaryocyte is a large cell found in the bone marrow that produces thrombocytes (platelets).
576. What condition could result in myoglobinuria? A. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia B. Transfusion reaction C. Prolonged recumbency D. Overeating disease
C. Prolonged recumbency Myopathy from prolonged recumbency could result in excess myoglobin being released.
490. In order for a cast to form, what must be present in the filtrate? A, Erythrocyte B. Glucose C. Protein D. Ketones
C. Protein
192. What gram-negative bacteria may "swarm" a blood agar plate, leaving a film over the entire surface? A. Pseudomonas sp. B. Staphylococcus sp. C. Proteus sp. D. Escherichia coli
C. Proteus sp. This is a characteristic of Proteus mirabilis and Proteus vulgaris that helps in their identification but can also hinder isolation of other bacteria growing on the same plate.
423. Which of the following mites is commonly found in rabbits and large animals? A. Cnemidocoptes B. Sarcoptes C. Psoroptes D. Otodectes
C. Psoroptes
437. What mite is the most damaging to cattle? A. Sarcoptes B. Chorioptes C. Psoroptes D. Demodex
C. Psoroptes Psoroptes is very contagious and psoroptic mange is a reportable disease.
283. Which of these is a nonburrowing mange mite? A. Notoedres cati B. Sarcoptes scabiei C. Psoroptes cuniculi D. Demodex
C. Psoroptes cuniculi Members of the family Psoroptidae reside on the surface of the skin or within the external ear canal. All other mites listed live under the surface of the skin.
620. The process of monitoring instruments, reagents, test procedures, technician performance, and the accuracy of reported results is A. Accuracy B. Reliability C. Quality control D. Precision
C. Quality control
249. Which Vacutainer tube does not need to be inverted after collection of a blood sample? A. Lavender top B. Green top C. Red top D. Blue top
C. Red top All of the tubes contain anticoagulant except for the red-top tube. When blood is collected into a tube containing anticoagulant, the tube must be gently inverted several times to adequately mix the sample.
493. Urine specific gravity is actually a measure of which of the following? A. Liver function B. Renal glomerular function C. Renal tubular function D. Bladder function
C. Renal tubular function
35. The most common portal of entry for microorganisms into the body is A. Skin B. Gastrointestinal tract C. Respiratory tract D. Genitourinary tract
C. Respiratory tract
320. A Wood's lamp is used to examine an animal for the presence of A. Demodex B. Scabies C. Ringworm D. Pinworm
C. Ringworm
158. What is the most immature erythrocyte? A. Rubricyte B. Metarubricyte C. Rubriblast D. Reticulocyte
C. Rubriblast Any cell name ending in blast is the most immature cell that can be visually identified on a bone marrow or blood smear.
412. Which list has the cells listed from most immature to most mature? A. Rubricyte, reticulocyte, rubriblast, erythrocyte B. Rubriblast, reticulocyte, rubricyte, erythrocyte C. Rubriblast, rubricyte, reticulocyte, erythrocyte D. Reticulocyte, rubriblast, rubricyte, erythrocyte
C. Rubriblast, rubricyte, reticulocyte, erythrocyte
284. What ectoparasite has zoonotic potential? A. Demodex B. Notoedres C. Sarcoptes D. Psoroptes
C. Sarcoptes Of the choices, only the sarcoptic mange mite is highly contagious to other animals and humans.
422. Which of these ectoparasites is zoonotic? A. Demodex B. Cnemidocoptes C. Sarcoptes D. Otodectes
C. Sarcoptes Sarcoptes mites are transmittable to humans, a condition referred to as scabies.
668. Centrifuging blood that has been collected in a plain (red-top) vacuum tube and allowed to clot produces A. Lipemia B. Bilirubinemia C. Serum D. Plasma
C. Serum Blood collected in this manner (without an anticoagulant), centrifuged, and separated after clotting will yield serum. Plasma is obtained when blood is collected in a tube that contains anticoagulant, is centrifuged, and then separated.
224. Which of the samples can be frozen and successfully thawed for performing an analytic test at a later time? A. Feces for a fecal float test B. Whole blood for chemistry testing C. Serum for chemistry testing D. Whole blood for a CBC
C. Serum for chemistry testing Only separated serum from this list can be frozen; freezing the other specimens would alter test results.
454. What is the least likely way of transmitting Toxoplasma to a human? A. Ingesting ova from cat feces B. Drinking contaminated water C. Skin penetration D. Eating undercooked contaminated meat
C. Skin penetration Toxoplasma does not enter through the skin. Ingesting ova from cat feces and eating undercooked contaminated meat are the most common sources of Toxoplasma ova.
545. What cell is most commonly seen in chylothorax? A. Neutrophils B. Lymphoblasts C. Small lymphocytes D. Mesothelial cells
C. Small lymphocytes Small lymphocytes are most commonly seen in chylothorax, which is usually due to a ruptured thoracic duct.
649. What anticoagulant inhibits a glycolytic enzyme, thus acting as a preservative for glucose? A. Sodium citrate B. Lithium heparin C. Sodium fluoride D. Potassium oxalate
C. Sodium fluoride
621. Controls are A. Solutions with known constituents analyzed to calibrate instruments B. Run on a weekly basis C. Solutions with known properties that are analyzed for quality-control purposes D. Used if a problem occurs
C. Solutions with known properties that are analyzed for quality-control purposes Controls are run for quality-control purposes only. They are not used to calibrate instruments.
323. The ability of the renal tubules to concentrate or dilute a urine sample is assessed by what component of the urinalysis? A. pH B. Volume C. Specific gravity D. Examination of the sediment
C. Specific gravity
112. The third line of defense against foreign invaders in the body is A. Agglutination B. Inflammation C. Specific immunity D. Interferon production
C. Specific immunity
558. What sample normally has the greatest number of cells? A. Erythrocyte count B. Thrombocyte count C. Sperm count D. Leukocyte count
C. Sperm count Sperm counts are usually in excess of 100,000,000 cells/mm^3. Erythrocyte counts are in the 6 to 10 million cells/mm^3 range, thrombocytes are in the 250,000 to 500,000 cells/mm^3 range, and leukocyte counts are in the 5,000 to 20,000 cells/mm^3 range.
154. Which of these is not a sign of RBC regeneration? A. Polychromasia B. Nuclear remnants C. Spherocytes D. Anisocytosis and macrocytosis
C. Spherocytes Spherocytes are seen with immune-mediated hemolytic anemia and will cause RBC regeneration. All other responses are signs of regeneration.
260. A common finding on a blood smear from an animal with autoimmune hemolytic anemia is A. Heinz bodies B. Howell-Jolly bodies C. Spherocytes D. Target cells
C. Spherocytes Spherocytosis is considered a classic finding in patients with autoimmune hemolytic anemia (AIHA).
445. What canine parasite causes nodules in the esophagus, which may then become neoplastic? A. Physaloptera B. Filaroides C. Spirocirca D. Neosporum
C. Spirocirca Spirocirca is a canine parasite that causes nodules in the esophagus, which may then become neoplastic. Physaloptera is the canine stomach worm. Neosporum is a protozoan that causes neurologic disease in pups.
238. In which of the following sample preparation techniques is a small amount of aspirate placed on a slide, a second slide placed on top of the aspirate, and, finally, the top slide slid across the bottom slide and pulled apart? A. Starfish preparation B. Blood smear technique C. Squash preparation technique D. Line smear concentration technique
C. Squash preparation technique This is one way to prepare a smear from aspirated material from a solid mass. particularly samples of high cellularity.
355. A fecal smear can be stained for fat. An increased amount of fat is indicative of A. Dyschezia B. Dysentery C. Steatorrhea D. Tenesmus
C. Steatorrhea Steatorrhea is the presence of fecal fat. Fat will appear as red-orange droplets in the feces when stained with Sudan III or Sudan IV.
654. Which of the following is not a consideration when choosing the gauge and length of a needle for blood sample collection? A. Amount of blood needed B. Condition of phlebotomy sites C. Test to be run D. Size of the animal
C. Test to be run
577. An example of capillary action is A. The blood coursing through smaller veins B. The perfusion of mucous membranes C. The action of blood filling a hematocrit tube D. Removing serum from a clot with a pipette
C. The action of blood filling a hematocrit tube Capillary action, or capillarity, occurs when a liquid pushes against a solid and is caused to rise, such as blood entering a capillary tube.
117. Translocation can be defined as A. A duplication of an allele (for example, in trisomy 21) B. The breakage of two chromosomes, resulting in the exact duplicate of the originals after repair C. The breakage of two chromosomes, resulting in repair in an abnormal arrangement D. A part or all of a chromosome is missing
C. The breakage of two chromosomes, resulting in repair in an abnormal arrangement
95. Adaptive or specific immunity includes A. Naturally occurring stomach acids B. Antibodies that an organism is born with that will respond to a variety of substances C. The response of the defenses of the body to a specific substance D. Lysozyme in tears
C. The response of the defenses of the body to a specific substance Individuals produce antibodies to a specific antigen.
384. Once blood has formed a clot, you can reverse this process by A. Adding anticoagulant B. Vigorous mixing C. There is no reversal D. Adding isotonic saline
C. There is no reversal
240. Regarding the disadvantages of using commercial laboratories, which statement is false? A. They are not practical to use for a single laboratory test. B. The samples are not as fresh as those tested in-house. C. They often do not adhere to quality control standards. D. They is a long turnaround time for results.
C. They often do not adhere to quality control standards. Single laboratory tests are more conveniently done in-house. Samples sent out for commercial laboratories are not as fresh, and results are delayed when compared to those done in an in-house laboratory. Commercial veterinary laboratories have rigorous quality control standards.
404. When counting cells on the hemacytometer, what cells are not counted? A. Those on the top and bottom borders B. Those on the left and right borders C. Those on the left and top borders D. Those on the right and bottom borders
C. Those on the left and top borders This is done to avoid double counting cells on shared borders of the squares.
90. Megakaryocytes are the precursor cell to A. Metarubricytes B. Polychromatic cells C. Thrombocytes D. Monocytes
C. Thrombocytes
676. Which statement is false concerning collection of a plasma sample for blood chemistry analysis? A. If a needle and syringe are used, hemolysis can be minimized by removing the needle from the syringe before discharging the blood into a sample tube. B. Volume changes caused by evaporation can be minimized by keeping the cap on the blood collection tube as much as possible. C. To separate, allow the sample to clot for approximately 30 minutes, gently remove the clot from the sides of the tube, and centrifuge and remove the plasma. D. Avoid lipemia by fasting the animal before collecting the sample.
C. To separate, allow the sample to clot for approximately 30 minutes, gently remove the clot from the sides of the tube, and centrifuge and remove the plasma. A blood clot drawn for obtaining plasma should be collected using an anticoagulant; it should not clot.
571. When the spun hematocrit test is done, which of the following can be evaluated? A. PCV B. Plasma color and PCV C. Total protein, buffy coat, plasma color, and PCV D. Total protein, buffy coat, plasma color, fibrin, and PCV
C. Total protein, buffy coat, plasma color, and PCV The spun hematocrit gives you the packed red cell volume, plasma color, and appearance; an estimate of white blood cells and platelets in the buffy coat; and a refractometer reading of total protein from the separated plasma.
451. Visceral larval migrans is caused by the larvae of A. Ancylostoma caninum B. Isospora canis C. Toxocara canis D. Taenia canis
C. Toxocara canis Visceral larval micrans is due to the migration of the larva of Toxocara canis, the canine roundworm. Larvae of Ancylostoma caninum, the canine hookworm, cause cutaneous larval migrans.
639. As a general rule, enough blood should be collected to run any test at least three times. This compensates for all of the following, except A. Instrument error B. Technician error C. Transcription error D. Improper dilution of a sample
C. Transcription error Transcription errors are clerical errors and do not require extra use of a sample.
159. Kittens are most likely to get roundworms (Toxocara) by what route? A. Fecal-oral B. Transplacental C. Transmammary D. Skin penetration
C. Transmammary Kittens are most likely to become infected by roundworms by nursing on an infected queen.
175. Struvite crystals is another name for A. Calcium carbonate crystals B. Calcium oxalate crystals C. Triple phosphate crystals D. Amorphous phosphate crystals
C. Triple phosphate crystals A third name for these crystals is ammonium-magnesium-phosphates.
441. What protozoan parasite causes a venereal disease in cattle? A. Trypanosoma B. Giardia C. Tritrichomonas D. Babesia
C. Tritrichomonas
447. Observing a "zippy" motility in fresh feces is used to help diagnose the presence of what parasite? A. Toxoplasma B. Mycoplasma (Haemobartonella) C. Tritrichomonas D. Alaria
C. Tritrichomonas Tritrichomonas in fresh feces have a very "zippy" movement. Giardia trophozoites, on the other had, have what is called a "falling leaf" movement.
712. A common laboratory test for chronic pancreatitis is a fecal test for A. Amylase B. Lipase C. Trypsin D. Bilirubin
C. Trypsin
204. A kidney function test that is useful in birds and Dalmatians is A. BUN B. Creatinine C. Uric acid D. AST
C. Uric acid Uric acid is an acid urine and associated with metabolic defect. Uric acid is increased in the blood of both avians and Dalmatians with kidney disease.
222. Calibration standards for chemistry analyzers are A. Not used anymore B. Used in the same way as control sera C. Used by the manufacturer D. Used routinely at the veterinary clinic
C. Used by the manufacturer The analyzers used in today's veterinary clinics are programmed to do many self-checks, and any necessary calibration for the instrument is done or is supplied by the manufacturer.
40. Warts are caused by ___. A. Bacteria B. Fungi C. Viruses D. Protozoa
C. Viruses
311. The fecal solution most likely to be successful in detecting Giardia cysts is A. Sodium chloride B. Sodium nitrate C. Zinc sulfate D. Physiologic saline
C. Zinc sulfate
450. What fecal flotation solution is recommended when looking for Giardia cysts? A. Saturated sugar B. Sodium nitrate C. Zinc sulfate D. Saturated salt
C. Zinc sulfate
410. The Unopette system for counting white blood cells uses what diluent? A. 0.85% saline B. Distilled water C. 9% hydrochloric acid D. 1% ammonium oxalate
D. 1% ammonium oxalate A 1% ammonium oxalate is the diluent for the WBC Unopette, because it lyses with the RBCs.
487. Which of the following is a typical specific gravity for dilute porcine urine? A. 0.010 B. 3.055 C. 1.035 D. 1.010
D. 1.010 A typical specific gravity for dilute procine urine is 1.010. The values 0.010 and 3.055 are invalid numbers. 1.035 is a high specific gravity that suggests that the urine is concentrated.
329. Pudding, a 2-year-old castrated male domestic shorthair cat, was missing for 5 days before coming home. His owners were very concerned that he appeared weak and tired, so they brought him to the clinic. You find on initial physical examination that he is significantly dehydrated. You are not at all surprised when you find that his urine specific gravity is A. 1.002 B. 1.012 C. 1.030 D. 1.060
D. 1.060 A state of dehydration causes the kidneys to conserve body water, thereby decreasing the amount of urine produced and increasing the concentration of urine excreted.
119. If a homozygous polled bull were mated to a heterozygous polled cow, and the gene for horns was an X-linked dominant gene, the expected results would be which of the following? A. 1:2:1, or 25%, 50%, and 25% B. 2:2, or 50% and 50% C. 1:3, or 25% and 75% D. 1:1:1:1, or 25%, 25%, 25%, and 25%
D. 1:1:1:1, or 25%, 25%, 25%, and 25% One female homozygous polled, one male homozygous polled, one female heterozygous polled, and one male heterozygous polled.
281. The normal myeloid to erythroid ratio on a bone marrow smear is A. 1:1 B. 1:2 C. 3:1 D. 2:1
D. 2:1
637. To separate serum, whole blood should be spun down in a centrifuge at A. 4500 rpm for 30 minutes B. 10,000 rpm for 10 minutes C. 8500 rpm for 30 minutes D. 3500 rpm for 10 minutes
D. 3500 rpm for 10 minutes Centrifuging a sample at too high a speed or for an extended period may cause hemolysis.
667. For most blood chemistry examinations, serum or plasma samples are stable at frozen temperatures for A. 4 to 7 hours B. 4 to 7 days C. 4 to 7 weeks D. 4 to 7 months
D. 4 to 7 months General recommendation. chemicals in serum or plasma are stable the longest when frozen, although freezing may affect some tests.
588. Assuming that there is an average of 100 RBCs per field, what percentage of reticulocytes is on a blood smear if 53 reticulocytes were counted in 10 fields? A. 53% B. 0.53% C. 0.053% D. 5.3%
D. 5.3% 53/1000 x 100 = 5.3%
257. The total white blood cell count of a healthy adult dog ranges from A. 1000 to 3000/microliter B. 30,000 to 50,000/microliter C. 4000 to 8000/microliter D. 6000 to 17,000/microliter
D. 6000 to 17,000/microliter
30. Most bacteria grow best at pH A. 1 B. 3 C. 9 D. 7
D. 7 Most bacteria prefer a neutral pH.
363. It is important for the body to maintain the blood pH at a constant level to maximize function of all body systems. Normal blood pH is A. 6.8 B. 7.0 C. 7.2 D. 7.4
D. 7.4
336. A normal adult horse would most likely have a urinary pH of A. 5.5 B. 6.5 C. 7.0 D. 7.5
D. 7.5 A horse is an herbivore. Herbivores are more likely to have basic urine pH, whereas carnivores have an acidic urine pH.
41. What percentage of the glomeruli in both kidneys must be nonfunctional before serum chemistry changes indicate renal disease? A. 10% B. 20% C. 50% D. 70%
D. 70% There is a great deal of redundancy built into the kidneys.
562. How many major canine blood groups have been identified? A. 2 B. 4 C. 6 D. 8
D. 8
66. What percentage of the body's calcium is in bone A. 49% B. 59% C. 79% D. 99%
D. 99%
595. A Dohle body is identified with the Diff-Quik stain (modified Wright-Giemsa stain) as A. One small dark body on an erythrocyte membrane B. A dark blue-staining protuberance on a neutrophil nucleus C. Coarse, dark blue dots within an erythrocyte D. A small, bluish-gray inclusion in a neutrophil cytoplasm
D. A small, bluish-gray inclusion in a neutrophil cytoplasm Small dark spot on an RBC is most likely remnant; Dohle bodies are retained RNA in neutrophils, no erythrocytes.
709. Blood levels of total bilirubin will not be a significant finding in A. Hepatocellular damage B. Bile duct injury or obstruction C. Hemolytic disorders D. Acute pancreatitis
D. Acute pancreatitis
723. The gland function that is evaluated by measurement of blood cortisol levels before and after administration of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) is the A. Thyroid gland B. Pancreas C. Liver D. Adrenal glands
D. Adrenal glands ACTH stimulates the adrenal cortex to secrete cortisol. In the ACTH response test, cortisol levels are measured before and after administration of ACTH.
722. What gland is the most active producer of corticosteroids? A. Thyroid gland B. Pancreas C. Pituitary gland D. Adrenal glands
D. Adrenal glands The adrenal cortex produces numerous steroids; cortisol is the major steroidal hormone released in domestic animals.
165. Heartworm treatment begins with killing the A. Eggs B. Infective L3 larvae C. Microfilariae D. Adult worms
D. Adult worms After killing the adult worms, the animal is treated to kill the circulating microfilariae.
682. An allergic response that is frequently life threatening is the result of A. Agglutination B. Hemolysis C. DIC D. Anaphylaxis
D. Anaphylaxis
314. Which of the following nematodes are characterized by an ovoid egg with a thin shell and a morulated embryo? A. Toxascaris leonine B. Toxocara canis C. Trichuris vulpis D. Ancylostoma caninum
D. Ancylostoma caninum Only the ova of the hookworm fit the description.
305. What pair of parasites differs in morphology and size? A. Trichuris spp. versus Capillaria spp. B. Dipetalonema versus Dirofilaria microfilaria C. Toxocara canis versus Toxocara cati D. Ancylostoma versus Toxascaris
D. Ancylostoma versus Toxascaris Trichuris and Capillaria are barrel-shaped, with bipolar plugs. Dipetalonema and Dirofilaria are both filaroid. Toxocara canis and Toxocara cati are both round, ascarid-type ova. The pairs differ primarily in size. On the other hand, Ancylostoma and Toxocaris are easily differentiated by their distinctive shapes, and so comparative measurements of ova size is not necessary in this instance.
438. Which of the following is a tapeworm seen in horses? A. Acanthocephala B. Oxyuris C. Moniezia D. Anoplocephala
D. Anoplocephala
19. Phagocytosis does not involve A. Chemotaxis B. Adherence C. Ingestion D. Antibiosis
D. Antibiosis
79. Hyaline casts A. Are granular and contain white blood cells B. Are clear and red C. Are granular and contain fat D. Are clear and colorless
D. Are clear and colorless Also highly refractile
474. The precursor cell to a plasma cell is the A. Thymocyte B. T cell C. Blast cell D. B cell
D. B cell
42. What laboratory test evaluates kidney function and is a breakdown product of protein? A. Glucose B. SGTP (ALT) C. Creatinine D. BUN
D. BUN Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) is a breakdown product of protein that healthy, functioning kidneys remove. SGTP is a liver function test. Creatinine is a breakdown product of muscle creatine that the kidneys also normally remove. Increased glucose levels may indicate diabetes.
177. Which of the following would not be on a urine dipstick? A. Glucose B. Blood C. Total protein D. BUN
D. BUN Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) is a chemical analyte in the blood whose increase is associated with kidney disease.
340. Leukocytes in the urine sediment and a positive nitrite reaction on the urinary colorimetric strip give presumption evidence that the patient may have a A. Neoplasm B. Diabetic condition C. Renal failure D. Bacterial infection
D. Bacterial infection UTIs with nitrate-reducing bacteria cause nitrite formation. However, this test does not seem to be as sensitive in dogs and cats as it is in people, therefore it is important to look for bacteria in the sediment.
465. What is seen in a degenerative left shift? A. Leukocytosis B. No bands are present C. Lymphocytes outnumber neutrophils. D. Bands outnumber mature neutrophils.
D. Bands outnumber mature neutrophils. Leukocytosis is seen in a regenerative left shift. The leukocyte count is normal or depressed, and the immature neutrophils outnumber the mature neutrophils in a degenerative left shift.
252. The least common leukocyte found on a normal bovine differential count is a(n) A. Neutrophil B. Monocyte C. Eosinophil D. Basophil
D. Basophil Basophils are a rare finding in peripheral blood.
213. What ion is important in regulating blood pH and in transporting carbon dioxide from the tissue to the lungs? A. Sodium B. Potassium C. Chloride D. Bicarbonate
D. Bicarbonate Bicarbonate is the second most common plasma anion and can be measured indirectly from the blood gas CO2 measurement.
341. Aged urine samples left at room temperature and exposed to UV light may cause a false negative result in which of the following biochemical tests? A. Ketones B. Protein C. Glucose D. Bilirubin
D. Bilirubin Bilirubin tends to break down on exposure to ultraviolet light.
174. What urine sediment component would be most significant? A. Sperm B. Fat droplets C. Squamous epithelial cells D. Blood cells
D. Blood cells The presence of WBCs indicates inflammation somewhere in the urogenital tract, and the presence of RBCs indicates bleeding in the urogenital tract.
700. Reflectometry is used in measuring A. White blood cells B. Prothrombin time C. Blood gases D. Blood chemistries
D. Blood chemistries Chemistry analyzers using reflectometry measure the amount of light reflected off the reagent slide.
402. Anaplasma marginale is a blood parasite that causes severe anemia in what species? A. Reptilian B. Avian C. Canine D. Bovine
D. Bovine Anaplasma marginale affects cattle predominantly.
488. In what species is ketonuria most commonly found? A. Canine B. Feline C. Equine D. Bovine
D. Bovine Ketonuria, ketones in the urine, is most commonly found in the bovine because of the way that they metabolize carbohydrates.
420. Chocolate agar is used predominantly to grow A. Proteus vulgaris B. Escherichia coli C. Microsporum gypseum D. Brucella abortus
D. Brucella abortus Chocolate agars are used to grow organisms that cause sexually transmitted diseases; Brucella is considered an STD.
374. Which of the following crystals is most likely to be found in the urine of an animal with ethylene glycol toxicity? A. Ammonium biurate B. Tyrosine C. Triple phosphate D. Calcium oxalate
D. Calcium oxalate
138. Which of the following bacteria is a gram-negative spirochete? A. Staphylococcus B. Streptococcus C. Micrococcus D. Campylobacter
D. Campylobacter
453. What lungworm is found in cats? A. Dictyocaulus B. Capillaria plica C. Filaroides osleri D. Capillaria aerophila
D. Capillaria aerophila Capillaria aerophilia is a lungworm found in cats. The ova resemble those of Trichuris vulpis, the whipworm. Capillaria plica is the bladder worm and similar ova are seen in the urine. Dictyocaulus is the ruminant lungworm. Filaroides osleri is the canine lungworm.
345. Which statement regarding catheterization in female dogs is false? A. Catheterization is technically difficult in female dogs. B. Catheterization may introduce bacteria into the urinary tract. C. Catheterization may cause gross or microscopic hematuria. D. Catheterization is often better tolerated by the dog than cystocentesis.
D. Catheterization is often better tolerated by the dog than cystocentesis. Patients, especially females, need to be sedated before urinary catheterization.
319. A method for diagnosing Cheyletiella is A. Tissue biopsy B. Fungal culture C. Fine-needle aspirate D. Cellophane tape method
D. Cellophane tape method Cheyletiella, or walking dandruff mites, are best collected from the surface of the animal's fur with cellophane tape.
634. What would not cause shifts or trends in quality-control data? A. New lot numbers of reagents B. Change in calibration of the instruments C. Outdated reagents D. Change in laboratory personnel
D. Change in laboratory personnel Quality-control data should not change when people who conduct the tests are well trained and conscientious.
291. It is possible to differentiate between sucking lice and chewing lice by which of the following features? A. Chewing lice have antennae, whereas sucking lice do not. B. Chewing lice are dorsoventrally flattened, whereas sucking lice are laterally flattened. C. Chewing lice have three pairs of legs, whereas sucking lice have four pairs of legs. D. Chewing lice have a head that is broader than the thorax, whereas sucking lice have a head that is narrower than the thorax.
D. Chewing lice have a head that is broader than the thorax, whereas sucking lice have a head that is narrower than the thorax.
530. What is a large, thick-walled yeast surrounded by a wide, nonstaining gelatinous capsule? A. Aspergillus B. Bastomyces C. Histoplasma D. Cryptococcus
D. Cryptococcus
415. In the Gram-stain procedure, which of these is the appropriate staining sequence? A. Crystal violet, decolorizer, iodine, safranin B. Iodine, crystal violet, decolorizer, safranin C. Safranin, iodine, decolorizer, crystal violet D. Crystal violet, iodine, decolorizer, safranin
D. Crystal violet, iodine, decolorizer, safranin
4. Sarcinae morphology refers to what kind of bacterial arrangement? A. Pairs B. Grape like clusters C. Groups of four D. Cubes of eight
D. Cubes of eight
347. Squamous epithelial cells are not normally seen in urine samples obtained by A. Catheterization B. Manual expression C. Free catch D. Cystocentesis
D. Cystocentesis Squamous epithelial cells are derived from lower urinary passageways. Cystocentesis bypasses these tissues, so there is virtually no possibility of retrieving these cells when performing a cystocentesis.
566. An acute hemolytic transfusion reaction will occur only in a sensitized ____ dog. A. DEA 1.1 positive and DEA 1.2 negative B. DEA 1.1 negative and DEA 1.2 positive C. DEA 1.1 and DEA 1.2 positive D. DEA 1.1 and DEA 1.2 negative
D. DEA 1.1 and DEA 1.2 negative
468. A normal leukocyte count with an increase in immature PMNs that outnumber the mature PMN is A. Reticulocytosis B. Leukopenia C. Regenerative left shift D. Degenerative left shift
D. Degenerative left shift A normal leukocyte count with an increase in immature cells that outnumber the mature cells is called a degenerative left shift. A regenerative left shift is when the leukocyte count is elevated, and the segments outnumber the bands.
377. A gluclose tolerance test is used to help diagnose A. Cushings disease B. Hypothyroidism C. Addison disease D. Diabetes mellitus
D. Diabetes mellitus Healthy animals have sufficient insulin to drop the increased glucose load to normal levels in approximately 2 hours. Animals with diabetes mellitus typically still so hyperglycemia and glucosuria in this same time period.
338. Ketonuria is most commonly associated with what condition? A. Liver disease B. Urinary tract infection C. Renal failure D. Diabetes mellitus
D. Diabetes mellitus Ketones are produced as a result of the breakdown of fatty acids. Because diabetic patients cannot normally utilize glucose, they get their energy from the breakdown of fatty acids.
179. A drop of ___ added to the urine sediment lyses RBCs but not fat droplets. A. Physiologic saline B. Sedi-Stain C. 3% potassium hydroxide D. Dilute acetic acid
D. Dilute acetic acid Fat droplets and RBCs may be similar in appearance, but fat droplets are more variable in size. Adding acetic acid further identifies the structures in question.
306. What is not a concentration method for parasite ova detection? A. Fecal flotation B. Centrifugation C. Sedimentation D. Direct smear
D. Direct smear
687. Canine blood types are preceded by the letters "DEA." What do these letters stand for? A. Detectable Erythrocyte Antibody B. Detectable Erythrocyte Antigen C. Dog Erythrocyte Antibody D. Dog Erythrocyte Antigen
D. Dog Erythrocyte Antigen
356. Which is the correct method to use when performing a serum bile acids assay? A. Draw a blood sample on a fasting animal. B. Draw a blood sample on an animal immediately after it eats a meal. C. Draw a blood sample on a fasting animal and another sample 2 hours later. D. Draw a blood sample on a fasting animal, feed the animal, and draw another sample 2 hours later.
D. Draw a blood sample on a fasting animal, feed the animal, and draw another sample 2 hours later.
598. A crenated cell is also called a/an A. Schistocyte B. Elliptocyte C. Keratocyte D. Echinocyte
D. Echinocyte Echinocytes are crenated RBCs with 10 to 30 spicules; they resemble a sea urchin (echinoderm).
61. An increase in unconjugated bilirubin may be the result of A. Either hepatic or posthepatic failure B. Either hepatic or biliary failure C. Either prehepatic or posthepatic failure D. Either hepatic or prehepatic failure
D. Either hepatic or prehepatic failure Bilirubin is produced by the metabolism of heme by the mononuclear phagocytic system. Conjugated and unconjugated forms of bilirubin are found normally in serum or plasma. The unconjugated or initial form of bilirubin is lipid soluble, bound to serum proteins, and carried to the liver to be conjugated. The conjugated form is found mainly as glucuronic acid, which is water soluble and more readily excreted from the body via the biliary system to the intestines and kidney. Some is "regurgitated" back to the liver and circulatory system. The bile secretes the remainder in conjugated form to the intestines. The conjugated form is unbound to serum proteins, so it can pass into the urine through the glomerulus. Increased unconjugated serum bilirubin levels indicated prehepatic jaundice, an inability of the liver cells to take up the unconjugated bilirubin, or an inability to conjugate the bilirubin within the liver cells.
233. Food allergies are best treated with A. Hyposensitization B. Allergy shots C. Long-term steroid treatment D. Elimination diets
D. Elimination diets Dogs and cats cannot be hyposensitized to foods, so eliminating the foods the animal is allergic to is the best form of treatment.
259. The leukocyte most commonly associated with parasitic and allergic conditions is the A. Neutrophil B. Monocyte C. Lymphocyte D. Eosinophil
D. Eosinophil
144. Avian WBC counts can be determined indirectly by using what Unopette? A. WBC B. Platelet C. RBC D. Eosinophil
D. Eosinophil Nucleated platelets and free nuclei from lysed avian RBCs cannot be distinguished from WBCs. An indirect method of determining the avian WBC count that avoids this problem is done by using the eosinophil Unopette and special calculations.
393. The period of time when a bitch is receptive to the male is classified as A. Metestrus B. Proestrus C. Anestrus D. Estrus
D. Estrus It is the only stage in which the bitch will not only attract the male but also will be receptive to him.
407. In what species are the platelet normally larger than the red blood cells? A. Bovine B. Canine C. Equine D. Feline
D. Feline Cat platelets are large compared to their relatively small red blood cells. This can lead to inaccurate electronic blood cell counts when the cells are not differentiated by size.
486. What substance is the final product in the coagulation pathway? A. Thrombin B. Plasmin C. Factor VII D. Fibrin
D. Fibrin
694. Which is not detected using ELISA technology? A. Heartworms B. Feline leukemia virus C. T4 D. Fibrinogen
D. Fibrinogen Fibrinogen can be estimated by using a heat precipitation test.
149. Determination of which one of these is useful in the detection of inflammatory processes? A. Total protein B. Hematocrit C. RBC morphology D. Fibrinogen
D. Fibrinogen Fibrinogen rises in inflammatory processes, and its detection is useful, especially in ruminants.
444. What heartworm diagnostic test uses a concentration technique that increases the chance of seeing microfilariae? A. Agglutination test B. ELISA test C. Direct (wet mount) D. Filtration test (Difil)
D. Filtration test (Difil) The Difil test uses a membrane to filter the blood and capture microfilariae. Although microfilariae may be seen on the direct wet mount; they are not concentrated on a filter, and only a drop of blood is screened, versus 1 ml of blood in the Difil procedure.
698. What condition will not affect the accuracy of a blood chemistry kinetic enzymatic assay? A. Temperature of reaction B. Time of reaction C. Sample volume D. Final color change of the sample
D. Final color change of the sample Kinetic reactions are measured while the reaction is in progress, not at the end. Temperature, time, and sample volume are all factors in a kinetic enzymatic assay.
616. Paragonimus kellicotti is a A. Tapeworm B. Tick C. Mite D. Fluke
D. Fluke The lung fluke of the dog and cat.
104. IgE A. Is a class of antibody that possesses 10 antigen-binding sites B. Makes up approximately 80% of the antibody pool in plasma C. Is found on lymphocyte membranes D. Functions to boost local inflammation reactions
D. Functions to boost local inflammation reactions IgE is found on the surfaces of mast cells and attracts eosinophils to the site of inflammation.
166. What is not a type of coccidia? A. Isospora B. Cryptosporidium C. Toxoplasma D. Giardia
D. Giardia They are all protozoans, but Giardia belongs to a different phylum.
203. Stress and epinephrine release in cats may cause an increase in A. BUN B. Total protein C. ALT D. Glucose
D. Glucose Glucose is released fo increased energy needs.
303. Tapeworm infections are most often diagnosed in small animals by which of the following methods? A. Centrifugal fecal flotations B.Simple fecal flotation C. Direct smear D. Gross examination
D. Gross examination Common tapeworm eggs of dogs and cats are not usually seen on flotation tests or direct smears, because they usually leave the host in tapeworm segments.
237. Transudates and exudates are usually not examined for A. Cells B. Protein C. Color and turbidity D. Hematocrit
D. Hematocrit A hematocrit is a blood test. Transudate is fluid pushed through the capillary due to high pressure within the capillary. An example of a transudate is the fluid of ascites from congestive heart failure Exudate is fluid that leaks around the cells of the capillaries caused by inflammation. An example of an exudate is the fluid collected from septic peritonitis.
644. What is the result of erythrocyte membrane rupture? A. Erythroblastosis B. Erythrocytosis C. Hemoconcentration D. Hemolysis
D. Hemolysis
183. Which of these would not be associated with ketones in the urine? A. Diabetes mellitus B. Lactating cows C. Starvation D. Hemolysis
D. Hemolysis When carbohydrates are not metabolized in the normal way, or there is a lack of sufficient carbohydrates, the animal's body uses fat as its energy source. Breakdown of fat results in ketones in the urine.
459. What parasites causes blood loss, especially in young animals? A. Roundworms B. Tapeworms C. Heartworm D. Hookworm
D. Hookworm Hookworm larvae can be transmitted to puppies transplacentally. After the puppies are born the hookworms mature and attach to the intestinal lining and begin sucking blood.
424. What endoparasite larva causes creeping eruptions in humans? A. Whipworm B. Tapeworm C. Pinworm D. Hookworm
D. Hookworm Hookworms are zoonotic parasites that causes a disease in humans known as cutaneous larval migrans.
448. What fly is responsible for the greatest economic losses in U.S. cattle? A. Face fly B. Stable fly C. Screw worm fly D. Horn fly
D. Horn fly The horn fly, Haematobia irritans, is responsible for the greatest economic losses in U.S. cattle because of reduced weight gain and reduced milk production.
510. Hyperkalemia is commonly associated with what endocrine disorder? A. Diabetes insipidus B. Hyperthyroidism C. Hyperparathyroidism D. Hypoadrenocorticism
D. Hypoadrenocorticism Hyperkalemia is when potassium levels in the blood is higher than normal. Hyperkalemia is commonly associated with hypoadrenocorticism, also know as Addison disease.
34. What immunoglobulin is usually present in greatest quantity? A. IgA B. IgD C. IgE D. IgG
D. IgG
657. Diagnostic testing performed in a laboratory setting, outside of the animal's body, is A. In vita testing B. In viva testing C. In vivo testing D. In vitro testing
D. In vitro testing
579. Absolute polycythemia is A. Decreased number of circulating leukocytes B. Decreased number of circulating erythrocytes C. Increased number of circulating leukocytes D. Increased number of circulating erythrocytes
D. Increased number of circulating erythrocytes
476. What mineral is found in hemoglobin? A. Iodine B. Calcium C. Magnesium D. Iron
D. Iron
103. IgD A. Is a class of antibody that possesses 10 antigen-binding sites B. Makes up approximately 80% of the antibody pool in plasma C. Is found in body secretions D. Is found on lymphocyte membranes
D. Is found on lymphocyte membranes
285. Which statement regarding Demodex is false? A. Live mites and/or eggs may be found in skin scrapings. B. It is cigar-shaped. C. It resides in the hair follicles and sebaceous glands of certain mammals. D. It is highly contagious.
D. It is highly contagious.
591. Eosinophils would most commonly be found in the A. Liver B. Spleen and greater omentum C. Muscle bellies D. Lining of the lung
D. Lining of the lung Eosinophils are usually localized to surface tissues.
707. Blood chemistry assays, including dye excretion, ammonia tolerance, and bile acid concentrations, are used to evaluate function of the A. Pancreas B. Kidneys C. Heart D. Liver
D. Liver
215. Albumin is measured to help diagnose A. Heart disease B. Pancreatitis C. Hypothyroidism D. Liver disease
D. Liver disease Albumin levels may be decreased in liver disease.
293. The parasite that is distinguished by white, operculated eggs that are cemented to the hairs of its host is the A. Tick B. Flea C. Mite D. Louse
D. Louse
128. Which of the following is considered sterile? A. Hair B. Skin C. Saliva D. Lower respiratory tract
D. Lower respiratory tract
313. A 4-year old dog has a chronic cough and the veterinarian has included Filaroides on his list of possible diagnoses. What is the common name of this parasite? A. Tapeworm B. Roundworm C. Whipworm D. Lungworm
D. Lungworm
506. In what tissue would you normally expect to find the least number of eosinophils? A. Skin B. Lung C. Small intestine D. Lymph node
D. Lymph node
569. When performing a CBC, a stained blood film will not allow you to evaluate the morphology of A. Platelets B. Small lymphocytes C. Large lymphocytes D. Macrophages
D. Macrophages Macrophages are tissue cells.
359. The main function of bicarbonate is to A. Maintain the proper osmotic pressure of fluids in the body B. Maintain normal muscular function C. Maintain normal cardiac rhythm and contractility D. Maintain balanced body pH levels
D. Maintain balanced body pH levels
193. What microorganism is frequently recovered from the ears of dogs with chronic otitis externa? A. Candida sp. B. Cryptococcus sp. C. Microsporum sp. D. Malassezia sp.
D. Malassezia sp. This is a yeast that is thought to have at least a secondary role in some cases of otitis externa.
96. Platelet clumping could possibly affect the A. RDW B. PCV C. RBC morphology D. Manual WBC count
D. Manual WBC count
120. Outbreeding may be described as which of the following? A. Mating of closely related individuals to produce ever-increasing similarities in the offspring B. A mating that is performed to determine the genotype of a particular phenotype C. The crossing of two traits D. Matings to other strains to increase the number of heterozygous genes
D. Matings to other strains to increase the number of heterozygous genes
275. When collecting blood for a coagulation profile, it is especially important to A. Use a gray-top Vacutainer B. Analyze the sample immediately C. Use EDTA as the anticoagulant D. Minimize vascular trauma during venipuncture
D. Minimize vascular trauma during venipuncture Trauma during venipuncture interferes with the results of a coagulation profile by increasing the blood's coagulability. Samples are collected in blue citrate-containing Vacutainer. It is not necessary to immediately test the sample.
282. What ectoparasite is barely visible to the naked eye? A. Ticks B. Fleas C. Lice D. Mites
D. Mites
73. Brown urine most likely contains A. Hemoglobin B. Bilirubin C. Bile pigments D. Myoglobin
D. Myoglobin
378. Which white blood cell is known as "the first line of defense" after a microorganism has entered the body? A. Eosinophil B. Lymphocyte C. Monocyte D. Neutrophil
D. Neutrophil The neutrophil is the white cell that responds most quickly to the presence of microorganisms. It leaves the circulation, enters tissue, and becomes phagocytic.
228. For hematology tests, clots in EDTA blood are A. Acceptable if they are microscopic B. Acceptable if they are detected on a wooden stick only C. Acceptable if they are run through an automatic analyzer D. Never acceptable
D. Never acceptable Although negligible, even tiny clots may alter test results. Therefore, good laboratory procedure is to never use clotted blood of any degree.
564. What cat blood type is considered the universal donor? A. A B. O C. AB D. None exists in the cat.
D. None exists in the cat. There is no universal cat donor, because cats have isoantibodies against other blood types. The good news is that most cats in the United States have the same blood type, A.
170. The difference in appearance between small and large strongyle ova in horses is A. Size B. Shape C. Color D. None; they look alike
D. None; they look alike Strongylus spp. cannot be identified by the appearance of their ova.
628. What nuclear characteristic is associated with the most immature stage of eosinophil maturation? A. Segmentation B. Hypersegmentation C. Chromatin clumping D. Nucleoli
D. Nucleoli
288. What tick is a soft tick? A. Amblyomma B. Dermacentor C. Ixodes D. Otobius
D. Otobius
250. Nucleated erythrocytes are normally not found in which species? A. Avian B. Reptilian C. Amphibian D. Ovine
D. Ovine Sheep is the only species listed whose erythrocytes are anucleate.
289. Which of the following parasite ova is collected using a cellophane tape technique? A. Ancylostoma B. Dirofilaria C. Dipylidium D. Oxyuris
D. Oxyuris Oxyuris, or pinworm, ova are most often collected with cellophane tape from the perianal region of horses.
169. The roundworm of horses is A. Strongylus sp. B. Oxyuris sp. C. Anoplocephala sp. D. Parascaris sp.
D. Parascaris sp. Strongylus sp. is a large strongyle, Oxyuris is the pinworm, and Anoplocephala is a tapeworm.
435. Which of the following terms refers to an infestation with lice? A. Myiasis B. Ascariasis C. Paraphimosis D. Pediculosis
D. Pediculosis Pediculosis refers to an infestation with lice. Myiasis is fly larvae penetration of living tissue (maggots). Acariasis is a mite or tick infestation.
538. Macracanthorhynchus hirudinaceus, the parasite with the longest scientific name among the parasites of domestic animals, is a parasite of A. Cattle B. Horses C. Birds D. Pigs
D. Pigs
567. A quick check for Dirofilaria immitis using a spun hematocrit tube involves microscopically viewing the border between the A. Clay plug and plasma B. Buffy coat and erythrocytes C. Erythrocytes and clay plug D. Plasma and buffy coat
D. Plasma and buffy coat Microfilariae circulate in the bloodstream, and when spun down in a hematocrit tube, they become trapped in the upper layers of the buffy coat. They look like clear spaghetti at the buffy coat plasma separation in the tube under a microscope at 10x.
65. Which of the following ions is a cation A. Bicarbonate B. Hydroxide C. Chloride D. Potassium
D. Potassium
200. Skin scales and infected hair samples are mixed with ___ to dissolve the debris and aid in microscopic examination for fungal elements. A. Hydrogen peroxide B. Acetic acid C. Physiologic saline D. Potassium hydroxide
D. Potassium hydroxide A few drops of a 10% solution of potassium hydroxide (KOH) is added to the specimen and is allowed to sit for several hours to clear the sample of debris.
617. The ability to obtain the same results, time after time, on the same sample, is A. Accuracy B. Reliability C. Quality control D. Precision
D. Precision
346. Urinary pH is not affected by the A. Patient's diet B. Presence of bacteria in the urine C. Patient's acid-base status D. Presence of crystals in the urine
D. Presence of crystals in the urine Crystal presence does not change the pH of urine, rather certain types of crystals are more likely to form if the urine is acidic or basic.
552. Noncornified epithelial cells and erythrocytes are most commonly seen in a vaginal smear during what phase of the bitch's cycle? A. Anestrus B. Diestrus C. Estrus D. Proestrus
D. Proestrus
496. What substance increases in the urine in glomerular disease? A. Glucose B. Ketones C. Bilirubin D. Protein
D. Protein Protein often increases in the urine in glomerular disease because of leakage of the large protein molecules through the glomerular filter.
136. Which of the following is a spreading organism when grown on agar plates? A. Staphylococcus B. Streptococcus C. Shigella D. Proteus
D. Proteus
83. Toxic neutrophils may show large A. Blue granules B. Black granules C. Red granules D. Purple granules
D. Purple granules
686. In regard to quality control in blood chemistry, what is not a source of a detectable error? A. Inconsistent or poor technique B. Equipment malfunction C. Reagent contamination or degeneration D. Random sampling errors
D. Random sampling errors Choices A, B, and C are detectable through use of quality-control sera; random sampling errors are not.
383. Which of these tubes must never be placed on a blood rocker after being filled with blood? A. Blue top B. Green top C. Purple top D. Red top
D. Red top Red-top tubes should never be placed on a rocker, because it can cause hemolysis of the cells.
373. For determining specific gravity values, what is the order, from most reliable to least reliable method? A. Urinometer, refractometer, reagent test strip B. Refractometer, reagent test strip, urinometer C. Reagent test strip, urinometer, refractometer D. Refractometer, urinometer, reagent test strip
D. Refractometer, urinometer, reagent test strip A refractometer is the most reliable; it estimates density based on the refractive index of fluid. A urinometer uses a glass cylinder with a float and is less reliable, and the reagent test strips are the least reliable.
385. If you are unable to perform a CBC within 1 hour of blood collection, which of the following is the best method of preservation? A. Freeze the sample B. Spin down the sample, refrigerate the cells, and freeze serum C. Add formalin to the sample D. Refrigerate the sample
D. Refrigerate the sample Refrigeration (0C to 4C) is the best method of preservation for whole blood. Allow the sample to warm up to room temperature before analysis.
405. In addition to birds, which one of the following animals also has white blood cells called heterophils? A. Llamas B. Potbellied pigs C. Ferrets D. Reptiles
D. Reptiles Birds, rabbits, hamsters, reptiles, amphibians, and some fish, and guinea pigs all have heterophils. Heterophils may be confused with eosinophils.
81. Which of the following tests is not included in a routine CBC? A. Total WBC count B. Differential WBC count C. Total protein D. Reticulocyte count
D. Reticulocyte count
225. If there is only a small amount of serum separated after centrifuging a tube of whole blood, you should A. Invert the tube several time and respin it B. Assume the patient is dehydrated and draw off all of the serum you can C. Spin the tub again at a faster speed and longer time D. Rim/ring the clot and spin again at normal speed and time
D. Rim/ring the clot and spin again at normal speed and time Rimming or ringing the clot means loosening the clotted blood from the tube, which may help release serum trapped in the clot.
29. The counterstain in the Gram stain is A. Crystal violet B. Methylene blue C. Iodine D. Safranin
D. Safranin Following decolorization, safranin stains gram-negative bacteria pink.
188. Gram-negative bacteria retain what component of the Gram stain? A. Crystal violet B. Iodine solution C. Decolorizer D. Safranin
D. Safranin Thy crystal violet stain washes out of the gram-negative bacteria, and they pick up the pink counterstain, safranin.
266. RBC fragments, resulting from shearing of the red blood cells by intravascular trauma, are known as A. Acanthocytes B. Codocytes C. Leptocytes D. Schistocytes
D. Schistocytes
125. MacConkey agar A. Selects for gram-positive organisms B. Uses crystal blue as a gram-negative inhibitor C. Differentiates between dextrose and nondextrose fermenter D. Selects for gram-negative organisms
D. Selects for gram-negative organisms
164. Serology tests can detect heartworms in a dog's blood A. Immediately after becoming infected B. Several days after becoming infected C. Several weeks after becoming infected D. Several months after becoming infected
D. Several months after becoming infected The prepatent period is 6 to 7 months, and the detection of antibody in the serology kit is directed at the adult heartworms. Therefore, it is not possible to immediately detect heartworm infection.
554. If a milk progesterone test from a cow is positive, it indicates A. She is not pregnant. B. She is in estrus. C. She is in proestrus. D. She is not in heat.
D. She is not in heat.
160. A route of infection by hookworms that is not shared by roundworms is A. Ingestion of infective stage B. Transplacental C. Transmammary D. Skin penetration
D. Skin penetration The infective L3 larvae can penetrate the skin and migrate eventually to the intestine.
185. Calcium oxalate crystals are A. Hexagonal B. Dark, needle like rods C. Brown spheres with long spicules D. Small squares that contain an X
D. Small squares that contain an X Crystine crystals are hexagonal. Tyrosine crystals are dark, needle like rods. Ammonium biurate crystals are brown spheres with long spicules.
650. What anticoagulant is the first choice for coagulation studies? A. Potassium oxalate B. Sodium heparin C. Calcium oxalate D. Sodium citrate
D. Sodium citrate
660. The anticoagulant used to preserve blood glucose levels for blood chemistry analysis is A. EDTA B. Sodium or lithium heparin C. Sodium or lithium oxalate D. Sodium fluoride
D. Sodium fluoride
652. Serum should be separated from blood cells in a blood sample as soon as possible because A. The sample will hemolyze. B. It will not clot. C. It will become lipemic. D. Some chemical constituents will change.
D. Some chemical constituents will change.
625. The measure of the extent of random variation in a group of observations is A. Mean B. Mode C. Median D. Standard deviation
D. Standard deviation
196. What is a common pathogen in mastitis, skin wounds, and abscesses that is also found in the environment? A. Proteus vulgaris B. Escherichia coli C. Streptococcus spp. D. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Staphylococcus aureus This organism can wall itself off from treatment but can also produce toxins that may kill the host.
425. What parasite can cause blockage of the cranial mesenteric artery in horses? A. Parascaris equi B. Oxyuris equi C. Strongyloides westeri D. Strongylus vulgaris
D. Strongylus vulgaris
497. What is the most likely constituent of the grit seen in the urethra of male cats? A. Oxalate B. Uric acid C. Capillaria D. Struvite
D. Struvite Struvite, composed of ammonium, magnesium, and phosphate, is the most likely constituent of grit seen in the urethra of male cats.
610. Dirofilaria immitis adults have not been found in the A. Right ventricle B. Brain C. Anterior chamber of the eye D. Subcutaneous tissues
D. Subcutaneous tissues Dirofilaria can be found in all other fluid-bathed sites but is most common in the blood circulation.
235. Cornified epithelial cells are synonymous with ___ epithelial cells. A. Basal B. Parabasal C. Intermediate D. Superficial
D. Superficial Cornified and superficial are the same, but cornified conjures the image of a cell with "corners", which makes it easy to identify the cell.
236. What type of epithelial cells is most prominent during estrus in a bitch? A. Basal B. Parabasal C. Intermediate D. Superficial
D. Superficial The presence of many superficial cells is the predominant feature in a vaginal smear of a dog in heat.
115. Cell-mediated immunity is the function of ___ that attach to antigenic sites on the surfaces of foreign cells. A. B cells B. Small lymphocytes C. Plasma cells D. T cells
D. T cells
70. A test done to help diagnose hyperthyroidism is A. LH B. Cortisol C. Bile acids D. T4
D. T4 T4, thyroxine, is typically elevated in hyperthyroidism, which may be seen in older cats. Luteinizing hormone (LH) is measured for reproductive studies, corisol for Cushings disease, and the bile acids for liver abnormalities.
452. Proglottids are produced by what parasite? A. Fluke B. Tick C. Mite D. Tapeworms
D. Tapeworms Proglottids are tapeworm segments, often appearing like rice grains around the anus or in the feces.
107. With respect to immunology, tolerance means A. The number of white blood cells that respond, expressed as a percentage B. A blistering of the skin C. Inflammation on the upper respiratory tract D. The lack of responsiveness by the immune system
D. The lack of responsiveness by the immune system
274. As an erythrocyte develops A. The cell size increases B. The cytoplasm becomes bluer in color. C. The nucleus becomes larger. D. The nuclear chromatin becomes denser.
D. The nuclear chromatin becomes denser. As an erythrocyte develops, it becomes smaller and pinker, its nucleus becomes smaller, and the nuclear chromatin becomes denser.
280. Physical signs of hypocoagulation include all of the following, except A. Petechiae or ecchymoses B. Epistaxis C. Hematuria D. Thromboembolism
D. Thromboembolism Petechiae, epitaxis, and hematuria are all symptoms of a bleeding disorder.
267. For which of the following is low-power magnification not used? A. To detect the presence of rouleaux B. To detect RBC agglutination C. To detect clumping of platelets D. To estimate platelet numbers
D. To estimate platelet numbers Platelets are the smallest elements found in a peripheral blood smear, and thus a higher magnification is necessary to view them adequately.
68. When referring to the alteration of bilirubin in the liver, the verb conjugation means A. To break apart in equal parts B. To precipitate C. To become pigmented D. To join together
D. To join together
241. A site of blood collection that is not frequently used, primarily because it is considered painful to the animal, is A. Facial vein B. Tail vein C. Jugular vein D. Toenail clip
D. Toenail clip Toenail clips yield only very small blood samples and are painful, they are not commonly used for blood sample collection.
607. Which of these cells is not an epithelial cell type found in urine sediment? A. Squamous B. Transitional C. Renal D. Trigeminal
D. Trigeminal There is no such thing as a trigeminal cell.
511. What is the most common reason for getting a false positive result on the feline leukemia test that uses test wells? A. Reagents added in the wrong order B. Low sensitivity of the test C. Overwashing D. Underwashing
D. Underwashing
728. Ammonia is metabolized by the liver and eliminated by the kidneys. Levels of which metabolic by-product of ammonia are measured to assess kidney function? A. Phosphorus B. Creatinine C. Aspartate aminotransferase D. Urea nitrogen
D. Urea nitrogen Ammonia is converted to urea by the liver; BUN is often decreased in hepatic disease and elevated in renal disease.
702. The Azostix strip is a rapid quantitative test for blood levels of A. Aspartate aminotransferase B. Alanine transaminase C. Glucose D. Urea nitrogen
D. Urea nitrogen These test strips estimate the amount of BUN.
25. It is most difficult to find antimicrobials for A. Molds B. Bacteria C. Rickettsia D. Viruses
D. Viruses Because viruses multiply in living host cells only, selective toxicity is difficult to achieve.
335. Casts associated with chronic, severe degeneration of the renal tubules that appear smooth and refractile with squared ends are ___ casts. A. Hyaline B. Granular C. Fatty D. Waxy
D. Waxy
696. The blood chemistry unit of measurement for the electroytes---sodium, potassium, bicarbonate and chloride---is A. mg/dl B. g/dl C. IU/L D. mEq/L
D. mEq/L
541. A gravid proglottid is A. An empty tapeworm segment B. A tapeworm larvae C. A tapeworm segment filled with eggs D. The tapeworm segment closest to the head
. A tapeworm segment filled with eggs
92. Approximately what percentage of the total erythrocyte mass is replaced every day in healthy mammals under normal circumstances? A. 1% B. 10% C. 20% D. 30%
A. 1% The entire blood supply is replenished approximately every 3 months.
337. Sasha, a 11-year-old spayed female domestic shorthair cat, was accidentally overhydrated with IV fluids. You would expect her urine specific gravity to be A. 1.002 B. 1.012 C. 1.030 D. 1.060
A. 1.002 An overhydrated patient's body would need to excrete the excessive fluids, thereby increasing the amount of urine produced, diluting it, and thus lowering its specific gravity.
570. Isosthenuric urine would read ___ on a refractometer. A. 1.010 B. 1.0 g/dl C. 7.0 g/dl D. 1.101
A. 1.010 Isosthenuria generally indicates dilute urine, commonly seen with diabetic animals and end stage renal failure.
75. The average urine specific gravity for a healthy adult dog is A. 1.025 B. 1.035 C. 1.040 D. 1.045
A. 1.025
573. A biopsy should be submitted in a solution of formalin at the ratio of A. 10 parts formalin to 1 part tissue B. 10 parts tissue to 1 part formalin C. 5 parts formalin to 1 part tissue D. 5 parts tissue to 1 part formalin
A. 10 parts formalin to 1 part tissue To ensure adequate fixation, tissue submitted for biopsy should be less than 1 cm in any given plane and should be placed in 10 times the specimen's volume of 10% formalin.
665. For most blood chemistry examinations, serum or plasma samples are stable at room temperature for A. 4 to 7 hours B. 4 to 7 days C. 4 to 7 weeks D. 4 to 7 months
A. 4 to 7 hours
663. In terms of approximate equivalents, one drop of serum is equivalent to A. 50 microliters B. 100 microliters C. 10 microliters D. 500 microliters
A. 50 microliters
333. Which of the following tests is considered accurate when using colorimetric dip sticks for biochemical testing? A. Leukocytes B. Specific gravity C. pH D. Nitrites
C. pH The tests for leukocytes, specific gravity, and nitrites on biochemical strips are generally considered inaccurate in veterinary patients.
675. Icteric plasma is what color? A. Brown B. Red C. Green D. Yellow
D. Yellow
227. Samples used for serology test kits are A. Serum and plasma B. Plasma and whole EDTA blood C. Whole EDTA blood and serum D. Plasma, serum, and whole EDTA blood
Plasma, serum, and whole EDTA blood Many of the kits today can even us a drop of whole EDTA blood. There is a built-in mechanism for separating the plasma from the whole blood in the test card.
489. What is the smallest epithelial cell seen on a urine sediment examination? A. Leukocyte B. Transitional cell C. Renal cell D. Squamous cell
The renal cell is the smallest epithelial cell seen on a urine sediment examination. A leukocyte is smaller, but it is not an epithelial cell.
161. In appearance, hookworm ova resemble ___ ova. A. Strongyle B. Whipworm C. Roundworm D. Pinworm
There are many ova that look alike; to correctly identify them, you must know the origin of the feces.
