Unit 9: Navigation Charts and Publications

(Refer to Area 3.) The vertical limits of that portion of Class E airspace designated as a Federal Airway over Magee Airport are (See Figure 22) A) 1,200 feet AGL to 17,999 feet MSL. B) 700 feet MSL to 12,500 feet MSL. C) 7,500 feet MSL to 17,999 feet MSL.

A) 1,200 feet AGL to 17,999 feet MSL. Magee Airport on Fig. 22 is northwest of 3. The question asks for the vertical limits of the Class E airspace over the airport. Class E airspace areas extend upwards but do not include 18,000 ft. MSL (base of Class A airspace). The floor of a Class E airspace designated as an airway is 1,200 ft. AGL, unless otherwise indicated.

FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to Airmen are issued under which subject number? A) 60 B) 70 C) 90

A) 60

(Refer to Area 3.) What is the recommended communications procedure for departure at Currituck County Airport? (Fig. 20) A) Broadcast intentions prior to taxi and announcing runway of departure. B) Contact Elizabeth City tower on 120.5. C) Radio need not be used.

A) Broadcast intentions prior to taxi and announcing runway of departure. The recommended procedure for departure at a non-towered airport is to self-announce intentions on the CTAF prior to taxi and before taxiing on runway for departure.

(Refer to Area 2.) Identify the airspace over Bryn Airport. (See Figure 26) A) Class G airspace -- surface up to but not including 1,200 feet AGL; Class E airspace -- 1,200 feet AGL up to but not including 18,000 feet MSL. B) Class G airspace -- surface up to but not including 18,000 feet MSL. C) Class G airspace -- surface up to but not including 700 feet MSL; Class E airspace -- 700 feet to 14,500 feet MSL.

A) Class G airspace -- surface up to but not including 1,200 feet AGL; Class E airspace -- 1,200 feet AGL up to but not including 18,000 feet MSL. Bryn Airport is located 1.5 in. south of 2 on Fig. 26. There is no specific airspace designation around Bryn. Therefore, the airspace over the airport is Class G airspace up to the next overlying airspace. Unless the floor is designated otherwise, Class E airspace exists from 1,200 ft. AGL, up to but not including 18,000 ft. MSL.

When are two-way radio communications required on a flight from Bishop Airport (Area 4) to McCampbell Airport (Area 1) at an altitude of 2,000 feet MSL? (See Figure 69) A) Entering the Corpus Christi Class C airspace. B) Leaving and entering the alert areas and entering the Corpus Christi Class C airspace. C) Leaving and entering the alert areas, entering the Corpus Christi Class C airspace, and passing through the Cabaniss Field Class D airspace.

A) Entering the Corpus Christi Class C airspace. Two-way radio communication is not required in alert areas, and a direct flight will not pass through the Cabaniss Field Class D airspace.

(Refer to Area 2.) Which airport is located at approximately 47° 41 minutes 00 seconds N latitude and 101° 36 minutes 00 seconds W longitude? (See Figure 21) A) Fischer. B) Crooked Lake. C) Johnson.

A) Fischer.

(Refer to Area 1.) Dubey Airport is (See Figure 71) A) a privately owned airport restricted to use. B) a restricted military stage field within restricted airspace. C) an airport restricted to use by sport pilots only.

A) a privately owned airport restricted to use.

(Refer to Area 3.) What is the floor of the Savannah Class C airspace at the shelf area (outer circle)? (Figure 23) A) 1,200 feet AGL. B) 1,300 feet MSL. C) 1,700 feet MSL.

B) 1,300 feet MSL.

(Refer to Area 2.) The CTAF/MULTICOM frequency for Garrison Airport is (Figure 21) A) 122.8 MHz. B) 122.9 MHz. C) 123.0 MHz.

B) 122.9 MHz.

(Refer to Area 7.) The airspace overlying Mc Kinney (TKI) is controlled from the surface to (See Figure 25) A) 700 feet AGL. B) 2,900 feet MSL. C) 2,500 feet MSL.

B) 2,900 feet MSL.

(Refer to Area 1.) What minimum altitude is required to avoid the Livermore Airport (LVK) Class D airspace? (See Figure 74) A) 2,503 feet MSL. B) 2,901 feet MSL. C) 3,297 feet MSL.

B) 2,901 feet MSL.

What is the base of Class B airspace at Lakeview (30F) Airport (Area 2)? (See Figure 25) A) 4,000 B) 3,000 C) 1,700

B) 3,000

Information concerning parachute jumping sites may be found in the A) NOTAMs. B) Chart Supplement. C) Graphic Notices and Supplemental Data.

B) Chart Supplement.

(Refer to Area 2.) Which airport is located at approximately 47°34'30"N latitude and 100°43'00"W longitude? (See Figure 21) A) Linrud. B) Makeeff. C) Johnson.

B) Makeeff.

Where is Loup City Municipal located with relation to the city? (Fig. 52) A) Northwest approximately 4 miles. B) Northwest approximately 1 mile. C) East approximately 7 miles.

B) Northwest approximately 1 mile.

Weather information is available at the Coeur d'Alene (COE) Airport (Area 2) (Fig 22) A) over the VOR frequency 108.8. B) from AWOS 3 135.075. C) from UNICOM (CTAF) on 122.8.

B) from AWOS 3 135.075.

Which is true concerning the blue and magenta colors used to depict airports on Sectional Aeronautical Charts? A) Airports with control towers underlying Class A, B, and C airspace are shown in blue; Class D and E airspace are magenta. B) Airports with control towers underlying Class C, D, and E airspace are shown in magenta. C) Airports with control towers underlying Class B, C, D, and E airspace are shown in blue.

C) Airports with control towers underlying Class B, C, D, and E airspace are shown in blue.

A blue segmented circle on a Sectional Chart depicts which class airspace? A) Class B. B) Class C. C) Class D.

C) Class D.

(Refer to Area 5.) The CAUTION box denotes what hazard to aircraft? (Figure 20) A) Unmarked blimp hangars at 308 feet MSL. B) Unmarked balloon on cable to 3,008 feet AGL. C) Unmarked balloon on cable to 3,008 feet MSL.

C) Unmarked balloon on cable to 3,008 feet MSL.

(Refer to Area 6.) Sky Way Airport is (See Figure 71) A) an airport restricted to use by private and recreational pilots. B) a restricted military stage field within restricted airspace. C) a nonpublic-use airport.

C) a nonpublic-use airport.

If the SSV Class of VORTAC is listed as a Terminal Class, the altitudes and distance to adequately receive the signal of the VORTAC is (L16) A) 1,000 feet to 12,000 feet and 25 NM. B) 1,000 feet to 18,000 feet and 40 NM. C) 1,000 feet up to 60,000 feet and up to 130 NM.

A) 1,000 feet to 12,000 feet and 25 NM.

(Refer to Area 2.) What is the recommended communication procedure when inbound to land at Cooperstown Airport? (Fig. 26) A) Broadcast intentions when 10 miles out on the CTAF/MULTICOM frequency, 122.9 MHz. B) Contact UNICOM when 10 miles out on 122.8 MHz. C) Circle the airport in a left turn prior to entering traffic.

A) Broadcast intentions when 10 miles out on the CTAF/MULTICOM frequency, 122.9 MHz.

What information is contained in the Notices to Airmen Publication (NTAP)? A) Current NOTAMs (D). B) All current NOTAMs only. C) Current Chart Supplement information and FDC NOTAMs.

A) Current NOTAMs (D).

(Refer to Area 8.) What minimum altitude is required to fly over the Cedar Hill TV towers in the congested area southwest of Dallas Executive? (See Figure 25) A) 2,731 feet MSL. B) 3,549 feet MSL. C) 3,349 feet MSL.

B) 3,549 feet MSL. The Cedar Hill TV towers (Fig. 25, west of 8) have an elevation of 2,549 feet MSL. The minimum safe altitude over a congested area is 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 feet of the aircraft. Thus, to vertically clear the towers, the minimum altitude is 3,549 feet MSL (2,549 + 1,000).

(Refer to Area 5.) The navigation facility at Dallas-Ft. Worth International (DFW) is a (See Figure 25) A) VOR. B) VORTAC. C) VOR/DME.

C) VOR/DME.

On what frequency can a pilot receive Hazardous Inflight Weather Advisory Service (HIWAS) in the vicinity of Area 1? (Figure 21) A) 117.1 MHz. B) 118.0 MHz. C) 122.2 MHz.

A) 117.1 MHz. Availability of Hazardous Inflight Weather Advisory Service (HIWAS) will be indicated by a circle which contains an "H," found in the upper right corner of a navigation frequency box. Note that the Minot VORTAC information box has such a symbol. Accordingly, a HIWAS can be obtained on the VOR frequency of 117.1.

(Refer to Area 3.) If Dallas Executive Tower is not in operation, which frequency should be used as a Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) to monitor airport traffic? (Figure 25) A) 127.25 MHz. B) 122.95 MHz. C) 126.35 MHz.

A) 127.25 MHz.

(Refer to Area 2.) The elevation of the Chesapeake Regional Airport is (See Figure 20) A) 19 feet. B) 36 feet. C) 360 feet.

A) 19 feet. The question asks for the elevation of the Chesapeake Regional Airport (Fig. 20). East of 2, note that the second line of the airport identifier for Chesapeake Regional reads "19 L 55 123.075." The first number, in bold type, is the altitude of the airport above MSL. It is followed by the L for lighted runway(s), 55 for the length of the longest runway (5,500 ft.), and the CTAF frequency (123.075).

(Refer to Area 2.) What is the approximate latitude and longitude of Cooperstown Airport? (See Figure 26) A) 47°25'N - 98°06'W. B) 47°25'N - 99°54'W. C) 47°55'N - 98°06'W.

A) 47°25'N - 98°06'W.

(Refer to Area 3.) Identify the airspace over Sprague Airport. (See Figure 26) A) Class G airspace -- surface up to but not including 1,200 feet AGL; Class E airspace - 1,200 feet AGL up to but not including 18,000 feet MSL. B) Class G airspace -- surface up to but not including 18,000 feet MSL. C) Class G airspace -- surface up to but not including 700 feet MSL; Class E airspace - 700 feet to 14,500 feet MSL.

A) Class G airspace -- surface up to but not including 1,200 feet AGL; Class E airspace - 1,200 feet AGL up to but not including 18,000 feet MSL. There is no specific airspace designation around Sprague. Therefore, the airspace over the airport is Class G airspace up to the next overlying airspace. Unless the floor is designated otherwise, Class E airspace exists from 1,200 ft. AGL, up to but not including 18,000 ft. MSL.

(Refer to Area 3.) What type military flight operations should a pilot expect along IR 644? (See Figure 21) A) IFR training flights above 1,500 feet AGL at speeds in excess of 250 knots. B) VFR training flights above 1,500 feet AGL at speeds less than 250 knots. C) Instrument training flights below 1,500 feet AGL at speeds in excess of 150 knots.

A) IFR training flights above 1,500 feet AGL at speeds in excess of 250 knots. Not C: Military training flights below 1,500 ft. AGL have four-digit (not three-digit) identifier numbers, and the airspeed is in excess of 250 kt. (not 150 kt.). In Fig. 21, IR 644 is below Area 3. Military training flights are established to promote proficiency of military pilots in the interest of national defense. Military flight routes below 1,500 ft. are charted with four-digit numbers; those above 1,500 ft. have three-digit numbers. IR means the flights are made in accordance with IFR. (VR would mean they use VFR.) Thus, IR 644, a three-digit number, is above 1,500 ft., and flights will be flown under IFR rules.

What is the recommended communications procedure for landing at Lincoln Municipal during the hours when the tower is not in operation? (Fig. 52) A) Monitor airport traffic and announce your position and intentions on 118.5 MHz. B) Contact UNICOM on 122.95 MHz for traffic advisories. C) Monitor ATIS for airport conditions, then announce your position on 122.95 MHz.

A) Monitor airport traffic and announce your position and intentions on 118.5 MHz.

Refer to Crawford Airport (N38°42.25' W107°38.62'). What is the traffic pattern for Runway 25? (Figs. 80 and 81) A) Right hand traffic pattern. B) Left hand traffic pattern. C) It does not matter because it is an uncontrolled airport.

A) Right hand traffic pattern.

(Refer to Area 3.) What is the recommended communications procedure for a landing at Currituck County Airport? (Fig. 20) A) Transmit intentions on 122.9 MHz when 10 miles out and give position reports in the traffic pattern. B) Contact Elizabeth City FSS for airport advisory service. C) Contact New Bern FSS for area traffic information.

A) Transmit intentions on 122.9 MHz when 10 miles out and give position reports in the traffic pattern.

(Refer to Area 4.) What hazards to aircraft may exist in restricted areas such as R-5302A? (See Figure 20) A) Unusual, often invisible, hazards such as aerial gunnery or guided missiles. B) High volume of pilot training or an unusual type of aerial activity. C) Military training activities that necessitate acrobatic or abrupt flight maneuvers.

A) Unusual, often invisible, hazards such as aerial gunnery or guided missiles.

(Refer to Area 6.) The Class C airspace at Metropolitan Oakland International (OAK) which extends from the surface upward has a ceiling of (See Figure 74) A) both 2,100 feet and 3,000 feet MSL. B) 10,000 feet MSL. C) 2,100 feet AGL.

A) both 2,100 feet and 3,000 feet MSL. The Class C airspace at OAK (Area 6) is shown in solid magenta lines. The surface area over the airport indicates the Class C airspace extends from the surface (SFC) upward to T, which means the ceiling ends at the base of the San Francisco Class B airspace. The base of the Class B airspace changes over OAK. To the left of OAK the base is 2,100 feet MSL and to the right of OAK the base is 3,000 feet MSL.

(Refer to Area 2.) The visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate VFR during daylight hours over the town of Cooperstown between 1,200 feet AGL and 10,000 feet MSL are (See Figure 26) A) 1 mile and clear of clouds. B) 1 mile and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from clouds. C) 3 miles and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from clouds.

B) 1 mile and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from clouds.

Refer to the area of Pierre Regional Airport (N44°22.96' W100°17.16"). What frequency can be monitored for Hazardous Inflight Weather Advisory Service in this area? (See figures 76 & 77) A) 119.025 MHz. B) 112.5 MHz. C) 122.2 MHz.

B) 112.5 MHz. Fig. 77 is the Chart Supplement excerpt for Pierre Regional Airport. Look for the section titled "Weather Data Sources." In that line, you will see "HIWAS." This is the Hazardous Inflight Weather Advisory Service frequency, 112.5 MHz. It is also located on Fig. 76 in the Pierre VOR frequency and identifier box. It is depicted by the "H" within a darkened circle in the top right corner of the box.

(Refer to Area 5.) What is the CTAF/UNICOM frequency at Barnes County Airport? (Fig. 26) A) 122.2 MHz. B) 122.8 MHz. C) 123.6 MHz.

B) 122.8 MHz.

(Refer to Area 4.) The CTAF/UNICOM frequency at Jamestown Airport is (Fig. 26) A) 122.2 MHz. B) 123.0 MHz. C) 123.6 MHz.

B) 123.0 MHz. The UNICOM frequency is printed in bold italics in the airport identifier. At Jamestown it is 123.0 MHz. The C next to it indicates it as the CTAF.

The terrain elevation of the light tan (light colored) area between Minot (Area 1) and Audubon Lake (Area 2) varies from (See Figure 21) A) sea level to 2,000 feet MSL. B) 2,000 feet to 2,500 feet MSL. C) 2,000 feet to 2,700 feet MSL.

B) 2,000 feet to 2,500 feet MSL. Not C: Elevation contours vary by 500 ft., not 700 ft. The tan area indicates terrain between 2,000 ft. and 3,000 ft. The elevation contours on sectionals vary by 500 ft. increments. The 2,000 ft. contour line is located where the color changes from light green to light tan. Since there is no other contour line in the light tan area, the terrain elevation is between 2,000 ft. and 2,500 ft. MSL. Also, Poleschook Airport (halfway between 1 and 2) indicates an elevation above MSL of 2,245.

(Refer to Area 3.) The floor of Class B airspace at Dallas Executive Airport is A) at the surface. B) 3,000 feet MSL. C) 3,100 feet MSL.

B) 3,000 feet MSL. Dallas Executive Airport (Fig. 25, Area 3) has a segmented blue circle around it depicting Class D airspace. Dallas Executive Airport also underlies Class B airspace as depicted by solid blue lines. The altitudes of the Class B airspace are shown as 110 30 to the southeast of the airport. The bottom number denotes the floor of the Class B airspace to be 3,000 feet MSL.

(Refer to Area 3.) Determine the approximate latitude and longitude of Shoshone County Airport. (See Figure 22) A) 47°02'N - 116°11'W. B) 47°33'N - 116°11'W. C) 47°32'N - 116°41'W.

B) 47°33'N - 116°11'W.

FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to Airspace are issued under which subject number? A) 60 B) 70 C) 90

B) 70

The controlled airspace located at the Corpus Christi VORTAC (Area 5) begins at (See Figure 69) A) the surface. B) 700 feet AGL. C) 1,200 feet MSL.

B) 700 feet AGL.

(Refer to Area 2.) What kind of airport is Deshler (6D7)? (See Figure 59) A) A private airport with a grass runway. B) A public airport with a runway that is not a hard surface. C) An abandoned paved airport having landmark value.

B) A public airport with a runway that is not a hard surface.

What is the acronym for a computerized command response system that provides automated weather, radio check capability, and airport advisory information selected from an automated menu by microphone clicks? (Legend 14) A) GCA. B) AUNICOM. C) UNICOM.

B) AUNICOM.

(Refer to Area 6.) The NALF Fentress (NFE) Airport is in what type of airspace? (See Figure 20) A) Class C. B) Class E. C) Class G.

B) Class E.

You are preflight planning in the morning before an afternoon flight. Where would you find information regarding an "Airport surface hot spot?" A) Call the Automated Flight Service Station. B) In the Chart Supplements U.S. C) In the NOTAMs during your preflight briefing.

B) In the Chart Supplements U.S. An "airport surface hot spot" is a runway safety related problem area or intersection on an airport.

Which statement about longitude and latitude is true? A) Lines of longitude are parallel to the Equator. B) Lines of longitude cross the Equator at right angles. C) The 0° line of latitude passes through Greenwich, England.

B) Lines of longitude cross the Equator at right angles.

(Refer to Area 2.) What hazards to aircraft may exist in areas such as Devils Lake East MOA? (See Figure 26) A) Unusual, often invisible, hazards to aircraft such as artillery firing, aerial gunnery, or guided missiles. B) Military training activities that necessitate acrobatic or abrupt flight maneuvers. C) High volume of pilot training or an unusual type of aerial activity.

B) Military training activities that necessitate acrobatic or abrupt flight maneuvers. Unusual, often invisible, hazards to aircraft, such as artillery firing, aerial gunnery, or guided missiles, are characteristic of restricted areas, not MOAs. Military Operations Areas (MOAs), such as Devils Lake East in Fig. 26 consist of defined lateral and vertical limits that are designated for the purpose of separating military training activities from IFR traffic. Most training activities necessitate acrobatic or abrupt flight maneuvers, i.e., air combat tactics, aerobatics, and formation training. Therefore, the likelihood of a collision is increased inside an MOA. VFR traffic is permitted, but extra vigilance should be exercised in seeing and avoiding military aircraft.

(Refer to Area 1.) What minimum radio equipment is required to land and take off at Norfolk International? (See Figure 20) A) Mode C transponder and omnireceiver. B) Mode C transponder and two-way radio. C) Mode C transponder, omnireceiver, and DME.

B) Mode C transponder and two-way radio. The minimum equipment to land and take off at Norfolk International (Fig. 20) is a Mode C transponder and a two-way radio. Norfolk International is located within Class C airspace. Unless otherwise authorized, a pilot must establish and maintain radio communication with ATC prior to and while operating in the Class C airspace area. Mode C transponders are also required in and above all Class C airspace areas.

When NOTAMs are published in the Notices to Airmen Publication (NTAP), they are A) Still a part of a standard weather briefing. B) Only available in a standard weather briefing if the pilot requests published NOTAMs. C) Canceled and are no longer valid.

B) Only available in a standard weather briefing if the pilot requests published NOTAMs.

Which public use airports depicted are indicated as having fuel? (Figure 24) A) Commerce (Area 6) and Rockwall (Area 1). B) Rockwall (Area 1) and Sulphur Springs (Area 5). C) Commerce (Area 6) and Sulphur Springs (Area 5).

B) Rockwall (Area 1) and Sulphur Springs (Area 5).

Under what condition, if any, may pilots fly through a restricted area? A) When flying on airways with an ATC clearance. B) With the controlling agency's authorization. C) Regulations do not allow this.

B) With the controlling agency's authorization. An aircraft may not be operated within a restricted area unless permission has been obtained from the controlling agency. Frequently, the ATC within the area acts as the controlling agent's authorization; e.g., an approach control in a military restricted area can permit aircraft to enter it when the restricted area is not active.

To avoid landing at the wrong airport or runway, pilots should A) consult the Aeronautical Information Manual. B) consult airport diagrams and Chart Supplements. C) contact the airport UNICOM frequency for runway advisory.

B) consult airport diagrams and Chart Supplements.

FAA advisory circulars are available to all pilots and are obtained by A) distribution from the nearest FAA district office. B) downloading them from the FAA website. C) subscribing to the Federal Register.

B) downloading them from the FAA website.

Flight through a restricted area should not be accomplished unless the pilot has A) filed a IFR flight plan. B) received prior authorization from the controlling agency. C) received prior permission from the commanding officer of the nearest military base.

B) received prior authorization from the controlling agency.

(Refer to Area 1.) For information about the parachute jumping at Caddo Mills Airport, refer to (See Legend 1 and Figure 24) A) notes on the border of the chart. B) the Airport/Facility Directory section of the Chart Supplement. C) the Notices to Airmen (NOTAM) publication.

B) the Airport/Facility Directory section of the Chart Supplement. The miniature parachute near the Caddo Mills Airport (at 1 on Fig. 24) indicates a parachute jumping area. In Legend 1, the symbol for a parachute jumping area instructs you to see the Airport/Facility Directory section of the Chart Supplement for more information.

When are two-way radio communications required on a flight from Gnoss Airport (DVO) (Area 4) to Livermore Airport (LVK) (Area 5) at an altitude of 3,500 ft. MSL? When entering (See Figure 70) A) the Class B airspace. B) the Livermore Airport Class D airspace. C) both the Class B airspace and the Livermore Airport Class D airspace.

B) the Livermore Airport Class D airspace.

Traffic patterns in effect at Lincoln Municipal are (Fig. 52) A) to the right on Runway 14 and Runway 32; to the left on Runway 18 and Runway 35. B) to the left on Runway 14 and Runway 32; to the right on Runway 18 and Runway 35. C) to the right on Runways 14 - 32.

B) to the left on Runway 14 and Runway 32; to the right on Runway 18 and Runway 35. Traffic patterns are to the left unless right traffic is noted by the contraction "Rgt tfc." The only runways with right traffic are Rwy 18 and Rwy 35.

According to the Chart Supplement, what times can a pilot obtain fuel and services in September at Toledo Express (TOL) Airport? (Fig. 63) A) 0900 - 0100 hr. local time. B) 1300 - 0500 hr. local time. C) 0800 - 0000 hr. local time

C) 0800 - 0000 hr. local time The ‡ symbol specifies that during daylight saving time, the services are available 1 hr. earlier than shown. During standard time, 5 hr. are subtracted from Zulu time. During daylight saving time, 4 hr. are subtracted from 1200-0400 (1 hr. is already subtracted due to the ‡ symbol).

(Refer to Area 2.) What minimum altitude is necessary to vertically clear the obstacle on the southeast side of Winnsboro Airport by 500 feet? (See Figure 24) A) 823 feet MSL. B) 1,013 feet MSL. C) 1,403 feet MSL.

C) 1,403 feet MSL.

(Refer to Area 3.) What is the height of the lighted obstacle approximately 6 nautical miles southwest of Savannah International? (Figure 23) A) 1,498 feet MSL. B) 1,531 feet AGL. C) 1,548 feet MSL.

C) 1,548 feet MSL.

With certain exceptions, Class E airspace extends upward from either 700 feet or 1,200 feet AGL to, but does not include, A) 10,000 feet MSL. B) 14,500 feet MSL. C) 18,000 feet MSL.

C) 18,000 feet MSL.

What must a pilot do or be aware of when transitioning an Alert Area? A) All pilots must contact the controlling agency to ensure aircraft separation. B) Non-participating aircraft may transit the area as long as they operate in accordance with their waiver. C) Be aware that the area may contain unusual aeronautical activity or high volume of pilot training.

C) Be aware that the area may contain unusual aeronautical activity or high volume of pilot training. Alert areas are depicted on aeronautical charts with an "A" followed by a number (e.g., A-211) to inform non-participating pilots of areas that may contain a high volume of pilot training or an unusual type of aerial activity. Pilots should exercise caution in alert areas. Both pilots of participating aircraft and pilots transiting the area are equally responsible for collision avoidance.

(Refer to east of Area 5.) The airspace overlying and within 5 miles of Barnes County Airport is (See Figure 26) A) Class D airspace from the surface to the floor of the overlying Class E airspace. B) Class E airspace from the surface to 1,200 feet MSL. C) Class G airspace from the surface to 700 feet AGL.

C) Class G airspace from the surface to 700 feet AGL. The magenta shading surrounding Barnes County Airport indicates that Class E airspace starts at 700 feet AGL. Therefore, Class G airspace exists from the surface to 700 feet AGL.

According to the Chart Supplement, what are the operational requirements of a VORTAC? A) VHF navigational facility with omnidirectional course only. B) Collocated VOR navigational facility and UHF standard distance measuring equipment. C) Collocated VOR and TACAN navigational facilities.

C) Collocated VOR and TACAN navigational facilities.

The airspace surrounding the Gila Bend AF AUX Airport (GXF) (Area 6) is classified as Class (See Figure 75) A) B. B) C. C) D.

C) D. The GXF airport is surrounded by a dashed blue line, which indicates it is within Class D airspace.

(Refer to Area 3.) What is the airspace classification around Findlay (FDY) airport? (See Figure 29) A) C. B) D. C) E.

C) E. A magenta dashed line surrounding an airport identifies it as Class E airspace that extends to the surface. The presence of this dashed magenta line indicates that this airport offers a precision instrument approach.

What action should a pilot take when operating under VFR in a Military Operations Area (MOA)? A) Obtain a clearance from the controlling agency prior to entering the MOA. B) Operate only on the airways that transverse the MOA. C) Exercise extreme caution when military activity is being conducted.

C) Exercise extreme caution when military activity is being conducted. A clearance is not required to enter an MOA. Military operations areas consist of airspace established for separating military training activities from IFR traffic. VFR traffic should exercise extreme caution when flying within an MOA. Information regarding MOA activity can be obtained from flight service stations (FSSs) within 100 mi. of the MOA.

Which type radar service is provided to VFR aircraft at Lincoln Municipal? (Fig. 52) A) Sequencing to the primary Class C airport and standard separation. B) Sequencing to the primary Class C airport and conflict resolution so that radar targets do not touch, or 1,000 feet vertical separation. C) Sequencing to the primary Class C airport, traffic advisories, conflict resolution, and safety alerts.

C) Sequencing to the primary Class C airport, traffic advisories, conflict resolution, and safety alerts. The FAA should change "conflict resolution" to "limited vectoring" in the future.

(Refer to Area 3.) Which airport is located at approximately 47°21'N latitude and 101°01'W longitude? (See Figure 21) A) Underwood. B) Pietsch. C) Washburn.

C) Washburn.

What is the dotted outlined area northeast of Gila Bend Airport, near Area 3? (See Figure 75) A) Restricted airspace. B) Military operations area. C) Wilderness area.

C) Wilderness area.

Refer to Crawford Airport (N38°42.25' W107°38.62'). Is fuel ever available at Crawford Airport? (Fig. 81) A) Yes, whenever the airport is attended by airport personnel. B) No, as there is no "star" symbol near the airport on the chart, there is no fuel available at this airport. C) Yes, 100LL fuel is available for emergency use only.

C) Yes, 100LL fuel is available for emergency use only.

The Devils Lake East MOA (Area 1) is a (See Figure 26) A) meteorological observation area. B) military observation area. C) military operations area.

C) military operations area.

(Refer to Area 2.) The flag symbol at Lake Drummond represents a (Figure 20) A) compulsory reporting point for Norfolk Class C airspace. B) compulsory reporting point for Hampton Roads Airport. C) visual checkpoint used to identify position for initial callup to Norfolk Approach Control.

C) visual checkpoint used to identify position for initial callup to Norfolk Approach Control.

(Refer to Area 3.) Determine the approximate latitude and longitude of Currituck County Airport. (See Figure 20) A) 36°24'N - 76°01'W. B) 36°48'N - 76°01'W. C) 47°24'N - 75°58'W.

A) 36°24'N - 76°01'W.

(Refer to Area 3.) The top of the group obstruction approximately 11 nautical miles from the Savannah VORTAC on the 010° radial is (Figure 23) A) 454 feet MSL. B) 429 feet AGL. C) 417 feet MSL.

A) 454 feet MSL.

Which public use airport depicted is indicated as having fuel? A) Minot Int'l (Area 1). B) Garrison (Area 2). C) Mercer County Regional Airport (Area 3).

A) Minot Int'l (Area 1).

(Refer to Area 1.) What minimum altitude is necessary to vertically clear the obstacle on the northeast side of Airpark East Airport by 500 feet? (See Figure 24) A) 1,010 feet MSL. B) 1,273 feet MSL. C) 1,283 feet MSL.

B) 1,273 feet MSL.

An aircraft takes off from Gnoss Airport (Area 4) and flies southeast 25.4 NM to Buchanan Airport. What maximum elevation figure would assure obstruction clearance during the flight? (See Figure 70) A) 6,000 feet MSL. B) 4,200 feet MSL. C) 3,200 feet MSL.

C) 3,200 feet MSL.

(Refer to Area 4.) The floor of Class B airspace overlying Hicks Airport (T67) north-northwest of Fort Worth Meacham Field is (See Figure 25) A) at the surface. B) 3,200 feet MSL. C) 4,000 feet MSL.

C) 4,000 feet MSL.

FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to Air Traffic and General Operating Rules are issued under which subject number? A) 60 B) 70 C) 90

C) 90

(Refer to Area 3.) When flying over Arrowwood National Wildlife Refuge, a pilot should fly no lower than (See Figure 26) A) 2,000 feet AGL. B) 2,500 feet AGL. C) 3,000 feet AGL.

A) 2,000 feet AGL.

When approaching Lincoln Municipal from the west at noon for the purpose of landing, initial communications should be with (Fig. 52) A) Lincoln Approach Control on 124.0 MHz. B) Minneapolis Center on 128.75 MHz. C) Lincoln Tower on 118.5 MHz.

A) Lincoln Approach Control on 124.0 MHz. note that aircraft arriving from the west of Lincoln (i.e., 180° - 359°) at noon should initially contact Lincoln Approach Control on 124.0.

(Refer to Area 2.) The control tower frequency for Addison Airport is`(Fig. 25) A) 122.95 MHz. B) 126.0 MHz. C) 133.4 MHz.

B) 126.0 MHz.

Pilots flying over a national wildlife refuge are requested to fly no lower than A) 1,000 feet AGL. B) 2,000 feet AGL. C) 3,000 feet AGL.

B) 2,000 feet AGL.

(Refer to Area 3.) For information about glider operations at Ridgeland Airport, refer to (Figure 23 and Legend 1) A) notes on the border of the chart. B) the Chart Supplement. C) the Notices to Airmen (NOTAM) publication.

B) the Chart Supplement.

What are the basic VFR weather minima required to takeoff from the Onawa, IA (K36) airport during the day? (Figure 78) A) 3 statute miles visibility, 500 feet below the clouds, 1,000 feet above the clouds, and 2,000 feet horizontally from the clouds. B) 0 statute miles, clear of clouds. C) 1 statute mile, clear of clouds.

C) 1 statute mile, clear of clouds. (Golf)

At Sioux Gateway/Col Day (N42°24.16' W96°23.06'), which frequency should be used as a Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) to self-announce position and intentions when the control tower is closed? (See Figures 78 and 79) A) 122.95 MHz. B) 119.45 MHz. C) 118.7 MHz.

C) 118.7 MHz. Fig. 79 is the Chart Supplement excerpt for Sioux Gateway/Col Day Airport. Look for the section titled "Communications." On that same line, it states that the CTAF frequency is 118.7 MHz. It is also located on Fig. 78 in the Sioux Gateway Airport Data Description, indicated by a "C" surrounded by a shaded blue circle.

(Refer to Area 2 in Figure 22.) At Coeur D'Alene, which frequency should be used as a Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) to monitor airport traffic? (Figs 22 and 31) A) 122.05 MHz. B) 135.075 MHz. C) 122.8 MHz.

C) 122.8 MHz.

(Refer to Area 2 in Figure 22.) What is the correct UNICOM frequency to be used at Coeur D'Alene to request fuel? A) 135.075 MHz. B) 122.1/108.8 MHz. C) 122.8 MHz.

C) 122.8 MHz.

(Refer to Area 2 in Figure 22.) At Coeur D'Alene, which frequency should be used as a Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) to self-announce position and intentions? (Figs. 22 and 31) A) 122.05 MHz. B) 122.1/108.8 MHz. C) 122.8 MHz.

C) 122.8 MHz. Fig. 31 is the Chart Supplement excerpt for Coeur D'Alene Air Terminal. Look for the section titled "Communications." On that same line, it states the CTAF (and UNICOM) frequency is 122.8.

What depicts a Class E airspace that begins at 700 feet AGL? (Legend 15) A) A dashed blue circle around an airport. B) A solid magenta circle around an airport. C) A magenta vignette that goes around an airport.

C) A magenta vignette that goes around an airport.

(Refer to Area 4.) The airspace directly overlying Fort Worth Meacham is (See Figure 25) A) Class B airspace to 10,000 feet MSL. B) Class C airspace to 5,000 feet MSL. C) Class D airspace to 3,200 feet MSL.

C) Class D airspace to 3,200 feet MSL.

The flag symbols at Statesboro Bulloch County Airport, Claxton-Evans County Airport, and Ridgeland Airport are (Figure 23) A) outer boundaries of Savannah Class C airspace. B) airports with special traffic patterns. C) visual checkpoints to identify position for initial callup prior to entering Savannah Class C airspace.

C) visual checkpoints to identify position for initial callup prior to entering Savannah Class C airspace.