2A354B short answer and ure
1. What does the interference blanker prevent?
EMI.
9. What must occur for a NO-GO memory flip-flop to set, supplying a set NO-GO?
If no output pulse is present coinciding with an input pulse.
7. Which component within the EGI LRU receives, tracks, and processes the GPS signal from the FRPA and EGI preamp?
The GEM.
3. What components make up the ADCP?
The GPP. The IPM. The VME64 main and essential busses
4. What radio frequency range does band 3 operate in?
The H, I, and J frequency band.
1. What is the purpose of the multipurpose display system?
The MPD System is designed to provide the F-15E pilot and WSO with a visual representation of information on flight, navigation, attack, target, and weapons, as well as advisory information such as warnings, cautions, and threats.
1. What does the operation of the TEWS system depend on?
The exploitation of the radio frequency environment.
17. What is data frame mode?
Digital files stored within the DMS theater and mission cartridge that contains a variety of imagery information.
6. Where is CMD status displayed?
On the MPCD, the TEWS display unit, and by the CMD status lights.
15. How does JHMCS communicate with the CC?
Via the 1553 MUX bus 5A and 5B.
1. How will the BIT results from the radar get to the CFRS/CFI workstation in debrief?
DTM.
16. List the modes of the TFR subsystem.
NORM, ECCM, Weather (WX1 or WX2), LPI, and VLC.
12. What processors are in the strapdown inertial navigation digital computer?
Navigation processors and an inertial processor
10. Describe the TSD format?
Navigational data is superimposed over the map display.
13. Where is the NAV FLIR active submode displayed?
Next to S1 on the NAV FLIR submenu on the UFC.
26. What does the AI display upon detection of an INS BIT failure?
The AI OFF flag comes into view (only if the INS/AHRE switch is in INS).
26. Which F-15E component does the ILS receiver communicate with for system control and display of system data?
The AIU 1.
5. The backup bus controller for the up-front control is which component?
The AIU no. 2.
2. Which component functions as the UFC's primary bus controller?
The AIU1A channel within AIU 1.
31. How is metallic distortion corrected so that JHMCS maintains its accuracy?
The EU is provided with magnetic properties of the aircraft cockpit(s).
11. Which F-15E ARC-210 component controls all audio signals to and from the headset-microphone circuits?
The ICSCP
6. What F-15E component performs the function of the F-15C ICCP?
The ICSCP.
30. On the head-up display, what are the pitch and bank steering bars referred to?
The IFD.
26. What results from the seat being ejected from the F-15C aircraft?
The IFF seat switch puts the IFF transponder into emergency operation.
23. What is the purpose of the indicator group?
The IG is a video display system made up of the PSDP and the MICP. The IG converts both analog and digital input signals for displays. It is capable of displaying radar, TV, or miscellaneous displays as selected by the CC.
25. How does the INU calculate true heading?
The INU corrects the platform heading with the alpha term
15. What INS component requires boresighting?
The INU mount.
11. Where do the outer loops receive attitude information from?
The INU.
2. Which component within the ADCP performs the multipurpose display processing?
The IPM.
18. How many types of BIT does the LANTIRN system have and what are they?
The LANTIRN system has two types of BIT: periodic and initiated.
5. Which component is the primary control for the radio number one on the F-15 C/D aircraft?
The MCCP.
20. What does the avionic status word generated by the FDA contain?
The status of all peripherals on the MUX buses.
8. The F-15C/D PSDP receives commands from which component as to the positioning of FDL symbology?
They provide an interface from the UFCs and HOTAS to the ADCP for control of aircraft systems. HOTAS controls for the FDL include the control stick grip castle switch and auto ACQ switch, throttle control TDC switch, and hand controller switches. AIU 1 also receives an FDL LRU fail discrete that drives asp fault indicator 3 and the AV BIT fail light.
1. How are band 1 and band 2 controlled in the auto mode?
They operate as transmit only systems under the control of the RWR.
14. What is the function of waveguide seals?
They prevent pressure loss, arcing and contamination.
4. What's the purpose of the probe heaters?
To prevent icing conditions from blocking the openings that sense the pitot and static pressures.
4. What is the function of the medium band filter?
To provide IF bandwidth limitation by channel A and channel B filters.
2. What is the purpose of the ADU-880/E pod rack?
To provide a fixed mating interface between the pod and the pylon.
10. Why is the ADC integrated with the AFCS?
To provide a pilot relief mode called altitude hold.
24. What's the purpose of the pitch scale?
To provide a ±90 degree pitch reference and a 0 through 360 degree roll reference
16. What is the primary reason of the targeting pod's laser designator ranger?
To provide accurate ranging and laser guided bomb illumination for weapon delivery and navigation updates.
26. What's the purpose of the airspeed scale?
To provide airspeed data during A/A, A/G, and ADI modes.
5. What is the purpose of the DTM receptacle?
To provide an interface between the DTM and the PSDP in order to load mission data into the CC.
25. What's the purpose of the command heading index?
To provide command heading data to the ground target destination.
3. What is the purpose of the TEWS control panel?
To provide the operating controls for the TEWS equipment.
5. Why do the servo cylinders contain LVDTs?
To provide the pitch computer with RAM and servo valve position
9. What's the purpose of the ISA high-voltage power supply?
To provide voltage for the RLGs
9. How many times will the LAW voice warning be heard for a single low altitude incident?
Two times.
12. What's repositioned when the yaw trim actuator drives?
Yaw channel linkage, rudder pedals, and rudder trim LVDTs.
3. Will the INU start an INS alignment if the brake hold switch is in the OFF position?
Yes.
19. On the F-15C/D, if you want to use 137.000 MHz on channel 11, how would you set channel 11 on the ICCP to get this desired frequency?
You have to set the preset up 200 MHz above your desired frequency so you would set channel 11 on the ICCP to 337.000MHz.
23. How is frequency selection input for the F-15E ARC-210 UHF/VHF (R2) system?
You input the desired VHF frequency plus 200 MHz on the UFC.
34. To avoid having to remap the cockpit or reload the MCD using a PLV/NT, what should you avoid doing?
You should avoid replacing the EU and MTU at the same time
17. What causes an error signal to be developed?
A change in altitude.
1. What components make up the BIT system?
BCP and ASP.
2. What do capacitors store?
Electrons.
7. What is the name of the projection produced by the HDU?
HMD.
22. What are the two types of DTMs?
MAINT and OPS.
3. Which SFDR LRU is housed in an armored box? Why?
CSMU. To withstand a crash.
15. What kind of signal is processed by the DP?
Digital data.
8. In which mode will the HUD not be available?
Emergency Power Mode.
2. Where is the SAU located?
In door 155L.
60. At what default AOA does the buffet filter activate (in true AOA)?
14 degrees true AOA
13. What's the purpose of the INU signal converter?
It does all analog-to-digital and digital-to-analog conversions.
2. What are the three aircraft avionics master modes?
(1) A/A (2) A/G (3) ADI
1. List the five major components of the CC complex.
(1) CC. (2) H009 MUX bus. (3) 1553 MUX bus. (4) DTM receptacle. (5) MLV receptacle.
10. What are the five different types of modules contained in the VHSIC CC?
(1) DPM. (2) IOM. (3) BMM. (4) BSM. (5) TDM.
23. What voice warning is associated with the fighter data link (FDL) system?
"MESSAGE-MESSAGE."
29. When the F-15E aircraft flies over a marker beacon, what is displayed on the EADI?
"MKR."
5. What is the range of the fuel flow indicator?
0-100 pph × 1000 pph.
3. Which LRU receives digital data and controls from the analog signal converter and the RDP?
044.
4. Under what access door is the ARI located?
10R.
4. Where is control data from the UHF radio 1 sent?
AIU1A.
23. When is the AOA scale displayed?
During the ADI mode
3. How many MPDs are installed in the F-15E?
Four.
1. Where is the CARA R/T located?
In door 149.
37. The HUD tilter consists of what data?
Mission, wing, aircraft, and local-use coded data.
16. Where is the band 3 BIT LOG displayed?
On the MPCD
3. What LRU performs the main processing functions for JHMCS?
The EU.
8. What LRU is used to enable the LAW function?
The UFC.
26. What is the main state of JHMCS?
The normal state.
52. (412) How many dipole elements does the F-15 antenna array have? a. 5. b. 10. c. 15. d. 20.
b. 10.
13. What altitude range do mode C replies represent?
-1,000 ft. to 60,000 ft. in 100-foot increments.
8. What are the exceedances, in g-forces, that the CDU displays?
-2, -1, 0, 3, 4.5, 6, 7.5.
56. (009) In an F-15C/D aircraft, what mode of symbology will be displayed in secondary mode with a central computer (CC) failure? a. Navigation (NAV) mode. b. Air-to-ground (A/G) mode. c. Attitude director indicator (ADI) mode. d. Air-to-air (A/A) GUN mode.
. d. Air-to-air (A/A) GUN mode.
9. When the PRCA is shut down, what does the pitch ratio indicator drive to?
.4.
53. (009) On the F-15C/D heads-up display (HUD), a standby reticle is provided as a backup if the a. cathode ray tube (CRT) symbology fails. b. radar is in a search mode. c. radar enters a track mode. d. HUD continuous built-in test (BIT) fails.
.a. cathode ray tube (CRT) symbology fails.
What detection ranges are available during only MPRF operation?
0 through 80 NMI.
9. The EMD nozzle position is displayed in what range?
0-100 percent open.
4. The EMD displays engine rpm in what range?
0-110 % in increments of 1%.
5. What is the operating range of the CARA system?
0-50,000 feet above the ground.
6. The accelerometer generates how much voltage for each g-force encountered?
0.75 volts
10. What type of commands does the data processor (081) send to the power supply (610)?
031 positioning commands.
34. What fixed range is used in the secondary mode when radar range is not available?
1,000 feet.
20. List the five assumptions the radar BIT makes?
1. Single fault concept.—BIT is designed to handle one fault at a time. Multiple faults are not accounted for. 2. Maintenance is done as indicated.—BIT assumes fault indicators, ASP indicators, and BIT readouts/advisories were used correctly. 3. Replacement LRU is serviceable.—BIT assumes that the new part works as advertised. 4. Operator actions are taken where indicated.—fault isolation procedures in the TOs were followed exactly. 5. External interfaces are correct.—BIT assumes that power, cooling air, and hydraulics are normal. Liquid coolant and waveguide pressure are within tolerance.
7. What is the dielectric constant of air?
1.000586.
2. What does the AAI antenna group consist of?
10 dipole antennas arranged on the radar's planner array (antenna), two power dividers, and a hybrid coupler.
9. When the ICMS is in standby, what percent of maximum airflow does the ECS provide the ICMS?
10 percent.
15. What is the nominal output produced by the transmitter portion of the R/T? What is the minimum output power?
10 watt AM output with a minimum output power of 7.95 watts.
12. What are the available map scales?
10, 20, 40, 80, and 160 nmi.
10. When the aircraft is WOW and the ICMS is in AUTO or MAN, what percent of available airflow does the ECS provide the ICMS?
100 percent.
5. What is the interrogator's transmission frequency?
1030 MHz.
6. What is the transponder's transmission frequency?
1090 MHz
5. What are the power requirements of the blanker?
115 VAC single phase, aircraft power.
29. How many data types are transferred onto the DTM during the WRITE function?
15.
16. How does the APG-63 radar set filter out ground clutter?
16. By using the guard horn, a small, wide-angle horn located at the bottom of the antenna, angled down slightly. It is a receive-only horn designed to intercept sidelobe echoes. With the ability to measure Doppler shift, we can use these ground returns to measure our ground speed. Knowing this, we can filter out all main-beam returns that come back to us with the same Doppler signature, as they must be just returns from the ground ahead. This process is called clutter rejection and occurs in the 042.
18. In order to use Y-coded signals, what must be accomplished?
18. To use the Y-coded signals, the current crypto code (keys) must be loaded in the EGI and the keys must be verified by receiving communications from any GPS satellite and matching Y codes with the satellite.
19. When is the IBIT performed?
19. It is commanded by the ADCP via the MPD/MPCD only when on the ground
1. What is the constant force of gravity that we all live under?
1g.
8. What row of the OWS matrix shows the worst overload condition for each column?
1st row.
7. How many channels are required for CAS operation?
2
8. What is the dielectric constant of JP-8 (jet fuel)?
2.27.
29. What is the resolution of the altitude scale when the landing gear is lowered?
20 foot increments with five digit readouts every 100 feet.
26. Which F-15E preset channels are used to store word-of-day (WOD) for UHF R2 HQ operation?
20 thru 15.
13. How many preset channels can each UHF radio store on the F-15C/D aircraft?
20.
20. What are the frequencies of the ICCP's three continuously running oscillators that generate the internal warning tones?
20. 250 Hz, 900 Hz, and 1,600 Hz.
20. Where is the crypto key status displayed?
20. The MPD/MPCD EGI detail BIT displays EGI LRU failures, EGI SRU failures (maximum of three at a time), functional failures (BATTERY FAIL, ELEC BST REQUIRED), and crypto key status are displayed.
4. What is the temperature measurement range of the FTIT indicator?
200° - 1,400°C in 10°C increments.
5. In what range does the EMD display FTIT?
200º to 1,400º C in 10º increments.
62. How many cockpit units correspond to 14 degrees true AOA?
21 cockpit units.
17. How many HUD windows display alphanumeric readouts?
22.
1. What is the frequency range of the UHF communication system?
225.000 MHz to 399.975 MHz.
4. What is the ARC-210 UHF frequency range?
225.000MHz to 399.975MHz spaced 0.025 MHz apart.
6. What is the guard frequency for the ARC-210 communication system for UHF and VHF?
243.000 MHz when the radio is operating in the UHF and 121.500 MHz when the radio is operating in the VHF.
11. What is the UHF guard frequency selected when in guard mode?
243.000 MHz.
3. What is the power requirement for the nozzle position indicating system?
26 VAC
2. What is the voltage requirement for the CARA system?
28 VDC from the left bus circuit breaker panel.
9. What is the power requirement for the UHF system on both F-15C/D as well as the F-15E model aircraft?
28 VDC.
6. How many channels on the stabilator servo cylinders on the F-15E are required for input in order for AFCS to operate?
3
6. What are the power requirements for the DMS?
3 phase, 115 VAC.
8. How far is the middle marker from the approach end of the runway and what is the signal?
3,500 ft.; amplitude-modulated at 1,300 Hz.
1. How many channels does the F-15E AFCS contain?
3.
1. What is the VHF frequency range band?
30-300 MHz.
2. What is the ARC-210 VHF frequency range?
30.000 MHz to 174.000 MHz spaced 0.025 MHz apart.
2. In what frequency range does the F-15 VHF operate?
30.000-174.000 MHz.
4. How many inputs does the ADC give the CC?
4 inputs: AOA, Mach #, pressure ratio, barometric corrected altitude.
7. How far is the outer marker from the approach end of the runway and what is the signal?
4 to 7 miles; amplitude-modulated at 400 Hz
5. The oil pressure indicator displays oil pressure in what increments?
5 psi.
2. What are the three parts of a fuel flow transmitter?
A drive motor, synchro transmitter, and a momentum wheel.
2. At what percent of rpm does the first ramp go to the full DOWN position at engine start?
50 percent.
5. How much memory does the programmable cartridge have available for storage?
512K of RAM.
9. If an aircraft performs a 7g maneuver, which counter(s) will advance? Explain?
6 G counter because it registers the maximum g units attained during any flight or maneuver.
10. In TACAN A/A mode, what is the difference between the channels selected by the interrogating and the replying aircraft in order to provide the IF for the TACAN R/T to process?
63 MHz.
2. How many possible frequencies are in the UHF frequency range and how are they spaced?
7,000 frequencies spaced 25 kHz apart.
19. If one of the AFCS LRUs fails, what does the FCC provide to the ASP?
A ground
17. Which frequencies on the F-15C/D are blocked and will not transmit?
74.800-75.200 MHz, 88.000-107.000 MHz, 118.000-136.000 MHz, and 156.000-174.000 MHz.
22. What percentage of structural overload does the overload warning system (OWS) send a tone enable signal to the integrated communications control panel?
85 percent.
9. The receiver amplifies the RF returns, converts them to 30 MHz IF signals, amplifies them again, and sends them to which radar component?
9. Analog processor (039).
5. What does the HRM mode provide?
A high resolution map for A/G weapons delivery
21. What frequency is the departure-warning tone and what rate is the tone interrupted?
900 Hz, at a 2 to 10 Hz rate.
1. Under what doors are the fuel flow transmitters located?
95 L/R, 113 L/R.
2. Under which access door is the oil pressure transmitter located?
95 L/R.
9. Describe the AOA stall warning.
A 1600-Hz tone in the headset, interrupted at a 1 to 20 Hz rate.
7. When will the pilot hear over stress warning tones? Describe these tones.
A 900 Hz tone interrupted at 4 Hz rate when 85-92 percent max allowable load. A 900 Hz tone interrupted at 10 Hz rate when 92-96 percent max allowable load. A 900 Hz solid tone when 96-100 percent max allowable load. Voice warning when 100+ percent max allowable load.
11. What happens when the left and right rudder mistrack by 4° or more?
A BIT code is generated and one of the actuators is shut down.
24. Explain the HPRF operation of the APG-63 radar set.
A HPRF radar mode provides maximum detection against nose-aspect targets. Its high average power results in long-range detection and tracking capability. (The close spacing of the pulses means the transmitter is ―on‖ a lot, compared to its listening time.) A problem with HPRF is that it has poor performance against tail aspect targets and near zero capability against targets with no closure rate. HPRF is available in all ranges except 10 NMI.
34. What does the DTM status message DTM READ IN PROGRESS mean?
A READ function has been initiated, but not completed
5. How do you know if a MPD is functioning correctly or it has failed?
A ball-type BIT indicator remains black when the MPD is functioning correctly and latches white when the MPD fails.
13. What causes an error signal to be developed?
A change in attitude.
13. What information does the RWR BIT log provide?
A coded (hexadecimal) list of the failed LRUs, tests that they failed, and how many seconds after system turn-on they failed the tests.
12. What will be heard in the headset when the KY-58 system power is first turned on?
A continuous beeping with background noise (system alarm).
1. What is FDL?
A data link system that transfers information at high rates. The data is encrypted to provide security, and is jam resistant to yield high reliability in a hostile RF environment. It also provides the ability to interconnect many widespread sources and users of information.
13. What change in fuel level is required for an out-of-phase current flow to occur through the bridge circuit's center wire?
A decrease.
1. On what pylon is the RECCE pod mounted?
A dedicated SUU-73B/A centerline pylon.
5. When the target pod laser is armed on the HUD, what symbol is positioned around the gun cross?
A diamond symbol.
6. What type signal do the AICs supply to the EEC or DEEC?
A digital Mach signal ranging from 0.15 to 2.80 Mach.
4. What inputs does the oscillator provide to the RF amplifier?
A low-power RF signal, CW and high-level modulation commands from the oscillator for automatic leveling and AM modulation.
2. By rotating the PULL TO CAGE knob (while the knob is pushed in), how much adjustment can be made to the position of the miniature airplane on the indicator face?
A maximum of 5° in climb or dive.
5. What is the purpose of Priority control?
A means to control the amount of overlap allowed between the radar and ICMS in the frequency region in which both need to operate for full performance.
17. What will be heard in the headsets if a variable does not pass the parity check?
A parity alarm (continuous tone).
4. What does the desense cue provide?
A performance figure of merit of the radar in A/A RWS and TWS modes.
13. Explain how the persistence counter is used for fault isolation.
A persistence counter tracks the number of CM-BIT failures. The failures are not used in fault isolation if their persistence count is less than seven in one minute.
3. Why is an AUTO PLT light on the caution light display panel necessary?
A pilot can't continuously monitor the CAS control panel because of its location; without the AUTO PLT caution light indication, the pilot may assume the aircraft is still using the relief function.
2. List the components of the nozzle position indicating system.
A position transmitter, CENC, a nozzle position indicator, and related wiring.
10. What occurs when the output pulse is out of tolerance?
A power supply inhibit signal is generated and sent to the power supplies to shut down portions of the blanker.
2. What is the IFF responding equipment called?
A receiver-transponder.
15. What is the band 3 BIT LOG?
A record of faults that have occurred during any of the band 3 BIT operations
6. What does an event marker symbol look like?
A rectangle
16. What information does the ICMS provide the RWR?
A sample of the jamming RF and uses this sample to determine if the jamming signals, frequencies, and modulation characteristics are correct.
14. Which symbol is a vertically positioned triangle symbol and is displayed during MRM or SRM modes when the correct launch condition exists?
A shoot cue.
4. What does the engine-driven alternator's auxiliary winding produce?
A single-phase AC signal with a voltage and frequency directly proportional to the N2 compressor's rpm.
12. What is a programmer?
A small matrix ROM device that provides band 1 and band 2 oscillators with predetermined program inputs.
18. What NCI indication do you get in the first phase of the GC mode?
A steady ALN light.
16. What information does the ASE circle provide and when is it displayed?
A steering reference during the A/A missile mode only
21. What must be done before a complete STOR alignment is accomplished?
A successful GC alignment must have been previously completed and the aircraft must not have been moved after INS was turned off after the stored alignment.
2. Why is the emergency mode for the inlet ramp system necessary?
A system failure could be critical to engine operation, so the EMERGENCY mode raises and locks all ramps (except above 1.5 Mach) so the engine isn't starved of air.
12. Which symbol is square and is superimposed over the target the radar is locked on?
A/A TD.
3. What is the primary master mode of the A through D models of the F-15?
A/A.
4. What's the basic attack mode of the F-15A through D?
A/A.
3. What other systems are integrated by the blanker on all F-15 model aircraft?
AAI, IFF, TACAN/JTIDS/FDL, Radar, EWWS, RWR, and ICMS Band 3
1. What type input voltage is supplied to the tank units and what type signal does the tank unit output?
AC; positive and negative DC pulses.
13. H009 MUX bus 1 links the CC with what systems?
ADC, AHRS, NCI, HUD data processor, RWR system, and on some aircraft the internal countermeasures system.
1. The F-15E air data processor performs the same functions as which LRUs in non-ADP equipped aircraft?
ADC, EAIC, PSA, and FBS.
2. What are the four types of functions performed by the ADP system?
ADC, left and right EAIC, FBS, and both PSA channels.
9. What LRU initiates and controls data transfer with the HUD, MPD/MPCD, and communicates with the LANTIRN targeting pod on the 1553 MUX bus?
ADCP
10. Which LRU ultimately determines a low oil pressure condition?
ADCP.
17. Which component provides submode command to the NAV pod?
ADCP.
5. Which section of the ADP contains the operational program memory?
DP section
28. On the F-15E EADI, the bank steering bar (vertical pointer) and pitch steering bar (horizontal pointer) display ILS data that has been processed by which component?
ADCP.
7. What LRU is responsible for supplying CARA altitude to other aircraft avionics systems?
ADCP.
4. What master mode provides aircraft altitude and steering information to the selected destination?
ADI.
5. Which aircraft mode displays symbology to aid the pilot in landing the aircraft?
ADI.
22. What message does the FCC send over the MUX bus to alert the pilot that the AFCS system has begun a test?
AFCS IN TEST message to be displayed on the MPCD/MPD.
8. What is displayed on the HSI heading card in all steer modes?
AHRS magnetic heading.
3. How does the data transfer between the UFCs and the AIU set occur?
AIU 1 and AIU 2.
37. If ADCP to IFF transponder MUX bus communication is lost, which component controls the IFF transponder?
AIU 1 through the use of discrete signals.
38. Which F-15E component receives fail discretes from the IFF transponder that drive ASP fault indicators and the AV BIT fail light?
AIU 1.
7. To which AIU does the EMD provide serial data?
AIU 2.
23. How does the F-15E ILS receiver get the operating frequency?
AIU No 1 receives the ILS operating frequency from the UFC and converts it into a discrete that is sent to the ILS receiver.
16. In receive mode on the F-15E, what component converts the TACAN data to digital data before being sent on the MUX bus?
AIU no. 1.
25. What F-15E component receives an FTIT overtemp signal from the left and right EDUs before routing the enable signal to the ICSCP to activate the appropriate voice warning "WARNING OVERTEMP LEFT" or "WARNING OVERTEMP RIGHT"?
AIU1.
8. Which AIU 1 channel receives analog inputs from the ILS receiver, cockpit throttle grips, and left hand-controller?
AIU1B.
37. How will the pilot know if the alignment is successful or unsuccessful?
ALIGN OK will be displayed on the HMD if the alignment is successful, and ALIGN FAIL will be displayed on the HMD if the alignment is unsuccessful.
8. Which input signals are used for turn coordination?
AOA and 1.5 Mach signals from the AIC.
26. What signals are used to control the stall inhibit function of pitch CAS?
AOA, gear position, and flap position.
3. What inputs are used to compute the first ramp and diffuser positions?
AOA, total temperature, and pitot static inputs.
2. Which NAV pod component responds to the control inputs from the aircraft and reports the status of the NAV pod to the aircraft?
APCC.
8. What component of the flight control system controls the rudders during lateral and longitudinal stick movement? When is this component shut down?
ARI. It is shut down at Mach 1 and above by the PRCA, as well as by the anti-skid system during landings.
23. Which ASP fault indicators will latch if there is a failure of the front and rear cockpit HSIs?
ASP 61 for the front HSI and ASP 59 for the rear HSI.
2. Which ASP indicator will latch if the EMD fails the BIT?
ASP 61.
11. What malfunctions will result from a leak in the waveguide pressurization system?
ASP fault indicator 25 to latch and malfunctions in the radar system.
28. What is acquisition and how can the pilot acquire a target?
Acquisition is the process of picking out a target to track. The two ways to acquire a target are manually and automatically.
Which air-to-air mode symbol is a pair of vertical lines (captain's bars) used to enable target sampling or acquisition by bracketing the target symbol?
Acquisition symbol.
12. When flying long distances at altitudes over 18,000 feet, what do pilots do with their baro settings to help avoid midair collisions?
Adjust it to a standard barometric setting of 29.92.
2. Which component supplies discrete signals to monitor BIT failures to and from the targeting pod subsystems?
Advance pod control computer.
11. How is primary steering of the targeting pod LOS completed?
After a sequence point is acquired
18. When is a test considered failed?
After five consecutive attempts
3. What flight control surfaces provide lateral control for the F-15 aircraft?
Ailerons aided by horizontal stabs.
6. What happens if utility hydraulic pressure is lost?
Air loads force the first ramps and diffuser ramps up, and they automatically lock. The bypass door may or may not close.
9. Which TACAN mode of operation receives replies from other aircraft?
Air-to-air mode
4. What displays are indicated on the altimeter?
Aircraft altitude in 20-foot increments and barometric corrections in inches of mercury.
1. What is displayed on the standby AI?
Aircraft pitch and roll attitude at 360° roll, 92° climb and 78° dive.
3. What does the accelerometer counter set measure?
Aircraft vertical-axis acceleration forces (g-forces).
2. Describe in detail what happens when a wing stalls?
Airflow over the wing is destroyed by turbulence.
50. What information is displayed on the aircraft and helmet display presentation?
Airspeed, altitude, heading Mach number, and helmet status cues
10. Which ADP section performs most of the BIT function?
DP section.
2. What does the F-15E wide-field-of-view HUD display during INS alignment?
Alignment status.
11. What CARA functions are available in the backup mode?
All except LAW.
14. What happens when the flare jettison switch on the CMD control panel is moved to the JETT position, the CMD ground safety pins are removed, and the aircraft is WOW?
All flare and chaff will be immediately dispensed
30. What is provided when IFF emergency operation is enabled?
All normal modes (1, 2, 3/A, C, 4, and S) are automatically enabled, with normal sensitivity, even if they were not previously enabled.
37. The executive function interfaces with what program functions?
All other program functions.
57. What presentation is displayed on the HMD when HUD masking mode is selected and the HMD LOS is within the HUD masking zone?
All symbology except for the radar LOS circle will be removed from the HMD.
58. What presentation is displayed on the HMD when cockpit masking mode is selected and the HMD LOS is within the cockpit masking zone?
All symbology except for the radar LOS circle, SRM FOV and LOS circle, MRM visual launch symbology and PDT LOS symbology will be removed from the helmet display.
4. What function does the HOT MIC mode provide to the ICS?
Allows hands-free communication between cockpit and ground crew.
8. What is the advantage of choosing the maximum value of the right or left pitot pressure?
Allows the ADP to compensate for a plugged pitot probe.
20. What's the function of the EDM within the FCC?
Allows the FCC to communicate with the other avionic components on the MIL STD 1553 MUX bus
5. Why do you need a VHF AM radio on an aircraft?
Alternate link to control towers and other ground agencies
11. What does the short pointer on the standby altimeter indicate?
Altitude 10,000 feet
15. What switch applies a logic signal to the POL?
Altitude hold switch.
6. How is an INS BIT failure indicated on the MPD/MPCD?
An INS* on the MPD/MPCD BIT page.
6. What information does the ADC supply to the pitch computer?
An altitude error signal.
14. What change in fuel level is required for an in-phase current flow to occur through the bridge circuit's center wire?
An increase.
12. What is the BIT capability for the communication system?
An initiated BIT and a continuous BIT.
8. What is the RWR commanded to display when the band 3 ICMS is jamming?
An open X around the jammed threat on the TEWS display.
8. What signal is required to indicate a malfunction on the BCP?
An open.
1. What is defined as the acute angle between the chord of an airfoil and a line representing the undisturbed relative airflow?
Angle of attack.
23. What do the RLGs sense?
Angular movement of the aircraft.
31. Which air-to-air mode symbol is a V shape that moves along the bottom grid line indicating antenna (031) azimuth position?
Antenna azimuth caret.
7. What signals are applied to the RF switches in the high-band receiver?
Antenna inputs, ICMS jamming sample, RF BIT, and oscillator inputs.
17. What is anti-spoofing?
Anti-Spoofing (A/S) guards against fake transmissions of a satellite. It is a way for EGI to know the signal it receives is the correct signal from United States satellite, and not a false GPS satellite.
3. What LRU is used to initiate a HUD BIT or to program the HUD?
Any MPD or MPCD can be used.
14. Under which conditions will the ADP declare the pressure altitude signal invalid?
Any critical ADP fault, if both AOA inputs failed or static pressure failed.
16. When is a parity check initiated?
Anytime a variable is transferred (loading a storage register) or used (enciphering or deciphering a message).
12. If an avionics system fails, which lights will illuminate?
Applicable BCP light/AV BIT light on the caution lights display panel.
19. How long does a complete GC alignment take?
Approximately four minutes.
2. What's the relationship between altitude, temperature, and static pressure?
As altitude increases, Ps decreases; similarly, as altitude decreases, Ps increases. As temperature increases, Ps decreases; similarly, as temperature decreases, Ps increases.
20. How is the JHMCS coarse alignment cross positioned on the HUD?
At 0 degree azimuth and -2 degree elevation from the aircraft water line
52. When can the HMD be blanked and how?
At any time by pressing down on the control stick castle switch and holding forward for more than one second.
7. When can a maintainer run an initiated maintenance BIT?
At any time following the power-up BIT.
1. When does initialization BIT occur?
At system power up.
42. Where is the subtitle of a logic diagram located?
At the bottom of the figure.
8. When does the high-band receiver perform automatic BIT?
At the end of every other RF scan.
7. Where are the system drains located?
At the lowest point in the pitot-static lines.
1. What data does the HUD symbology provide?
Attack, navigation, aircraft attitude, and mode data.
14. What switch must be engaged before altitude hold will engage?
Attitude hold switch.
7. BIT for the APG-63(V)1 is divided into what two modes?
Automatic and Initiated.
4. What are the two methods of starting the dispense program?
Automatic or manual.
6. Explain the function of the pitch trim controller.
Automatically compensates for trim changes caused by accelerating from subsonic to supersonic flight, operating flaps or speed brake, or stores separation.
20. What's the purpose of the spin recovery aid function?
Automatically give full-roll authority if the yaw rate exceeds 60° per second.
18. What's the purpose of the automatic speed brake retract function?
Automatically retract the speed brake if the aircraft approaches a stall condition.
16. What's the purpose of the yaw rate limit function?
Automatically shut down the yaw CAS channel if the yaw rate exceeds 41.5° per second.
2. What happens when control stick force exceeds a predetermined amount?
Autopilot relief mode is interrupted and a new aircraft reference is established
2. What monitors and controls CMD initiate BIT on the F-15E?
Avionics interface unit number 1.
4. Name the functions of the EU.
BIT test controller, graphics processing, helmet position calculation, LOS computations, video record display generation, MCD storage, power distribution to other JHMCS components and interfaces JHMCS with peripheral systems.
7. Which BIT format does not interrupt normal operation?
Background BIT.
1. Which countermeasures sets make up the AN/ALQ-135 ICMS?
Band 1, band 2, and band 3.
79. (420) Which internal countermeasures antenna is a waveguide-fed horn pulse/continuous wave antenna? a. Band 1. b. Band 2. c. Band 3 forward up. d. Band 3 forward down.
Band 3 forward down.
13. What does the EADI on the F-15E display for TACAN?>
Bank steering bar information
11. What is mode C used for?
Barometric altitude coding (military and civilian traffic control).
9. What information does the ADP provide the EGI system?
Barometric altitude.
17. How does the laser determine range?
Based on the last valid return it receives from a given pulse (last pulse logic).
1. What unit combines the pitch and roll CAS inputs into a common output to drive the stabilators?
DSS section of the pitch computer
10. What is the purpose of the AIU's in the FDL system on the F-15E?
Battery power allows retention of the initialization data and crypto variables. In this position, the crypto variables cannot be zeroed using the CIPHER switch action. To load crypto variables, the MODE switch must be in HOLD or OFF.
61. What range of AOA (in cockpit units) can the buffet filter manually be selected to employ?
Between 20 and 40 cockpit units.
2. The blanker receives blanking pulses from how many input sources with the expansion?
Blanking pulses received from 13 source inputs.
25. In which F-15E radio systems are Have Quick AJ modes available and in which radio system are they not available?
Both UHF R1 and R2 but not the VHF portion of R2.
4. What do we call the layer of air extending from the surface of an object to a point where no drag exists?
Boundary layer.
18. How does the CC monitor the status of the MUX buses?
By analyzing its ability to communicate with each peripheral.
9. How is the pilot alerted to the presence of a threat?
By caution and launch tones in the headset, and/or AI/SAM lights on the MCCP, and/or threat symbology on the TEWS display unit.
43. Explain how the CC can be used for troubleshooting the avionics systems.
By examining the CC I/O memory data and the internal memory parameters of the CC database.
6. How is chaff and flare dispense activity indicated?
By flashing CHAFF and FLARE lights in the front and rear cockpit and decreasing stores inventories on the TEWS display.
9. How is the yaw CAS engage sequence started?
By moving the CAS switch from OFF, through the RESET position, to the ON position.
17. How do you turn on the ILS receiver on the F-15C/D?
By moving the VOL switch on the ILS control panel from the OFF position turns on the ILS receiver.
4. How does the aircrew initiate a manual 2 dispense command?
By pressing the CMD dispense switch on the left throttle grip up and releasing, or pressing the CMD dispense switch on the left hand controller aft and releasing.
3. What are the three ways the aircrew can initiate a manual 1 dispense command?
By pressing the trim switch on the control stick grip down and releasing, pressing the CMD dispense switch on the left throttle grip down and releasing, or pressing the CMD dispense switch on the left hand controller forward and releasing.
29. How do eddy currents cause distortion of the MTU's magnetic field?
By producing a secondary magnetic field that disrupts the MRU's reception of the magnetic field transmitted by the MTU.
16. In respect to JHMCS, how can the DTM convenience the pilot and aid avionics troops in trouble shooting?
By quickly configuring JHMCS with declutter programming and mask selection preferences and by storing JHMCS BIT log data that may be helpful in troubleshooting a malfunction.
66. How can the VTRS be commanded to record HMD at all times independent of the VIDEO CONTROL rotary switch position?
By selecting that option on the JHMCS MPCD main menu.
15. On the F-15C/D, how can R1 and R2 be keyed simultaneously?
By setting the ICCP TRANSMIT switch to R1-R2 and activating the throttle grip transmit switch forward or aft.
65. How can the HUD video be switched for recording by VTRS when JHMCS is off or the EU has failed?
By setting the VIDEO CONTROL rotary switch to HUD.
5. How are semiautomatic dispense commands initiated when a programmed response is available?
By the pilot pressing the CMD dispense switch on the left throttle grip up and releasing, or pressing the CMD dispense switch on the left hand controller aft and releasing.
14. How does the pilot adjust the altimeter so that it indicates zero on landing?
By using the observed station pressure as a baro setting.
2. Explain the differences between the BCP's continuous BIT and initiated BIT.
C-BIT runs whenever power is applied to the system /I-BIT runs when initiated by BCP; I-BIT is more thorough.
4. What switch position allows R1 to operate in secure speech mode?
C/RAD 1.
6. Which LRU routes serial radar altitude and altimeter status to AIU1A and AIU 2?
CARA R/T.
2. The accelerometer counter set is composed of what two LRUs?
CAU and CDU.
7. What systems provide inputs to the FDA for the HSI and AI display?
CC, ADF, TACAN, ILS, and AHRS.
30. Primarily, which unit sends signals to the HUD set?
CC.
4. What important function of the IOP allows information to be exchanged between the FCC channels?
CCDL
3. List and give a brief description of the two main LRUs associated with OWS.
CC—Digital computer that contains OWS software and performs the calculations. PSDP—A display processor that inputs various system parameters, formats them, and sends them to the CC to be used in the OWS calculations. Also processes OWS information to be displayed on the MICP.
1. What component changes nozzle position based on the engine setting?
CENC.
2. What computer system is used in addition to BIT to help achieve the contracted requirements for fault isolation in the APG-63(V)1
CFRS/CFI.
14. Which menu display is the main screen used with FDL?
COARSE.
2. Which FCC section contains the OFP?
CPU card.
38. What two light levels are compared by the automatic brightness circuits?
CRT light level and ambient light level.
9. What do you call a capacitor's opposition to the flow of AC?
Capacitive reactance.
4. Which FDL component provides operating power for the FDL R/T and TACAN R/T?
Castle switch
9. Which yaw CAS channel provides shutoff valve control and failure monitoring?
Channel C.
5. What new 311 feature makes transportation of the part easier?
Coffin handles.
4. What are the two operational modes of the RWR, and what are their functions?
Combat mode and training mode. Combat enables the RWR normal PFM along with the ICMS combat mode. Training mode enables the RWR alternative PFM along with the ICMS training mode.
17. What are the three types of words used on a MUX bus?
Command, status, and data.
16. What is sensor cueing?
Commanding the radar or targeting pod to look at specific points on a TSD
4. What's the main use for military FM radio?
Communicating with Army and other ground units.
16. What power does the indicator motor's fixed phase coil receive?
Continuous 115 VAC, shifted 90 in phase by a capacitor.
5. What does the AIU set supply to the UFC?
Control and display data.
4. What is the purpose of the synchro transmitter?
Convert a mechanical signal of energy used by the drive motor into a synchro signal corresponding to the rate of fuel flow. The transmitter then routes the fuel flow signal directly to the fuel flow indicator.
44. How do you decode an octal word?
Convert it to a 16-BIT binary word and then use tables from TO 1F-15A-2-31GS-42-1 to extract its information.
12. What is mode 4 used for?
Crypto security - IFF (military only).
15. What action will repeat the alarm checks and occasionally result in proper KY-58 operation?
Cycling the control box Power switch off and back on again.
1. List the DMS components.
DMP, MC, TC
10. Describe the functions of both the right and left AICs in regards to the rudder limiter system.
Dependent upon whether airspeed exceeds or decreases below Mach 1.5, the right AIC is used to either close or open an electrical circuit to energize or deenergize the rudder control relay, which in turn either limits the movement or permits full movement of the rudder pedals. The left AIC supplies the Mach signal for the RUD LMTER light if airspeed is above Mach 1.5 and the rudder limiter actuator has not engaged the stop mechanism, or if airspeed is below Mach 1.5 and the rudder limiter actuator has not disengaged the stop mechanism.
12. How is the launch tone inhibited?
Depress the TEWS LAUNCH DISABLE switch on the ICCP while the tone is present
22. How can you test the departure warning tone?
Depress the take-off-trim button to simulate a greater than 30° per second signal.
20. Which DMS BIT will display a failed SRU?
Detail BIT.
15. What does the F-15C/D attitude indicator display in the ILS system?
Deviation from glideslope and localizer, as well as warning flags if the received signals are not adequate.
6. What inputs are provided to the IFF transponder by the ADC? What are they used for?
Digital altitude information encoded into mode C. Used for automatic altitude reporting.
4. What is stored on the TC?
Digital map, DTED, and static data frames.
5. What function does the COLD MIC mode provide to the ICS?
Disables the microphone in the respective cockpit except when radio is keyed.
4. What type signal unlocks the diffuser ramp actuator at speeds greater than .84 Mach?
Discrete (ground) from the ADC.
15. Describe the static ring threat.
Displayed as circles centered around a point where the aircraft is potentially vulnerable to a defined threat.
1. Where is the KY-58 unit/adapter located?
Door 3R.
17. What direction will the indicator motor drive with an out-of-phase output from the amplifier?
Downscale.
1. What is the RWR capability in the training mode?
Due to using training threat table stores in the power supply, the display and response to threats is limited.
19. When is the SRM seeker position symbol displayed and what does it indicate?
During A/A-SRM mode and it indicates the direction the AIM-9L/M missile-seeker head is pointing.
15. When is the shoot cue displayed?
During MRM or SRM, or in SRM/GUN combined mode when the correct launch conditions exist.
3. When should manual mode be used for band 1 or band 2 operation?
During RWR or ICMS failure.
18. When is the SRM FOV reference circle displayed?
During SRM in the boresight, vertical scan, or supersearch automatic acquisition modes.
10. When is the A/G TD symbol displayed?
During all A/G modes, except in the MANUAL mode
17. When are the DSAs tested for stray voltage?
During initial system turn on and full initiated BIT.
8. On the TEWS indicating lights panel, when does the PROGRAM light flash?
During initiated BIT.
19. Which signals are used to vary the roll CAS output?
Dynamic pressure and AOA.
4. What three MPD/MPCD display formats are used to display INS information?
EADI, EHSI, and TSD.
8. In what position will the pitch ratio switch shut down the PRCA?
EMERG.
2. Name the JHMCS LRUs.
EU, CU, HVI, HDU, MTU, MRU, SPS and the HMD/VCP
16. What type of wire is used in the 1553 MUX bus and what is the data transfer rate?
Each 1553 MUX bus channel has a twisted shielded pair of wires that carries the digital signals at a 1 Mb/sec rate to and from the peripherals
10. What do the high-band antennas provide the RWR?
Each high-band antenna provides 90 of RF signal detection coverage to form a 360 receiving pattern around the aircraft. These antennas route the received RF signals to the high-band receiver.
2. Where are the hydraulic pressure transmitters located?
Each is located on the accessory manifold of the respective hydraulic system: PC 1, PC2 and utility.
7. What provisions are provided to check the AICs on the ground?
Each system has an AIC ground test switch which provides a preset test output from the AIC to the system actuators.
9. When does the TEWS display unit perform automatic BIT?
Each time the cross symbol in the middle of the scope is produced.
32. How long can the cockpit mapping procedure take?
Eight to 10 hours per cockpit.
1. The F-15 C/D APG-70 radar set is made up of how many major LRUs?
Eight.
13. What LRU is used to enter navigational data used by the EGI system?
Either UFC can be used.
4. What does it mean if the standby AI OFF flag is in view?
Either power is removed or PULL TO CAGE knob is pulled out.
11. What F-15E component controls the operation of the TACAN system?
Either the UFC or rear UFC.
3. What are the components of the N2 tachometer indicating system?
Electrical tachometer indicator, engine-driven alternator, and related wiring.
20. What is IFF mode S and what is it for?
Enhanced variation of both mode 3/A and mode C (air traffic control data for more automated control of air traffic).
24. On the F-15E ARC-210 UHF/VHF communication system, how do you select channel mode for VHF (R2)?
Enter the UHF submenu no. 2 and press and release the right GREG-C/M key until an * is displayed next to the preset channel displayed in the bottom UFC/rear UFC display row.
4. Which component controls the flow, pressure and temperature of the coolant which is evenly divided between the nose and roll section assembly and the cold plate on the APCC?
Environmental control unit
20. What's the purpose of the roll trim signal that's applied to the roll CAS computation circuits?
Establish a zero reference for roll CAS.
10. List the program functions making up the ADCP OFP.
Executive, A/A, A/G, NAV, FDL, controls and displays and computer self test functions.
36. What program functions are included in the OFP?
Executive, A/A, A/G, navigation, flight director, controls and displays, and self-test.
8. What peripherals talk on the 1553 MUX bus on the A through D models of the F-15?
F-100-PW-220 engines, radar data processor, PSDP, low band receiver/processor, INU, and band 3 oscillator.
4. What additional systems interface with the blanker on the F-15C/D/E model aircraft?
F-15C/D integrates with the TEWS Pod, while the F-15E integrates with the LANTIRN Navigation Pod.
13. What portion of the initiated BIT is performed only in the air? Why? What is the purpose of placing the radar power switch to the STBY position?
FBIT; Weight on wheels is false.
24. What does the continuous BIT monitor?
FDA and HSI power supply and signal parameters.
14. H009 MUX bus 2 links the CC with what systems?
FDA, indicator group, PACS, and radar data processor (081).
1. What LRU converts the interface systems signals into a 1-MHz format for the CC?
FDA.
16. Which LRU converts the systems signals into digital format?
FDA.
19. What unit develops the avionic status word?
FDA.
2. What LRU supplies the signals to control the displays on the AI associated with the HSI system?
FDA.
2. Which F-15C/D FDL component contains the controls used for modes of operation and what are the modes?
FDL receiver transmitter
3. Which FDL component are all TACAN signals are passed through?
FDL remote power supply.
15. Which menu display allows the aircrew to set up or modify the DTM data for their own aircraft. This data is normally loaded by the DTM during initialization?
FINE.
8. Which VHF systems need antenna tuning?
FM.
19. What purpose does the MPCD serve JHMCS?
Facilitates the selection of JHMCS operating modes and functions.
3. During initialization BIT, what does the low-band receiver processor test for?
Failures in the data registers and commands, power supply-to-low-band receiver processor communication failures, low-band receiver processor-to-high-band receiver communication failures, scanning hang-ups, constant firing interrupts, and initialization pass/fail.
3. What unit of measurement do you use for capacitance?
Farads.
10. What information does the EEPROM in the HDU store?
Fault and maintenance data storage.
7. Explain how the ASP indicates a malfunctioning system or LRU. What signal is required for this indication?
Fault indicator turns orange. A ground.
13. Where is the roll CAS command sent after it's computed?
Fed to the pitch-roll servoloop, or DSS.
10. What does the band 3 forward RF amplifier provide?
Final TWT amplification of band 3 oscillator signals, operating voltages to the band 3 oscillator, and pulse and CW RF to the magic tee and then sent to the band 3 ICMS forward up and down antennas
35. Why should an attack be stopped when ―Break-X‖ is displayed?
Firing a weapon at this point could possibly cause an explosion that would damage your own aircraft with debris
7. How many antennas does a VHF AM/FM radio need for communications and DF?
Five.
8. Why are two types of pitot-static tubing used?
Flexible tubing is used in areas of high vibration or where the line needs to bend, such as a door hinge or at the point of connection to an LRU. The rigid tubing is used anywhere the flexible tubing isn't required.
11. What is the purpose of the marker beacon antenna and where is it located?
Flush mounted in the nose landing gear door. It collects transmitted marker beacon signals aThree separate channels: one for the Localizer, one for Glideslope, and one for Marker Beacon signals.nd routes them to the ILS receiver.
8. How long is the standby AI indication good after power has been removed?
For a minimum of nine minutes after power removal.
2. During initialization BIT, what does the power supply test for?
For failures in the CPU, PROM, and RAM.
15. Assuming the EGI has been provided with a valid present position, how long will the GC alignment take to complete?
Four minutes.
5. How many hydraulic pump pressure switches are there on the F-15 and where are they located?
Four, one per pump, located on the accessory manifold of each hydraulic system.
1. A minimum of how many satellites are required for GPS to provide the most accurate information?
Four.
14. How many trim level detectors are used in each channel?
Four.
12. How many signals/voltages are required to fire a squib, and what are they?
Four; 28 VDC WOW signal from the essential bus circuit breaker panel through the energized left main landing gear relay number1, 28 VDC fire power signal from the essential bus circuit breaker panel through the DSA safety switches, 28 VDC logic power signal from the programmer, and a fire (dispense) command from the programmer.
2. Where does the CMD receive threat information?
From the AN/ALR-56C RWR.
18. How is the targeting pod's laser armed?
From the rear cockpit sensor control panel by putting the laser ARM switch in the ARM position.
7. How is the fuel flow signal routed to the EMD?
Fuel flow transmitters provide a synchro signal to the EMD.
15. What are the three types of CMD BIT?
Full initiated BIT, initiated inventory BIT, and continuous BIT.
16. What BIT is performed when the mode switch is placed to STBY?
Full initiated BIT.
36. Which air-to-air target symbol is a closed (colored in) box displayed on the MICP indicating target range and azimuth?
Full intensity target.
17. What are the two different types of INS alignments?
GC and STOR alignments
4. Which A/G mode is used for detection of trucks or convoys out to 32 nautical miles?
GMT mode.
10. What happens to the yaw CAS command during one rudder CAS operation?
Gain to the functioning rudder actuator is doubled.
8. What is mode 1 used for?
General identification (military only).
5. What are the two safety precautions that inhibit the commands to the DSA to start firing?
Ground safety pins are removed and weight is off aircraft wheels.
55. What options are available for HMD masking?
H (HUD masking only), C (cockpit masking only) and HC (HUD and cockpit combined masking).
7. What are the two types of MUX buses?
H009 and 1553.
53. Explain HMD masking and how it is different from declutter.
HMD masking refers to JHMCS ability to selectively remove data and symbology based on helmet LOS. Declutter removes DATA and symbology independent of helmet LOS.
9. What HSI device displays TACAN bearing?
HSI bearing pointer no. 1.
4. Which LRU displays analog signals from the FDA?
HSI.
5. Which LRU contains BIT fault monitor circuits that monitor servo operation to detect and indicate malfunctions?
HSI.
2. Which unit provides the symbology drive signals for the HUD DU?
HUD data processor.
35. The symbol reject signal prevents the HUD from displaying what data?
Heading, airspeed, altitude, pitch, AOA and in A/A, the velocity vector.
9. Which option enables the symbology on the HUD to be displayed on any MPD/MPCD?
Hud Repeater
14. What INU subassembly handles signal transmission between the INU and the peripheral avionics systems?
I/O section.
6. What ICMS information does the TEWS display unit provide?
ICMS program information (during RWR initiated BIT); jammed threat is identified as being jammed (when band 3 jamming is present).
7. What ICMS information does the MPCD provide?
ICMS status on the TSD and PACS A/A display; the TEWS BIT page provides selection to view either the ICMS BIT log or the detail BIT display.
11. What signal is routed out of the ICCP and back to the cockpit headset to let cockpit operators know if they are speaking too loud?
ICS sidetone.
14. What section of the ADC performs data conversion and provides the required interface between the air data sensors and the DP?
IDC
4. Which section of the ADP provides the conversion and required interface between the air data sensors and the DP section of the ADP?
IDC section.
36. What does the F-15E ADCP provide the IFF system?
IFF transponder mode control, code selection, and BIT control and reporting.
11. What is the difference between the sources of information received by the AI and HSI in the ILS/NAV and the ILS/TCN modes?
ILS/NAV is ILS with NAV mode information supplied, while ILS/TCN is ILS with TACAN information displayed.
2. Which component controls the operation of the F-15C/D TACAN system?
ILS/TCN control panel.
4. What are the primary signal sources for the autopilot system?
INS and ADC.
5. What INS information is supplied to the LANTIRN NAV and targeting pods on the avionics 1553 MUX bus?
INU operating mode, validity discretes, azimuth, pitch, pitch rate, roll, roll rate, yaw rate, direction of movement, present position, velocities, and acceleration.
12. Explain what happens if H009 MUX bus 1 or 2 fails.
If MUX bus 1 fails, 3 takes over; if MUX bus 2 fails, 4 takes over.
15. When would the targeting pod automatically mode itself to STBY?
If a coolant overtemp occurs for greater than 60 seconds on the ground or if a condition causing a gimbal protect shutdown occurs.
12. When are RWR failure messages transferred to the CC?
If a failure has occurred that causes the RWR fail light on the BCP to illuminate.
5. Where is the overheat switch located?
In the FTIT indicator.
8. On the F-15E ICS, where are the audio tone generators and synthesized voice generator located?
In the ICSCP.
7. Where are CMD BIT failures displayed in the cockpit/rear cockpit?
In the MPD/MPCD caution legend.
33. When would a second mapping procedure be required?
In the event of a canopy replacement or if the EU and MTU are replaced at the same time without transferring the MCD to the new components and no MCD for that particular aircraft exists for upload using a PLV NT.
11. How does the front or rear cockpit crewmember take command?
In the front cockpit, the pilot uses the stick grip castle switch. In the rear cockpit, the WSO uses the coolie hat switches on the hand controllers.
46. Where can you find the memory address of the input or output word you want to call up?
In the input and output data tables contained in the TO.
2. What is the RWR capability in the combat mode?
In using the combat threat tables, the RWR will display and respond to threats to its maximum capability.
6. Explain why the ARI requires the flap position signal?
Increase amount of rudder deflection for lateral stick movement.
10. If an increasing dielectric constant causes an increase in capacitance, what will happen to current flow through an AC circuit? How about if the dielectric constant decreases?
Increase; decrease.
5. What do the set fail lights indicate?
Indicate when a specific set (band) has failed.
14. Describe the symbol and purpose of a steer point.
Indicate where steering maneuvers will take place
3. What is the function of the display drum on the standby AI?
Indicates aircraft pitch and roll. Pitch markings are in 5° increments. Bank marks are at 0°, 10°, 20°, 30°, 60°, and 90° (on the bezel).
1. What are the components of the oil pressure indicating system?
Indicator, transmitter, caution light, EMS, and wiring.
19. Which BIT suspends normal DMP operations?
Initiated BIT.
19. What types of BIT does the HSI have?
Initiated and continuous BIT.
16. What's the purpose of the input system management within the F-15E AFCS?
Input system management maintains three independent computers within the FCC; these allow continued CAS operation when a failure exists.
4. Where is the programmable cartridge located?
Inside the DTIU.
6. Where is the low pressure switch located?
Inside the indicator.
9. Where are the roll trim relays located?
Inside the roll/yaw computer.
6. Where are the left and right rudder position transducers located?
Inside their respective vertical stabilators.
35. What information does the OFP contain?
Instructions necessary to do radar, general navigation, and weapon delivery computations.
9. Where is the BCP lights test switch located and what is its purpose?
Interior lights control panel; it lights all BCP lights so you can check for burnt out lamps.
1. What does the IFF AAI R/T provide to the AAI system?
Interrogation generation, reply evaluation, radar interface functions, monitors failures and provides system status and LRU status signals to the AIUs.
11. How are interrogations initiated?
Interrogations are initiated either manually using the multifunction switch on the throttle quadrant or automatically by the radar data processor when radar switches to tracking mode
3. How are the dipoles divided?
Into two sets of five antennas, one set for the sum channel and one set for the difference channel.
11. What permits improved viewing of the TSD display at night.
Inverse video.
2. Explain the purpose of the PITCH RATIO light?
It alerts the pilot when the pitch ratio switch is in the EMERG position and to exercise caution when inputting longitudinal commands. It also warns of improper pitch ratio or of another problem in the system.
5. What part does the MUX buses play in OWS?
It allows the CC to communicate with the ADC, PACS, HUD, and PSDP.
30. What happens to the current UHF manual or channel frequency setting in normal mode when AJ mode is selected?
It becomes the net number.
11. What is the function of the magic tee?
It combines band 3 forward amplifier CW RF and pulse RF signals into a single signal, splits the combined signal, and sends the split signal to the forward up and forward down band 3 ICMS antennas
2. Explain the fifth channel of the EGI GPS.
It constantly roves the sky and will acquire a satellite for several seconds to determine if that satellite would result in better satellite geometry information than any of the four currently used. If the information from the fifth satellite provides better satellite geometry, it is substituted for one of the four currently tracked satellites.
19. What roll does the roll/yaw computer play in the automatic speed brake function?
It contains the circuitry that activates the automatic retract relay if the true AOA is greater than 15.5°.
2. How is the yaw trim actuator different from the pitch and roll trim actuators?
It contains the relays which control the operation of the drive motor, plus two additional position LVDTs.
6. What is the function of the F-15C/D AAI control panel?
It contains the switches used to control the AAI system
8. What is the purpose of the ICSCP on the F-15E model?
It controls all audio signals to and from the headset-microphone circuits.
32. What is the purpose of the HOLD/NORM/ZERO switch?
It controls code retention in the transponder computer KIV-119 and the interrogator computer KIV-114
5. What is the purpose of the multifunction switch on the right throttle grip in the AAI system?
It controls manual AAI interrogation initiation.
9. What does the high-band receiver do with the RF it receives?
It converts these signals to an appropriate IF
28. What is the purpose of the WOD?
It defines the radio's frequency hopping pattern
10. What happens to the aneroid in the altimeter at higher altitudes?
It expands.
6. What is the function of the CW filter?
It filters the IF signal.
6. What is the purpose of the BINGO function?
It gives the pilot a BINGO FUEL light when the internal fuel pointer reaches any preset value. If fuel DUMP is selected, the aircraft forces fuel out the dump mast. Once the BINGO fuel level is reached, the fuel system automatically stops the fuel dump operations.
4. Describe the purpose of the longitudinal mass balance.
It helps to neutralize the effect of acceleration on the control stick during maneuvers
6. At speeds beyond Mach 2, what happens to the excessive drag produced by the bypass system?
It increases as Mach number increases.
19. What type of failure is indicated when the MPD/MPCD displays NAV POD COMP after BIT is run?
It indicates that the pod control computer has detected a PBIT or IBIT failure.
6. What is the purpose of ATAK?
It inhibits the ICMS from transmitting in either forward or aft hemispheres over predefined set of frequency regions
18. What is IFF mode 3/A, and what does it identify?
It is a combined civilian military mode with mode A being the civilian version. It provides further aircraft identification.
18. List some of the JHMCS HOTAS functions that can be initiated from the throttle grip.
JHMCS alignment, disabling uplook reticles on the HMD and missile seeker slaving
7. What is the purpose of the PRCA?
It is a hydro-mechanical device that basically functions as a computer. It receives control stick inputs, add hydraulic boost and varies the output ratio between lateral input and output, depending on airspeed, longitudinal input, landing gear position, and rate of change in yaw.
5. What is the function of the notch filter?
It is enabled when there is an undesired frequency anywhere in the bandwidth.
7. What is the purpose of the TCCP and what aircraft is it installed on?
It is installed only on F-15D model aircraft. It allows the cockpit in command to have control of the UHF, ADF, TACAN and ILS systems.
23. Where is the KIV-119 transponder computer located?
It is mounted on the IFF transponder
8. What happens to the received low-band RF signal in the low-band receiver processor?
It is received, amplified, and converted to channel A/low-band IF. As it is routed through the receiver, it is mixed with a local oscillator signal and then the low-band/band 1 IF signal is sent to the channel B receiver, processed, and returned to the low-band receiver processor as channel B IF and SPU video.
14. What happens to the pitch CAS authority during nose-up servo cylinder deflections that exceed 18°?
It is reduced.
4. How does the operation command data get from the aircraft to the data link pod?
It is sent to the DLP on the PACS/DLP MUX bus.
14. How is the squelch threshold set and who sets it?
It is set by the squelch control marked MAIN on the front of the R/T unit and is only set by AIS.
2. What's a shock wave and how is it produced?
It is the lower pressure air surrounding the aircraft in a waveform as the air is pushed by the aircraft at greater pressure. It is created when an aircraft flies or moves at transonic or supersonic speed, and the aircraft begins pushing or compressing the air in front of it.
7. How is final amplified band 2 RF signal sent to the band 2 antenna?
It is transmitted through pressurized waveguides
3. What function does the dynamic pressure sensor serve?
It is used to monitor pitot and static pressures, and apply the resulting Qc signals to the roll/yaw computer in order to limit the total differential stabilator deflection in roll CAS at high airspeeds.
17. What does the BCP provide the RWR?
It is used to start and monitor the BIT function of the RWR system.
5. What is the purpose of the PRCA?
It is used to vary the ratio between the control stick input and output to the control surfaces, depending on airspeed and aircraft response. It also boosts the input from the control stick to reduce the force required by the pilot to move the control surfaces.
4. What is the RDR ALT switch OVERRIDE position for?
It is used when the radar altimeter is disabled and allows manual TF operation when radar altimeter data is known to be incorrect.
37. What information is provided to the pilot when the lock-shoot lights flash?
It means that conditions have been satisfied for highest impact probability.
1. What is the purpose of the LANTIRN targeting pod?
It permits day or night delivery of IR guided AGM-65D/G maverick weapons and allows acquisition and tracking of targets for automatic handoff to the maverick missiles.
1. What is the purpose of the SFDR system?
It processes and records aircraft data for use in mishap investigations, individual aircraft tracking, recording structural loads, environmental monitoring, and engine use.
12. Explain the purpose of the flood horn (019).
It provides a backup, range-only tracking ability for gun attack. The data processor (081) can also command it to provide backup illumination for AIM-7 guidance after launch during certain conditions.
14. What information does the RWR detail BIT provide?
It provides a plain text interpretation of the BIT log.
3. What is the purpose of the RECCE pod?
It provides detailed ground maps for BIA and surveillance purposes. It also provides the ability to precisely geo-locate points of interest and conduct surveillance activities day or night, in adverse weather conditions.
3. What does the RDC provide?
It provides enough storage capacity to record at least three hours of FLIR digital video and serial binary data.
1. What is the purpose of the localizer transmitter?
It provides horizontal steering guidance (left or right of center) relative to the runway centerline
7. How many FOVs does the targeting pod provide the ADCP for display on the MPD/MPCD and what are they?
It provides the following three: the WFOV, NFOV, and the ENFOV.
4. What does glideslope provide and what is its frequency range?
It provides vertical steering guidance (up or down) based on a glide path. Glideslope information is amplitude-modulated on a UHF carrier in the frequency range between 329.15 MHz and 335.00 MHz.
8. What is the function of the summing network?
It receives RF samples from only band 1 and band 2 RF amplifiers and applies a composite output of these samples to the RWR high-band receiver for comparison to the initial threat data.
13. What is the purpose of the F-15C/D flight director adapter (FDA)?
It receives raw (analog) deviation and reliability alarm signals for localizer indications, glideslope indications, and marker beacon indications from the ILS receiver. It then converts the analog ILS signals into ILS digital signals and sends the digital information to the central computer, or AI.
14. During BIT or following an interrogation, what does the M/4 light provide?
It remains on steady to indicate that the APX-114 has not received time decoded video from the KIV after receiving a valid mode 4 reply.
18. What does the CC do after it processes the digital ILS information?
It sends the FDA computed steering signals for application to the AI for displays to drive the vertical and horizontal pointers, as well as the vertical pointer warning flag.
7. Describe the function of the rudder control breakout assembly?
It transmits input from the ARI into two separate push-pull cables, which in turn provide inputs to the left and right rudder rotary hydraulic servoactuators. In the event a malfunction occurs aft of the assembly that requires approximately 80 pounds or more of force to move the left or right rudder push-cable or prevents movement of the cable, the rivet for that particular cable will sheer to allow the other cable to continue normal operation.
6. When in the ―MED‖ air-to-air search mode, what range will the radar search?
It uses all MPRF to detect all-aspect targets from 10 to 80 nmi.
15. How does the LANTIRN TFR subsystem produce terrain following commands and where are they displayed for manual and AUTO-TF modes of operation?
It uses radar emissions to the ground and their return signals to produce terrain following commands and these commands are used as steering cues displayed on the HUD, EADI and TF display
21. What does the F-15E model use in place of the HSI and AI?
It uses the EHSI and EADI displayed on the MPD/MPCD.
3. Describe the function of the safety spring cartridges in the directional control system.
It usually acts as a solid link; however, spring tension in both directions allows rudder/brake movement to provide nose wheel steering and CAS operation if there is a jam in the directional control system mechanical linkage
10. When the pitch ratio switch shuts down the PRCA, how will it affect the way the PRCA uses the pitch ratio?
It will act as a fixed ratio bellcrank, providing an unboosted output and causing increased stick friction.
49. How does the pilot know when a new advisory is displayed on the HMD?
It will flash at a 2.5 Hz rate for one second then become steady.
5. When in the ―HI‖ air-to-air search mode, what range will the radar search?
It will search in the 20, 40, 80, and 160 nmi ranges and it uses all high PRF.
21. Describe the DTM.
It's a programmable, battery powered, nonvolatile memory device that transfers flight operations mission data to the CC.
9. Explain what the A/G reticle consists of and the purpose of each element.
It's made up of a 50-milliradian circle that is a reference for locating the pipper on the combining glass assembly, a range scale that is the reference for the range bar and is made up of points at 30 degree increments around the reticle circle, a range bar that indicates radar range-to-target, and a range index at the end of the range bar to locate the range bar past the 12,000-foot position.
17. List some of the JHMCS HOTAS functions that can be initiated from the control stick grip.
JHMCS alignment, HMD blanking and helmet radar mode selection.
24. Which IFF system component receives mode 4 interrogation video from the IFF transponder, determines the interrogation reliability, and codes a reply?
KIV-119 transponder computer.
3. Which KY-58 system LRU provides control functions and mode selection?
KY-58 Control Panel.
7. What LRU translates received secure speech communications into plain voice signals?
KY-58 unit/adapter.
4. What does the UFC send the AIU by way of the UFC data bus?
Key, switch, and status data.
7. Which function must be selected to unlock the PSA antenna on the data link pod to allow control of the weapon seeker by the vertical and horizontal slew commands?
LOCK.
3. What propagation characteristic do the VHF systems share?
LOS
6. Which warning light illuminates if the aircraft radar altitude descends below 75 percent of the terrain following set clearance value plus a predictive variable based on negative vertical velocity?
LOW ALT
6. Which pitch trim motor LVDT determines trim limits?
LVDT A.
4. What hydro-mechanical system provides a method of controlling the aircraft around its longitudinal axis?
Lateral control system.
10. What operator action can drain the KY-58 unit/adapter battery?
Leaving the FILL switch in the zeroize position.
5. Where is the ASP located?
Left side of nose landing gear wheel well.
6. What safety features are incorporated into the HVI?
Limited re-mate connectors and the short pin interlock on each of the male connectors between the CU and HDU.
2. What output does the AOA transmitter provide?
Local AOA.
17. What two signals are compared by the input system management in order to provide failure detection?
Local and selected signals.
14. What does the F-15C/D horizontal situation indicator display in the ILS system?
Localizer deviation and a warning flag if the received signal is unreliable
12. What ILS information is provided to the HSI and AI in the ILS/NAV and ILS/TCN modes?
Localizer deviation and reliability alarm on the HSI; glide-slope deviation, and reliability alarm on the AI.
24. What signals does the ILS receiver output?
Localizer deviation, validity and audio; glide slope deviation and validity; and marker beacon.
5. How many batteries does the FDL R/T contain and what do they provide?
Located on the right throttle grip and controls the acquisition symbol on the FDL display.
27. What is the primary A/A search mode and is used for detection and acquisition of both closing- and opening-rate airborne targets?
Long-range search (LRS).
9. When the ARI is energized, what inputs are applied to the directional control system?
Longitudinal, lateral, and directional
21. During the HSI initiated BIT, what must you do to verify that the HSI system is operating normally?
Look at the HSI and AI displays, ensuring that the indications are identical to those in the TO.
12. After completion of a mission, the pilot writes up the fuel quantity indications were fluctuating during maneuvers. What is the probable cause of this malfunction?
Loose or faulty wiring, or an improperly installed tank unit.
9. What RWR component exchanges threat and display data with the CMD programmer?
Low-band receiver processor.
7. Name subassemblies that make up the INU.
Low-voltage power supply, inertial sensor assembly, strapdown inertial navigation digital computer, signal converter, input-output section, and battery assembly.
3. In what position would you place the data select switch to enter or display magnetic variation?
M/V.
25. Name one type of data that cannot be transferred from the CC to the EU during initialization, and why it can't be transferred.
MCD. Because MCD is not stored in the CC due to the large file size of the MCD
6. Which data link pod function allows the pod to talk to the correct weapon and has eight operating modes available labeled A, B, N1, N2, J1, J2, C, and D?
MODE.
8. Which MUX Bus does the Fighter Data Link operate on?
MUX 7A/7B.
9. The EGI receives time of day, date, almanac data, initialization data, wander angle, barometric altitude, and position updates on which MUX bus?
MUX 8A/8B.
29. What MUX bus serves as a communication line between the CC and the INS?
MUX bus 5A and 5B.
5. What factor affects the inlet pressure recovery?
Mach number.
3. How is the drive motor connected to the momentum wheel in the transmitter?
Magnetically coupled.
3. What two pressures does the transmitter sense to provide an electrical signal to the oil pressure indicator?
Main and breather.
10. Explain the purpose of each pointer on the acceleration indicator?
Main pointer continually registers the aircraft g-units. There are two auxiliary pointers; one for the maximum positive g-units and one for the maximum negative g-units.
6. Explain the purpose of the accelerometer for the OWS system?
Measures the current G force on the aircraft and sends it to the CC.
28. What are metallic distortions?
Metallic distortions are irregularities in an electromagnetic field caused by the presence of metallic structures and the positions of those structures.
5. What type of data is stored on the MC?
Mission specific points, digital map, DTED, and data frame information.
7. What system component divides the longitudinal input into two separate outputs?
Mixer assembly
33. On the F-15E, what IFF system operating controls does the RICP provide?
Mode 4 enable, sensitivity control and emergency enable signals interface with the IFF transponder. Code zeroize/hold, code selection, mode 4 audio control and reply light control interface with the transponder computer.
21. Which IFF mode's pulses are a series of pulses developed using cryptographic techniques that provide secure identification of the aircraft?
Mode 4.
19. Which IFF mode is used for both civil and military aircraft and provides altitude data to the interrogating system?
Mode C.
9. Describe HDU camera.
Monochromatic with a 20 degree FOV and an automatic brightness control
2. What LRUs do the UFCs directly interface with?
Most of the A-D model control panels.
13. What system initiates all of the F-15E's BIT functions?
Multi-purpose Display System.
10. What are the two functional subsystems of the NAV pod?
NAV FLIR and TFR.
1. Which NAV pod component responds to control signals based on the status of other subsystems in the NAV pod?
NAV pod power supply.
6. What modes can be selected by the STEER MODE switch for display on the HSI?
NAV, TCN, ILS/NAV, and ILS/TCN.
1. What components make up the RLG INS?
NCI panel, INU, battery, and INU mount
16. What component allows you to select the type of INS alignment?
NCI.
3. Aside from pilot directed maintenance, are you allowed to deviate from the BIT and CFRS/CFI instructions?
NO! Any deviation could void the equipment warranty
11. List the NAV FLIR submodes
NORM and BRST.
12. When in TF radar mode, what submode provides the best combination of system operational parameters?
NORM submode.
10. Does the autopilot try to oppose the pilot moving the control stick when attitude hold is engaged? Explain
No, it interrupts attitude hold and allows a new reference to be established.
4. What flight line repairs can you perform on the accelerometer?
None, LRU is hermetically sealed.
12. How much current flow is measured through a bridge circuit's center wire when the bridge is balanced?
None.
13. Where does the ADP store BIT codes for failed test functions?
Nonvolatile memory.
3. Where is the BIT and operational data stored in the FCC?
Nonvolatile memory.
28. List the F-15C/D transponder operating modes
Normal (modes 1, 2, 3/A, C, 4, and S), emergency, low sensitivity, standby, and off.
24. What's used to sense aircraft response in the pitch CAS channel when the landing gear is up, and when the gear is down?
Normal acceleration and the rate gyro assembly when the gear is up; rate gyro assembly when the gear is down.
11. Which component(s) has a CRYPTO switch which may be used to zeroize FDL crypto codes on the F-15E?
Normal operating position. Allows full participation in the link 16 community. Provides full transmit and receive ability.
4. What are the four modes of ADCP operation?
Normal, Degraded, Emergency Power, and Test.
14. What is the normal time for the targeting pod to achieve detector cool down once the pod power switch is put in STBY?
Normally takes 5 to 8 minutes.
5. What two commands are generated when the PITCH TRIM switch is placed in the NOSE-UP position?
Nose-up trim command and the nose-up/nose-down trim command
5. What does the engine nozzle indicator display?
Nozzle position, 0-100% Open in 10% increments.
7. What warning light illuminates to warn the aircrew of an obstacle appearing in the aircraft flight path as detected by the TFR and requiring more than 2 G to clear?
OBST.
6. Which ADP section conditions ADP signals for interfacing with the indicators and other onboard systems?
ODC section
18. How are HSI invalid conditions displayed?
OFF flag, the display moves out of view, crossbar moves over the display, or a pointer continuously rotates at 30 per second.
7. If oil pressure in either engine drops to below 8 +- 1 psi for longer than five seconds, what indication will be displayed?
OIL PRESS and MASTER CAUTION lights.
10. List the five BIT history matrices available
ORT matrix, G-BIT matrix, F-BIT matrix, CM matrix, and FRESH matrix.
13. On the F-15E sensor control panel, what is the function of the MODE selector in the NORM position?
OWN DATA.
2. List and give a brief description of the OWS component(s).
OWS Reset Switch—a two position momentary toggle switch in the NLG wheel well; it clears the matrix.
9. What type of BIT is started when the radar is switched from OFF to OPR or EMERG?
POST when executed at ―Operate/Emergency Cold start.‖
5. What components of the flight control system compose the CSBPC?
PRCA, ARI, and the lateral control stick damper in lateral.
4. Where is the nozzle position transmitter located?
On the CENC under door 117 L/R.
54. From where and how is the masking mode and its options selected?
On the MPCD from the JHMCS main menu by using the push button next to the MASK legend to cycle through the masking options
1. Where is the display for JHMCS projected?
On the backside of the helmet's visor
7. Where will a failure of the left AIC be displayed?
On the caution lights display panel and avionic status panel (fault indicator No.6 will be orange).
7. When and where is the ICMS conflict cue displayed?
On the radar display when band 3 is transmitting from the forward antennas within the radar frequency range.
3. Where is the radar altimeter switch located?
On the sensor control panel.
8. Where are the fuel quantity system adjustment screws located on the F-15C, D, and E aircraft
On the signal conditioner.
9. What does the F-15C/D ILS/TCN control panel provide?
On/off control, volume adjustment, and frequency selection capability.
16. What causes the trim motors to stop driving once they reach the TOT position?
Once the trim level detectors sense that the trim actuators are in the TOT position, the TOT logic circuits stop the applicable trim relays from driving the trim motors.
19. How many times is "WARNING, FTIT OVERTEMP LEFT/RIGHT" repeated?
Once, after a two-second pause.
25. What data sets are displayed when using the DTM directory function?
One CC data set and one or two PSDP data sets.
27. Which F-15C/D IFF system switch(s) must be turned on in order to power on the transponder?
One of the IFF control panel mode switches (M1, M2, M3/A, MC or MODE 4) must be moved to the ON or A/B positions to power on the transponder.
3. Where are the pitot-static probes located on the F-15 aircraft?
One on door 3R and one on door 3L.
11. How many types of payload can each stores magazine carry?
One.
44. How many manually initiated BITS are there and what are they?
One; the IBIT.
45. Does the PBIT provide an indication if it detects a LRU failure?
Only if all redundant functions have failed
9. Which axes does the attitude hold mode maintain?
Only pitch and roll.
15. Emergency replies are available in what modes?
Only the SIF modes (modes 1, 2, or 3/A).
10. On the F-15D model, which cockpit has control of the ILS system?
Only the cockpit that has command on the TCCP will be in control of the ILS system functions.
17. When will the SAI pointer move?
Only when there's a change in impact pressure.
12. When can band 1 and band 2 intermittent BIT be performed?
Only with the ICMS in the auto mode.
16. Which ADC section provides signal conditioning for associated system interface?
Output data converter.
6. How is final amplified band 1 RF signal sent to the band 1 antenna?
Over a coaxial transmission line.
6. On the KY-58, which switch position permits normal operation of the radio system?
P (plain) position.
6. Explain the function of each switch on the ASP.
PACS switch - permits the weapons system initiated BIT. Reset button - resets all latched ASP indicators from orange to black. Test Button - simultaneously tests all ASP indicators and sets all ASP indicators to orange.
33. What DTM transfer status display comes up if some data is transferred but some is missing?
PARTIAL XFER.
13. Which LRU receives serial digital data from the CC and radar set, analog and discrete data from the radar set, and a composite video signal from PACS?
PSDP.
23. What component does the DTM interface with?
PSDP.
11. What action will display the BIT history matrices?
Performing standby-initiated BIT will display the matrices.
9. What is the purpose of the ORT?
Performs system tests and calibration on individual LRU and the entire radar set to establish a high level of confidence that the radar will do its mission satisfactorily.
12. List the different types of BIT that the CARA system provides? Explain each.
Periodic and initiated; Periodic BIT is activated at power application and occurs two or three times every second. The initiated BIT is activated by the MPD/MPCD by pressing RALT/LANT on the BIT display and lasts approximately two seconds and interrupts operation and checks all circuitry.
30. Explain permeability distortion.
Permeability distortion is caused when the MTU's pulsating magnetic field is absorbed and redirected by surrounding metallic structures causing the magnetic field to bend and distort.
9. What is mode 2 used for?
Personal identification (military only).
5. What are the four inputs to the ARI that help with turn coordination?
Pilot command, pitch and roll inputs, hydraulic pressure, and a flap signal.
5. What signals are input from the INS?
Pitch and roll attitude, INS valid, and vertical velocity valid.
7. Where does the pitch gimbal stop to prevent a gimbal lock?
Pitch gimbal stops at ±85° to prevent gimbal lock.
3. What provides a visual indication of the output ratio between the input and the output of the PRCA in the pitch channel?
Pitch ratio indicator
33. The HUD set displays what scale and symbols in the secondary mode?
Pitch scale, A/A reticle, aircraft symbol, and gun-cross symbols.
32. The INS sends what signals to the AFCS?
Pitch, roll, and vertical velocity.
1. What term is used to describe movement around the lateral axis?
Pitch.
16. What pressures are applied to the SAI?
Pitot and static pressure.
7. What does the pitot-static system provide to the automatic flight control system?
Pitot and static pressures to the dynamic pressure sensor
3. What signals are provided to the AIC for ramp positioning?
Pitot-static pressure, total temperature, diffuser and first ramp actuator position, AOA, and a diffuser actuator lock/unlock signal from the air data computer.
12. What inputs are simulated by the ADC initiated BIT?
Pitot-static pressures, total temperature signal, AOA signal, and baro pot signal.
14. How is the initiated BIT test activated on the ICCP?
Place the BCP system select switch to COMM and pressing the initiate button.
7. What is the normal configuration for the programmer jumper plugs?
Placed in the stored position unless specialized TEWS pod programming is required.
10. How is a BIT initiated on the fuel quantity indicating system?
Placing the SELECTOR switch on the fuel quantity indicator to the BIT position.
1. What type of inputs does the ADC use to compute the outputs to the using system?
Pneumatic and electrical inputs.
8. What type of BIT is started when the radar is switched from OFF to STBY?
Power on self-test (POST) when executed at ―Standby Cold start.‖
12. List the three types of ADP BIT.
Power on, continuous, and initiated.
6. What types of BIT are available for the UFC?
Power-on, continuous monitor, and initiated.
6. What are the four types of BIT tests?
Power-up, background, maintenance, initiated.
3. Radar returns yield what type of information about a target?
Presence, direction, range, and velocity are types of information that can be measured by radar.
13. What action puts the KY-58 in a standby condition?
Pressing and releasing the MIC switch.
12. Explain how interrogation processing works
Pressing the multifunction switch on the right throttle grip to the IFF interrogate position initiates the AAI interrogation. The interrogate command is signal from the multifunction switch enters interrogate control circuitry within the radar data processor (081 or 082). The interrogate command is sent as part of a data word that is transmitted between the radar programmable signal processor (042 or 044) and the APX-114. Data to the APX -114 is made up of information required for interrogation and reply processing. The APX- 114 tests the data word for parity (validity).
13. What are the five distinctive sections of the ADC?
Pressure sensors, power supply, input data converter, digital processor, output data converter.
15. What's the purpose of the AC interlock?
Prevent all three axis of CAS from engaging if a stick force sensor is disconnected.
12. What are the targeting IR formats available in both A/A and A/G modes?
Primary (T1) and setup (T2).
12. When is the sync enabled?
Prior to engaging attitude hold.
18. How does the FDL system keep the transmission secure and jam resistant?
Properly loaded FDL TERM data, a common channel number (either mission or fighter channel), a host to establish the NTR, time sync with the NTRs established time, and common crypto codes.
20. List the 5 things need for the pilot to achieve FINE synchronization and fully communicate along the L-16 network.
Properly loaded FDL TERM data, a common channel number (either mission or fighter channel), a host to establish the NTR, time sync with the NTRs established time, and common crypto codes.
8. What's the purpose of the F-15E AFCS?
Provide a uniform response to pilot input regardless of changing in-flight conditions.
39. What tasks are performed by the flight director function?
Provides TACAN, NAV, and ILS steer mode processing for display on the HSI. It also performs range and bearing or steering computations for display on the ADI and HUD in TACAN, NAV, and ILS steering modes.
21. What's the function of the roll/yaw computer as it relates to the spin recovery function?
Provides a ground for a relay that allows full-roll authority.
8. What is the purpose of the PVU mode LAN/SEA function?
Provides a normal PVU to include estimating azimuth and elevation pointing errors. LAN is selected when flying over land and SEA is selected to stop the system from estimating pointing errors.
13. What is the function of the preamplifier?
Provides initial system amplification of the received RF threat signals from the RWR high-band antennas and routes them to the band 3 oscillator.
5. What's the purpose of the opening in the forward end of the pitot tube?
Provides the means of gathering RAM air for airspeed calculations.
1. Describe the three air pressures associated with the pitot-static system.
Ps is ambient atmospheric pressure. Pt is the combination of both impact and static pressure. Qc is the pressure of RAM air minus static pressure.
7. When transmitting on the ARC-210 (R2), which position is the MIC switched pushed for UHF and VHF?
Push the transmit switch forward for UHF and aft for VHF
2. Unlike the lateral and longitudinal systems, what type of mechanical input makes up the directional control system?
Push-pull cables
14. What is the difference between R1 and R2?
R1 is the ARC-164 UHF radio system and R2 is the ARC-210 UHF/VHF radio system.
29. What components can receive a TOD?
R1 or R2 over any UHF frequency.
2. Explain the purpose of the RBM mode.
RBM is used to provide a conventional mapping mode for low resolution ground mapping, weather returns or for HRM cueing.
Where is the APG-63(V)1 radar OFP stored?
RDP (385).
34. Which MRM range symbol indicates range at which the target cannot ―turn and run‖ to evade your missile?
RTR .
8. Which mode switch position enables reception of manually or automatically keyed variables from a transmitting station?
RV position.
4. What are the seven major LRUs in the APG-63(V)1 radar?
Radar control panel (342), receiver/e (325), transmitter (311), analog signal converter (338), radar data processor (385), power supply (310), and antenna (031).
6. List the major LRUs of the APG-63 radar set.
Radar control panel (541), power supply (610), RF oscillator (001), transmitter (011), receiver (022), analog processor (039), data processor (081), programmable signal processor (042), antenna (031).
3. Which NAV pod component controls antenna positioning, schedules radar transmissions and preprocesses the received radar video information?
Radar interface unit.
16. What information does the central computer provide to the band 3 oscillator?
Radar operating frequencies, aircraft altitude, and aircraft speed to the band 3 oscillator.
2. What information does the radar/RWR interface provides?
Radar predicted transmit channels and timing.
4. What NAV pod component uses control signals from the radar interface unit to gate and amplify the RF input from the receiver?
Radar transmitter
32. The HUD uses the signals from what systems for symbol positioning during secondary mode?
Radar, INS, and AHRS.
14. What information does the central computer provide the RWR?
Radar, TACAN, attitude, altitude, and velocity data to RWR for computation of threat location.
3. What other equipment works in conjunction with the IFF interrogator?
Radar.
4. Explain range gated high PRF.
Range gated high PRF is an intermediate PRF that falls between HPRF and MPRF. The pulses are spaced a little farther apart than in HPRF, but not quite as far as in MPRF. This produces some of the desirable effects of both the old waveforms.
16. On the F-15C/D, which switch allows ILS data to be displayed on the HUD?
The ADI mode switch
2. Where is the DMP located?
Rear cockpit on the right console.
1. Where is the actual FTIT temperature indication taken from?
Rear fan duct.
6. Which TACAN mode of operation is considered the passive mode and provides bearing, to-from, and course deviation information for display?
Receive mode.
21. When the FDL system fails, where are the failures kept for use with the computerized fault reporting system (CFRS) for maintenance debriefing?
Recorded to the DTM.
6. What is the purpose of the control stick damper, and how does it perform this function?
Reduce oscillations in the control stick by using bar magnets and a drag cup that rotates through the bar magnet when the control stick is moved.
11. What is the purpose of the azimuth steering line?
Referenced with respect to the velocity vector, the azimuth steering line is used to aid in directing the aircraft to the target.
1. What did TCTO 1F-15E-807 change in the F-15E aircraft?
Removed the CC and MPDP, replaced with the ADCP.
13. What does declutter do for the pilot?
Removes a selected group of information from the TSD. If the DCL is pressed again, another level of information is removed. When pressed again, the TSD is returned to its initial state.
6. What does BIT matrix A contain?
Reports for all failures detected in the current BIT cycle.
7. What does BIT matrix B contain?
Reports for those failures that have met the Double 5/7 rule and caused a latch to set. It also contains reports for failures that met the first 5/7 rule but not the second and therefore did not get confirmed.
20. What does the HSI initiated BIT do?
Resets the HSI indicator (latches it to black), causes the HSI light to flash for two seconds, and produces HSI and AI test indications.
9. Which ADP performs operational communications on the 1553 MUX bus?
Right ADP.
5. Where's the counter accelerometer unit located?
Right main landing gear wheel well.
9. What throttle grip switch provides the control and interface to enable the FLIR snap-look and look-into-turn alternatives?
Right multifunction switch.
21. How are the command signals applied to the stabilator servo cylinders?
Roll CAS commands are applied to the DSS amplifier in the pitch computer which combines them with pitch CAS commands and then applies it to the stabilator EHVs.
17. In addition to the RESET and ON logics, what other requirements are needed to engage roll CAS?
Roll CAS not failed, yaw CAS engaged, and stabilators engaged (DSS not failed).
14. What inputs are provided to the ARI?
Roll input applied from the PRCA by a control rod, longitudinal input from the PRCA by way of an interconnect cable, and pilot rudder pedal input.
11. What modifies the lateral input to the PRCA for variations in airspeed, longitudinal linkage position, and landing gear position?
Roll ratio controller
13. Under what conditions does the ROLL RATIO light illuminate?
Roll ratio switch failure; the switch is placed in the EMER position; roll ratio is not at the proper setting, as determined by the airspeed and landing gear position; the rudder limiter system is activated (at approximately 1.5 Mach) and the roll ratio airspeed valve has not shifted to minimum.
4. Which LRU contains the control circuits for the trim system?
Roll/yaw computer.
20. How do you use manual mode of operation on the F-15C/D ARC-210 (R2)?
Rotate the mode select knob on the ICCP to MAN, and again select the desired frequency by rotating the FREQ/JTIDS selection knobs on the ICCP.
1. Which engine indications are displayed on the EMD?
Rpm, FTIT, Fuel Flow, Nozzle Position, and Oil Pressure.
7. Where are the DMP circuit breakers located on the aircraft?
Rt. CB panel #3.
14. What signal differences are monitored during yaw CAS?
Rudder actuator position LVDT signals. Channel A and B signals are monitored for large differences or small long-standing differences.
8. What component prevents excessive rudder deflection when the aircraft exceeds 1.5 mach?
Rudder limiter.
13. To what position are the control surfaces positioned when in the TOT position?
Rudders and ailerons at neutral, and the control stick at 1 aft (5 stabilator tailing edge up).
5. What is the RECCE pod mode of operation with weight-on-wheels?
SAFE mode.
14. What are the available NAV FLIR LOS alterations?
SNAP LOOK and LOOK-INTO-TURN
1. Why was a synchro style indicating system used on the F-15?
Save weight and space and more reliable.
17. The receiving function of the APG-63 radar is divided into what two broad categories?
Search and track.
6. In what mode does the HUD operate if the CC should fail?
Secondary mode.
9. What are positions 1 through 6 used for on the KY-58 unit/adapter fill switch?
Select memory location.
10. Which F-15E component determines what combinations of modes, codes, master modes, and bars that are interrogated when an AAI interrogation is commanded?
Selections on the UFC's submenu.
13. What does the SPS do?
Senses the seat position in order to compensate for changes in the magnetic environment of the cockpit caused by different seat positions
8. Which component provides the operator interface for the radar altimeter, TFR system and NAV FLIR sensor?
Sensor control panel.
3. What type of data does the AIU use to interface with other aircraft systems?
Serial.
13. Which targeting IR format provides manual focus, electrical boresight, and gray scale options?
Setup (T2).
2. How many thermocouple probes are located on each engine and how are they arranged in relation to the engine?
Seven surrounding the circumference of the rear fan duct, connected in parallel sense FTIT for each engine.
11. While performing a fuel quantity operation check, you notice the total pounds counter reads 35,000 lbs above what the reading should be. What is the probable cause?
Shorted wiring or a faulty tank unit.
16. What is sidetone and what is its purpose?
Sidetone is a portion of the intercom or transmitted voice signal sent back into the headset so you can hear what you are saying while transmitting. It gives the person transmitting positive feedback that all is "well" with their radio and helps keep their voice at a normal conversation level.
5. Explain the degraded mode of operation.
Simple failure detected and stored in the bridge module's fault log. Bus split—functioning bus automatically selected. Bridge module failure—ADCP operates on the main bus.
22. Why does a failure of the pitch CAS cause the roll CAS to shut down? When can roll CAS be reset?
Since the DSS monitor circuits are in the pitch computer, a failure of the pitch channel also causes the roll channel to shut down. Roll CAS can be reset if the failure only affects the pitch CAS circuits.
22. During which BIT are the faults detected by the radar displayed?
Standby IBIT.
9. Explain how the pointers are moved in the standby altimeter.
Static pressure is applied to an aneroid sensor which compresses or expands the aneroid. The movement of the aneroid is mechanically connected, through a series of multiplying gears, to the pointers.
27. What is waypoint data, and how many waypoints can be loaded into the CC?
Steer-to points or target points for a specific mission; 30.
22. What data does the flight director symbol provide?
Steering data during ADI mode.
30. The CC computes what signals to a selected destination?
Steering, distance, and time-to-go.
10. List the components that transfer the flight control input from the stick to the ailerons?
Stick, damper, lateral FTA, PRCA, mixer, safety spring cartridges, actuators.
5. Which switch on the GND PWR control panel applies power to STANDBY ATTD IND circuit breakers?
Switch 2.
18. What produces the triplex discrete signals on the aircraft?
Switches or relay contacts.
31. What action does the HUD data processor take if the CC-go signal is missing?
Switches to the secondary mode, receiving data directly from the radar, INS, and AHRS
4. Describe the physical characteristics of a hydraulic pressure indicator?
Synchro type, lighted, clamp mounted, 1 inch in diameter.
14. What indicates the KY-58 did not pass the alarm checks?
System alarm does not stop when the MIC switch is cycled.
3. Explain the function of the lights and each switch on the BCP.
System select - selects system to be tested. Initiate button - starts test. CC reset button - resets the CC. Reset-Recall - resets or recalls all avionic BCP lights. BCP lights - come on if system is off or failed, during recall, during BIT; flash during BIT.
8. Where is ICMS status and activity displayed?
System status and activity is displayed on the MPCD and the TEWS display unit
5. Where does the AIU1A route TACAN data?
TACAN R/T.
3. What signals does the FDA supply to the CC?
TACAN data, HSI mode, glide-slope and localizer deviation, course set, heading set, reliability alarms.
5. Which data link pod function allows the aircraft and weapon data link to be tested before weapon release?
TEST.
5. What switch allows the AFCS to control the aircraft during automatic TF operation?
TF couple switch.
5. Which NAV pod component broadcasts the high-power RF pulses and receives the target returns?
TFR antenna/gimbal.
9. Name the two operating modes of the DMS?
TSD or data frame.
4. How is range to the target calculated?
Target range is calculated measuring the time between transmission and reception of a pulse. The space between pulses is ―listening time.‖ If the space is long enough, as in a MPRF transmission, the echo returns to the antenna before the next output pulse is sent out, allowing a direct measurement of the time between transmission and reception.
9. When AAI MASTER switch on the AAI control panel in the AUTO position on the F-15C/D, what controls the challenge mode and the interrogation time-out period?
Target range, target bearing, target classification, correlate command, AAI overload, and wide target signals.
21. What does a flashing velocity vector indicate?
That the data to the CC is degraded or the velocity vector is caged in the ADI mode.
16. What is the indication when the ICSCP passes a BIT check?
The "COMM IN TEST" disappears from the MPD/MPCD and the ASP fault indicator 56 remains black.
11. What does the programmable signal processor (042) provide?
The 042 performs target detection, filtering, range measurement, target parameter calculations, clutter canceling, and IFF (identification friend-or-foe) correlation. It also provides radar display parameters to the IG.
14. During the transmitting function, which component sends the frequency selection to the RFO?
The 081.
9. What MUX bus and which channels does the INU use to communicate with the CC?
The 1553 avionics MUX bus (5A/5B).
8. What tester would you use to check out the data link pod system or to troubleshoot it?
The 224 APITS
1. What does the VTRS system record?
The 8 mm VTRS records inflight color video of the MICP, HUD and MPCD.
12. What's the purpose of the A/A gun reticle?
The A/A reticle is used as a reference for the pilot to aim the F-15's 20 mm gun.
15. Which symbol is made up of a 50 milliradian circle, pipper, range scale, range bar, and range index?
The A/G gun reticle.
10. Which display format is not available on any MPCD?
The A/G radar display format.
38. Explain the air-to-ground ranging mode.
The A/G ranging mode uses LPRF to determine the slant range from the aircraft to a ground point. It is used primarily for bombing/gun strafing.
7. How does the ADC tie in with the environmental control system?
The ADC provides Mach and airspeed discretes to control RAM air and bleed air to the primary heat exchanger.
16. Where does the synchronization of the altitude signal occur?
The ADC.
22. Where does the IFF transponder receive altitude data for mode C?
The ADC.
4. What is the function of the ADCP in the HUD system?
The ADCP processes all video and display symbology for displays on the HUD and MPD/MPCD. The ADCP provides mode control and display computations for the HUD.
1. Where does the HUD unit receive its symbol drive and unblanking signals from?
The ADCP.
11. Which component uses inputs from EGI to provide a backup source of attitude for the aircraft in the event of an INS failure?
The ADCP.
15. Which F-15E component controls the display of TACAN data on the seven MPDs/MPCDs and on the HUD?
The ADCP.
6. Which LRU determines if an FTIT overtemp condition exists?
The ADCP.
13. What is the purpose of the AIU in the CARA system?
The AIUs process UFC data and converts ADCP commands to discrete data for the CARA R/T. It also routes a CARA status signal to the ADCP if the MUX line fails.
2. What two types of signals are primarily transmitted by the APG-63 radar
The APG-63 radar uses high PRF (HPRF) and medium PRF (MPRF) primarily for transmission.
13. Where is the ASE circle located on the HUD?
The ASE circle is displayed centered on the aircraft symbol.
12. What control will cycle between the BIT history matrices?
The AUTO-ACQ/REJ switch cycles between the five matrices
10. What component starts and monitors the BIT function of the CMD system?
The BCP.
5. What can the pilot set to a predetermined position to automatically stop fuel dumping?
The BINGO fuel indicator.
8. Name the IBS BITs.
The BIT circuits consist of the continuous BIT, initiated BIT, and fail-safe circuits.
10. What will be displayed when running an IBIT with the power switch in STBY.
The BIT matrices will be be displayed.
6. How does the CARA system measures the aircraft's altitude?
The CARA system transmits a FM/CW RF to the ground. A portion of the transmitted RF energy is reflected from the surface below the aircraft. The receiver computes the altitude and altitude status based on the signal travel time.
12. Under what condition(s) does the VTR CAUTION light come on?
The CAUTION light comes on/flashes when any of the following exists: an input power problem exists, cassette tape is near end or has run out, moisture is detected inside video tape recorder, video heads are contaminated, some other malfunction exists or with record mode enabled red tab on tape cassette is out, no cassette is inserted.
23. What LRU controls the states of JHMCS?
The CC
28. The H009 MUX bus is the communication link between what two INS related components?
The CC and NCI
14. From where does the FDA receive its commands?
The CC and the STEER MODE switch
15. What decides which data is processed by the FDA?
The CC and the STEER MODE switch
6. On the F-15A and C model, what components can be loaded using the PLV/NT via the MLV receptacle?
The CC and the band 3 oscillator.
7. What is the purpose of the TDC and where is it located?
The CC for the F-15C/D and the ADCP for the F-15E.
27. The INS interfaces with what avionics systems?
The CC, radar, HUD, AFCS, AHRS, and BIT systems
4. On the F-15C/D, what component receives multiplexed TACAN data from the FDA and uses this data to compute course deviation, course deviation warning, TO-FROM indications, and bank steering?
The CC.
6. Which switch on the control stick grip is used for FDL control?
The CC.
64. What LRU controls the video source being recorded when JHMCS is operational?
The CC.
19. List the HSI indicators used for ILS localizer steering information.
The CDI bar and the course deviation warning flag.
8. Which LRU drives the engine nozzle position transmitter?
The CENC.
10. When is CM testing performed?
The CM testing is performed on a non-interruptive basis at end-of-frame and end-of-bar.
18. What happens when a DSA detects stray voltage?
The CMD BIT light illuminates and the applicable DSA ASP fault indicator will latch.
10. Which F-15C/D component is the interconnect from the ICCP through the OXY COMM panel to the cockpit headset and on F-15D to the rear cockpit headset?
The COMM cable assembly.
8. What HDU component(s) project(s) the display on to the back side of the visor?
The CRT and the ROMA
3. What component converts symbol drive and unblanking signals to a visual image?
The CRT.
3. Where does the DMP obtain present position?
The DMP uses present position information from the ADCP.
8. When will the DMS come out of stand-by mode?
The DMS remains in standby until a TSD or data frame is selected on any MPD/MPCD.
23. State the additional requirements to the RESET and ON logics from the pitch CAS switch necessary to engage pitch CAS
The DSS not failed, yaw rate less than 41.5° per second, and CASI servo not failed
2. What radio frequency range does band 1 operate in?
The E and G frequency band.
12. What are the two primary formats used to display EGI data?
The EADI and EHSI.
12. What two formats are used to display TACAN on the F-15E MPD/MPCD?
The EADI and EHSI.
8. Which component within the EGI LRU consists of three ring laser gyros, and three accelerometers?
The EGI LRU ISA.
16. The EGI provides which type of solutions when in navigation mode?
The EGI provides a blended navigation solution, a pure inertial navigation solution, and a GPS only navigation solution
10. Explain the radar data interface.
The EGI provides pitch, roll, true heading, N/S velocity, E/W velocity, and vertical velocity to the radar data processor (RDP) in the event the INS fails. This data is used to aid in the positioning of the radar antenna
24. Explain the process of JHMCS initialization in relation to the system performing a cold start or a warm start.
The EU monitors the state of the power interrupt discrete provided by the power supply inside the EU. If power has been removed from JHMCS for 250 ms or more, a cold start will be performed that can take up to 30 seconds. If the power interrupt discrete indicates power was interrupted for less than 250 ms, a warm start will be initiated that takes approximately one second to complete.
10. Explain the purpose of the EU in the video tape recording system?
The EU receives HDU video from the HDU camera and HUD video from the HUD video control unit. The EU overlays the video from the HDU camera with the symbology that makes up the HMD. With the HMD/video control panel OFF/STBY/AUTO/HUD switch set to AUTO, the EU outputs HUD or HDU video for recording based on commands from the CC.
56. What LRU determines what HMD LOS look angles fall within the masking zones?
The EU.
8. Which MPCDs is different? How?
The FCP MPCD is wired to interface with the programmable armament control set (PACS).
17. Just prior to data being sent to the HSI, what does the FDA do?
The FDA tests the data transfer with the HSI by sending a verification signal to it.
4. What is the FRPA?
The FRPA is an antenna that receives signals from the satellites and routes the RF signals to the EGI preamp.
3. What radio frequency range does band 2 operate in?
The G and H frequency band.
11. What is the difference between an FBIT and a GBIT? What determines whether an FBIT or GBIT will be performed?
The GBIT is the maintenance BIT and FBIT is the in-flight BIT. FBIT is performed in the air, while the GBIT is performed on the ground.
1. With what specific weapons is the data link pod used to communicate?
The GBU-15 guided bomb or AGM-130 guided missile.
48. Describe what information is displayed on the HMD BIT log.
The HMD BIT log displays firmware version, hardware version and hardware serial numbers for each LRU, also elapsed time for the EU, CU and CRT on the HMD. The BIT log itself consists of blocks of error codes. When an error code is selected, it will be displayed along with an English description of the error. Only one English description can be displayed at a time.
63. Describe how HMD data and symbology and audio are recorded along with video of the pilot's view.
The HMD data and symbology along with the active uplook reticle, weapon release, latitude and longitude at weapon release and mission time is overlaid on top of video of the pilot's view. This video is inserted into the VTRS before the event marker, so the recorded video will also contain the audio weapon release cue.
39. Describe the HMD symbology during a fine alignment.
The HMD presents two-space stabilized fine alignment crosses with four edges of display segment lines along with the words FINE ALIGN.
42. How does JHMCS indicate that the fine alignment was not successful or cannot be performed?
The HMD will display the message FA-NOT READY.
2. Where is the HMD/video control panel located?
The HMD/Video control panel is mounted on the right side of the head up display unit.
8. Where is TACAN information displayed on the F-15C/D?
The HSI, AI, and HUD.
3. What TACAN component displays TACAN distance, bearing, to-from, and course deviation?
The HSI.
40. What is indicated by flashing fine alignment crosses?
The HUD is outside the JMD field of view during a JHMCS fine alignment.
7. Explain the operation of the HUD when the CC is inoperative.
The HUD set automatically switches to the secondary mode and displays the symbology of the A/A gun mode and the HUD data processor receives its inputs directly from the INS, AHRS, and radar.
9. During normal operation, what display will the pilot see for OWS and what does it display?
The HUD window 8 display is the only OWS display the pilot will see and it will show current Gs and the maximum allowable Gs. If the maximum allowable Gs cannot be computed for any reason, then window 8 will display the current Gs and NOWS.
46. How does the IBIT affect system operation?
The IBIT will blank the HMD temporarily
17. What LRU do numerous F-15 systems depend on to amplify audio signals, internally generate warning tones, amplify externally generated warning tones, or generate voice warning messages when system limits have been exceeded or unsafe conditions exist?
The ICCP (F-15A through D) or ICSCP (F-15E).
18. What LRU generates the "BINGO FUEL" voice warning?
The ICCP (F-15A through D) or ICSCP (F-15E).
8. What F-15C/D ARC-210 system component is a microprocessor controlled electronic switching and amplifying unit and what switching functions does it control?
The ICCP and it controls switching functions of R2, R1 guard channel receiver, ADF set, Antenna selector, intercommunication, and audio warning signals.
13. What BIT checks the voice warning circuit?
The ICCP initiated BIT checkout.
10. What does the ICCP do with the audio signal coming from the OXY COMM panel or from the ground check panel?
The ICCP splits the audio signal into two signals.
1. What LRU amplifies and directs audio signals for use in the ICS.
The ICCP.
6. Which component controls radio number two on the F-15 C/D aircraft?
The ICCP.
8. Where is the stall warning tone generated?
The ICCP.
9. Which F-15C/D ARC-210 system component contains circuitry to monitor memory parity error and self-test the audio circuits when selected by the BIT control panel?
The ICCP.
10. What ICMS BIT information can be selected for display from the TEWS BIT page?
The ICS BIT LOG, allows observation of the ICMS band 3 faults; the ICS allows observation of the reported ICMS band 3 functional failures.
7. Where are the MICP, HUD, and MPCD cameras mounted?
The MICP camera is mounted to the beamsplitter assembly located above the MICP. The HUD camera is mounted in a fixture located on the center glareshield. The MPCD camera is mounted on the lower left windscreen.
24. What component provides a user interface for the DTM and what is the name of the screen that provides the DTM option?
The MPCD, the master menu.
27. Briefly explain the method JHMCS uses to track the helmet line of sight, position, and orientation.
The MTU transmits electromagnetic fields that are received by the MRU mounted on the helmet. A signal that corresponds to the position of the helmet is sent from the MRU to the EU where it is used to calculate the helmets line of sight, position and orientation
20. During a GC alignment, what does the left and right DRDs on the NCI indicate?
The NCI left DRD displays alignment time, while the right DRD displays alignment quality.
17. What ENTER NET menu display indication means that time synchronization is complete and the FDL can both send and receive messages?
The NTR is the first terminal, which is transmitting on the network, and its clock establishes system time. All other network participants enter the network via the NTR.
19. What is the net time reference (NTR)?
The NTR is the first terminal, which is transmitting on the network, and its clock establishes system time. All other network participants enter the network via the NTR.
3. Which switch on the HMD/video control panel is used to provide aircraft power to the VTRS?
The OFF/STBY/AUTO/HUD switch.
9. Where does the pilot's comm headset plug into?
The OXY COMM panel.
14. What functions do the switches on the HMD/VCP perform?
The PFF/BRT switch turns JHMCS off and on and adjusts display brightness, the NORM/REJ 1/REJ 2 switch allows the pilot to declutter the HMD and the switch labeled OFF/STBY/AUTO/HUD that allows for power application and video source selection to the VTRS.
11. Under what condition(s) does the VTR REC light come on?
The REC (record) light is red and comes on when the recorders are in record mode
4. What items make up the self-contained AN/ASQ-236 RECCE pod?
The REECE pod is a self-contained system consisting of an antenna, inertial navigation system, environmental cooling system, and a synthetic aperture radar that provides detailed maps for surveillance, coordinate generation and bomb impact assessment purposes.
7. Which LRU generates the basic RF operating frequencies for the radar set?
The RFO (001).
12. Which F-15E ARC-210 component provides volume control for cockpit audio, voice warnings and tones?
The RICP
9. Nearly all of the processing related to the FDL is contained within which component for the F- 15C/D and F-15E?
The RICP and ICSCP.
7. What LRU duplicates the controls on the rear cockpit ICSCP, with a few additional switches?
The RICP.
32. What type of data written to the DTM consists of 100 words of data that identify failures occurring during a single sortie?
The RWR BIT log.
13. What is the benefit of excluding emitters from the threat tables?
The RWR can perform a faster scan of the RF threat environment
5. How does the pilot know the RWR system has recovered?
The RWR fail light will be turned off.
10. During manually initiated BIT, what indications and BIT displays are produced?
The RWR light on the BCP flashes for the period of the manual BIT program and then extinguishes if a malfunction isn't detected. If a malfunction is detected, the RWR light illuminates steady. On the TEWS display unit, the detail A is displayed for approximately five seconds, while the detail B is displayed for approximately four seconds. The Detail B display presents the word RANCH followed by three lines of numbers that represent the RWR OFP, and the band 1, 2, and 3 ICMS OFP.
6. What is the purpose of the SET function?
The SET function provides a means for one aircrew member to continue to do A/G HRM targeting functions while the other crew member is operating the radar in an A/A mode or if the radar is automatically set to the AGR submode.
12. What's employed to reduce pilot induced oscillations in roll CAS?
The SFS roll command is fed through a deadband and gradient network.
10. What effect does the spin recovery aid have on the CARA system?
The Spin Recovery Aid Display is automatically displayed on all of the MPD/MPCDs and the LAWS changes its present altitude to 10,000 feet.
41. What are the HOTAS commands for adjusting the HMD during a fine alignment?
The TDC button on the right throttle grip is used to fine tune the alignment crosses in azimuth and elevation while the left throttle grip's antenna elevation wheel is used to fine tune the alignment in roll.
29. During manual acquisition, what control is used to move the acquisition symbol around the radar display?
The TDC on the right throttle grip.
8. What test equipment is used to assist in troubleshooting the ramp system?
The TTU-205D/F.
7. Which F-15E component includes ten multifunction switches for selecting AAI submenu, AAI master modes and interrogation modes?
The UFC and rear UFC
34. What does the F-15E UFC or rear UFC provide the IFF system?
The UFC and rear UFC include 10 multifunction switches for selecting IFF submenus and modes. The keyboard provides entry of code characters and also has an I/P key for identification of position function
6. The UFC provides what function to the HUD system?
The UFC is used to display true airspeed, groundspeed, and radar altitude on the HUD. The UFC also provides a HUD UPDATE menu.
27. Where does the AIU 1 receive ILS operating and frequency serial data from?
The UFC or rear UFC.
21. On the F-15E, what component remotely controls the VHF (R 2)?
The UFC.
3. In addition to ICS functions, what other switches and controls does the ICCP contain?
The UHF communication system, secure voice system, JTIDS, and the ADF system
2. What do the controls on the front of the HUD unit provide?
The ability to turn on the HUD unit, adjust symbol/raster video brightness, control some of the symbols and select Master Modes.
3. What does the TOT light indicate?
The aircraft control surfaces are at the TOT position.
16. What does IFF mode 1 identify?
The aircraft squadron, normally.
17. What does IFF mode 2 identify?
The aircraft tail number, normally.
27. How does the airspeed scale operate?
The airspeed scale and digits move vertically, against a fixed caret (<) index, increasing in value from top to bottom of the scale. A readout pointer is positioned at the center of the airspeed scale to indicate airspeed.
15. What part of a fuel quantity indicating system senses the phase and amplitude of the bridge circuit's center wire current and boosts it to the point where it can operate a small motor?
The amplifier.
3. What is the localizer on-course pattern?
The area where the two lobes overlap which covers a field of 5° total width (plus or minus 2.5°) over the centerline of the runway.
33. What LRU besides the BCP is part of the F-15A-D BIT system for INS and what is its purpose?
The avionics status panel; to indicate INU and NCI malfunctions
2. What does the KY-58 unit/adapter provide to the operator?
The capability to transmit and receive secure voice messages.
11. Describe the caution tone.
The caution tone is steady.
16. On the F-15D, does the front or rear cockpit control R2 preset channel and manual frequency selection?
The cockpit in command has control.
8. What is the purpose of the computer in the power supply?
The computer contains the OFP, PFM, and threat tables to analyze digitized low-band and high-band signals in order to determine specific threats
15. What type of BIT monitors the ICCP program memories and the system power supply?
The continuous BIT.
7. What are the main components of the F-15 ALE-45 CMD system?
The control panel, programmer, TEWS indicating lights panel, four dispensing switch assemblies, and two safety switches.
15. What must a peripheral receive before it communicates with the CC?
The correct select word from the CC.
22. Data entered in the F-15E UFC will be used by which cockpit for the ARC-210 UHF/VHF radio?
The data last entered will be used by the radio regardless which cockpit entered it.
18. Which component is the only LRU involved in the data processing function
The data processor (081).
5. What do you call the value assigned to a material's effect on capacitance when placed between the plates of a capacitor?
The dielectric constant.
4. What IFF information can an operator observe on the scope presentation?
The direction, distance, altitude, and identity of any replying aircraft.
9. Why do you check the fuel density before performing a full adjustment?
The full indication to which you adjust the pointer and counters depends on the density of the fuel.
6. What circuits within the standby AI receive electrical power?
The gyro spin motor and indicator lights.
5. What powers the CRT inside the HDU?
The high-voltage power supply inside the CU.
20. What is the horizontal and vertical pointer on the F-15C/D AI use for?
The horizontal pointer is used for glideslope indication and the vertical pointer is used for localizer indication.
3. How does EGI use the inertial navigation unit within the EGI LRU to always know its current position?
The inertial navigation unit in the EGI LRU consists of three ring laser gyros. One gyro measures movement on each axis of the aircraft (X, Y, Z). By entering in exact longitude and latitude coordinates of the F-15E, the EGI LRU knows the exact starting location of the aircraft. Then using the measurements of the laser gyros along each of the three axes, the EGI LRU will always know its current position.
8. Which INU subassembly contains the RLGs, accelerometers, high-voltage power supply, and calibration memory/temperature multiplexer?
The inertial sensor assembly.
16. What ENTER NET menu display indication means that the FDL has refined the time well enough to receive messages, but is still unable to transmit?
The information is spread out over a wide frequency spectrum. The FDL RT will hop around on the 51 possible FDL channels in a pattern controlled by the Crypto code key loaded in the FDL system.
2. What jamming systems does the RWR manage?
The internal countermeasures set (ICMS) and countermeasures dispenser (CMD) system.
8. Which push button switch on the left hand controller commands the target pod laser to fire?
The laser fire/freeze/A/A expand/maverick dome cover switch.
10. Describe the launch tone.
The launch tone is interrupted or chopped.
4. If the fuel quantity selector switch is in the TANK 1 position, what will the left and right counter display?
The left counter displays the fuel in fuselage tank 1 and the right counter reads zero.
3. With the FUEL INDICATOR switch in the FEED position, what does the left and right pounds counters display?
The left counter displays the fuel in tanks 3A and 3B, while the right counter displays fuel in tank 2.
6. How can you tell what kind of units of data the DRD is displaying?
The lights above the DRD come on to indicate the units of the displayed data
2. List the modulated frequencies of the localizer signal for the lobe to the pilot's left and right.
The lobe on the pilot's left is modulated at 90 Hz. The lobe to the right is modulated at 150 Hz.
13. When the pilot descends below 18,000 feet at his destination, what baro setting is used?
The local altimeter setting.
25. What carries the audio signals used for station identification and situation information to the headset?
The localizer signal.
12. What is the maximum number of cautions that can be displayed on a MPD system?
The maximum number of cautions that can be displayed is 48
3. Which APG-70 radar set major components use waveguides or are termed microwave LURs?
The microwave LRUs are the 031, 111, and 025
8. Explain non-RLS. What system is it unique to?
The non-RLS circuit is unique to the utility system and provides a positive source of hydraulic pressure to the emergency generator, stabilators, and rudders in the event that electrical or PC1/PC2 hydraulic power is lost. A hydraulic leak in the non-RLS circuit empties the reservoir and causes a complete loss of the utility system.
22. What are the two categories of states for the JHMCS? List the states within each category.
The operational state and the maintenance state. Operational states include: initialization, coarse align, fine align and the normal state. Maintenance states include: IBIT, error log display and MLV mode.
15. What happens when the pitch CAS experiences a single channel failure?
The pilot is notified of the failure through displayed BIT codes. Pitch CAS operation continues, although with reduced redundancy, with the two remaining functional CAS channels.
1. What's the main difference between the pitch and roll trim actuator system?
The pitch trim actuator is controlled through relays in the pitch computer, while the roll trim actuator is controlled through relays in the roll/yaw computer.
4. The power converter provides what functions?
The power converter converts aircraft 28 VDC to system operating voltages.
12. Where is this software loaded on the ALR-56C RWR system?
The power supply.
4. What component performs the continuous BIT?
The power supply.
7. What is the HUD systems primary mode and what controls the mode?
The primary mode is the normal operating mode which is controlled by the ADCP.
26. What is the DTM READ function?
The process of the CC reading data from the DTM.
2. What controls band 1 and band 2 during manual mode?
The programmers.
8. Which signals are transmitted from the APX-114 to the radar system's programmable signal processor?
The programming switches on the front of the IRE.
16. What is indicated when the pull-up cue is coincident with or above the velocity vector?
The pull-up cue indicates pull-up must be done to escape weapon blast.
9. What happens when a G-BIT is initiated with the radar power switch in ―STBY‖?
The radar ceases all other functions, latches fault indicators, and displays the BIT matrices on the MICP.
21. What radar LRU provides the interface between JHMCS and the radar system?
The radar data processor (081 APG-63 or 082 APG-70).
15. What information does the radar provide the RWR?
The radar provides antenna turnaround signal and radar signal reference. To determine if a tracking radar threat is operating in the same frequency spectrum as our radar system.
4. How will the ramps react when the ramp switch is placed in EMERG?
The ramps and bypass door for that system will go to the full UP position once aircraft speed goes below 1.5 Mach.
5. What does the VSI indicate?
The rate of climb or dive in thousands of feet per minute.
1. What's the definition of Mach number?
The ratio of the speed of an object to the speed of sound in the same medium and at the same temperature.
18. What part of a fuel quantity indicating system provides the feedback needed to rebalance the bridge at the correct indication?
The rebalancing potentiometer.
2. The receiver-exciter (025) combines the functions of which APG-63 LRUs?
The receiver and RFO.
8. Where are the MICP, HUD, and MPCD video tape recorders located?
The recorders are located in the cockpit in the map case.
9. What is the record time of the 8 mm video tape cassette?
The recorders use an 8 mm video tape cassette that provides 120 minutes of recording time.
7. What does the power supply provide to the RWR?
The required AC and DC voltages used by the RWR.
41. Where in a logic diagram can you find module name, figure title, reference code, and figure number for a calling routine?
The return point.
35. Which F-15E component supplies the IFF transponder with aircraft altitude information for mode C replies?
The right ADP
45. Where is information in the CC memory displayed? In what form is it displayed?
The right DRD window of the NCI; octal.
13. In the rear cockpit of the F-15E, which foot switch would you press to key the ARC-210 UHF/VHF R2?
The right foot switch.
11. Which high-band antenna has two elements and what are the elements used for?
The right-wing antenna. Both elements are used for RF detection. One is used as an elevation reference for the direction finding function, while the second element is for direction finding in the forward right quadrant.
12. What information does the EEPROM in the MTU store?
The same magnetic map information called the MCD that is stored in the EU.
7. What LRU requires calibration after removal and replacement?
The signal conditioner.
7. Where are the MPCDs installed on the F-15E?
The single FCP MPCD is installed in the lower center of the main instrument panel. The two RCP MPCDs are installed to the left and right of the MPDs.
12. On the F-15C/D JTIDS mode control panel, what is the function of the MODE selector in the HOLD position?
The situation display (SIT).
10. Which INU subassembly handles BIT functions and computer mode control?
The strapdown inertial navigation digital computer
11. Which INU subassembly stores INU performance monitor data during flight?
The strapdown inertial navigation digital computer
4. List the three variables that affect capacitance.
The surface area of the plates, distance between the plates, and the dielectric between the plates.
5. What happens when you press the ready switch?
The switch lights and enables the keyboard.
3. Describe the system operation of the hydraulic pressure indicating system.
The synchro type transmitter connects mechanically to a bourdon tube. The bourdon tube expands and contracts in direct proportion to system pressure. Internal parts translate the expansions and contractions into a rotary motion that is applied to the synchro. The transmitter synchro sends the pressure information by way of related wiring to the hydraulic pressure indicator.
4. Describe the physical characteristics of the oil pressure indicator.
The synchro-type indicators are 1 inch in diameter, integrally lit, and clamp mounted.
4. What does a flashing BCP light indicate?
The system is in test.
5. What outputs does the EGI system provide?
The system provides outputs of linear and angular acceleration, velocity, position, attitude (roll, pitch, and platform azimuth), magnetic and true heading, altitude, body angular rates, time tags and GPS time.
1. In the AUTO mode, how does the ramp system obtain the most performance at speeds greater than approximately Mach 1.4?
The system uses oblique shock waves created by the vari-ramps to reduce the speed of the supersonic airflow before it gets to the engines.
11. List the main parts (electrical sections) of a generic capacitive bridge-type fuel quantity system
The tank unit, bridge circuit, amplifier, and display.
If the target has a lower frequency return rate, is the target getting closer or farther away from you?
The target is getting farther away from you or opening. If the target range is opening, then the frequency of the return pulse is stretched out (lower frequency) and called a negative Doppler shift.
19. Which LRU is the only radar component requires liquid cooling
The transmitter (011).
15. During the transmitting function, how does the RFO send the ―GTWT DRIVE‖ signal and to which component is it sent to?
The transmitter through a waveguide.
29. What does the transponder do when in normal mode?
The transponder recognizes valid interrogations for all enabled IFF modes (1, 2, 3/A, C, 4, and S).
11. What is unique to the yaw trim system as compared to the other trim systems?
The trim relays are part of the directional feel trim actuator.
1. What is used in the front cockpit on the F-15E to start a manual 1 dispense program instead of the autopilot/steering disengage switch?
The trim switch on the control stick grip.
4. Where are the MPDs installed on the F-15E?
The two FCP MPDs are installed to the left and right of the main instrument panel. The RCP MPDs are installed in the left center and right center positions of the RCP instrument panel.
5. List the modulated frequencies of the glideslope signal for upper and lower lobe.
The upper lobe is modulated at 90 Hz, while the lower is modulated at 150 Hz.
36. What does the reticle depression control signal vary?
The vertical position of the A/A, A/G, and standby reticle.
11. Explain the vertical scan line.
The vertical scan line extends up from the aircraft symbol to the top of the display. The vertical scan line appears during A/A vertical scan modes and indicates where the radar antenna is scanning.
2. What does the video recorder provide?
The video recorder provides recording and playback functions when the pod is powered. It also allows prerecorded tapes to be loaded for a mission and allows tapes which were recorded during a mission to be used in debrief.
51. What governs what will be presented on the tactical data display?
The weapons mode selected.
3. What happens in the EMD if one of the signals for the engine parameters is out of range?
The window for the failed parameter will go blank.
11. How are the rudder servo cylinder shutoff valves energized?
The yaw CAS engage logic energizes one transistor that 28 VDC to the left rudder servo cylinder SOV. At the same time, another transistor switch provides a ground to the right servo cylinder SOV. The SOVs are wired in series, so the single 28 VDC signal and the single ground signal energize both SOVs.
12. What signals are compared to compute the yaw CAS signal?
The yaw CAS engage logic energizes one transistor that 28 VDC to the left rudder servo cylinder SOV. At the same time, another transistor switch provides a ground to the right servo cylinder SOV. The SOVs are wired in series, so the single 28 VDC signal and the single ground signal energize both SOVs.
13. How will the yaw CAS compensate for an under responsive aircraft?
The yaw CAS engage logic energizes one transistor that 28 VDC to the left rudder servo cylinder SOV. At the same time, another transistor switch provides a ground to the right servo cylinder SOV. The SOVs are wired in series, so the single 28 VDC signal and the single ground signal energize both SOVs.
5. How many preset channels does the ARC-210 UHF communication system provide and what channel numbers are they?
There are 10 preset channels (1-10).
1. How many preset channels does the ARC-210 VHF communication system provide and what channel numbers are they?
There are 10 preset channels (11-20).
5. How many channels are provided by the X/Y in the TACAN system and what is the total number of available channels?
There are 252 available channels are made up of 126 X channels and 126 Y channels.
7. How many air-to-ground modes are available and what waveforms do they use?
There are four A/G modes available to the pilot and all of them use LPRF waveforms
3. What is the purpose of the power line filter for the ARC-210 communication system for R2?
There are no power line filters in the ARC-210 communication system (R2).
18. What happens when the antenna selector switch is in the AUTO position on the F-15C/D?
There is no connection to the antenna selector, causing it to automatically alternate between the upper and lower antennas at 70 cycles per minute. Cycling continues until an incoming signal is received or transmission takes place.
19. What ability do the empty and full adjustment potentiometers give a fuel quantity system?
They allow you to change the point where the capacitive bridge remains balanced and, therefore, the display.
4. Where are the two R/Ts for R1 and R2 blade antennas located for the UHF communication system?
They are both located under door 3R.
13. What happens to IFF replies prior to display on the MICP or MPD/MPCD?
They are translated into target symbology by the radar system
9. What is the purpose of the safety spring cartridges?
They are used aft of the mechanical mixer to allow for one wing operation should the linkage to the other aileron become jammed or inoperative.
5. How are the diffuser ramp actuators prevented from being driven too rapidly?
They contain rate limiters.
9. What are the three status colors and what do they indicate?
They each indicate the status. Green indicates the band is operating without any faults, amber indicates the band is degraded but is still operating, and magenta indicates the band is not operational
3. What is the purpose of the power line filters?
They eliminate 2,400 Hz noise (generated by the electrical power system)that interferes with the UHF system.
19. What is the Maverick AGM-65 D/G auto handoff?
This is when the Maverick AGM-65D's or AGM-65G's on STA 2 or STA 8 are put under control of the targeting pod to automatically slave/slew the Maverick LOS to the target. It is this target that the targeting pod is either point or area tracking. The targeting pod can then command the Maverick to lock on to that target in either HOT/COLD or correlate track modes.
13. The TEWS displays unit symbol position, intensity, and flash rate (not flashing, slow, fast). What threat information do these displays provide to the pilot?
Threat range and relative bearing, type of threat, threat priority and age.
47. What is the maximum number of SRU and functional failure that the JHMCS BIT menu can list?
Three functional failures and 10 SRU failures
12. How many channels does the ILS receiver have and what are they?
Three separate channels: one for the Localizer, one for Glideslope, and one for Marker Beacon signals
11. What is the input power requirement for the CC?
Three-phase, 115 VAC, 400-Hz.
11. How many LED BIT fault indicators are on the front of the ADP?
Three.
6. How many MPCDs are installed in the F-15E?
Three.
3. How many operating modes are there for the data link pod and what are they?
Three; AUTO, MAN, and FWD.
6. How is the RECCE pod controlled?
Through the MPD/MPCD
5. How do the first ramp and diffuser actuators provide feedback position to the AIC?
Through the use of LVDTs.
23. What's the purpose of the fly-by-wire function of CAS?
To allow control of the aircraft if the mechanical system binds or is damaged.
6. What's the purpose of the hole on the bottom of the pitot tube?
To allow moisture to drain
4. Why is the CASI function of the PRCA necessary?
To allow the PRCA mechanical system to track the CAS so if the CAS fails, the mechanical system can take over at the point of failure.
38. What is the purpose of the A/A function?
To assist in management and delivery of air-to-air weapons; receive radar data to assist in target tracking and display of target data; provide data for steering and displays; do computations; display HUD cues for gun mode operations (providing lead angle); and provide missile prelaunch and post-launch management.
1. What is the purpose of the OWS system?
To calculate the structural loads being applied to the aircraft
25. Why is a command signal applied to the CASI servo cylinder?
To cause the mechanical pitch linkage to follow the pitch CAS commands.
6. What is the purpose of the marker beacon?
To communicate how far the aircraft is from the end of the runway.
8. What is the purpose of the roll trim function?
To compensate for a wing heavy condition
8. Pilots will use the precision velocity update function prior to making a bomb run to compensate for what?
To compensate for errors in INS velocities.
59. What is the purpose of the JHMCS buffet filter?
To damp unwanted HMD seeker slaving commands sent to the missile and to reduce high seeker head rates caused by pilot head motion as a result of aircraft buffeting
31. What is the purpose of the IP operation?
To determine the difference between transponders displaying identical coding.
1. What is the function of the CMD?
To dispense and manage chaff, IR flare, and/or other expendable countermeasure payloads.
20. What's the main purpose of the velocity vector?
To display the aircraft flight-path angle.
4. Why are the sum and difference antennas positioned on the planar array deliberately in a way?
To enable the AAI system to detect the direction of arrival of the reply signal.
2. What's the purpose of the NCI keyboard?
To enter data into the INS and CC.
2. What are the ICCP's tone generators and a synthesized voice generator used for?
To generate warning tones and voice warning messages.
2. What is the overall purpose of the F-15 tachometer system?
To give the pilot a good indication of overall engine stress.
28. What's the purpose of the altitude scale?
To indicate altitude during the A/A, A/G, and ADI
17. What's the purpose of the Break X symbol?
To indicate when the attacking aircraft is too near the target and should break off the attack to avoid damage caused by debris from the target aircraft.
14. What does a vertical scan line do?
To indicate where the radar antenna is scanning.
1. Why does the TACAN R/T send a blanking pulse through the IB during TACAN transmissions?
To inhibit the IFF system.
38. What is the purpose for the JHMCS fine alignment?
To make fine adjustments to the X, Y and Z axes of the HMD.
2. What's the purpose of the rate gyro assembly?
To monitor the aircraft's pitch, roll, and yaw response to pilot commands
35. Why is the JHMCS alignment required?
To orient the helmet's display with the position of the helmet in the helmet motion box.
3. What is the function of the wide band filter?
To pass unfiltered the full IF bandwidth from the high-band receiver.
11. Why is the flight environment data system integrated with the longitudinal flight control system?
To provide warnings to the pilot when the aircraft ratio function isn't operating properly.
1. What is the purpose of RWR?
To receive, detect, and analyze radio frequency (RF) signals to identify threats, determine their status and location, and also to assign appropriate countermeasure actions for jamming management.
11. Why does the KY-58 processor require a battery?
To retain the secure codes when power is off.
4. What's the function of the WIND position of the data select switch?
To select wind data for entry into and display from the CC
15. Why does the SAI have nonlinear markings on the dial?
To show greater accuracy at lower airspeeds.
40. What are three functions of logic diagrams?
To show what inputs the CC uses from other LRUs and how outputs are produced by stored/computed parameters; to identify which alternate inputs are used if a primary system fails.
14. Why would a ground operator want an I/P from a group of aircraft that are flying close together and replying with the same code?
To single out one aircraft.
19. What is the AN/ALM-262A supplemental test set used for?
To test and troubleshoot the inventory and dispense operation of CMD.
6. Where does the low-band receiver processor send display data?
To the TEWS display unit.
5. Where do the band 1 and band 2 amplifiers send an RF sample?
To the summing network
3. What is the DTM cartridge used for?
To transfer flight operations mission data to/from the ADCP and it is used by the CFRS for use in debriefing in-flight malfunctions.
6. Why does the CAS need an input from the trim system?
To update the CAS zero reference.
2. Where is the ADCP located?
Top left shelf of door 3L.
2. What indications are displayed on the face of the fuel quantity indicator?
Total internal fuel on the internal pointer; internal plus external fuel on the total pounds counter. The indicator also displays selected individual tank amounts on the left and right pounds counters.
26. If the pilot wants to continue searching for other targets while tracking another target, he can accomplish this by using which basic mode group?
Track-while-scan.
10. What is mode 3/A used for?
Traffic identification (military (3) and civilian (A) air traffic control).
7. What is the purpose of the CCDL?
Transmit free stream pitot and static electrical values from one ADP to the other.
7. Which TACAN mode of operation provides distance to the TACAN ground station?
Transmit/receive mode.
8. Which LRU amplifies low power RF (GTWT drive) from the RFO?
Transmitter (011).
1. Name the seven major LRUs of the APG-70.
Transmitter (111), receiver exciter (025), power supply (610), analog signal converter (038), antenna (031), radar data processor (082), programmable signal processor (PSP) (044).
9. What does the band 3 oscillator provide the forward and aft band 3 RF amplifiers?
Tuning commands, amplitude and/or frequency jamming output signals, and frequency information.
21. How does the FCC react when at least two channels don't agree on which data source to use?
Turns off all data sources to reset them; then, selects channel A as the initial source.
11. How many failures does the BIT matrix have space for?
Twenty.
22. What two formats are used to display ILS data on the F-15E multipurpose display system?
Two formats are used to display ILS data: EADI and EHSI
3. Explain the physical characteristics of the FTIT indicator.
Two inches in diameter, lit, clamp-mounted, located on the right main instrument panel.
10. What commands are generated by the RUDDER TRIM switch when it's placed in the NOSELEFT position?
Two logic low commands
1. What components make up a capacitor?
Two plates separated by a dielectric.
22. How long does the HSI light in the BCP flash during initiated BIT?
Two seconds.
1. How are the ATT HOLD and ALT HOLD switches on the CAS control engaged and disengaged?
Two spring-loaded toggle switches are held in the ON position by solenoids when conditions are met. When conditions are not met, the springs pull the switches to the OFF position. The switches can also be turned OFF by using the ADS, located on the stick force sensor.
1. How many F-15 air inlet controllers are there? What purpose do they serve?
Two, one AIC for each engine inlet. They're used to control the position of the inlet ramps and bypass door for their respective engine.
5. How many tachometer indicators are there and what do they provide?
Two, one for each engine. Each indicator is part of a separate and independent rpm indicating system. Using a servo driven mechanical counter and pointer, the indicator shows percent rpm from 0 to 110 percent. The pointer displays rpms in 5 percent increments; the counter uses 1 percent increments.
1. How many processing channels are in the AIU 1?
Two.
3. How many expendable stores magazines are mounted in each DSA?
Two.
28. How many data types are associated with a PSDP data set? What are they?
Two. Reference lines and default parameters.
43. How many automatic BITs does JHMCS have and what are they?
Two; the SBIT and the PBIT
6. Which component gives you the capability to enter targeting pod mechanical alignment deviation error data?
UFC
1. Which F-15E components perform the function of the F-15A-C NCI?
UFC and the forward sensors control panel.
12. What does the term "fixed ration bellcrank" refer to?
Unboosted (no compensation or adjustment for airspeed) pilot commands as the result of a failure in the roll ratio portion of the PRCA or placement of the roll ration switch in the EMER position.
7. Where is the counter display unit located?
Under door 6R.
13. How long will the CMD dispense chaff and/or flare in the AUTO mode?
Until the RWR dispense command stops or the chaff and/or flare quantities reach zero.
25. On the F-15C/D, what are the switch positions of the IFF ANT SEL switch?
Upper antenna only, the lower antenna only, or both.
12. Which component would you use to select channel mode for UHF 1 on the F-15E model?
Use the UFC.
7. Explain the purpose for the PVU mode.
Used to update the MN or INS.
3. What does the ICMS do with the radar data received from the CC?
Uses it to modify or raise receiver thresholds to limit reception of onboard radar transmissions.
6. Which aircraft systems operate in the VHF spectrum?
VHF AM and FM, VOR, and ILS.
18. Which functions of VHF do the cockpit in command controls?
VHF/R2 enable (ON/OFF), and VHF/R2 preset channel and manual frequency selection.
6. What do you use as a base for assigning dielectric constants?
Vacuum (1.0)
1. What axis does the directional control system provide a means of controlling around?
Vertical.
1. What does a motor/generator-type tachometer system provide?
Very accurate indications regardless of voltage variations
24. What system records all audio heard by the pilot?
Videotape recording system.
5. What does the ICCP provide the RWR?
Volume controls for the RWR launch and caution tones, while the TEWS LAUNCH DISABLE switch disables the launch tone.
27. What must radios have identical in order to communicate in AJ mode?
WOD, TOD and net number
14. When will navigation and steering data displayed on the HUD come from the EGI system?
When EGI is selected as the present position keeping source.
21. When running an operate IBIT on the ground, what should be displayed in the BIT window?
When IBIT is running on the ground, ―G-TEST‖ is displayed in the BIT window. If ―TEST‖ appears, the radar thinks it is airborne and will transmit
6. Explain when the PC1 A and PC1 B lights will illuminate simultaneously?
When PC1 or PC2 pressure drops below 1,600 - 1,400 psi during pump failure.
17. How is antenna selection controlled on the F-15C/D aircraft?
When R1 is activated, selection is controlled by using the three-position antenna selector switch on the ICCP.
7. Explain reservoir level sensing.
When a hydraulic leak occurs and the reservoir fluid level drops below normal operating level, circuit A is mechanically shut off. If the leak is not in circuit A, the fluid level continues to drop until circuit B is shut off, and circuit A is turned back on automatically.
9. When is multipurpose display system normal mode operation enabled?
When aircraft power is applied and the ADCP is operational
24. When do the AFCS and AHRS receive analog pitch and roll from the INS?
When an attitude valid signal is supplied by the INU BIT circuitry.
15. Explain when and in what direction the trim motors drive for TOT.
When any of the three trim actuators are out of the TOT position, and the TOT button is pressed, the TOT logic energizes trim relays to bring the trimmed system back to TOT.
8. When does the aircraft symbol appear on the HUD combining glass, and what does it resemble?
When commanded by the CC during A/A missile and ADI modes. It also appears during the A/G mode if the velocity vector data is defective. If the CC fails, then the HUD set automatically turns on the aircraft symbol; it resembles the letter W.
3. When must the effects of boundary layer air be taken into account?
When determining skin friction, drag, lift, and stall characteristics
5. When is an event marker put on the MICP and HUD video signal?
When either the trigger switch is pressed to the second detent or the weapon release switch is pressed
6. Explain the purpose of the C sized lithium battery for the EGI system
When power is off, a C sized lithium battery provides power to maintain a running date/time source, and to store almanac, last position, and crypto key data.
18. Why must an engage logic be applied to the pitch computer to engage roll CAS?
When roll CAS is engaged, it must send an engage signal to the pitch engage logic in order to energize the SOVs of the stabilator servo cylinders.
13. When is the standby reticle used?
When the A/A or A/G reticle is missing because of CC or HUD set failure.
22. When can the mode switch be switched to the INS NAV mode?
When the ALN light flashes at a 3-Hz rate.
30. When is A/G engagement data recorded in the CC?
When the CC detects a weapon release or a trigger switch second detent activation while the aircraft is in flight, with A/G mode selected.
31. When is OWS data recorded in the CC?
When the CC detects an over-g (G forces greater than the calculated maximum allowable are reached).
6. When is the overheat switch actuated to allow 28 VDC to flow to the ICCP for voice warning production?
When the FTIT exceeds 1,000° +/- 10°C.
26. When is the bell tone heard?
When the TF couple switch on the CAS control panel is switched from TF couple to off.
15. What does the left main landing gear WOW relay provide to the ICMS, and why is it important?
When the aircraft is in flight, the relay energizes and provides an electrical ground to the ICMS oscillators. When the aircraft is on the ground, this electrical ground is absent so that the oscillators send an inhibit command to the amplifiers, preventing an accidental high-power RF signal transmission.
13. When will the beacon light illuminate?
When the aircraft passes over the ILS middle/outer markers
14. When is band 3 initialization BIT performed?
When the band 3 is turned on and WOW.
7. Explain how the control stick is repositioned when the pitch trim motor is driven in either direction.
When the longitudinal feel trim actuator motor drives, it repositions the control stick. So any time the trim system operates, the control stick is repositioned to correspond to surface displacement.
11. At what pressure will the L/R OIL PRESS light illuminate?
When the oil pressure drops below 8 psi.
11. When will the BCP stop flashing, after an overheat condition?
When the temperature drops to 150° F.
10. When will the BCP begin to flash for an overheat condition?
When the temperature reaches 180° F.
3. When do the AOA probe heaters operate?
When weight is off the wheels.
31. Under what condition does attitude information go directly from the INU to the HUD?
Whenever the CC is off or has failed.
10. When the STEER MODE switch is in the TCN mode, what is displayed with bearing pointer no. 1?
With ADF operating, ADF bearing is displayed. When ADF is off and TACAN is operating in the REC or T/R mode, TACAN bearing is displayed.
6. With ground power applied, how is the blanker powered "ON" on the F-15C/D and E?
With the GND PWR control panel switch 4 in the ON position on the F-15C/D and with the GND PWR control panel switch 3 in the ON position on the F-15E.
13. When can band 1 and band 2 manually initiated BIT be performed?
With the ICMS in the standby or auto mode.
10. At what point can the LANTIRN targeting pod's FLIR track the target and laser designate if required?
With the roll, pitch and inner yaw gimbals.
8. What vertical velocity limits are required before altitude hold can be engaged?
Within 2,000 feet per minute.
7. What roll limits are required prior to engaging attitude hold?
Within 3.5° per second in roll.
11. Where is the MRU located and what does it use to sense magnetic fields?
Within the HDU; three coils
10. What requirements must be met prior to the engage logic activating the transistor switches?
YAW CAS switch logic must be present, rudder servo not failed, yaw rate less than 41.5° per second.
10. How do you select manual mode of operation on the F-15C/D model for radio number one?
You simply rotate the mode select knob on the MCCP to MAN. Select the desired frequency by rotating the manual frequency selection knobs on the MCCP.
5. Which switch has a cover to prevent inadvertent dumping of the codes?
Zeroize switch.
21. (208) What is the F-15's exhaust nozzle position indication range? a. 0 to 100% open. b. 25 to 100% open. c. 0 to 100% closed. d. 25 to 100% closed.
a. 0 to 100% open.
80. (221) Subsonic speeds are from a. 0.0 to approximately 0.8 Mach. b. 0.0 to approximately 1.0 Mach. c. 0.0 to approximately 1.2 Mach. d. 0.8 to approximately 1.2 Mach.
a. 0.0 to approximately 0.8 Mach.
31. (006) On the F-15, each H009 MUX bus channel has two twisted shielded pairs of wires. One pair carries 1 Mb/sec digital data to/from peripherals. What does the other pair carry? a. 1 MHz clock reference signal. b. H009 MUX go/no-go signal. c. Data transmit handshakes. d. Peripheral ID codes.
a. 1 MHz clock reference signal.
22. (406) When selecting preset channels on the F-15 ARC-210 communication system on radio no. 2 (R2) for ultrahigh frequency (UHF), which preset channels would you use? a. 1-10. b. 11-20. c. 20-30. d. 30-40.
a. 1-10.
66. (218) In order to engage the F-15 attitude hold, the aircraft must be within a. 1.0 ± 0.26g and within ± 3.5° per second in roll. b. 2.0 ± 0.26g and within ± 3.5° per second in roll. c. 1.0 ± 0.26g and within ± 5° per second in roll. d. 2.0 ± 0.26g and within ± 5° per second in roll.
a. 1.0 ± 0.26g and within ± 3.5° per second in roll.
13. (204) The F-15 oil pressure indication range in psi is from 0 to a. 100 in increments of 5 psi. b. 200 in increments of 5 psi. c. 100 in increments of 10 psi. d. 200 in increments of 10 psi.
a. 100 in increments of 5 psi.
6. (001) On the F-15 APG-63 radar system while in-flight, the waveguide pressure has fallen below how many pounds per square inch absolute (PSIA) if the ASP 25 latches orange? a. 12. b. 16. c. 20. d. 24.
a. 12.
78. (220) How many channels within the FCC receive input signals from the F-15E stick force sensor? a. 3. b. 6. c. 9. d. 12.
a. 3.
34. (409) At what frequency in hertz (Hz) is the localizer radio frequency (RF) lobe on the pilot's left modulated? a. 90 Hz. b. 120 Hz. c. 150 Hz. d. 180 Hz
a. 90 Hz.
66. (417) What channels enable the high-band receiver to process two antenna inputs simultaneously? a. A and B. b. C and D. c. 1 and 2. d. 2 and 4.
a. A and B.
27. (006) What is the primary master mode on the A through D models of the F-15? a. A/A. b. A/G. c. ADI. d. MRM.
a. A/A.
75. (420) What operating modes for the individual bands is the tactical electronic warfare system (TEWS) control panel used to select? a. AUTO and MAN. b. STBY and OPERATE. c. TRANSMIT and RECEIVE. d. MANUAL 1 and MANUAL 2.
a. AUTO and MAN.
14. (404) Which position is the F-15 microphone (MIC) switch placed in to transmit for radio no. 2 (R2)? a. Aft. b. Down. c. Center. d. Forward.
a. Aft.
80. (420) When the left main landing gear weight-on-wheels (WOW) relay ground signal to the internal countermeasures system (ICMS) oscillators is absent, what do the oscillators send to the amplifiers? a. An inhibit command. b. An operate command. c. A set NO-GO command. d. A built-in test (BIT) initiate command.
a. An inhibit command.
33. (006) On the F-15, what is the purpose of MUX bus resistor assemblies? a. Avoid signal reflection. b. Match MUX line couplings. c. Prevent transmission crossover. d. Provide balance between MUX channels.
a. Avoid signal reflection
12. (403) On the F-15E, what type of data bus allows data transfer between the up-front controllers (UFC) and the avionics interface unit (AIU) set? a. Bi-directional data bus. b. 1553 multiplex (MUX). c. Radar data bus. d. H009 MUX.
a. Bi-directional data bus
65. (218) The F-15 ADS is located on the a. CAS control panel. b. autopilot control panel. c. stick force sensor. d. throttle grips.
a. CAS control panel.
30. (408) The F-15C/D programmable signal data processor (PSDP) receives direction from which component as to the positioning of fighter data link (FDL) symbology? a. Central computer (CC). b. FDL receiver/transmitter. c. JTIDS mode control panel. d. Main communications control panel.
a. Central computer (CC).
42. (007) The F-15 overload warning reset switch is used with the navigation control indicator (NCI) to clear overload conditions from the memory of which component? a. Central computer. b. Heads-up display (HUD) data processor. c. Multiple indicator control panel. d. Programmable signal data processor.
a. Central computer.
88. (422) What component sends radar data to the internal countermeasures system (ICMS)? a. Central computer. b. Radar data processor. c. Programmable signal data processor. d. Radar warning receiver low-band receiver processor.
a. Central computer.
99. (227) Which F-15E air data processor section performs most of the BIT function? a. Digital processor. b. Input/output section. c. Input data converter. d. Electronic air inlet controller.
a. Digital processor.
52. (008) If the F-15E Advanced Display Core Processor (ADCP) is communicating over the avionics 1553 MUX bus 7A/7B, which system would it be communicating with? a. Fighter data link. b. Internal countermeasures set. c. Embedded global positioning system. d. Programmable armament control system.
a. Fighter data link.
93. (015) Which of the following is not a primary format for displaying inertial navigation system (INS) data on the F-15E? a. Heads-up display (HUD) repeater. b. Electronic horizontal situation indicator (EHSI). c. Electronic attitude director indicator (EADI). d. Tactical situation display (TSD).
a. Heads-up display (HUD) repeater.
28. (006) The A through D models of the F-15 flight director adapter (FDA), which interfaces the central computer (CC) with the navigation systems, is part of what system? a. Horizontal situation indicator (HSI). b. Attitude director indicator (ADI). c. Electronic control amplifier (ECA). d. Automatic flight control system (AFCS).
a. Horizontal situation indicator (HSI).
4. (401) Which F-15C/D intercommunication set (ICS) line replaceable unit (LRU) prevents the ground operator from interfering with communication during radio transmission? a. ICCP. b. TCCP. c. MCCP. d. UHF radio.
a. ICCP.
96. (016) Which F-15E embedded global positioning/inertial navigation system (EGI) alignment mode is automatically entered if power to the EGI is cycled in-flight? a. In-motion. b. Gyrocompass. c. Stored heading. d. Electronic boresight.
a. In-motion.
27. (407) Which F-15 KY-58 component translates plain voice communication from the pilot's microphone into coded voice signals to be transmitted to an air-to-air or air-to-ground radio station? a. KY-58 unit/adapter. b. KY-58 control panel. c. Main communication control panel (MCCP). d. Intercommunication set control panel (ICSCP
a. KY-58 unit/adapter.
76. (219) What supplies the F-15 directional feel trim actuator position to the limit level detectors to prevent the actuator from driving beyond its limit? a. LVDT A. b. Rudder stop sensor switch. c. Rudder limit transducer. d. Rudder synchro.
a. LVDT A.
9. (401) What F-15E system/component sends an enable signal to the intercommunication set control panel (ICSCP) to activate the voice warnings "OBSTACLE AHEAD" and "TF FAIL?" a. Low-altitude navigation targeting infrared for night (LANTIRN) navigation (NAV) pod. b. Avionics interface unit number 1. c. LANTIRN targeting pod. d. Central computer.
a. Low-altitude navigation targeting infrared for night
46. (214) Which F-15component separates the single PRCA output into two mechanical outputs? a. Mechanical mixer. b. Mode select assembly. c. Lateral feel trim actuator. d. Aileron rudder interconnect.
a. Mechanical mixer.
9. (203) What type of position is a simple synchro indicating system designed to display? a. Mechanical. b. Servomotor. c. Pneumatic. d. Electrical.
a. Mechanical.
47. (007) What is displayed in window 8 on the F-15 HUD if the overload warning system (OWS) is not operational? a. NOWS. b. OWS OFF. c. OWS FAIL. d. Display is blank.
a. NOWS.
100. (227) When the F-15E ADP BIT program tests a function, and the function fails, where does the ADP store generated BIT codes? a. Nonvolatile memory. b. Scratchpad memory. c. BIT status section of the central computer. d. Input BIT register for retrieval by maintenance personnel.
a. Nonvolatile memory
58. (414) On the F-15E low-altitude navigation targeting infrared for night (LANTIRN) targeting pod, which section contains the forward looking infrared (FLIR) and laser optics, FLIR electronics, bomb impact assessment (BIA) optics and electronics, laser transmitter/receiver and one line replaceable unit (LRU), the desiccant container? a. Nose section. b. Rear section. c. Center section. d. Bottom section.
a. Nose section.
7. (401) The F-15A through D aircraft identification friend or foe (IFF) mode 4 audio is present when the IFF system is a. ON and mode 4 is being interrogated. b. not being interrogated. c. ON only. d. OFF.
a. ON and mode 4 is being interrogated.
43. (213) If any BCP avionics light illuminates, what signal does the BCP send to the caution lights logic unit to turn on the AV BIT light on the F-15? a. Open. b. Ground. c. 26 VAC. d. 115 VAC.
a. Open.
41. (213) What color will the F-15 ASP ball-type latch indicators turn when a failure is detected by a system's BIT program? a. Orange. b. White. c. Black. d. Red.
a. Orange.
12. (203) Which F-15 hydraulic pressure system component loses its connection, causing the applicable circuit or pump light on the BCP to illuminate, when hydraulic pressure drops below 1,600-1,400 psi? a. Pump pressure switches. b. Reservoir level sensor. c. Pressure transmitter. d. Pressure indicator.
a. Pump pressure switches.
59. (414) On the F-15E low-altitude navigation targeting infrared for night (LANTIRN) targeting pod, which component provides operator interface for control of targeting pod power, gain and level adjustment of target (TGT) forward looking infrared (FLIR) video, and laser arming? a. Rear sensor control panel. b. Target set control (TSC). c. Recorder electronic unit (REU). d. Targeting pod power supply (TPPS).
a. Rear sensor control panel.
66. (010) Which F-15E heads-up display (HUD) symbology is a vertically positioned triangle symbol and is displayed during medium range missile (MRM) or short range missile (SRM) modes when the correct launch condition exists? a. Shoot cue. b. Air-to-air (A/A) gun display. c. A/A target designator. d. Allowable steering error (ASE) circle.
a. Shoot cue.
98. (017) On the F-15E digital map system (DMS), what tactical situation display makes up the basic route to be flown and shows where the pilot should be during the mission? a. Steer points. b. Initial points. c. Offset points. d. Bulls eye points.
a. Steer points.
73. (419) Which radar warning receiver (RWR) built-in-test (BIT) display interrupts RWR operation? a. Tactical electronic warfare system (TEWS) display maintenance BIT display. b. Multipurpose color display (MPCD) BIT display. c. Central computer (CC) audit page. d. RWR detail BIT display.
a. Tactical electronic warfare system (TEWS) display maintenance BIT display.
61. (009) Where is the heading scale located on the F-15C/D heads-up display (HUD) combining glass? a. Top center. b. Left side. c. Right side d. Bottom Center.
a. Top center.
49. (411) Which F-15E component is used for selecting identification friend or foe (IFF) system submenus and modes? a. Up-front control (UFC) or rear UFC. b. Multipurpose color display (MPCD). c. Transponder computer (KIV-119). d. IFF control panel.
a. Up-front control (UFC) or rear UFC.
95. (016) What line replaceable unit (LRU) is used to enter navigational data used by the embedded global positioning/inertial navigation system (EGI) system? a. Up-front control (UFC). b. Navigation control indicator (NCI). c. Avionics interface unit (AIU) no. 1. d. AIU no. 2.
a. Up-front control (UFC).
18. (404) On the F-15E ultrahigh frequency (UHF) system, which component is used to select channel mode of operation for radio no. 1 (R1)? a. Up-front controller (UFC) or rear UFC. b. Main communication control panel (MCCP). c. Intercommunication set control panel (ICSCP). d. Remote intercommunication control panel (RICP).
a. Up-front controller (UFC) or rear UFC.
37. (212) On the F-15 acceleration indicating/g-force exceedance system, acceleration in the positive direction is caused by aircraft movement in what direction? a. Upward. b. Forward. c. Backward. d. Downward.
a. Upward.
78. (012) What factor determines whether F-15 joint helmet mounted cueing system (JHMCS) performs a coarse or fine alignment? a. Validity of the coarse alignment matrix. b. Symbology alignment exceeding 2 milliradians. c. Accuracy of magnetic compensation data in the central computer (CC). d. JHMCS always performs a coarse and fine alignment.
a. Validity of the coarse alignment matrix.
70. (418) Direction-finding measurements are done on any high-band signal identified as a. a threat. b. a launch. c. ambiguous. d. an unknown.
a. a threat.
38. (410) The F-15 bank angle steering to a selected tactical air navigation (TACAN) radial when TACAN information is valid is displayed on the a. attitude indicator (AI). b. TACAN control display. c. flight director adapter (FDA). d. horizontal situation indicator (HSI)
a. attitude indicator (AI).
2. (201) The relationship of current between the legs of a capacitive bridge circuit when the circuit is balanced is equal current a. but opposite phases. b. and identical phase. c. with the tank unit leading in phase by 90°. d. with the reference capacitor leading in phase by 90°.
a. but opposite phases.
54. (412) On the F-15 air-to-air interrogator (AAI) display, a high-confidence target is displayed as a a. circle. b. triangle. c. diamond. d. rectangle.
a. circle.
63. (416) The purpose of the F-15E data link pod is to a. communicate with the GBU-15 guided bomb or AGM-130 guided missile. b. use radar emissions to the ground and their return signals to produce terrain following commands. c. provide the ability to precisely geo-locate points of interest and conduct surveillance activities day or night, in adverse weather conditions. d. permit day or night delivery of infrared (IR) guided AGM-65D/G maverick weapons and allows acquisition and tracking of targets for automatic handoff to the maverick missiles.
a. communicate with the GBU-15 guided bomb or AGM-130 guided missile.
96. (423) The countermeasure dispenser (CMD) programmer constantly monitors communication with a. each dispenser switch assembly (DSA). b. left forward and right aft DSA only. c. right forward and left aft DSA only. d. left and right forward DSA only.
a. each dispenser switch assembly (DSA).
93. (423) The right and left afterburner switches are part of the throttle quadrant. Advancing the throttles (left and/or right) to afterburner a. increases the number of flares dispensed. b. decreases the number of flares dispensed. c. increases the number of chaff bundles dispensed. d. decreases the number of chaff bundles dispensed.
a. increases the number of flares dispensed.
85. (223) The F-15 AIC illuminates the left or right INLET caution light when the a. inlet air becomes unstable. b. aircraft is flying subsonic speed. c. aircraft is flying transonic speed. d. aircraft is flying supersonic speed.
a. inlet air becomes unstable.
73. (219) During operation, the F-15 pitch trim motor stops running once it has reached its limit because of the a. limit-level detectors in the roll/yaw computer. b. transistor switch in the pitch computer. c. mechanical stops in the trim motor. d. switches in the trim motor.
a. limit-level detectors in the roll/yaw computer.
64. (217) While an F-15 has a permitted 13º AOA before stall inhibit starts to operate, the pilot can gain an additional 10° of allowable AOA by a. lowering the flaps. b. raising the speed brake. c. lowering the landing gear. d. placing the pitch ratio switch in EMERG.
a. lowering the flaps
69. (418) The digitized threat radio frequency (RF) is compared to the threat tables in the a. power supply. b. central computer. c. high-band receiver. d. low-band receiver processor.
a. power supply.
5. (202) On the F-15C, D, and E fuel quantity indicator, the BINGO indicator is adjusted to provide the pilot with warnings when a a. preset fuel level is reached and to automatically stop fuel dumping. b. preset fuel level is reached and to automatically start fuel dumping. c. fuel level is reached and fuel dump is increased. d. fuel imbalance starts fuel dumping.
a. preset fuel level is reached and to automatically stop fuel dumping.
93. (226) The F-15 ADC system integrates with the AFCS in order to a. provide a pilot relief mode called altitude hold. b. activate the pitch ratio light if pitch ratio is incorrect for airspeed. c. provide a path for the unsafe landing tone if certain flight conditions are not met. d. initiate the angle of attack stall warning tone when a predetermined angle of attack is reached.
a. provide a pilot relief mode called altitude hold.
4. (202) The unit in the F-15 fuel quantity indicating system that rectifies the AC power into positive and negative DC pulses is the a. tank unit. b. indicator. c. thermistor. d. control units.
a. tank unit.
35. (211) As a function of the F-15A through D HSI no. 1 bearing pointer, the priority system is a. the ADF. b. the ILS. c. TACAN. d. NAV.
a. the ADF
82. (222) At what airspeed does the F-15's air data computer unlock the diffuser ramp? a. 0.80 Mach. b. 0.84 Mach. c. 1.0 Mach. d. 1.5 Mach.
b. 0.84 Mach.
60. (414) The F-15E low-altitude navigation targeting infrared for night (LANTIRN) targeting pod has the capability to automatically mode itself to standby (STBY) if a coolant overtemp occurs on the ground for greater than a. 1 ½ minutes. b. 1 minute. c. 30 seconds. d. 15 seconds.
b. 1 minute
63. (009) On the F-15C/D heads-up display (HUD), when the central computer (CC) fails and radar range is not available, what fixed range is used for air-to-air (A/A) reticle positioning? a. 500 feet. b. 1,000 feet. c. 1,500 feet. d. 2,500 feet.
b. 1,000 feet
82. (421) What is the maximum environmental control system (ECS) cooling air flow when the internal countermeasures set (ICMS) is in standby? a. 5 %. b. 10%. c. 15%. d. 20%.
b. 10%.
20. (207) The range of the F-15 fuel flow indicator is from 0 to a. 100 gph × 1000 gph. b. 100 pph × 1000 pph. c. 200 gph × 1000 gph. d. 200 pph × 1000 pph.
b. 100 pph × 1000 pph.
81. (012) At how many degrees of true angle of attack (AOA) is the F-15 joint helmet mounted cueing system (JHMCS) buffet filter default set? a. 10 degrees. b. 14 degrees. c. 18 degrees. d. 21 degrees.
b. 14 degrees.
19. (405) The frequency range of the F-15 very high frequency (VHF) system is from 30.000 megahertz (MHz) to a. 121.500 MHz. b. 174.000 MHz. c. 243.000 MHz. d. 399.975 MHz.
b. 174.000 MHz.
38. (212) What should the F-15 acceleration indicator read (in g-forces) when no external force is applied? a. 0g. b. 1g. c. 2g. d. -1g.
b. 1g.
28. (210) Which switch on the GND PWR control panel applies power to STANDBY ATTD IND circuit breakers on the F-15? a. 1. b. 2. c. 3. d. 4.
b. 2.
72. (012) What is the F-15 joint helmet mounting cueing system (JHMCS) helmet display unit's normal cueing capability to the right and left? a. 10 degrees. b. 20 degrees. c. 30 degrees. d. 40 degrees.
b. 20 degrees.
10. (203) How many hydraulic pressure transmitters does the F-15 have? a. 2. b. 3 c. 4. d. 5.
b. 3
94. (226) If the F-15 ADC fails, which ASP fault indicator number will latch? a. 1. b. 3. c. 7. d. 17.
b. 3.
11. (402) Which F-15E line replaceable unit (LRU) serves as a backup for avionics interface unit (AIU) 1 for processing mission critical system data or those systems that directly impact the safety of flight? a. UFC. b. AIU 2. c. MPCD. d. ADCP.
b. AIU 2.
89. (422) What central computer priority control mode calculates forward hemisphere inhibit bandwidths that dynamically adapt to the radar operational modes and operating channels to protect the radar performance ability and provides this information to the internal countermeasures? a. MAN. b. AUTO. c. DEFNS (Defensive). d. ATAK (Attack/Offensive).
b. AUTO.
43. (410) Which F-15E component controls the display of tactical air navigation (TACAN) data on the seven multipurpose displays/multipurpose color displays (MPD/MPCD) and on the head-up display (HUD)? a. Up-front control (UFC) or rear UFC. b. Advanced core display processor (ADCP). c. Electronic attitude director indicator (EADI). d. Electronic horizontal situation indicator (EHSI).
b. Advanced core display processor (ADCP).
31. (408) On the F-15E, what component is the bus controller for the data interchange with the fighter data link (FDL) receiver/transmitter? a. Up-front controller (UFC). b. Advanced display core processor. c. Avionics interface unit no. 2 (AIU 2). d. Avionics interface unit no. 1 (AIU 1).
b. Advanced display core processor.
58. (009) During what mode(s) does the allowable steering error (ASE) circle appears on the F- 15C/D heads-up display (HUD)? a. Air-to-ground (A/G) bomb mode. b. Air-to-air (A/A) missile mode. c. A/G and navigation (NAV) modes. d. Short range missile (SRM)/GUN combined mode.
b. Air-to-air (A/A) missile mode
20. (003) Which F-15E APG-70 A/G radar mode are the displays and functions are limited to the left multipurpose display (MPD) in both cockpits? a. High resolution map mode. b. Air-to-ground backup mode. c. Air-to-ground beacon mode. d. Air-to-ground ranging mode.
b. Air-to-ground backup mode.
67. (010) Which F-15E heads-up display (HUD) symbology is a diamond symbol that is positioned over the target or identification point (ip) using a control on the right throttle grip? a. Velocity vector. b. Air-to-ground target designator (A/G TD). c. Air-to-air target designator (A/A TD). d. Azimuth steering line (ASL).
b. Air-to-ground target designator (A/G TD).
76. (420) What components provide radio frequency (RF) samples to the summing network? a. Band 1 and band 2 control oscillators. b. Band 1 and band 2 RF amplifiers. c. Band 3 forward amplifier. d. Band 3 control oscillator.
b. Band 1 and band 2 RF amplifiers.
84. (013) Which F-15 video tape recording system light will come on/flash when moisture is detected inside video tape recorder? a. FAIL. b. CAUTION. c. MOISTURE. d. Record (REC).
b. CAUTION.
68. (418) What function allows the pilot to control the radar warning receiver (RWR) operation on one of the available mission prioritized preflight messages (MPFM)? a. Continuous wave (CW). b. Combat. c. Search. d. Scan.
b. Combat.
23. (209) On the F-15E, what is used as the primary engine display? a. UFC. b. EMD. c. MPCD. d. ADCP.
b. EMD.
13. (002) The F-15C/D APG-70 radar set is made up of how many major line replaceable units (LRU)? a. Seven. b. Eight. c. Nine. d. Ten.
b. Eight.
91. (226) What type inputs are provided to the F-15 ADC? a. Electrical only. b. Electrical and pneumatic. c. Electrical, pneumatic, and mechanical. d. Electrical, pneumatic, mechanical, and hydraulic.
b. Electrical and pneumatic.
70. (012) What F-15 joint helmet mounting cueing system (JHMCS) component controls processing and is the main interface between the aircraft and other JHMCS line replaceable units (LRU) and related components? a. Cockpit unit. b. Electronics unit. c. Helmet display unit. d. Magnetic transmitter unit.
b. Electronics unit.
37. (409) What F-15C/D instrument landing system (ILS) attitude indicator (AI) indication represents unreliable signal conditions for localizer and glideslope when in view? a. Bug. b. Flags. c. Pointers. d. Glideslope indicator.
b. Flags.
46. (007) The F-15 central computer (CC) sends overload warning system (OWS) information to which of the below line replaceable units (LRU)? a. Air data computer. b. Heads-up display (HUD) data processor. c. Inertial navigation unit. d. Overload warning reset switch.
b. Heads-up display (HUD) data processor.
72. (419) During an automatic built-in-test (BIT), what component is tested at the end of every other radio frequency (RF) scan? a. Power supply. b. High-band receiver. c. Low-band receiver processor. d. Tactical electronic warfare system (TEWS) display.
b. High-band receiver.
62. (009) What positions the air-to-air (A/A) reticle and reticle range bar on the F-15C/D heads-up display (HUD) in the event of central computer (CC) failure? a. internal navigation system (INS) analog data. b. INS digital data. c. Programmable signal data processor (PSDP) analog data. d. PSDP digital data.
b. INS digital data
100. (017) Which F-15E digital map system (DMS) built-in-test (BIT) suspends normal digital map processor operations to test all circuits? a. Periodic. b. Initiated. c. Power-up. d. Background.
b. Initiated.
39. (213) On the F-15, what type of BIT executes a more in-depth check of the avionics systems and provides additional data to review for isolating malfunctions? a. Periodic. b. Initiated. c. Automatic. d. Continuous.
b. Initiated.
85. (421) Which band 3 built-in-test (BIT) routine performs system recalibration? a. Continuous. b. Intermittent. c. Initialization. d. Manual initiated.
b. Intermittent.
51. (008) If the F-15E Advanced Display Core Processor (ADCP) is communicating over the avionics 1553 MUX bus 5A/5B, which system would it be communicating with? a. Fighter data link. b. Internal countermeasures set. c. Embedded global positioning system. d. Programmable armament control system.
b. Internal countermeasures set.
48. (215) Which F-15 longitudinal flight control subsystem component is used to help neutralize the effect of acceleration on the control stick during maneuvers? a. Pitch ratio switch. b. Longitudinal mass balance. c. Pitch and roll channel assembly. d. Longitudinal FTA.
b. Longitudinal mass balance.
76. (012) What magnetic phenomenon causes helmet line of sight, position, and orientation inaccuracies on the F-15 joint helmet mounting cueing system (JHMCS)? a. Hysteresis. b. Metallic distortion. c. Inductive influence. d. Conductive influence.
b. Metallic distortion.
45. (214) Which F-15 component is used to control the flow of hydraulic fluid to the PRCA? a. Roll ratio controller. b. Mode select assembly. c. Lateral feel trim actuator. d. Aileron rudder interconnect.
b. Mode select assembly.
48. (008) When there are no detected failures, which mode of operation is the F-15E Advanced Display Core Processor (ADCP) operating in when power is applied to the aircraft? a. Test mode. b. Normal mode. c. Degraded mode. d. Emergency mode.
b. Normal mode.
98. (227) What is the 1553 MUX connection to the left F-15E ADP used for? a. Backup for the right ADP. b. OFP loading only. c. DTM information transfer. d. LRU status for the CC.
b. OFP loading only.
91. (422) On the programmable armament control system (PACS) air-to-air (A/A) display internal countermeasures system (ICMS) status indicator, how many status conditions will be displayed in each field? a. Only the first condition received. b. Only the highest priority condition. c. The two highest priority conditions. d. The three highest priority conditions for band 3.
b. Only the highest priority condition.
75. (012) When the F-15 joint helmet mounted cueing system (JHMCS) is performing a coarse or fine align, what category of state is the system in? a. Normal. b. Operational. c. Maintenance. d. Initialization.
b. Operational.
97. (227) Which section on the F-15E ADP conditions the ADP signals for interfacing with the indicators and other onboard systems? a. Digital processor. b. Output data converter. c. Cross channel data link. d. Electronic air inlet controller.
b. Output data converter.
49. (215) Which F-15 longitudinal flight control subsystem component automatically compensates for trim changes caused by accelerating from subsonic to supersonic flight? a. Mechanical mixer. b. Pitch trim controller. c. Pitch ratio controller. d. Longitudinal feel trim actuator.
b. Pitch trim controller.
78. (420) What do the programmers (small matrix read-only memory devices) provide to the band 1 and band 2 oscillators? a. Predetermined program inputs used in the automatic mode. b. Predetermined program inputs used in the manual mode. c. Threat identification data used in the automatic mode. d. Threat identification data used in the manual mode.
b. Predetermined program inputs used in the manual mode.
88. (224) What F-15 SFDR system component is a portable memory device capable of storing up to 512K of RAM? a. Signal acquisition unit. b. Programmable cartridge. c. Data transfer interface unit. d. Crash survival memory unit.
b. Programmable cartridge
11. (001) On the F-15 APG-63 radar system during track, which medium range missile (MRM) range symbol indicates the range at which the target cannot ―turn and run‖ to evade your missile? a. RPI. b. RTR. c. ROPT. d. RMIN.
b. RTR.
55. (413) On the F-15E low-altitude navigation targeting infrared for night (LANTIRN) navigation (NAV) pod system, which component controls antenna positioning, schedules radar transmissions and preprocesses the received radar video information? a. Radar receiver. b. Radar interface unit. c. NAV pod power supply. d. Advanced pod control computer.
b. Radar interface unit.
23. (004) Which F-15 APG-63(V)1 radar air-to-ground (A/G) mode provides general navigation? a. A/G ranging. b. Real beam map. c. Ground moving target. d. Precision velocity update.
b. Real beam map.
15. (002) Which F-15C/D APG-70 radar set component combines the functions of the APG-63 receiver and radio frequency oscillator (RFO) into one line replaceable unit (LRU)? a. Power supply. b. Receiver-exciter. c. Radar control panel. d. Radar data processor.
b. Receiver-exciter.
18. (003) Which F-15E APG-70 radar set component establishes the basic operating radio frequency (RF) for the transmitter? a. Power supply. b. Receiver-exciter. c. Radar data processor. d. Analog signal converter.
b. Receiver-exciter.
17. (404) Which F-15E rear cockpit foot switch is used to key radio no. 2 (R2)? a. Left. b. Right. c. Only the rear cockpit microphone switch can key the radio. d. Only the front cockpit microphone switch can key the radio.
b. Right.
57. (413) What F-15E component provides the operator interface for the radar altimeter, terrain following radar (TFR) system and navigation (NAV) forward looking infrared (FLIR) sensor? a. Control stick grip. b. Sensor control panel. c. Fly up enable control panel. d. Intercommunication set control panel.
b. Sensor control panel.
36. (006) The very high-speed integrated circuit (VHSIC) central computer operational flight program (OFP) consists of how many program functions? a. Six. b. Seven. c. Eight. d. Nine.
b. Seven.
48. (411) Which identification friend or foe (IFF) system feature prevents clutter, such as false target information appearing on interrogator's scope presentation? a. Interrogation discrimination. b. Side lobe suppression. c. Azimuth reduction. d. Pulse gain control.
b. Side lobe suppression.
99. (017) What F-15E digital map system (DMS) tactical situation display is displayed as circles centered on a point where the aircraft is potentially vulnerable to a defined threat? a. Bulls eye points. b. Static ring threat. c. Dynamic threat masking. d. Dynamic elevation banding.
b. Static ring threat.
29. (408) On the F-15, what system has all signals passed through the fighter data link (FDL) receiver/transmitter? a. Control augmentation system (CAS). b. Tactical air navigation (TACAN). c. Identification friend or foe (IFF). d. Instrument landing system (ILS).
b. Tactical air navigation (TACAN).
15. (404) What component is installed only on F-15D model aircraft and allows only the front or only the rear cockpit to have control of the UHF, ADF, TACAN and ILS systems? a. Antenna select panel. b. Take command control panel (TCCP). c. Main communication control panel (MCCP). d. Integrated communication control panel (ICCP).
b. Take command control panel (TCCP).
82. (012) How is the F-15 helmet mounted display (HMD) video recorded? a. The pilot's view is recorded along with data and symbology. b. The pilot's view is recorded and data and symbology are overlaid in the electronics unit (EU). c. Heads-up display (HUD) video is recorded and HMD data and symbology are overlaid in the electronics unit (EU). d. HUD video is recorded and HMD data and symbology are overlaid in the cockpit unit (CU).
b. The pilot's view is recorded and data and symbology are overlaid in the electronics unit (EU).
79. (012) Besides the words FINE ALIGN, what is displayed on F-15 helmet mounted display (HMD) during a fine alignment? a. Four fine alignment crosses and two edge of display segment lines. b. Two fine alignment crosses and four edge of display segment lines. c. One fine alignment cross and four edge of display segment lines. d. Four edge of display segment lines.
b. Two fine alignment crosses and four edge of display segment lines.
10. (402) How many processing channels are contained within the F-15E avionics interface unit (AIU) 1? a. One. b. Two. c. Three. d. Four.
b. Two.
51. (216) The F-15 directional control subsystem is a hydro-mechanical system and provides a method of controlling the aircraft around which axis? a. Pitch. b. Vertical. c. Horizontal. d. Longitudinal.
b. Vertical.
8. (202) When the F-15 fuel quantity indicator pounds counter is driven to its mechanical stop, this is a probable indication of a/an a. loose tank unit. b. faulty tank unit. c. open tank aboard relay. d. indicator out of calibration.
b. faulty tank unit.
99. (425) The F-15 interference blanker system (IBS) integrates with the a. flight control system. b. fighter data link system (FDL). c. fuel quantity indicating system. d. instrument landing system (ILS).
b. fighter data link system (FDL).
32. (006) On F-15A through D model aircraft, the avionics 1553 MUX bus consists of a. two channels: 5A and 5B. b. four channels: 5A/5B and 7A/7B. c. four channels: 5A/5B and 8A/8B. d. six channels: 5A/5B, 7A/7B, and 8A/8B.
b. four channels: 5A/5B and 7A/7B
68. (218) When the F-15 pitch and roll/yaw computers detect that control stick force has exceeded at least 3.5 pounds of force, the a. AUTO PLT light on the caution lights panel illuminates. b. pilot relief modes are interrupted and a new aircraft reference is established. c. pilot relief modes correct for the force and return the aircraft to its original position. d. pilot relief mode toggle switches on the CAS control panel return to the OFF position.
b. pilot relief modes are interrupted and a new aircraft reference is established.
55. (217) The F-15 component that measures angular motion (aircraft response) around each axis is the a. stick force sensor. b. rate gyro assembly. c. accelerometer assembly. d. control surface actuator LVDT.
b. rate gyro assembly
19. (207) The F-15 fuel flow indicating systems provide the pilot with a display of the a. speed of fuel consumed in gallons per hour. b. rate of fuel being consumed by the aircraft engines. c. amount of fuel being consumed in gallons per hour. d. amount of fuel remaining in the main and wing tanks.
b. rate of fuel being consumed by the aircraft engines.
94. (423) The countermeasures dispenser (CMD) programmer sends an inhibit command to the dispenser switch assemblies (DSA) to prevent accidental dispensing of chaff and flare when 28 VDC (volts direct current) from the a. right main landing gear weight-off-wheels relay is present. b. right main landing gear weight-off-wheels relay is absent. c. left main landing gear weight-off-wheels relay is present. d. left main landing gear weight-off-wheels relay is absent.
b. right main landing gear weight-off-wheels relay is absent.
75. (219) The F-15 yaw trim function is controlled by the a. nose left/right trim switch on the control stick. b. rudder trim switch on the throttle quadrant. c. yaw trim switch on the throttle grip. d. rudder trim pedals.
b. rudder trim switch on the throttle quadrant.
6. (202) On the F-15C/D/E aircraft, the fuel quantity system requires calibration after replacement of the a. external tank. b. signal conditioner. c. tank unit number 2. d. low-level control unit.
b. signal conditioner.
34. (211) The HSI no. 1 pointer is a function of a. NAV and TACAN. b. the ADF and TACAN. c. TACAN. d. NAV.
b. the ADF and TACAN.
62. (217) An F-15 pitch CAS failure will also shut down the roll CAS because a. the roll axis LVDT outputs are processed in the pitch computer. b. the stabilator DSS is located in the pitch computer. c. pitch CAS must be operational before roll CAS can be turned on. d. roll logic computation is controlled in the pitch computer.
b. the stabilator DSS is located in the pitch computer.
83. (223) Prior to engine start, the F-15 air intake system first ramps and diffuser ramps are a. up and locked with the bypass door open. b. up and locked with the bypass door closed. c. down and locked with the bypass door open. d. down and locked with the bypass door closed.
b. up and locked with the bypass door closed.
3. (401) Before reaching the F-15 OXY COMM panel, the ultrahigh frequency (UHF) radio "transmit sidetone" audio is split into two signals during transmission; the signal routes to OXY COMM panel and the a. integrated communications control panel. b. videotape recording system. c. ground operator's headsets. d. overload warning system.
b. videotape recording system.
97. (424) The only differences between the F-15A through D and F-15E ALE-45 countermeasures dispenser systems (CMDS) are the control panel and CHAFF/FLARE/MINIMUM/PROGRAM light location, dispense switch location, and a. number of stores magazines loaded. b. where stores inventory is displayed. c. where the stores magazines are loaded. d. which expendable stores can be carried.
b. where stores inventory is displayed.
59. (217) While the F-15 primary directional flight control system can produce ±15° of rudder deflection, what is the maximum rudder deflection with the CAS engaged? a. ±20°. b. ±30°. c. ±45°. d. ±60°.
b. ±30°.
7. (001) On the F-15 APG-63 radar system, while performing an operate initiated built in test (IBIT) on the ground, what is displayed if the radar thinks it is airborne and transmits? a. ―XMIT‖. b. ―TEST‖. c. ―G-TEST‖. d. ―X-TEST‖.
b. ―TEST‖.
18. (206) What temperature in C must the FTIT exceed in order for the "WARNING FTIT OVERTEMP LT/RT" to be heard in the F-15 pilot's headset? a. 800 10C. b. 800 20C. c. 1,000 10C. d. 1,000 20C.
c. 1,000 degrees +/- 10Celsius
53. (216) The rudder limiter actuator is a component of the F-15 directional flight control subsystem and is used to prevent commanded excessive rudder travel when the aircraft is traveling above Mach a. 1. b. 2. c. 1.5. d. 2.5.
c. 1.5.
61. (217) The F-15 yaw CAS's ARI function is disabled at Mach a. 0.8. b. 1.0. c. 1.5. d. 1.8.
c. 1.5.
24. (209) The F-15E N2 rpm indication system displays percent rpm in the range of 0 to a. 90. b. 100. c. 110. d. 120.
c. 110
15. (205) The F-15 tachometer indicator shows percent rpm in the range of 0 to a. 90. b. 100. c. 110. d. 120.
c. 110.
83. (013) The F-15 video tape recorders use a 8 mm video tape cassette that provides a maximum of how many minutes of recording time? a. 30. b. 90. c. 120. d. 180.
c. 120.
40. (410) How many F-15 tactical air navigation (TACAN) Y channels are used to produce the correct spacing of interrogation pulse pairs? a. 36. b. 96. c. 126. d. 252.
c. 126.
35. (409) At what frequency in hertz (Hz) is the localizer radio frequency (RF) lobe on the pilot's right modulated? a. 90 Hz. b. 120 Hz. c. 150 Hz. d. 180 Hz.
c. 150 Hz.
74. (012) Which MUX bus(s) does F-15 joint helmet mounted cueing system (JHMCS) use to communicate with the central computer (CC)? a. H009 channels 1 and 3. b. H009 channels 2 and 4. c. 1553 5A and 5B. d. 1553 7A and 7B.
c. 1553 5A and 5B.
27. (210) What is the attitude displayed on the F-15 standby AI? a. 180° roll, 92° climb and 78° dive. b. 180° roll, 98° climb and 72° dive. c. 360° roll, 92° climb and 78° dive. d. 360° roll, 98° climb and 72° dive.
c. 360° roll, 92° climb and 78° dive.
11. (203) The F-15 hydraulic pressure indicators display psi with a range of 0 to a. 1000. b. 2000. c. 3000 d. 4000.
c. 4000
79. (220) On an F-15E, to engage the yaw CAS the yaw rate must not exceed a. 22.5°. b. 30.0°. c. 41.5°. d. 55.0°.
c. 41.5°.
16. (206) How many FTIT AL/CR sensors are on each F-15 engine? a. 3. b. 5. c. 7. d. 9.
c. 7.
40. (213) How many fault indicator latches does the F-15 ASP have for numerous LRUs, systems, and locations (including door components)? a. 48. b. 56. c. 72. d. 96.
c. 72.
14. (204) What psi must either or both oil pressures remain at for five seconds in order for the F-15 OIL PRESS light to illuminate? a. 4 ±1. b. 6 ±1. c. 8 ±1. d. 10 ±1.
c. 8 ±1.
29. (210) How long after power has been removed will the F-15 standby AI provide a good indication? a. 3 minutes. b. 6 minutes. c. 9 minutes. d. 12 minutes.
c. 9 minutes
95. (227) The F-15 ADP system performs the functions of which LRUs in non ADP aircraft? a. EAIC, ADC, and FDA. b. EAIC, ADC, PRCA, and PTC. c. ADC, EAIC, PSA, and FBS. d. ADC and FDA.
c. ADC, EAIC, PSA, and FBS
64. (416) Which F-15E data link pod system mode allows the phase scanned array (PSA) antenna to automatically scan the left, right or both quadrants for the strongest radio frequency (RF) signal? a. MAN. b. FWD. c. AUTO. d. XMIT.
c. AUTO.
26. (005) Which component provides the F-15E Combined Altitude Radar Altimeter (CARA) system symbology and video to the multipurpose display system? a. Up-front controller. b. Sensor control panel. c. Advanced display core processor. d. Multipurpose symbology processor.
c. Advanced display core processor.
95. (423) With the multipurpose color display (MPCD) and countermeasures dispenser (CMD) on, and the ALR-56C low-band receiver processor communicating with the central computer (CC), where can the quantities of chaff and flare be found on the programmable armament control set (PACS)? a. Weapons load display. b. Air-to-ground display and audit page. c. Air-to-air display and the tactical situation display. d. Tactical electronic warfare system (TEWS) built in test (BIT) display.
c. Air-to-air display and the tactical situation display.
41. (410) Which F-15 tactical air navigation (TACAN) mode gets its reply from another aircraft? a. Reply. b. Receive. c. Air-to-air. d. Transmit/receive.
c. Air-to-air.
19. (003) Which F-15E APG-70 air-to-ground (A/G) radar mode provides a slant range measurement used for target altitude determination, for target designation, or for position updates? a. Real beam map mode. b. High resolution map mode. c. Air-to-ground ranging mode. d. Air-to-ground beacon mode.
c. Air-to-ground ranging mode.
65. (010) Which F-15E heads-up display (HUD) symbology provides a reference for the pitch scale when the velocity vector is not displayed? a. Pitch ladder. b. Heading scale. c. Aircraft symbol. d. Vertical scan line.
c. Aircraft symbol
4. (001) Which F-15 APG-63 radar system component receives two 30 MHz intermediate frequency (IF) signals from the receiver and frequency-shifts them to put clutter at a specific frequency for processing? a. Radio frequency (RF) oscillator. b. Power supply. c. Analog processor. d. Radar control panel.
c. Analog processor.
8. (401) What F-15E component routes a voice warning enable signal to the intercommunication set control panel (ICSCP) to activate the appropriate voice warning "WARNING OVERTEMP LEFT" or "WARNING OVERTEMP RIGHT"? a. Central computer. b. Engine diagnostic unit. c. Avionics interface unit number 1. d. Avionics interface unit number 2.
c. Avionics interface unit number 1.
85. (014) On the F-15A through D inertial navigation system (INS), which Data Select switch position allows for entering data to the CC for programming and displaying purposes? a. M/V. b. RDR. c. CCC. d. DEST.
c. CCC.
5. (401) The indication provided on the F-15E multipurpose display/multipurpose color display (MPD/MPCD) to let the operator know which communication system built-in-test (BIT) is in progress is a. ICCP IN TEST. b. AUDIO IN TEST. c. COMM IN TEST. d. BIT TEST IN PROGRESS.
c. COMM IN TEST.
21. (003) An automatic sequence of tests run in a non-interference manner any time the F-15E APG- 70 radar is on is called a. Initiated built in test (BIT). b. Periodic BIT. c. Continuous monitor. d. Operational readiness test.
c. Continuous monitor.
90. (422) What central computer priority control mode allows the internal countermeasures system (ICMS) unrestricted radio frequency (RF) transmissions and gives maximum ICMS RF coverage? a. MAN. b. AUTO. c. DEFNS (Defensive). d. ATAK (Attack/Offensive).
c. DEFNS (Defensive).
49. (008) Which mode of operation will the F-15E Advanced Display Core Processor (ADCP) operate when a simple failure is detected that does not reduce functionality or when a severe failure occurs and causes a main and essentials bus split? a. Test mode. b. Normal mode. c. Degraded mode. d. Emergency mode.
c. Degraded mode.
92. (226) On an F-15, what information does the ADC provide to the IFF transponder? a. Mach number. b. Mode 1 interrogation code. c. Digital altitude information. d. Aircraft identification number.
c. Digital altitude information.
77. (012) How many hours can the F-15 joint helmet mounting cueing system (JHMCS) cockpit mapping process take per cockpit? a. One to four. b. Four to eight. c. Eight to ten. d. Ten to fourteen.
c. Eight to ten.
1. (201) What unit of measurement is used for capacitance? a. Volt. b. Ohm. c. Farad. d. Henrie.
c. Farad.
88. (014) When aligning the F-15 inertial navigation system (INS), what indication on the navigation control indicator (NCI) indicates a complete gyrocompass alignment? a. Flashing ready (RDY). b. Steady RDY light. c. Flashing align (ALN) light. d. Steady ALN light.
c. Flashing align (ALN) light.
37. (006) Which operational flight program (OFP) function handles tactical air navigation (TACAN), navigation (NAV), and instrument landing system (ILS) steer mode processing for display on the horizontal situation indicator (HSI)? a. Executive. b. Navigation. c. Flight director. d. Controls and displays.
c. Flight director
68. (011) How many multipurpose displays (MPD) are there in the F-15E aircraft? a. Two. b. Three. c. Four. d. Five.
c. Four.
67. (417) What is the default mission prioritized preflight message (MPFM) called? a. PRE. b. OFP. c. GLOBAL. d. AIRGND.
c. GLOBAL.
8. (001) On the F-15 APG-63 radar system, which radar mode is available in all ranges except 10 nautical miles? a. Low pulse repetition frequency (LPRF). b. Medium pulse repetition frequency (MPRF). c. High pulse repetition frequency (HPRF). d. Interleaved HPRF/MPRF.
c. High pulse repetition frequency (HPRF).
36. (409) Which F-15C/D instrument landing system (ILS) component provides on/off control, volume adjustment, and frequency selection capability? a. ILS receiver. b. Landing control panel. c. ILS/TCN control panel. d. Flight director adapter (FDA).
c. ILS/TCN control panel
2. (401) During transmission, the F-15 line replaceable unit (LRU) that picks off the audio signal and converts it into "transmit sidetone" audio is the a. integrated communications control panel (ICCP). b. main communications control panel (MCCP). c. receiver/transmitter (R/T). d. antenna selector.
c. receiver/transmitter (R/T).
45. (007) If the F-15 programmable signal data processor or the overload warning system (OWS) stops working, where does the central computer (CC) receive current G data? a. Air data computer. b. Heads-up display (HUD) data processor. c. Inertial navigation system. d. Overload warning reset switch.
c. Inertial navigation system.
71. (419) Which radar warning receiver (RWR) built-in test (BIT) occurs at system power up? a. Automatic BIT. b. Continuous BIT. c. Initialization BIT. d. Manually initiated BIT.
c. Initialization BIT.
13. (403) Which is not a built-in test (BIT) function of the F-15E up-front controller (UFC)? a. Initiated. b. Power-on. c. Initialization. d. Continuous monitor.
c. Initialization.
83. (421) Which is not a category of built-in test (BIT) of the internal countermeasures bands 1 and 2? a. Continuous. b. Intermittent. c. Initialization. d. Manual initiated.
c. Initialization.
84. (421) Which band 1 and band 2 built-in-test (BIT) can be performed with the internal countermeasures system (ICMS) in the standby or auto mode? a. Continuous. b. Intermittent. c. Initialization. d. Manual initiated.
c. Initialization.
86. (421) Which band 3 built-in-test (BIT) is done when the band 3 is turned on and weight is off wheels? a. Continuous. b. Intermittent. c. Initialization. d. Manual initiated.
c. Initialization.
100. (425) On the F-15 interference blanker system (IBS), which blanker interactive module receives blanking pulses from transmitting systems and conditions it to provide a logic 1 signal with a pulse width equal to that of the input blanking pulse? a. Line drivers. b. Programmer. c. Input sensors. d. Output matrix.
c. Input sensors.
16. (404) Which F-15E component replaced the integrated communication control panel (ICCP) and is considered the heart of the intercommunication system? a. Left- and right-foot switches. b. Main communication control panel (MCCP). c. Intercommunication set control panel (ICSCP). d. Remote intercommunication control panel (RICP).
c. Intercommunication set control panel (ICSCP).
57. (217) What F-15 CAS inputs are provided from the #1 and #2 modular relay panels, and where are they applied? a. CAS engage, weight off wheels, and AOA signals; to caution lights logic circuit. b. CAS engage, speed brake, and flap down signals; to caution lights logic circuit. c. Landing gear and flap position, and weight off wheels; to the pitch computer. d. Gear position, speed brake, and AOA signals; to the pitch computer.
c. Landing gear and flap position, and weight off wheels; to the pitch computer.
40. (006) How are memory data addresses and outputs displayed on the navigation control indicator (NCI)? a. Left digital readout device (DRD) displays both (one at a time). b. Right DRD displays both (one at a time). c. Left DRD displays input; right DRD displays output. d. Left DRD displays output; right DRD displays input.
c. Left DRD displays input; right DRD displays output.
9. (001) Which F-15 APG-63 radar mode is the primary air-to-air (A/A) search mode and is used for detection and acquisition of both closing- and opening-rate airborne targets? a. Super search. b. Velocity search. c. Long-range search. d. Short-range search.
c. Long-range search
2. (001) What types of pulse repetition frequency (PRF) does the F-15 APG-63 radar system primarily use for transmission? a. Low and high. b. Low and medium. c. Medium and high. d. Interleaved and high.
c. Medium and high
50. (215) If the F-15 pilot shuts down the pitch portion of the pitch and roll channel assembly (PRCA), which component will shut off the hydraulic pressure? a. Pitch ratio switch. b. Pitch ratio controller. c. Mode select assembly. d. Longitudinal mass balance.
c. Mode select assembly.
1. (001) On the F-15 APG-63 radar system, what did engineers put in place to protect the receiver from damage due to high-powered transmissions? a. Amplifier. b. Waveguide. c. Multipactor. d. Power coupler.
c. Multipactor.
32. (408) On the F-15 fighter data link (FDL) system, what multipurpose display/multipurpose color display (MPD/MPCD) menu would be used if you wanted to set up or modify the data transfer module (DTM) data for their own aircraft? a. RESET IPF. b. ENTER NET. c. OWN DATA. d. FLIGHT DATA.
c. OWN DATA
87. (421) In which band 3 memory location is the band 3 internal countermeasures built-in-test (BIT) log stored? a. Forward amp memory. b. Preamplifier memory. c. Oscillator memory. d. Aft amp memory.
c. Oscillator memory.
47. (411) Upon receiving an interrogation pulse, the identification friend or foe (IFF) system determines the mode by using the time between a. P1 and P2. b. P2 and P3. c. P1 and P3. d. P1 and P4.
c. P1 and P3
54. (217) Where is the F-15 DSS amplifier located, and what is its function? a. Pitch computer; combines pitch and roll CAS inputs into a common output to drive the ailerons and stabilators. b. Roll/yaw computer; combines pitch, roll, and yaw inputs into a common output to drive the control surfaces. c. Pitch computer; combines pitch and roll CAS inputs into a common output to drive the stabilators. d. Roll/yaw computer; combines pitch and roll inputs into a common output to drive the stabilators.
c. Pitch computer; combines pitch and roll CAS inputs into a common output to drive the stabilators.
39. (006) When using a central computer (CC) logic diagram, what does the return point of a routine indicate? a. Return to the subroutine. b. Return to the previous page. c. Processing is completed. d. Processing must be repeated.
c. Processing is completed.
16. (002) Which F-15C/D APG-70 radar search air-to-air (A/A) search mode uses the ―intermediate‖ pulse repetition frequency (PRF) to detect targets in intermediate-range and short-range? a. HI. b. MED. c. RGH. d. INLV.
c. RGH.
14. (002) Which F-15C/D APG-70 radar set component performs the same role as the APG-63 radar's 541? a. Power supply. b. Receiver-exciter. c. Radar control panel. d. Radar data processor.
c. Radar control panel.
22. (004) On the F-15 APG-63(V)1 radar, which component stores the radar operational flight program (OFP) and protects the radar from overheating? a. Power supply. b. Receiver-exciter. c. Radar data processor. d. Analog signal converter.
c. Radar data processor.
32. (211) On an F-15A through D, what component selects the information source for display on the HSI? a. FDA. b. Compass control panel. c. STEER MODE switch. d. HSI.
c. STEER MODE switch.
90. (014) What F-15 inertial navigation unit (INU) section is used as a communication link between the computer within the inertial navigation unit and other aircraft systems? a. Inertial sensor assembly. b. Navigation processor. c. Scratchpad memory. d. Kalman filter.
c. Scratchpad memory.
30. (211) On an F-15A through D, which type of information does the FDA send to the CC? a. HSI mode, pitch and bank steering, heading marker. b. TACAN DATA, course set, time meter readout. c. TACAN DATA, heading set, glide-slope and localizer deviation. d. Destination/target bearing, to-from data, HSI mode.
c. TACAN DATA, heading set, glide-slope and localizer deviation.
56. (413) On the F-15E low-altitude navigation targeting infrared for night (LANTIRN) navigation (NAV) pod system, what is the primary display format used? a. Hot/cold mode. b. Fly up enable mode. c. Terrain following (TF). d. Forward looking infrared (FLIR) mode.
c. Terrain following (TF).
97. (016) The F-15E embedded global positioning/inertial navigation system (EGI) performance monitor maintains flight data for how many flights? a. The last 4 flights. b. The last 8 flights. c. The last 12 flights. d. The last 16 flights.
c. The last 12 flights
94. (016) What component(s) of the F-15E embedded global positioning/inertial navigation system (EGI) is used to measure movement on each axis of the aircraft for the inertial navigation system (INS) portion? a. One accelerometer. b. Two accelerometers. c. Three ring laser gyros. d. Four ring laser gyros.
c. Three ring laser gyros.
26. (406) On the F-15 ARC-210 communication system operating in Have Quick AJ mode, what can be received by R1 or R2 over any ultrahigh frequency (UHF)? a. Net format. b. Net number. c. Time-of-day (TOD). d. Word-of-day (WOD).
c. Time-of-day (TOD).
20. (406) What was added when the F-15 ARC-210 communication system replaced the radio no. 2 (R2) ARC-164 communication system? a. ILS. b. ADF. c. VHF. d. TACAN.
c. VHF.
86. (014) The UPDATE switch on the F-15A through D navigation control indicator (NCI) manually accepts a navigation update when NAV (navigation) is selected on the mode switch and the data select switch is in the a. Line of sight (LOS), offset/steer (O/S), or overfly/freeze (O/F) positions. b. Present position (PP), destination (DEST), or O/S positions. c. Visual (VIS), radar (RDR), or TACAN (TCN) positions. d. Central computer complex (CCC), magnetic/variation (M/V), or WIND positions.
c. Visual (VIS), radar (RDR), or TACAN (TCN) positions.
77. (219) When the F-15 take-off trim light illuminates, the rudders, a. ailerons, and stabilators are at neutral. b. ailerons, and stabilators are in transit to take-off trim position. c. and ailerons are at neutral and the control stick is at 1 aft (stabilators 5 trailing-edge up). d. and ailerons at neutral, and the control stick is at 5 aft; the stabilators are at 5 trailing-edge up.
c. and ailerons are at neutral and the control stick is at 1 degrees aft (stabilators 5 degrees trailing-edge up).
70. (218) Power to the F-15 altitude hold switch is supplied through the a. pitch computer. b. roll/yaw computer. c. attitude hold switch. d. autopilot disconnect switch.
c. attitude hold switch.
72. (219) In the F-15 trim system, the pitch computer a. contains relays to control all trim actuators. b. controls the relays in the roll/yaw computer. c. contains relays to control the longitudinal feel trim actuator. d. contains ground relays for the lateral and directional trim actuators.
c. contains relays to control the longitudinal feel trim actuator
71. (218) You ground test the F-15 yaw (departure) warning tone by a. depressing the BCP initiate button. b. turning the AOA probes to opposite limits. c. depressing the TOT switch. d. performing an ADC BIT.
c. depressing the TOT switch.
53. (412) On the F-15 air-to-air interrogator (AAI) display, a low-confidence target is displayed as a a. circle. b. triangle. c. diamond. d. rectangle.
c. diamond.
54. (009) The F-15C/D heads-up display (HUD) data processor is designed to provide power and to process the a. central computer (CC) multiplex (MUX) data. b. overload warning system (OWS) information from various aircraft system. c. digital and discrete signals received from various aircraft systems. d. analog signals from the data transfer unit (DTM) and convert them to digital for the CC.
c. digital and discrete signals received from various aircraft systems.
56. (217) In the F-15 AFCS, the PRCA CASI a. converts the stick force sensor output into a PRCA mechanical motion. b. acts as a fixed bellcrank in case the CAS fails. c. drives the pitch trim compensator, causing the mechanical system to track pitch CAS. d. compares the CAS and mechanical inputs to the PRCA, illuminating the caution lights display panel CAS lights when a system fails.
c. drives the pitch trim compensator, causing the mechanical system to track pitch CAS
7. (202) When performing a full tank check or making full adjustment of the fuel quantity system on an F-15, you must consider a. altitude. b. humidity. c. fuel density. d. outside temperature.
c. fuel density.
67. (218) The F-15 CSS is used to a. override CAS. b. disengage autopilot. c. interrupt auto pilot. d. override autopilot.
c. interrupt auto pilot.
91. (014) On the F-15A through D, the inertial navigation system (INS) light on the built-in test control panel (BCP) indicates built-in-test (BIT) failure (continuous or initiated) or a a. central computer (CC) failure. b. overtemp condition. c. power-off condition. d. absence of an alignment.
c. power-off condition.
60. (217) The primary purpose of the F-15 yaw CAS is to a. provide surface control if the mechanical system fails. b. allow the pilot to fly the aircraft for long periods of time without experiencing fatigue. c. provide a uniform response of the flight control system for varying airspeeds and altitudes. d. automatically compensate for turbulence, crosswinds, etc., while still providing an artificial feel to the pilot.
c. provide a uniform response of the flight control system for varying airspeeds and altitudes.
25. (005) What is the full altitude range that the F-15E Combined Altitude Radar Altimeter (CARA) system accurately measures? a. 0 to 20,000 feet above-ground-level. b. 0 to 30,000 feet above-ground-level. c. 0 to 40,000 feet above-ground-level. d. 0 to 50,000 feet above-ground-level.
d. 0 to 50,000 feet above-ground-level.
46. (411) Which identification friend or foe (IFF) modes are referred to as the selective identification feature (SIF) modes? a. 1 and 2. b. 1 and C. c. 1, 2, and C. d. 1, 2, and 3/A.
d. 1, 2, and 3/A.
21. (406) On the F-15 ARC-210 communication system, how many preset channels does the very high frequency (VHF) portion contain? a. 40. b. 30. c. 20. d. 10.
d. 10.
45. (411) Which identification friend or foe (IFF) mode uses crypto security? a. Mode 1. b. Mode 2. c. Mode 3/A. d. Mode 4.
d. Mode 4
17. (206) What temperature range in C is indicated on the FTIT indicator? a. 0 to 1,200C. b. 0 to 1,200C. c. 100 to 1,400C. d. 200 to 1,400C.
d. 200 to 1,400
39. (410) How many total available F-15 tactical air navigation (TACAN) channels are used to produce the correct spacing of interrogation pulse pairs? a. 72. b. 132. c. 232. d. 252.
d. 252
90. (225) At how many Hgs are pilots required to set their altimeter to when at altitudes above 18,000 feet? a. 2.92. b. 29.2. c. 22.92. d. 29.92.
d. 29.92.
30. (006) On the F-15, what is the backup arrangement of the H009 MUX buses? a. 1 backs up 2, and 3 backs up 4. b. 1 backs up 3, and 2 backs up 4. c. 2 backs up 1, and 4 backs up 3. d. 3 backs up 1, and 4 backs up 2.
d. 3 backs up 1, and 4 backs up 2.
44. (411) Which identification friend or foe (IFF) mode is used for traffic identification? a. 1. b. 2. c. C. d. 3/A.
d. 3/A.
80. (012) How many flights worth of error codes does F-15 joint helmet mounted cueing system (JHMCS) helmet mounted display (HMD) built-in test (BIT) log maintain? a. 10. b. 15. c. 20. d. 30.
d. 30.
23. (406) What is the guard frequency that falls within the very high frequency (VHF) range? a. 121.500 MHz. b. 225.000 MHz. c. 243.000 MHz. d. 399.975 MHz.
d. 399.975 MHz.
12. (001) Which F-15 APG-63 radar window display is a four-character numeric readout that moves along the left side of the display next to the antenna (031) elevation caret? a. 1. b. 2. c. 3. d. 4.
d. 4.
69. (011) The maximum number of cautions that can be displayed by the F-15E multipurpose display system is a. 12. b. 24. c. 36. d. 48.
d. 48.
26. (209) Which component determines if a low oil pressure condition exists on the F-15E? a. EDU. b. AIU no. 1. c. DEEC. d. ADCP.
d. ADCP.
61. (415) What F-15E reconnaissance (REECE) pod System component provides detailed ground maps for bomb impact assessment (BIA) and surveillance purposes? a. SUU-73B/A pylon. b. ADU-880E pod rack. c. Rear sensor control panel. d. AN/ASQ-236 REECE pod.
d. AN/ASQ-236 REECE pod.
50. (411) Which F-15E component provides identification friend or foe (IFF) mode of operation and code selection commands directly to the IFF transponder using avionics multiplex (MUX) bus 8A and 8B? a. Transponder computer (KIV-119). b. Up-front control (UFC) or rear UFC. c. Avionics interface unit no. 1 (AIU 1). d. Advanced display core processor (ADCP).
d. Advanced display core processor (ADCP).
64. (010) Which component provides mode control and display computations for the F-15E model heads-up display (HUD)? a. HUD processor. b. Avionics interface unit (AIU) no. 1. c. AIU no. 2. d. Advanced display core processor (ADCP).
d. Advanced display core processor (ADCP).
84. (223) On an F-15, when is the first ramp unlocked and allowed to move to the full DOWN position? a. Upon engine start. b. When the aircraft speed reaches .8 Mach. c. Anytime the aircraft speed is less than 1.5 Mach. d. After the applicable engine reaches 50 percent rpm.
d. After the applicable engine reaches 50 percent rpm.
60. (009) In what mode does the F-15C/D heads-up display (HUD) show the angle-of-attack (AOA) scale? a. Navigation (NAV). b. Air-to-air (A/A). c. Air-to-ground (A/G). d. Attitude director indicator (ADI).
d. Attitude director indicator (ADI).
55. (009) In what mode does the F-15C/D heads-up display (HUD) symbology provide navigation displays for takeoff, cruise, and landing operations? a. Navigation (NAV). b. Air-to-air (A/A). c. Air-to-ground (A/G). d. Attitude director indicator (ADI). .0
d. Attitude director indicator (ADI). .0
77. (420) What component performs the final traveling wave tube (TWT) amplification of band 3 oscillator signals? a. Magic tee. b. Preamplifier. c. Summing network. d. Band 3 radio frequency (RF) amplifier.
d. Band 3 radio frequency (RF) amplifier.
22. (208) Which F-15 component automatically changes the nozzle position as a function of engine setting? a. CC. b. EDU. c. DEEC. d. CENC.
d. CENC.
25. (209) Which F-15E nozzle position indicating system component drives the engine exhaust nozzle position transmitter through a mechanical interface? a. EDU. b. DEEC. c. ADCP. d. CENC.
d. CENC.
73. (012) What is the function of the F-15 seat position sensor in the joint helmet mounting cueing system (JHMCS)? a. Compensates for canopy optical distortions at different seat positions. b. Detects seat position for calculation of the cockpit blanking perimeter. c. Compensates for different pilot heights and head positions in the motion box. d. Compensates for changes in cockpit magnetic environment caused by seat position.
d. Compensates for changes in cockpit magnetic environment caused by seat position.
28. (407) What will be heard in the F-15 pilot's headset when there is a KY-58 parity check fail and the MIC switch is depressed? a. One beep. b. Two beeps. c. Interrupted tone. d. Continuous tone.
d. Continuous tone.
38. (006) Which operational flight program (OFP) function handles the processing for the overload warning system (OWS)? a. Executive. b. Navigation. c. Flight director. d. Controls and displays.
d. Controls and displays.
71. (012) Why is the F-15 joint helmet mounting cueing system (JHMCS) cockpit unit immersed in an oil bath? a. Protects the electronic components from external physical shock. b. Damps oscillations in the high voltage power supply (HVPS) transformer. c. Reduces sensitivity to magnetic interference. d. Cools and electrically insulates the HVPS.
d. Cools and electrically insulates the HVPS.
87. (224) What F-15 SFDR system component utilizes nonvolatile memory to store mishap data and special events? a. Signal acquisition unit. b. Programmable cartridge. c. Data transfer interface unit. d. Crash survival memory unit.
d. Crash survival memory unit.
92. (015) On the F-15E, when would the electronic horizontal situation indicator or electronic attitude director display a red X on the multipurpose color display? a. After an advanced display core processor (ADCP) failure. b. After an inertial navigation system (INS) built-in-test (BIT) failure. c. While the aircraft has weight on wheels. d. During the absence of an INS alignment.
d. During the absence of an INS alignment
42. (410) What F-15E component format displays bearing, distance and time-to-go information and also provides eight steer mode selections for the tactical air navigation (TACAN) system? a. Up-front control (UFC) or rear UFC. b. Advanced core display processor (ADCP). c. Electronic attitude director indicator (EADI). d. Electronic horizontal situation indicator (EHSI).
d. Electronic horizontal situation indicator (EHSI).
50. (008) Which mode of operation will the F-15E Advanced Display Core Processor (ADCP) operate when it detects a loss of 115 volts alternating current (VAC) and both generators are off line? a. Test mode. b. Normal mode. c. Degraded mode. d. Emergency mode.
d. Emergency mode.
44. (214) If the F-15 pilot wanted to hydraulically shut down the lateral system of the PRCA, which position would the roll ratio switch be placed to? a. Off. b. Automatic. c. Shut down. d. Emergency.
d. Emergency.
74. (420) Where are the main components of the internal countermeasures system (ICMS) located on the F-15B and F-15D? a. Avionics equipment bay 5. b. Underneath the speedbrake. c. Under panels 116L and 116R. d. F-15B and F-15D do not have ICMS.
d. F-15B and F-15D do not have ICMS.
87. (014) Approximately how many minutes does the F-15 inertial navigation system (INS) require to perform a complete gyrocompass (GC) alignment for maximum navigation accuracy? a. One. b. Two. c. Three. d. Four.
d. Four.
31. (211) On an F-15A through D, which horizontal situation indicating system component monitors servo operation to detect and indicate a malfunction? a. Mode select switch. b. AI. c. FDA. d. HSI.
d. HSI.
47. (215) Which F-15 components in the longitudinal flight control subsystem are used to create symmetrical up and down movements for pitch maneuvering? a. Flaps. b. Vertical rudders. c. Horizontal ailerons. d. Horizontal stabilators.
d. Horizontal stabilators.
51. (412) Which F-15 component provides interrogation generation, reply evaluation, and radar interface functions for the air-to-air interrogator (AAI) system? a. Up-front control (UFC). b. Interrogator computer (KIV-119). c. Advanced display core processor (ADCP). d. IFF interrogator receiver-transmitter (AAI R/T) APX-114.
d. IFF interrogator receiver-transmitter (AAI R/T) APX-114.
29. (006) What unit is the primary source of aircraft pitch, roll, heading, acceleration, velocity, and present position information? a. Air data computer (ADC). b. Electronic control amplifier (ECA). c. Flight director adapter (FDA). d. Inertial navigation unit (INU).
d. Inertial navigation unit (INU).
24. (406) On the F-15C/D ARC-210 communication system, which component controls radio no. 2 (R2)? a. Antenna select panel. b. Take command control panel (TCCP). c. Main communication control panel (MCCP). d. Integrated communication control panel (ICCP).
d. Integrated communication control panel (ICCP).
57. (009) During what mode(s), does the F-15C/D heads-up display (HUD) show the air-to-air (A/A) reticle? a. A/A only. b. A/A and attitude director indicator (ADI). c. A/A GUN and lead computing optical sight (LCOS). d. LCOS or gun director sight (GDS).
d. LCOS or gun director sight (GDS).
65. (417) What radar warning receiver (RWR) component transfers detected threats display data to the tactical electronic warfare system (TEWS) display unit? a. Power supply. b. Central computer. c. High-band receiver. d. Low-band receiver processor.
d. Low-band receiver processor.
86. (223) During a failure of the F-15E's AIC, the INLET warnings are displayed on the a. HUD. b. VTR. c. MICP. d. MPD/MPCD.
d. MPD/MPCD.
81. (421) Band 1 and band 2 oscillator control words from the range while scan (RWR) are sent over a a. H009 data bus. b. 1553 data bus. c. Serial data bus. d. Manchester data bus.
d. Manchester data bus.
33. (211) On an F-15A through D, in which STEER MODE position is the HSI to-from pointer, AI horizontal pointer, and glide slope indicator out of view? a. ILS/NAV. b. TACAN. c. ILS/TCN. d. NAV.
d. NAV.
17. (002) What F-15C/D APG-70 radar air-to-ground (A/G) mode does the pilot utilize prior to making a bomb run? a. Air-to-ground (A/G) beacon. b. A/G ranging. c. Real beam map. d. Precision velocity update.
d. Precision velocity update.
44. (007) Which F-15 component sends signals telling the central computer (CC) whether wing tanks and/or conformal fuel tanks (CFT) are loaded on the aircraft? a. Air data computer. b. Overload warning reset switch. c. Fuel quantity signal conditioner. d. Programmable armament control system.
d. Programmable armament control system.
43. (007) Which F-15 overload warning system (OWS) component processes the OWS information displayed on the multiple indicator control panel (MICP), heads-up display (HUD), and is heard in the headset? a. Central computer. b. Radar data processor. c. Multiple purpose display processor. d. Programmable signal data processor.
d. Programmable signal data processor.
5. (001) On the F-15 APG-63 radar system, which component process clutter rejection? a. Radio frequency (RF) oscillator. b. Data processor. c. Analog processor. d. Programmable signal processor.
d. Programmable signal processor.
96. (227) How are the left and right F-15E air data processors mounted and where are they located? a. Hard mounted in doors 6L and 6R. b. Hard mounted in doors 10L and 6R. c. Rack mounted in doors 3L and 10R. d. Rack mounted in doors 10L and 10R.
d. Rack mounted in doors 10L and 10R.
3. (001) On the F-15 APG-63 radar system, which component provides manual control of radar set power, operating modes, and mode parameters? a. Radio frequency (RF) oscillator. b. Power supply. c. Analog processor. d. Radar control panel.
d. Radar control panel.
3. (201) What capacitive bridge-type fuel quantity system component acts to null out the error signal generated by the balanced bridge? a. Bridge amplifier. b. Fixed input capacitor. c. Frequency-sensitive filter. d. Rebalancing potentiometers.
d. Rebalancing potentiometers.
24. (005) Which F-15E Combined Altitude Radar Altimeter (CARA) system component generates the transmitted signal and processes the received reflections to measure altitude? a. Control panel. b. Receive antenna. c. Transmit antenna. d. Receiver/transmitter.
d. Receiver/transmitter.
52. (216) Which F-15 directional flight control subsystem component transmits the input force from the ARI into two separate push-pull cables? a. Rudder actuator. b. Rudder limiter actuator. c. Directional feel trim actuator. d. Rudder control breakout assembly.
d. Rudder control breakout assembly.
62. (415) When the F-15E aircraft is in the weight-on-wheels condition, what is the only mode the AN/ASQ-236 reconnaissance (REECE) pod can be operated in? a. EMERGENCY. b. OPERATE. c. NORM. d. SAFE.
d. SAFE.
98. (424) On an F-15E, what is initiated by pressing the countermeasure dispenser (CMD) dispense switch on the left throttle grip up and releasing, or pressing the CMD dispense switch on the lefthand controller aft and releasing when a programmed response is available from the low-band receiver processor? a. Manual 1 dispense command. b. Manual 2 dispense command. c. Automatic dispense command. d. Semiautomatic dispense command.
d. Semiautomatic dispense command.
59. (009) What signal turns on the F-15C/D heads-up display's (HUD) ―Break X‖? a. Radar ranging. b. Programmable armament control set (PACS) computations. c. Air-to-air interrogator target correlation data. d. Status signal from the central computer (CC).
d. Status signal from the central computer (CC).
35. (006) Which of the overload warning system (OWS) display data is recorded in flight by the central computer? a. A complete file of gs pulled. b. Flight control surface position at the time of the over-g. c. Maximum allowable g limit for each aircraft component. d. The three worst-case g and overload conditions for each aircraft component.
d. The three worst-case g and overload conditions for each aircraft component.
10. (001) Which F-15 APG-63 radar scan mode can maintain up to 10 target track files while continuing to detect and display up to 18 more (half-intensity) observation targets? a. Gun scan. b. Vertical scan. c. Single-track-scan. d. Track-while-scan.
d. Track-while-scan.
25. (406) If power to the F-15 ARC-210 communication system radio no. 2 (R2) is turned off, what portion of Have Quick must be reloaded when power is re-applied? a. Net format. b. Net number. c. Time-of-day (TOD). d. Word-of-day (WOD).
d. Word-of-day (WOD).
89. (014) To complete an F-15 inertial navigation system (INS) store (STOR) alignment, a gyrocompass (GC) alignment must have been previously completed and a. present position must have been reestablished. b. brake hold switch must be in the ON position. c. aircraft engine must be running with generators on-line. d. aircraft must not have been moved after INS was turned off.
d. aircraft must not have been moved after INS was turned off.
36. (211) The BEACON light illuminates when the a. localizer deviation is at its limit. b. aircraft glide slope is out of limits. c. ILS is invalid. d. aircraft passes over the middle/outer ILS marker.
d. aircraft passes over the middle/outer ILS marker.
74. (219) The F-15 longitudinal or lateral feel trim actuator motor repositions the control stick a. during stall conditions only. b. in a nose-up trim condition only. c. in a nose-down trim condition only. d. anytime the pitch or roll trim system operates.
d. anytime the pitch or roll trim system operates.
69. (218) Power to the attitude hold switch is routed through the a. rate gyro. b. accelerometer. c. altitude hold switch. d. autopilot disconnect switch.
d. autopilot disconnect switch.
81. (221) The area extending from the surface of an object to an area where no dragging exists is called the a. oblique shock wave zone. b. normal shock wave zone. c. pressure recovery zone. d. boundary layer.
d. boundary layer.
92. (423) The function of the countermeasures dispenser (CMD) is to a. process and display received threat information. b. provide a passive defense against inbound surface-to-air missiles. c. defeat enemy chaff, infrared (IR) flare and/or other expendable countermeasure payloads. d. dispense and manage chaff, infrared (IR) flare, and/or other expendable countermeasure payloads.
d. dispense and manage chaff, infrared (IR) flare, and/or other expendable countermeasure payloads.
89. (225) The F-15 pitot-static probes are located on the a. radome. b. inlet duct walls. c. doors 6L and 6R. d. doors 3L and 3R.
d. doors 3L and 3R.
41. (006) When auditing the central computer using the multipurpose color display (MPCD), the preferred readout format is a. octal. b. binary. c. digital. d. hexadecimal.
d. hexadecimal.
34. (006) On the F-15, the central computer (CC) performs a MUX test to determine whether faulty communication is the result of a faulty MUX bus or a a. memory register. b. inaccurate clock pulse. c. the absence of a data command. d. nonoperational (off or failed) peripheral.
d. nonoperational (off or failed) peripheral.
1. (401) The F-15D model aircraft cockpit that has command of the communication system displays an illuminated COMM light on the a. remote intercommunication control panel (RICP). b. integrated communications control panel (ICCP). c. intercommunication set control panel (ICSCP). d. take command control panel (TCCP).
d. take command control panel (TCCP).
58. (217) The F-15 CAS requires an input from the left and right air inlet controllers in order to disable the a. rudder limiter function. b. roll ratio at certain airspeeds. c. pitch ratio at certain airspeeds. d. turn coordination function of the CAS.
d. turn coordination function of the CAS.
42. (213) Malfunctioning LRUs or systems will report failures to the F-15 BCP and ASP using a BCP signal a. and an ASP signal that are both an open. b. and an ASP signal that are both a ground. c. with a ground and an ASP signal with an open. d. with an open and an ASP signal with a ground.
d. with an open and an ASP signal with a ground.
6. (401) The roll/yaw computer, in the F-15A through D, sends a departure warning tone signal to the intercommunication control panel (ICCP) whenever the aircraft a. roll rate exceeds 60°/second. b. roll rate exceeds 30°/second. c. yaw rate exceeds 60°/second. d. yaw rate exceeds 30°/second.
d. yaw rate exceeds 30°/second.
63. (217) On an F-15, how much stabilator deflection can the pitch CAS add to or subtract from the manual flight controls? a. ± 5° differential movement. b. ± 5° symmetrical movement. c. ± 10° differential movement. d. ± 10° symmetrical movement.
d. ± 10° symmetrical movement.
36. Describe the symbology presentation during a coarse alignment.
fixed cross is displayed on the HUD and a helmet stabilized cross will be displayed on the HMD. All other symbology is removed from the HMD during the alignment
10. Where is the heading scale located on the HUD?
it appears at the top of the combining glass assembly
6. What is the unit of measure used on the fuel flow indicator?
pph.
What is a steering dot?
small dot with a cross superimposed over it that provides steering commands for attack.