60,61, 62

7. A nurse on a burn unit is caring for a patient in the acute phase of burn care. While performing an assessment during this phase of burn care, the nurse recognizes that airway obstruction related to upper airway edema may occur up to how long after the burn injury? A) 2 days B) 3 days C) 5 days D) 1 week

A) 2 days Ans: A Feedback: Airway obstruction caused by upper airway edema can take as long as 48 hours to develop. Changes detected by x-ray and arterial blood gases may occur as the effects of resuscitative fluid and the chemical reaction of smoke ingredients with lung tissues become apparent.

22. A nurse has reported for a shift at a busy burns and plastics unit in a large university hospital. Which patient is most likely to have life-threatening complications? A) A 4-year-old scald victim burned over 24% of the body B) A 27-year-old male burned over 36% of his body in a car accident C) A 39-year-old female patient burned over 18% of her body D) A 60-year-old male burned over 16% of his body in a brush fire

A) A 4-year-old scald victim burned over 24% of the body Ans: A Feedback: Young children and the elderly continue to have increased morbidity and mortality when compared to other age groups with similar injuries and present a challenge for burn care. This is an important factor when determining the severity of injury and possible outcome for the patient.

36. A patient who is in the acute phase of recovery from a burn injury has yet to experience adequate pain control. What pain management strategy is most likely to meet this patient's needs? A) A patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) system B) Oral opioids supplemented by NSAIDs C) Distraction and relaxation techniques supplemented by NSAIDs D) A combination of benzodiazepines and topical anesthetics

A) A patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) system Ans: A Feedback: The goal of treatment is to provide a long-acting analgesic that will provide even coverage for this long-term discomfort. It is helpful to use escalating doses when initiating the medication to reach the level of pain control that is acceptable to the patient. The use of patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) gives control to the patient and achieves this goal. Patients cannot normally achieve adequate pain control without the use of opioids, and parenteral administration is usually required.

4. The nurse in an ambulatory care center is admitting an older adult patient who has bright red moles on the skin. Benign changes in elderly skin that appear as bright red moles are termed what? A) Cherry angiomas B) Solar lentigo C) Seborrheickeratoses D) Xanthelasma

A) Cherry angiomas Ans: A Feedback: Cherry angiomas appear as bright red moles, while solar lentigo are commonly called liver spots. Seborrheickeratoses are described as crusty brown stuck on patches, while xanthelasma appears as yellowish, waxy deposits on the upper eyelids.

34. A patient with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) has sought care because of the recent development of new skin lesions. The nurse should interpret these lesions as most likely suggestive of what? A) A reduction in the patient's CD4 count B) A reduction in the patient's viral load C) An adverse effect of antiretroviral therapy D) Virus-induced changes in allergy status

A) A reduction in the patient's CD4 count Ans: A Feedback: Cutaneous signs may be the first manifestation of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), appearing in more than 90% of HIV-infected people as immune function deteriorates. These skin signs correlate with low CD4 counts and may become very atypical in immunocompromised people. Viral load increases, not decreases, as the disease progresses. Antiretrovirals are not noted to cause cutaneous changes and viruses do not change an individual's allergy status.

25. An emergency department nurse has just received a patient with burn injuries brought in by ambulance. The paramedics have started a large-bore IV and covered the burn in cool towels. The burn is estimated as covering 24% of the patient's body. How should the nurse best address the pathophysiologic changes resulting from major burns during the initial burn-shock period? A) Administer IV fluids B) Administer broad-spectrum antibiotics C) Administer IV potassium chloride D) Administer packed red blood cells

A) Administer IV fluids Ans: A Feedback: Pathophysiologic changes resulting from major burns during the initial burn-shock period include massive fluid losses. Addressing these losses is a major priority in the initial phase of treatment. Antibiotics and PRBCs are not normally administered. Potassium chloride would exacerbate the patient's hyperkalemia.

31. A nurse educator is teaching a group of medical nurses about Kaposi's sarcoma. What would the educator identify as characteristics of endemic Kaposi's sarcoma? Select all that apply. A) Affects people predominantly in the eastern half of Africa B) Affects men more than women C) Does not affect children D) Cannot infiltrate E) Can progress to lymphadenopathic forms

A) Affects people predominantly in the eastern half of Africa B) Affects men more than women E) Can progress to lymphadenopathic forms Ans: A, B, E Feedback: Endemic (African) Kaposi's sarcoma affects people predominantly in the eastern half of Africa, near the equator. Men are affected more often than women, and children can be affected as well. The disease may resemble classic KS or it may infiltrate and progress to lymphadenopathic forms.

15. The outer layer of the epidermis provides the most effective barrier to penetration of the skin by environmental factors. Which of the following is an example of penetration by an environmental factor? A) An insect bite B) Dehydration C) Sunburn D) Excessive perspiration

A) An insect bite Ans: A Feedback: The stratum corneum, the outer layer of the epidermis, provides the most effective barrier to both epidermal water loss and penetration of environmental factors, such as chemicals, microbes, insect bites, and other trauma. Dehydration, sunburn, and excessive perspiration are not examples of penetration of an environmental factor.

26. An 80-year-old patient is brought to the clinic by her son. The son asks the nurse why his mother has gotten so many spots on her skin. What would be an appropriate response by the nurse? A) As people age, they normally develop uneven pigmentation in their skin. B) These 'spots' are called 'liver spots' or 'age spots.' C) Older skin is more apt to break down and tear, causing sores. D) These are usually the result of nutritional deficits earlier in life.

A) As people age, they normally develop uneven pigmentation in their skin. Ans: A Feedback: The major changes in the skin of older people include dryness, wrinkling, uneven pigmentation, and various proliferative lesions. Stating the names of these spots and identifying older adults' vulnerability to skin damage do not answer the son's question. These lesions are not normally a result of nutritional imbalances.

17. An unresponsive Caucasian patient has been brought to the emergency room by EMS. While assessing this patient, the nurse notes that the patient's face is a cherry-red color. What should the nurse suspect? A) Carbon monoxide poisoning B) Anemia C) Jaundice D) Uremia

A) Carbon monoxide poisoning Ans: A Feedback: Carbon monoxide poisoning causes a bright cherry red color in the face and upper torso in light-skinned persons. In dark-skinned persons, there will be a cherry red color to nail beds, lips, and oral mucosa. When anemia occurs in light-skinned persons, the skin has generalized pallor. Anemia in dark-skinned persons manifests as a yellow-brown coloration. Jaundice appears as a yellow coloration of the sclerae. Uremia gives a yellow-orange tinge to the skin.

21. A patient has just been diagnosed with psoriasis and frequently has lesions around his right eye. What should the nurse teach the patient about topical corticosteroid use on these lesions? A) Cataract development is possible. B) The ointment is likely to cause weeping. C) Corticosteroid use is contraindicated on these lesions. D) The patient may develop glaucoma.

A) Cataract development is possible. Ans: A Feedback: Patients using topical corticosteroid preparations repeatedly on the face and around the eyes should be aware that cataract development is possible. Weeping and glaucoma are less likely. There is no consequent risk of glaucoma.

30. A patient has recently been diagnosed with advanced malignant melanoma and is scheduled for a wide excision of the tumor on her chest. In writing the plan of care for this patient, what major nursing diagnosis should the nurse include? A) Deficient Knowledge about Early Signs of Melanoma B) Chronic Pain Related to Surgical Excision and Grafting C) Depression Related to Reconstructive Surgery D) Anxiety Related to Lack of Social Support

A) Deficient Knowledge about Early Signs of Melanoma Ans: A Feedback: The fact that the patient's disease was not reported until an advanced stage suggests that the patient lacked knowledge about skin lesions. Excision does not result in chronic pain. Reconstructive surgery is not a certainty, and will not necessarily lead to depression. Anxiety is likely, but this may or may not be related to a lack of social support.

29. A nurse is conducting a health interview and is assessing for integumentary conditions that are known to have a genetic component. What assessment question is most appropriate? A) Does anyone in your family have eczema or psoriasis? B) Have any of your family members been diagnosed with malignant melanoma? C) Do you have a family history of vitiligo or port-wine stains? D) Does any member of your family have a history of keloid scarring?

A) Does anyone in your family have eczema or psoriasis? Ans: A Feedback: Eczema and psoriasis are known to have a genetic component. This is not true of any of the other listed integumentary disorders.

8. A patient has sustained a severe burn injury and is thought to have an impaired intestinal mucosal barrier. Since this patient is considered at an increased risk for infection, what intervention will best assist in avoiding increased intestinal permeability and prevent early endotoxin translocation? A) Early enteral feeding B) Administration of prophylactic antibiotics C) Bowel cleansing procedures D) Administration of stool softeners

A) Early enteral feeding Ans: A Feedback: If the intestinal mucosa receives some type of protection against permeability change, infection could be avoided. Early enteral feeding is one step to help avoid this increased intestinal permeability and prevent early endotoxin translocation. Antibiotics are seldom prescribed prophylactically because of the risk of promoting resistant strains of bacteria. A bowel cleansing procedure would not be ordered for this patient. The administration of stool softeners would not assist in avoiding increased intestinal permeability and prevent early endotoxin translocation.

29. A public health nurse has reviewed local data about the incidence and prevalence of burn injuries in the community. These data are likely to support what health promotion effort? A) Education about home safety B) Education about safe storage of chemicals C) Education about workplace health threats D) Education about safe driving

A) Education about home safety Ans: A Feedback: A large majority of burns occur in the home setting; educational interventions should address this epidemiologic trend.

9. A patient has been admitted to a burn intensive care unit with extensive full-thickness burns over 25% of the body. After ensuring cardiopulmonary stability, what would be the nurse's immediate, priority concern when planning this patient's care? A) Fluid status B) Risk of infection C) Nutritional status D) Psychosocial coping

A) Fluid status Ans: A Feedback: During the early phase of burn care, the nurse is most concerned with fluid resuscitation, to correct large-volume fluid loss through the damaged skin. Infection control and early nutritional support are important, but fluid resuscitation is an immediate priority. Coping is a higher priority later in the recovery period.

30. A nurse in the emergency department (ED) is triaging a 5-year-old who has been brought to the ED by her parents for an outbreak of urticaria. What would be the most appropriate question to ask this patient and her family? A) Has she eaten any new foods today? B) Has she bathed in the past 24 hours? C) Did she go to a friend's house today? D) Was she digging in the dirt today?

A) Has she eaten any new foods today? Ans: A Feedback: Foods can cause skin reactions, especially in children. In most cases, this is a more plausible cause of urticaria than bathing, contact with other children, or soil-borne pathogens.

A patient is brought to the emergency department with a burn injury. The nurse knows that the first systemic event after a major burn injury is what? A) Hemodynamic instability B) Gastrointestinal hypermotility C) Respiratory arrest D) Hypokalemia

A) Hemodynamic instability Ans: A Feedback: The initial systemic event after a major burn injury is hemodynamic instability, which results from loss of capillary integrity and a subsequent shift of fluid, sodium, and protein from the intravascular space into the interstitial spaces. This precedes GI changes. Respiratory arrest may or may not occur, largely depending on the presence or absence of smoke inhalation. Hypokalemia does not take place in the initial phase of recovery.

3. A patient in the emergent/resuscitative phase of a burn injury has had blood work and arterial blood gases drawn. Upon analysis of the patient's laboratory studies, the nurse will expect the results to indicate what? A) Hyperkalemia, hyponatremia, elevated hematocrit, and metabolic acidosis B) Hypokalemia, hypernatremia, decreased hematocrit, and metabolic acidosis C) Hyperkalemia, hypernatremia, decreased hematocrit, and metabolic alkalosis D) Hypokalemia, hyponatremia, elevated hematocrit, and metabolic alkalosis

A) Hyperkalemia, hyponatremia, elevated hematocrit, and metabolic acidosis

27. A patient is admitted to the burn unit after being transported from a facility 1000 miles away. The patient has burns to the groin area and circumferential burns to both upper thighs. When assessing the patient's legs distal to the wound site, the nurse should be cognizant of the risk of what complication? A) Ischemia B) Referred pain C) Cellulitis D) Venous thromboembolism (VTE)

A) Ischemia Ans: A Feedback: As edema increases, pressure on small blood vessels and nerves in the distal extremities causes an obstruction of blood flow and consequent ischemia. This complication is similar to compartment syndrome. Referred pain, cellulitis, and VTE are not noted complications that occur distal to the injury site.

6. While waiting to see the physician, a patient shows the nurse skin areas that are flat, nonpalpable, and have had a change of color. The nurse recognizes that the patient is demonstrating what? A) Macules B) Papules C) Vesicles D) Pustules

A) Macules Ans: A Feedback: A macule is a flat, nonpalpable skin color change, while a papule is an elevated, solid, palpable mass. A vesicle is a circumscribed, elevated, palpable mass containing serous fluid, while a pustule is a pus-filled vesicle.

33. A patient is in the acute phase of a burn injury. One of the nursing diagnoses in the plan of care is Ineffective Coping Related to Trauma of Burn Injury. What interventions appropriately address this diagnosis? Select all that apply. A) Promote truthful communication. B) Avoid asking the patient to make decisions. C) Teach the patient coping strategies. D) Administer benzodiazepines as ordered. E) Provide positive reinforcement.

A) Promote truthful communication. C) Teach the patient coping strategies. E) Provide positive reinforcement. Ans: A, C, E Feedback: The nurse can assist the patient to develop effective coping strategies by setting specific expectations for behavior, promoting truthful communication to build trust, helping the patient practice appropriate strategies, and giving positive reinforcement when appropriate. The patient may benefit from being able to make decisions regarding his or her care. Benzodiazepines may be needed for short-term management of anxiety, but they are not used to enhance coping.

24. A patient's blistering disorder has resulted in the formation of multiple lesions in the patient's mouth. What intervention should be included in the patient's plan of care? A) Provide chlorhexidine solution for rinsing the patient's mouth. B) Avoid providing regular mouth care until the patient's lesions heal. C) Liaise with the primary care provider to arrange for parenteral nutrition. D) Encourage the patient to gargle with a hypertonic solution after each meal.

A) Provide chlorhexidine solution for rinsing the patient's mouth. Ans: A Feedback: Frequent rinsing of the mouth with chlorhexidine solution is prescribed to rid the mouth of debris and to soothe ulcerated areas. A hypertonic solution would be likely to cause pain and further skin disruption. Meticulous mouth care should be provided and there is no reason to provide nutrition parenterally.

23. A nurse is caring for a patient admitted to the medical unit with a diagnosis of pemphigus vulgaris. When writing the care plan for this patient, what nursing diagnoses should be included? Select all that apply. A) Risk for Infection Related to Lesions B) Impaired Skin Integrity Related to Epidermal Blisters C) Disturbed Body Image Related to Presence of Skin Lesions D) Acute Pain Related to Disruption in Skin Integrity E) Hyperthermia Related to Disruptions in Thermoregulation

A) Risk for Infection Related to Lesions B) Impaired Skin Integrity Related to Epidermal Blisters C) Disturbed Body Image Related to Presence of Skin Lesions D) Acute Pain Related to Disruption in Skin Integrity Ans: A, B, C, D Feedback: Blistering diseases disrupt skin integrity and are associated with pain and a risk for infection. Because of the visibility of blisters, body image is often affected. The patient faces a risk for hypothermia, not hyperthermia.

18. A nurse is caring for a patient in the emergent/resuscitative phase of burn injury. During this phase, the nurse should monitor for evidence of what alteration in laboratory values? A) Sodium deficit B) Decreased prothrombin time (PT) C) Potassium deficit D) Decreased hematocrit

A) Sodium deficit Ans: A Feedback: Anticipated fluid and electrolyte changes that occur during the emergent/resuscitative phase of burn injury include sodium deficit, potassium excess, base-bicarbonate deficit, and elevated hematocrit. PT does not typically decrease.

27. An older adult patient is diagnosed with a vitamin D deficiency. What would be an appropriate recommendation by the nurse? A) Spend time outdoors at least twice per week B) Increase intake of leafy green vegetables C) Start taking a multivitamin each morning D) Eat red meat at least once per week

A) Spend time outdoors at least twice per week Ans: A Feedback: Skin exposed to ultraviolet light can convert substances necessary for synthesizing vitamin D (cholecalciferol). It is estimated that most people need five to thirty minutes of sun exposure twice a week in order for this synthesis to occur. Multivitamins may not resolve a specific vitamin D deficiency. Vitamin D is unrelated to meat and vegetable intake.

35. A burn patient is transitioning from the acute phase of the injury to the rehabilitation phase. The patient tells the nurse, I can't wait to have surgery to reconstruct my face so I look normal again. What would be the nurse's best response? A) That's something that you and your doctor will likely talk about after your scars mature. B) That is something for you to talk to your doctor about because it's not a nursing responsibility. C) I know this is really important to you, but you have to realize that no one can make you look like you used to. D) Unfortunately, it's likely that you will have most of these scars for the rest of your life.

A) That's something that you and your doctor will likely talk about after your scars mature. Ans: A Feedback: Burn reconstruction is a treatment option after all scars have matured and is discussed within the first few years after injury. Even though this is not a nursing responsibility, the nurse should still respond appropriately to the patient's query. It is true that the patient will not realistically look like he or she used to, but this does not instill hope.

12. An emergency department nurse learns from the paramedics that they are transporting a patient who has suffered injury from a scald from a hot kettle. What variables will the nurse consider when determining the depth of burn? A) The causative agent B) The patient's preinjury health status C) The patient's prognosis for recovery D) The circumstances of the accident

A) The causative agent Ans: A Feedback: The following factors are considered in determining the depth of a burn: how the injury occurred, causative agent (such as flame or scalding liquid), temperature of the burning agent, duration of contact with the agent, and thickness of the skin. The patient's preinjury status, circumstances of the accident, and prognosis for recovery are important, but are not considered when determining the depth of the burn.

15. A patient presents at the free clinic with a black, wart-like lesion on his face, stating, I've done some research, and I'm pretty sure I have malignant melanoma. Subsequent diagnostic testing results in a diagnosis of seborrheic keratosis. The nurse should recognize what significance of this diagnosis? A) The patient requires no treatment unless he finds the lesion to be cosmetically unacceptable. B) The patient's lesion will be closely observed for 6 months before a plan of treatment is chosen. C) The patient has one of the few dermatologic malignancies that respond to chemotherapy. D) The patient will likely require wide excision.

A) The patient requires no treatment unless he finds the lesion to be cosmetically unacceptable. Ans: A Feedback: Seborrheic keratoses are benign, wart like lesions of various sizes and colors, ranging from light tan to black. There is no harm in allowing these growths to remain because there is no medical significance to their presence.

2. A nurse is caring for a patient who has been diagnosed with psoriasis. The nurse is creating an education plan for the patient. What information should be included in this plan? A) Use caution when taking nonprescription medications. B) Avoid public places until symptoms subside. C) Wash skin frequently to prevent infection. D) Liberally apply corticosteroids as needed.

A) Use caution when taking nonprescription medications. Ans: A Feedback: The patient should be cautioned about taking nonprescription medications because some may aggravate mild psoriasis. Psoriasis is not contagious. Many patients need reassurance that the condition is not infectious, not a reflection of poor personal hygiene, and not skin cancer. Excessively frequent washing of skin produces more soreness and scaling. Overuse of topical corticosteroids can result in skin atrophy, striae, and medication resistance.

27. A nurse is providing self-care education to a patient who has been receiving treatment for acne vulgaris. What instruction should the nurse provide to the patient? A) Wash your face with water and gentle soap each morning and evening. B) Before bedtime, clean your face with rubbing alcohol on a cotton pad. C) Gently burst new pimples before they form a visible 'head'. D) Set aside time each day to squeeze blackheads and remove the plug.

A) Wash your face with water and gentle soap each morning and evening. Ans: A Feedback: The nurse should inform the patient to wash the face and other affected areas with mild soap and water twice each day to remove surface oils and prevent obstruction of the oil glands. Cleansing with rubbing alcohol is not recommended and all forms of manipulation should be avoided.

34. A 55-year-old woman is scheduled to have a chemical face peel. The nurse is aware that the patient is likely seeking treatment for which of the following? A) Wrinkles near the lips and eyes B) Removal of acne scars C) Vascular lesions on the cheeks D) Real or perceived misshaping of the eyes

A) Wrinkles near the lips and eyes Ans: A Feedback: Chemical face peeling is especially useful for wrinkles at the upper and lower lip, forehead, and periorbital areas. Chemical face peeling does not remove acne scars, remove vascular lesions, or reshape the eyes.

5. When writing a plan of care for a patient with psoriasis, the nurse would know that an appropriate nursing diagnosis for this patient would be what? A) Impaired Skin Integrity Related to Scaly Lesions B) Acute Pain Related to Blistering and Erosions of the Oral Cavity C) Impaired Tissue Integrity Related to Epidermal Shedding D) Anxiety Related to Risk for Melanoma

Ans: A Feedback: An appropriate diagnosis for a patient with psoriasis would include Impaired Skin Integrity as it relates to scaly lesions. Psoriasis causes pain but does not normally affect the oral cavity. Similarly, tissue integrity is impaired, but not through the process of epidermal shedding. Psoriasis is not related to an increased risk for melanoma.

40. A nurse who provides care on a burn unit is preparing to apply a patient's ordered topical antibiotic ointment. What action should the nurse perform when administering this medication? A) Apply the new ointment without disturbing the existing layer of ointment. B) Apply the ointment using a sterile tongue depressor. C) Apply a layer of ointment approximately 1/16 inch thick. D) Gently irrigate the wound bed after applying the antibiotic ointment.

Ans: C Feedback: After removing the old ointment from the wound bed, the nurse should apply a layer of ointment 1/16-inch thick using clean gloves. The wound would not be irrigated after application of new ointment.

14. A triage nurse in the emergency department (ED) receives a phone call from a frantic father who saw his 4-year-old child tip a pot of boiling water onto her chest. The father has called an ambulance. What would the nurse in the ED receiving the call instruct the father to do? A) Cover the burn with ice and secure with a towel. B) Apply butter to the area that is burned. C) Immerse the child in a cool bath. D) Avoid touching the burned area under any circumstances.

Ans: C Feedback: After the flames or heat source have been removed or extinguished, the burned area and adherent clothing are soaked with cool water briefly to cool the wound and halt the burning process. Cool water is the best first-aid measure. Ice and butter are contraindicated. Appropriate first aid necessitates touching the burn.

8. A nurse is doing a shift assessment on a group of patients after first taking report. An elderly patient is having her second dose of IV antibiotics for a diagnosis of pneumonia. The nurse notices a new rash on the patient's chest. The nurse should ask what priority question regarding the presence of a reddened rash? A) Is the rash worse at a particular time or season? B) Are you allergic to any foods or medication? C) Are you having any loss of sensation in that area? D) Is your rash painful?

B) Are you allergic to any foods or medication? Ans: B Feedback: The nurse should suspect an allergic reaction to the antibiotic therapy. Allergies can be a significant threat to the patient's immediate health, thus questions addressing this possibility would be prioritized over those addressing sensation. Asking about previous rashes is important, but this should likely be framed in the context of an allergy assessment.

31. A nurse practitioner working in a dermatology clinic finds an open lesion on a patient who is being assessed. What should the nurse do next? A) Obtain a swab for culture. B) Assess the characteristics of the lesion. C) Obtain a swab for pH testing. D) Apply a test dose of broad-spectrum topical antibiotic.

B) Assess the characteristics of the lesion. Ans: B Feedback: If acute open wounds or lesions are found on inspection of the skin, a comprehensive assessment should be made and documented. Testing for culture and pH are not necessarily required, and assessment should precede these actions. Antibiotics are not applied on an empiric basis.

1. A nurse practitioner is seeing a 16-year-old male patient who has come to the dermatology clinic for treatment of acne. The nurse practitioner would know that the treatment may consist of which of the following medications? A) Acyclovir (Zovirax) B) Benzoyl peroxide and erythromycin (Benzamycin) C) Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) D) Triamcinolone (Kenalog)

B) Benzoyl peroxide and erythromycin (Benzamycin) Ans: B Feedback: Benzamycin gel is among the topical treatments available for acne. Zovirax is used in the treatment of herpes zoster as an oral antiviral agent. Benadryl is an oral antihistamine used in the treatment of pruritus. Intralesional injections of Kenalog have been utilized in the treatment of psoriasis.

9. A gerontologic nurse is teaching a group of nursing students about integumentary changes that occur in older adults. How should these students best integrate these changes into care planning? A) By avoiding the use of moisturizing lotions on older adults' skin B) By protecting older adults against shearing injuries C) By avoiding the use of ice packs to treat muscle pain D) By protecting older adults against excessive sweat accumulation

B) By protecting older adults against shearing injuries Ans: B Feedback: Cellular changes associated with aging include thinning at the junction of the dermis and epidermis, which creates a risk for shearing injuries. Moisturizing lotions can be safely used to address the increased dryness of older adults' skin. Ice packs can be used, provided skin is assessed regularly and the patient possesses normal sensation. Older adults perspire much less than younger adults, thus sweat accumulation is rarely an issue.

13. A nurse is explaining the importance of sunlight on the skin to a woman with decreased mobility who rarely leaves her house. The nurse would emphasize that ultraviolet light helps to synthesize what vitamin? A) E B) D C) A D) C

B) D Ans: B Feedback: Skin exposed to ultraviolet light can convert substances necessary for synthesizing vitamin D (cholecalciferol). Vitamin D is essential for preventing rickets, a condition that causes bone deformities and results from a deficiency of vitamin D, calcium, and phosphorus.

3. A young student is brought to the school nurse after falling off a swing. The nurse is documenting that the child has bruising on the lateral aspect of the right arm. What term will the nurse use to describe bruising on the skin in documentation? A) Telangiectasias B) Ecchymoses C) Purpura D) Urticaria

B) Ecchymoses Ans: B Feedback: Telangiectasias consists of red marks on the skin caused by stretching of superficial blood vessels. Ecchymoses are bruises, and purpura consists of pinpoint hemorrhages into the skin. Urticariais wheals or hives.

10. A patient is diagnosed with atrial fibrillation and the physician orders Coumadin (warfarin). For what skin lesion should the nurse monitor this patient? A) Ulcer B) Ecchymosis C) Scar D) Erosion

B) Ecchymosis Ans: B Feedback: Ecchymosis refers to a round or irregular macular lesion, which is larger than petechiae. This occurs secondary to blood extravasation. It is important to watch for ecchymosis in a patient receiving any type of anticoagulant. An ulcer is an open lesion eroded into the patient's flesh. A scar is an area on the skin caused by the healing of an injury. Erosion is loss of superficial epidermis that does not extend to the dermisa depressed, moist area.

25. When caring for a patient with toxic epidermal necrolysis (TEN), the critical care nurse assesses frequently for high fever, tachycardia, and extreme weakness and fatigue. The nurse is aware that these findings are potential indicators of what? Select all that apply. A) Possible malignancy B) Epidermal necrosis C) Neurologic involvement D) Increased metabolic needs E) Possible gastrointestinal mucosal sloughing .

B) Epidermal necrosis D) Increased metabolic needs E) Possible gastrointestinal mucosal sloughing Ans: B, D, E Feedback: Assessment for high fever, tachycardia, and extreme weakness and fatigue is essential because these factors indicate the process of epidermal necrosis, increased metabolic needs, and possible gastrointestinal and respiratory mucosal sloughing. These factors are less likely to suggest malignancy or neurologic involvement, as these are not common complications of TEN

18. A patient has received a diagnosis of irritant contact dermatitis. What action should the nurse prioritize in the patient's subsequent care? A) Teaching the patient to safely and effectively administer immunosuppressants B) Helping the patient identify and avoid the offending agent C) Teaching the patient how to maintain meticulous skin hygiene D) Helping the patient perform wound care in the home environment

B) Helping the patient identify and avoid the offending agent Ans: B Feedback: A focus of care for patients with irritant contact dermatitis is identifying and avoiding the offending agent. Immunosuppressants are not used to treat eczema and wound care is not normally required, except in cases of open lesions. Poor hygiene has no correlation with contact dermatitis.

21. A nurse who is taking care of a patient with burns is asked by a family member why the patient is losing so much weight. The patient is currently in the intermediate phase of recovery. What would be the nurse's most appropriate response to the family member? A) He's on a calorie-restricted diet in order to divert energy to wound healing. B) His body has consumed his fat deposits for fuel because his calorie intake is lower than normal. C) He actually hasn't lost weight. Instead, there's been a change in the distribution of his body fat. D) He lost many fluids while he was being treated in the emergency phase of burn care.

B) His body has consumed his fat deposits for fuel because his calorie intake is lower than normal. Ans: B Feedback: Patients lose a great deal of weight during recovery from severe burns. Reserve fat deposits are catabolized as a result of hypermetabolism. Patients are not placed on a calorie restriction during recovery and fluid losses would not account for weight loss later in the recovery period. Changes in the overall distribution of body fat do not occur.

20. A patient's burns have required a homograft. During the nurse's most recent assessment, the nurse observes that the graft is newly covered with purulent exudate. What is the nurse's most appropriate response? A) Perform mechanical débridement to remove the exudate and prevent further infection. B) Inform the primary care provider promptly because the graft may need to be removed. C) Perform range of motion exercises to increase perfusion to the graft site and facilitate healing. D) Document this finding as an expected phase of graft healing.

B) Inform the primary care provider promptly because the graft may need to be removed. Ans: B Feedback: An infected graft may need to be removed, thus the care provider should be promptly informed. ROM exercises will not resolve this problem and the nurse would not independently perform débridement.

35. A patient comes to the dermatology clinic requesting the removal of a port-wine stain on his right cheek. The nurse knows that the procedure especially useful in treating cutaneous vascular lesions such as port-wine stains is what? A) Skin graft B) Laser treatment C) Chemical face peeling D) Free flap

B) Laser treatment Ans: B Feedback: Argon lasers are useful in treating cutaneous vascular lesions such as port-wine stains. Skin grafts, chemical face peels, and free flaps would not be used to remove a port-wine stain.

4. A patient has experienced an electrical burn and has developed thick eschar over the burn site. Which of the following topical antibacterial agents will the nurse expect the physician to order for the wound? A) Silver sulfadiazine 1% (Silvadene) water-soluble cream B) Mafenide acetate 10% (Sulfamylon) hydrophilic-based cream C) Silver nitrate 0.5% aqueous solution D) Acticoat

B) Mafenide acetate 10% (Sulfamylon) hydrophilic-based cream Ans: B Feedback: Mafenide acetate 10% hydrophilic-based cream is the agent of choice when there is a need to penetrate thick eschar. Silver products do not penetrate eschar; Acticoat is a type of silver dressing.

38. A patient is suspected of developing an allergy to an environmental substance and has been given a patch test. During the test, the patient develops fine blisters, papules, and severe itching. The nurse knows that this is indicative of what strength reaction? A) Weak positive B) Moderately positive C) Strong positive D) Severely positive

B) Moderately positive Ans: B Feedback: The development of redness, fine elevations, or itching is considered a weak positive reaction; fine blisters, papules, and severe itching indicate a moderately positive reaction; and blisters, pain, and ulceration indicate a strong positive reaction.

20. A school nurse has sent home four children who show evidence of pediculosis capitis. What is an important instruction the nurse should include in the note being sent home to parents? A) The child's scalp should be monitored for 48 to 72 hours before starting treatment. B) Nits may have to be manually removed from the child's hair shafts. C) The disease is self-limiting and symptoms will abate within 1 week. D) Efforts should be made to improve the child's level of hygiene.

B) Nits may have to be manually removed from the child's hair shafts. Ans: B Feedback: Treatment for head lice should begin promptly and may require manual removal of nits following medicating shampoo. Head lice are not related to a lack of hygiene. Treatment is necessary because the condition will not likely resolve spontaneously within 1 week.

39. A home care nurse is performing a visit to a patient's home to perform wound care following the patient's hospital treatment for severe burns. While interacting with the patient, the nurse should assess for evidence of what complication? A) Psychosis B) Post-traumatic stress disorder C) Delirium D) Vascular dementia

B) Post-traumatic stress disorder Ans: B Feedback: Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is the most common psychiatric disorder in burn survivors, with a prevalence that may be as high as 45%. As a result, it is important for the nurse to assess for this complication of burn injuries. Psychosis, delirium, and dementia are not among the noted psychiatric and psychosocial complications of burns.

14. A patient with a chronic diabetic wound is being discharged after receiving a skin graft to aid wound healing. What direction should the nurse include in home care instructions? A) Gently massage the graft site daily to promote perfusion. B) Protect the graft from direct sunlight and temperature extremes. C) Protect the graft site from any form of moisture for at least 12 weeks. D) Apply antibiotic ointment to the graft site and donor site daily.

B) Protect the graft from direct sunlight and temperature extremes. Ans: B Feedback: Both the donor site and the grafted area must be protected from exposure to extremes in temperature, external trauma, and sunlight because these areas are sensitive, especially to thermal injuries. Antibiotic ointments are not typically prescribed and massage may damage these fragile sites. There is no need to protect the sites from all forms of moisture for the long term.

A patient who was burned in a workplace accident has completed the acute phase of treatment and the plan of care has been altered to prioritize rehabilitation. What nursing action should be prioritized during this phase of treatment? A) Monitoring fluid and electrolyte imbalances B) Providing education to the patient and family C) Treating infection D) Promoting thermoregulation

B) Providing education to the patient and family Ans: B Feedback: Patient and family education is a priority during rehabilitation. There should be no fluid and electrolyte imbalances in the rehabilitation phase. The presence of impaired thermoregulation or infection would suggest that the patient is still in the acute phase of burn recovery.

10. The nurse is preparing the patient for mechanical débridement and informs the patient that this will involve which of the following procedures? A) A spontaneous separation of dead tissue from the viable tissue B) Removal of eschar until the point of pain and bleeding occurs C) Shaving of burned skin layers until bleeding, viable tissue is revealed D) Early closure of the wound

B) Removal of eschar until the point of pain and bleeding occurs Ans: B Feedback: Mechanical débridementcan be achieved through the use of surgical scissors, scalpels, or forceps to remove the eschar until the point of pain and bleeding occurs. Mechanical débridement can also be accomplished through the use of topical enzymatic débridement agents. The spontaneous separation of dead tissue from the viable tissue is an example of natural débridement. Shaving the burned skin layers and early wound closure are examples of surgical débridement.

12. A patient with a suspected malignant melanoma is referred to the dermatology clinic. The nurse knows to facilitate what diagnostic test to rule out a skin malignancy? A) Tzanck smear B) Skin biopsy C) Patch testing D) Skin scrapings

B) Skin biopsy Ans: B Feedback: A skin biopsy is done to rule out malignancies of skin lesions. A Tzanck smear is used to examine cells from blistering skin conditions, such as herpes zoster. Patch testing is performed to identify substances to which the patient has developed an allergy. Skin scrapings are done for suspected fungal infections.

19. A wound care nurse is reviewing skin anatomy with a group of medical nurses. Which area of the skin would the nurse identify as providing a cushion between the skin layers, muscles, and bones? A) Dermis B) Subcutaneous tissue C) Epidermis D) Stratum corneum

B) Subcutaneous tissue Ans: B Feedback: The subcutaneous tissue, or hypodermis, is the innermost layer of the skin that is responsible for providing a cushion between the skin layers, muscles, and bones. The dermis is the largest portion of the skin, providing strength and structure. The epidermis is the outermost layer of stratified epithelial cells and composed of keratinocytes. The stratum corneum is the outermost layer of the epidermis, which provides a barrier to prevent epidermal water loss.

28. A nurse is caring for a patient whose skin cancer will soon be removed by excision. Which of the following actions should the nurse perform? A) Teach the patient about early signs of secondary blistering diseases. B) Teach the patient about self-care after treatment. C) Assess the patient's risk for recurrent malignancy. D) Assess the patient for adverse effects of radiotherapy.

B) Teach the patient about self-care after treatment. Ans: B Feedback: Because many skin cancers are removed by excision, patients are usually treated in outpatient surgical units. The role of the nurse is to teach the patient about prevention of skin cancer and about self-care after treatment. Assessing the patient's risk for recurrent malignancy is primarily the role of the physician. Blistering diseases do not result from cancer or subsequent excision. Excision is not accompanied by radiotherapy.

35. Assessment of a patient's leg reveals the presence of a 1.5-cm circular region of necrotic tissue that is deeper than the epidermis. The nurse should document the presence of what type of skin lesion? A) Keloid B) Ulcer C) Fissure D) Erosion

B) Ulcer Ans: B Feedback: An ulcer is skin loss extending past the epidermis with the involvement of necrotic tissue. Keloids lack necrosis and consist of scar tissue. A fissure is linear and erosions do not extend to the dermis.

39. A dermatologist has asked the nurse to assist with examination of a patient's skin using a Wood's light. This test will allow the physician to assess for which of the following? A) The presence of minute regions of keloid scarring B) Unusual patterns of pigmentation on the patient's skin C) Vascular lesions that are not visible to the naked eye D) The presence of parasites on the epidermis

B) Unusual patterns of pigmentation on the patient's skin Ans: B Feedback: Wood's light makes it possible to differentiate epidermal from dermal lesions and hypopigmented and hyperpigmented lesions from normal skin.

21. While assessing a 25-year-old female, the nurse notes that the patient has hair on her lower abdomen. Earlier in the health interview, the patient stated that her menses are irregular. The nurse should suspect what type of health problem? A) A metabolic disorder B) A malignancy C) A hormonal imbalance D) An infectious process

C) A hormonal imbalance Ans: C Feedback: Some women with higher levels of testosterone have hair in the areas generally thought of as masculine, such as the face, chest, and lower abdomen. This is often a normal genetic variation, but if it appears along with irregular menses and weight changes, it may indicate a hormonal imbalance. This combination of irregular menses and hair distribution is inconsistent with metabolic disorders, malignancy, or infection.

2. The current phase of a patient's treatment for a burn injury prioritizes wound care, nutritional support, and prevention of complications such as infection. Based on these care priorities, the patient is in what phase of burn care? A) Emergent B) Immediate resuscitative C) Acute D) Rehabilitation

C) Acute Ans: C Feedback: The acute or intermediate phase of burn care follows the emergent/resuscitative phase and begins 48 to 72 hours after the burn injury. During this phase, attention is directed toward continued assessment and maintenance of respiratory and circulatory status, fluid and electrolyte balance, and gastrointestinal function. Infection prevention, burn wound care (i.e., wound cleaning, topical antibacterial therapy, wound dressing, dressing changes, wound débridement, and wound grafting), pain management, and nutritional support are priorities at this stage. Priorities during the emergent or immediate resuscitative phase include first aid, prevention of shock and respiratory distress, detection and treatment of concomitant injuries, and initial wound assessment and care. The priorities during the rehabilitation phase include prevention of scars and contractures, rehabilitation, functional and cosmetic reconstruction, and psychosocial counseling.

9. A patient requires a full-thickness graft to cover a chronic wound. How is the donor site selected? A) The largest area of the body without hair is selected. B) Any area that is not normally visible can be used. C) An area matching the color and texture of the skin at the surgical site is selected. D) An area matching the sensory capability of the skin at the surgical site is selected.

C) An area matching the color and texture of the skin at the surgical site is selected. Ans: C Feedback: The site where the intact skin is harvested is called the donor site. Selection of the donor site is made to match the color and texture of skin at the surgical site and to leave as little scarring as possible.

32. A 35-year-old kidney transplant patient comes to the clinic exhibiting new skin lesions. The diagnosis is Kaposi's sarcoma. The nurse caring for this patient recognizes that this is what type of Kaposi's sarcoma? A) Classic B) AIDS-related C) Immunosuppression-related D) Endemic

C) Immunosuppression-related Ans: C Feedback: Immunosuppression-associated Kaposi's sarcoma occurs in transplant recipients and people with AIDS. This form of KS is characterized by local skin lesions and disseminated visceral and mucocutaneous diseases. Classic Kaposi's sarcoma occurs predominantly in men of Mediterranean or Jewish ancestry between 40 and 70 years of age. Endemic KS affects people predominantly in the eastern half of Africa. AIDS-related KS is seen in people with AIDS.

22. A nurse is caring for a patient who has a diagnosis of bullous pemphigoid and who is being treated on the medical unit. When providing hygiene for this patient, the nurse should perform which of the following actions? A) After washing, wipe lesions with sterile gauze to remove cellular debris. B) Apply antibiotic ointment to lesions after washing. C) Apply cornstarch to the patient's skin after bathing to facilitate mobility. D) Avoid using water to cleanse the patient's skin in order to maintain skin integrity.

C) Apply cornstarch to the patient's skin after bathing to facilitate mobility. Ans: C Feedback: After the patient's skin is bathed, it is dried carefully and dusted liberally with nonirritating powder (e.g., cornstarch), which enables the patient to move about freely in bed. Open blisters should not normally be wiped and antibiotics are not applied to wound beds in the absence of a secondary infection. Water can safely be used to provide hygiene.

31. A patient has experienced burns to his upper thighs and knees. Following the application of new wound dressings, the nurse should perform what nursing action? A) Instruct the patient to keep the wound site in a dependent position. B) Administer PRN analgesia as ordered. C) Assess the patient's peripheral pulses distal to the dressing. D) Assist with passive range of motion exercises to set the new dressing.

C) Assess the patient's peripheral pulses distal to the dressing. Ans: C Feedback: Dressings can impede circulation if they are wrapped too tightly. The peripheral pulses must be checked frequently and burned extremities elevated. Dependent positioning does not need to be maintained. PRN analgesics should be administered prior to the dressing change. ROM exercises do not normally follow a dressing change.

16. A nurse is providing care for a patient who has psoriasis. The nurse is aware of the sequelae that can result from this health problem. Following the appearance of skin lesions, the nurse should prioritize what assessment? A) Assessment of the patient's stool for evidence of intestinal sloughing B) Assessment of the patient's apical heart rate for dysrhythmias C) Assessment of the patient's joints for pain and decreased range of motion D) Assessment for cognitive changes resulting from neurologic lesions

C) Assessment of the patient's joints for pain and decreased range of motion Ans: C Feedback: Asymmetric rheumatoid factornegative arthritis of multiple joints occurs in up to 30% of people with psoriasis, most typically after the skin lesions appear. The most typical joints affected include those in the hands or feet, although sometimes larger joints such as the elbow, knees, or hips may be affected. As such, the nurse should assess for this musculoskeletal complication. GI, cardiovascular, and neurologic function are not affected by psoriasis.

38. An older adult resident of a long-term care facility has been experiencing generalized pruritus that has become more severe in recent weeks. What intervention should the nurse add to this resident's plan of care? A) Avoid the application of skin emollients. B) Apply antibiotic ointment as ordered following baths. C) Avoid using hot water during the patient's baths. D) Administer acetaminophen 4 times daily as ordered.

C) Avoid using hot water during the patient's baths. Ans: C Feedback: If baths have been prescribed, the patient is reminded to use tepid (not hot) water and to shake off the excess water and blot between intertriginous areas (body folds) with a towel. Skin emollients should be applied to reduce pruritus. Acetaminophen and antibiotics do not reduce pruritus.

32. The nurse is performing a comprehensive assessment of a patient's skin surfaces and intends to assess moisture, temperature, and texture. The nurse should perform this component of assessment in what way? A) By examining the patient under a Wood's light B) By inspecting the patient's skin in direct sunlight C) By palpating the patient's skin D) By performing percussion of major skin surfaces

C) By palpating the patient's skin Ans: C Feedback: Inspection and palpation are techniques commonly used in examining the skin. A patient would only be examined under a Wood's light if there were indications it could be diagnostic. The patient is examined in a well-lit room, not in direct sunlight. Percussion is not a technique used in assessing the skin.

15. A nurse is teaching a patient with a partial-thickness wound how to wear his elastic pressure garment. How would the nurse instruct the patient to wear this garment? A) 4 to 6 hours a day for 6 months B) During waking hours for 2 to 3 months after the injury C) Continuously D) At night while sleeping for a year after the injury

C) Continuously Ans: C Feedback: Elastic pressure garments are worn continuously (i.e., 23 hours a day).

24. A patient with severe burns is admitted to the intensive care unit to stabilize and begin fluid resuscitation before transport to the burn center. The nurse should monitor the patient closely for what signs of the onset of burn shock? A) Confusion B) High fever C) Decreased blood pressure D) Sudden agitation

C) Decreased blood pressure Ans: C Feedback: As fluid loss continues and vascular volume decreases, cardiac output continues to decrease and the blood pressure drops, marking the onset of burn shock. Shock and the accompanying hemodynamic changes are not normally accompanied by confusion, fever, or agitation.

7. While performing an initial assessment of a patient admitted with appendicitis, the nurse observes an elevated blue-black lesion on the patient's ear. The nurse knows that this lesion is consistent with what type of skin cancer? A) Basal cell carcinoma B) Squamous cell carcinoma C) Dermatofibroma D) Malignant melanoma

C) Dermatofibroma Ans: D Feedback: A malignant melanoma presents itself as a superficial spreading melanoma which may appear in a combination of colors, with hues of tan, brown, and black mixed with gray, blue-black, or white. The lesion tends to be circular, with irregular outer portions. BCC usually begins as a small, waxy nodule with rolled, translucent, pearly borders; telangiectatic vessels may be present. SCC appears as a rough, thickened, scaly tumor that may be asymptomatic or may involve bleeding. A dermatofibroma presents as a firm, dome-shaped papule or nodule that may be skin colored or pinkish-brown.

25. A nurse is reviewing gerontologic considerations relating to the care of patients with dermatologic problems. What vulnerability results from the age-related loss of subcutaneous tissue? A) Decreased resistance to ultraviolet radiation B) Increased vulnerability to infection C) Diminished protection of tissues and organs D) Increased risk of skin malignancies

C) Diminished protection of tissues and organs Ans: C Feedback: Loss of the subcutaneous tissue substances of elastin, collagen, and fat diminishes the protection and cushioning of underlying tissues and organs, decreases muscle tone, and results in the loss of the insulating properties of fat. This age-related change does not correlate to an increased vulnerability to sun damage, infection, or cancer.

39. A patient has a diagnosis of seborrhea and has been referred to the dermatology clinic, where the nurse contributes to care. When planning this patient's care, the nurse should include which of the following nursing diagnoses? A) Risk for Deficient Fluid Volume Related to Excess Sebum Synthesis B) Ineffective Thermoregulation Related to Occlusion of Sebaceous Glands C) Disturbed Body Image Related to Excess Sebum Production D) Ineffective Tissue Perfusion Related to Occlusion of Sebaceous Glands

C) Disturbed Body Image Related to Excess Sebum Production Ans: C Feedback: Seborrhea causes highly visible manifestations that are likely to have a negative effect on the patient's body image. Seborrhea does not normally affect fluid balance, thermoregulation, or tissue perfusion.

28. The nurse is performing an initial assessment of a patient who has a raised, pruritic rash. The patient denies taking any prescription medication and denies any allergies. What would be an appropriate question to ask this patient at this time? A) Is anyone in your family allergic to anything? B) How long have you had this abrasion? C) Do you take any over-the-counter drugs or herbal preparations? D) What do you do for a living?

C) Do you take any over-the-counter drugs or herbal preparations? Ans: C Feedback: If suspicious areas are noted, the patient is questioned about nonprescription or herbal preparations that might be in use. Ascertaining a family history of allergies would not give helpful information at this time. The patient's lesion is not described as an abrasion. The patient's occupation may or may not be relevant; it is more important to assess for herb or drug reactions.

37. A public health nurse is participating in a health promotion campaign that has the goal of improving outcomes related to skin cancer in the community. What action has the greatest potential to achieve this goal? A) Educating participants about the relationship between general health and the risk of skin cancer B) Educating participants about treatment options for skin cancer C) Educating participants about the early signs and symptoms of skin cancer D) Educating participants about the health risks associated with smoking and assisting with smoking cessation

C) Educating participants about the early signs and symptoms of skin cancer Ans: C Feedback: The best hope of decreasing the incidence of skin cancer lies in educating patients about the early signs. There is a relationship between general health and skin cancer, but teaching individuals to identify the early signs and symptoms is more likely to benefit overall outcomes related to skin cancer. Teaching about treatment options is not likely to have a major effect on outcomes of the disease. Smoking is not among the major risk factors for skin cancer.

23. A nurse is preparing to perform the physical assessment of a newly admitted patient. During which of the following components of the assessment should the nurse wear gloves? Select all that apply. A) Palpation of the patient's scalp B) Palpation of the patient's upper extremities C) Palpation of a rash on the patient's trunk D) Palpation of a lesion on the patient's upper back E) Palpation of the patient's fingers

C) Palpation of a rash on the patient's trunk D) Palpation of a lesion on the patient's upper back Ans: C, D Feedback: Gloves are worn during skin examination if a rash or lesions are to be palpated. It is not normally necessary to wear gloves to palpate a patient's scalp, extremities, or fingers unless contact with body fluids is reasonably foreseeable.

11. A new patient has come to the dermatology clinic to be assessed for a reddened rash on his abdomen. What diagnostic test would most likely be ordered to identify the causative allergen? A) Skin scrapings B) Skin biopsy C) Patch testing D) Tzanck smear

C) Patch testing Ans: C Feedback: Patch testing is performed to identify substances to which the patient has developed an allergy. Skin scrapings are done for suspected fungal lesions. A skin biopsy is completed to rule out malignancy and to establish an exact diagnosis of skin lesions. A Tzanck smear is used to examine cells from blistering skin conditions, such as herpes zoster.

12. A patient diagnosed with a stasis ulcer has been hospitalized. There is an order to change the dressing and provide wound care. Which activity should the nurse first perform when providing wound care? A) Assess the drainage in the dressing. B) Slowly remove the soiled dressing. C) Perform hand hygiene. D) Don non-latex gloves.

C) Perform hand hygiene. Ans: C Feedback: The nurse and physician must adhere to standard precautions and wear gloves when inspecting the skin or changing a dressing. Use of standard precautions and proper disposal of any contaminated dressing is carried out according to Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) regulations. Hand hygiene must precede other aspects of wound care.

36. A new patient presents at the clinic and the nurse performs a comprehensive health assessment. The nurse notes that the patient's fingernail surfaces are pitted. The nurse should suspect the presence of what health problem? A) Eczema B) Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) C) Psoriasis D) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)

C) Psoriasis Ans: C Feedback: Pitted surface of the nails is a definite indication of psoriasis. Pitting of the nails does not indicate eczema, SLE, or COPD.

16. A nurse in a dermatology clinic is reading the electronic health record of a new patient. The nurse notes that the patient has a history of a primary skin lesion. What is an example of a primary skin lesion? A) Crust B) Keloid C) Pustule D) Ulcer

C) Pustule Ans: C Feedback: A pustule is an example of a primary skin lesion. Primary skin lesions are original lesions arising from previously normal skin. Crusts, keloids and ulcers are secondary lesions.

17. A patient is admitted to the intensive care unit with what is thought to be toxic epidermal necrolysis (TEN). When assessing the health history of the patient, the nurse would be alert to what precipitating factor? A) Recent heavy ultraviolet exposure B) Substandard hygienic conditions C) Recent administration of new medications D) Recent varicella infection

C) Recent administration of new medications Ans: C Feedback: In adults, TEN is usually triggered by a reaction to medications. Antibiotics, antiseizure agents, butazones, and sulfonamides are the most frequent medications implicated. TEN is unrelated to UV exposure, hygiene, or varicella infection.

28. A patient experienced a 33% TBSA burn 72 hours ago. The nurse observes that the patient's hourly urine output has been steadily increasing over the past 24 hours. How should the nurse best respond to this finding? A) Obtain an order to reduce the rate of the patient's IV fluid infusion. B) Report the patient's early signs of acute kidney injury (AKI). C) Recognize that the patient is experiencing an expected onset of diuresis. D) Administer sodium chloride as ordered to compensate for this fluid loss.

C) Recognize that the patient is experiencing an expected onset of diuresis. Ans: C Feedback: As capillaries regain integrity, 48 or more hours after the burn, fluid moves from the interstitial to the intravascular compartment and diuresis begins. This is an expected development and does not require a reduction in the IV infusion rate or the administration of NaCl. Diuresis is not suggestive of AKI.

4. A patient with squamous cell carcinoma has been scheduled for treatment of this malignancy. The nurse should anticipate that treatment for this type of cancer will primarily consist of what intervention? A) Chemotherapy B) Radiation therapy C) Surgical excision D) Biopsy of sample tissue

C) Surgical excision Ans: C Feedback: The primary goal of surgical management of squamous cell carcinoma is to remove the tumor entirely. Radiation therapy is reserved for older patients, because x-ray changes may be seen after 5 to 10 years, and malignant changes in scars may be induced by irradiation 15 to 30 years later. Obtaining a biopsy would not be a goal of treatment; it may be an assessment. Chemotherapy and radiation therapy are generally reserved for patients who are not surgical candidates.

40. A nurse is working with a family whose 5 year-old daughter has been diagnosed with impetigo. What educational intervention should the nurse include in this family's care? A) Ensuring that the family knows that impetigo is not contagious B) Teaching about the safe and effective use of topical corticosteroids C) Teaching about the importance of maintaining high standards of hygiene D) Ensuring that the family knows how to safely burst the child's vesicles

C) Teaching about the importance of maintaining high standards of hygiene Ans: C Feedback: Impetigo is associated with unhygienic conditions; educational interventions to address this are appropriate. The disease is contagious, thus vesicles should not be manually burst. Because of the bacterial etiology, corticosteroids are ineffective.

11. A nurse is leading a health promotion workshop that is focusing on cancer prevention. What action is most likely to reduce participants' risks of basal cell carcinoma (BCC)? A) Teaching participants to improve their overall health through nutrition B) Encouraging participants to identify their family history of cancer C) Teaching participants to limit their sun exposure D) Teaching participants to control exposure to environmental and occupational radiation

C) Teaching participants to limit their sun exposure Ans: C Feedback: Sun exposure is the best known and most common cause of BCC. BCC is not commonly linked to general health debilitation, family history, or radiation exposure.

2. When planning the skin care of a patient with decreased mobility, the nurse is aware of the varying thickness of the epidermis. At what location is the epidermal layer thickest? A) The scalp B) The elbows C) The palms of the hands D) The knees

C) The palms of the hands Ans: C Feedback: The epidermis is the thickest over the palms of the hands and the soles of the feet.

19. A nurse is developing a care plan for a patient with a partial-thickness burn, and determines that an appropriate goal is to maintain position of joints in alignment. What is the best rationale for this intervention? A) To prevent neuropathies B) To prevent wound breakdown C) To prevent contractures D) To prevent heterotopic ossification

C) To prevent contractures Ans: C Feedback: To prevent the complication of contractures, the nurse will establish a goal to maintain position of joints in alignment. Gentle range of motion exercises and a consult to PT and OT for exercises and positioning recommendations are also appropriate interventions for the prevention of contractures. Joint alignment is not maintained specifically for preventing neuropathy, wound breakdown, or heterotopic ossification.

11. A patient with a partial-thickness burn injury had Biobrane applied 2 weeks ago. The nurse notices that the Biobrane is separating from the burn wound. What is the nurse's most appropriate intervention? A) Reinforce the Biobrane dressing with another piece of Biobrane. B) Remove the Biobrane dressing and apply a new dressing. C) Trim away the separated Biobrane. D) Notify the physician for further emergency-related orders.

C) Trim away the separated Biobrane. Ans: C Feedback: As the Biobrane gradually separates, it is trimmed, leaving a healed wound. When the Biobrane dressing adheres to the wound, the wound remains stable and the Biobrane can remain in place for 3 to 4 weeks. There is no need to reinforce the Biobrane nor to remove it and apply a new dressing. There is not likely any need to notify the physician for further orders.

40. A patient presents at the dermatology clinic with suspected herpes simplex. The nurse knows to prepare what diagnostic test for this condition? A) Skin biopsy B) Patch test C) Tzanck smear D) Examination with a Wood's light

C) Tzanck smear Ans: C Feedback: The Tzanck smear is a test used to examine cells from blistering skin conditions, such as herpes zoster, varicella, herpes simplex, and all forms of pemphigus. The secretions from a suspected lesion are applied to a glass slide, stained, and examined. This is not accomplished by biopsy, patch test, or Wood's light.

10. A patient has just been told that he has malignant melanoma. The nurse caring for this patient should anticipate that the patient will undergo what treatment? A) Chemotherapy B) Immunotherapy C) Wide excision D) Radiation therapy

C) Wide excision Ans: C Feedback: Wide excision is the primary treatment for malignant melanoma, which removes the entire lesion and determines the level and staging. Chemotherapy may be used after the melanoma is excised. Immunotherapy is experimental and radiation therapy is palliative.

36. A 30-year-old male patient has just returned from the operating room after having a "flap" done following a motorcycle accident. The patient's wife asks the nurse about the major complications following this type of surgery. What would be the nurse's best response? A) "The major complication is when the patient develops chronic pain." B) "The major complication is when the patient loses sensation in the flap." C) "The major complication is when the pedicle tears loose and the flap dies." D) "The major complication is when the blood supply fails and the tissue in the flap dies."

D) "The major complication is when the blood supply fails and the tissue in the flap dies." Ans: D Feedback: The major complication of a flap is necrosis of the pedicle or base as a result of failure of the blood supply. This is more likely than tearing of the pedicle and chronic pain and is more serious than loss of sensation.

17. A patient arrives in the emergency department after being burned in a house fire. The patient's burns cover the face and the left forearm. What extent of burns does the patient most likely have? A) 13% B) 25% C) 9% D) 18%

D) 18% Ans: D Feedback: When estimating the percentage of body area or burn surface area that has been burned, the Rule of Nines is used: the face is 9%, and the forearm is 9% for a total of 18% in this patient.

13. A nurse is caring for a patient who has sustained a deep partial-thickness burn injury. In prioritizing the nursing diagnoses for the plan of care, the nurse will give the highest priority to what nursing diagnosis? A) Activity Intolerance B) Anxiety C) Ineffective Coping D) Acute Pain

D) Acute Pain Ans: D Feedback: Pain is inevitable during recovery from any burn injury. Pain in the burn patient has been described as one of the most severe causes of acute pain. Management of the often-severe pain is one of the most difficult challenges facing the burn team. While the other nursing diagnoses listed are valid, the presence of pain may contribute to these diagnoses. Management of the patient's pain is the priority, as it may have a direct correlation to the other listed nursing diagnoses.

3. A nurse is planning the care of a patient with herpes zoster. What medication, if administered within the first 24 hours of the initial eruption, can arrest herpes zoster? A) Prednisone (Deltasone) B) Azanthioprine (Imuran) C) Triamcinolone (Kenalog) D) Acyclovir (Zovirax)

D) Acyclovir (Zovirax) Ans: D Feedback: Acyclovir, if started early, is effective in significantly reducing the pain and halting the progression of the disease. There is evidence that infection is arrested if oral antiviral agents are administered within the first 24 hours. Prednisone is an anti-inflammatory agent used in a variety of skin disorders, but not in the treatment of herpes. Azanthioprine is an immunosuppressive agent used in the treatment of pemphigus. Triamcinolone is utilized in the treatment of psoriasis.

16. A patient is brought to the ED by paramedics, who report that the patient has partial-thickness burns on the chest and legs. The patient has also suffered smoke inhalation. What is the priority in the care of a patient who has been burned and suffered smoke inhalation? A) Pain B) Fluid balance C) Anxiety and fear D) Airway management

D) Airway management Ans: D Feedback: Systemic threats from a burn are the greatest threat to life. The ABCs of all trauma care apply during the early postburn period. While all options should be addressed, pain, fluid balance, and anxiety and fear do not take precedence over airway management.

29. A patient has just undergone surgery for malignant melanoma. Which of the following nursing actions should be prioritized? A) Maintain the patient on bed rest for the first 24 hours postoperative. B) Apply distraction techniques to relieve pain. C) Provide soft or liquid diet that is high in protein to assist with healing. D) Anticipate the need for, and administer, appropriate analgesic medications.

D) Anticipate the need for, and administer, appropriate analgesic medications. Ans: D Feedback: Nursing interventions after surgery for a malignant melanoma center on promoting comfort, because wide excision surgery may be necessary. Anticipating the need for and administering appropriate analgesic medications are important. Distraction techniques may be appropriate for some patients, but these are not a substitute for analgesia. Bed rest and a modified diet are not necessary.

30. A nurse is performing a home visit to a patient who is recovering following a long course of inpatient treatment for burn injuries. When performing this home visit, the nurse should do which of the following? A) Assess the patient for signs of electrolyte imbalances. B) Administer fluids as ordered. C) Assess the risk for injury recurrence. D) Assess the patient's psychosocial state.

D) Assess the patient's psychosocial state. Ans: D Feedback: Recovery from burns can be psychologically challenging; the nurse's assessments must address this reality. Fluid and electrolyte imbalances are infrequent during the rehabilitation phase of recovery. Burns are not typically a health problem that tends to recur; the experience of being burned tends to foster vigilance.

33. A 65-year-old man presents at the clinic complaining of nodules on both legs. The man tells the nurse that his son, who is in medical school, encouraged him to seek prompt care and told him that the nodules are related to the fact that he is Jewish. What health problem should the nurse suspect? A) Stasis ulcers B) Bullous pemphigoid C) Psoriasis D) Classic Kaposi's sarcoma

D) Classic Kaposi's sarcoma Ans: D Feedback: Classic Kaposi's sarcoma occurs predominantly in men of Mediterranean or Jewish ancestry between 40 and 70 years of age. Most patients have nodules or plaques on the lower extremities that rarely metastasize beyond this area. Classic KS is chronic, relatively benign, and rarely fatal. Stasis ulcers do not create nodules. Bullous pemphigoid is characterized by blistering. Psoriasis characteristically presents with silvery plaques.

33. A nurse is assessing the skin of a patient who has been diagnosed with bacterial cellulitis on the dorsal portion of the great toe. When reviewing the patient's health history, the nurse should identify what comorbidity as increasing the patient's vulnerability to skin infections? A) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease B) Rheumatoid arthritis C) Gout D) Diabetes

D) Diabetes Ans: D Feedback: Patients with diabetes are particularly susceptible to skin infections. COPD, RA, and gout are less commonly associated with integumentary manifestations.

26. A nurse is assessing a teenage patient with acne vulgaris. The patient's mother states, I keep telling him that this is what happens when you eat as much chocolate as he does. What aspect of the pathophysiology of acne should inform the nurse's response? A) A sudden change in patient's diet may exacerbate, rather than alleviate, the patient's symptoms. B) Chocolate is not among the foods that are known to cause acne. C) Elimination of chocolate from the patient's diet will likely lead to resolution within several months. D) Diet is thought to play a minimal role in the development of acne.

D) Diet is thought to play a minimal role in the development of acne. Ans: D Feedback: Diet is not believed to play a major role in acne therapy. A change in diet is not known to exacerbate symptoms.

37. A patient's health assessment has resulted in a diagnosis of alopecia areata. What nursing diagnosis should the nurse most likely associate with this health problem? A) Chronic Pain B) Impaired Skin Integrity C) Impaired Tissue Integrity D) Disturbed Body Image

D) Disturbed Body Image Ans: D Feedback: Alopecia areata causes hair loss in smaller defined areas. As such, it is common for the patient to experience a disturbed body image. Hair loss does not cause pain and does not affect skin or tissue integrity.

37. The nurse caring for a patient who is recovering from full-thickness burns is aware of the patient's risk for contracture and hypertrophic scarring. How can the nurse best mitigate this risk? A) Apply skin emollients as ordered after granulation has occurred. B) Keep injured areas immobilized whenever possible to promote healing. C) Administer oral or IV corticosteroids as ordered. D) Encourage physical activity and range of motion exercises.

D) Encourage physical activity and range of motion exercises. Ans: D Feedback: Exercise and the promotion of mobility can reduce the risk of contracture and hypertrophic scarring. Skin emollients are not normally used in the treatment of burns, and these do not prevent scarring. Steroids are not used to reduce scarring, as they also slow the healing process.

8. A nurse is providing care for a patient who has developed Kaposi's sarcoma secondary to HIV infection. The nurse should be aware that this form of malignancy originates in what part of the body? A) Connective tissue cells in diffuse locations B) Smooth muscle cells of the gastrointestinal and respiratory tract C) Neural tissue of the brain and spinal cord D) Endothelial cells lining small blood vessels

D) Endothelial cells lining small blood vessels Ans: D Feedback: Kaposi's sarcoma (KS) is a malignancy of endothelial cells that line the small blood vessels. It does not originate in connective tissue, smooth muscle cells of the GI and respiratory tract, or in neural tissue.

1. A patient is brought to the emergency department from the site of a chemical fire, where he suffered a burn that involves the epidermis, dermis, and the muscle and bone of the right arm. On inspection, the skin appears charred. Based on these assessment findings, what is the depth of the burn on the patient's arm? A) Superficial partial-thickness B) Deep partial-thickness C) Full partial-thickness D) Full-thickness

D) Full-thickness Ans: D Feedback: A full-thickness burn involves total destruction of the epidermis and dermis and, in some cases, underlying tissue as well. Wound color ranges widely from white to red, brown, or black. The burned area is painless because the nerve fibers are destroyed. The wound can appear leathery; hair follicles and sweat glands are destroyed. Edema may also be present. Superficial partial-thickness burns involve the epidermis and possibly a portion of the dermis; the patient will experience pain that is soothed by cooling. Deep partial-thickness burns involve the epidermis, upper dermis, and portion of the deeper dermis; the patient will complain of pain and sensitivity to cold air. Full partial thickness is not a depth of burn.

13. A patient comes to the clinic complaining of a red rash of small, fluid-filled blisters and is suspected of having herpes zoster. What presentation is most consistent with herpes zoster? A) Grouped vesicles occurring on lips and oral mucous membranes B) Grouped vesicles occurring on the genitalia C) Rough, fresh, or gray skin protrusions D) Grouped vesicles in linear patches along a dermatome

D) Grouped vesicles in linear patches along a dermatome Ans: D Feedback: Herpes zoster, or shingles, is an acute inflammation of the dorsal root ganglia, causing localized, vesicular skin lesions following a dermatome. Herpes simplex type 1 is a viral infection affecting the skin and mucous membranes, usually producing cold sores or fever blisters. Herpes simplex type 2 primarily affects the genital area, causing painful clusters of small ulcerations. Warts appear as rough, fresh, or gray skin protrusions.

14. A nurse is working with a patient who has a diagnosis of Cushing syndrome. When completing a physical assessment, the nurse should specifically observe for what integumentary manifestation? A) Alopecia B) Yellowish skin tone C) Patchy, bronze pigmentation D) Hirsutism

D) Hirsutism Ans: D Feedback: Cushing syndrome causes excessive hair growth, especially in women. Alopecia is hair loss from the scalp and other parts of the body. Jaundice causes a yellow discoloration in light-skinned patients, but this does not accompany Cushing syndrome. Patients that have Addison's disease exhibit a bronze discoloration to their skin due to increased melanin production.

22. An 82-year-old patient is being treated in the hospital for a sacral pressure ulcer. What age-related change is most likely to affect the patient's course of treatment? A) Increased thickness of the subcutaneous skin layer B) Increased vascular supply to superficial skin layers C) Changes in the character and quantity of bacterial skin flora D) Increased time required for wound healing

D) Increased time required for wound healing Ans: D Feedback: Wound healing becomes slower with age, requiring more time for older adults to recover from surgical and traumatic wounds. There are no changes in skin flora with increased age. Vascular supply and skin thickness both decrease with age.

26. A patient's burns are estimated at 36% of total body surface area; fluid resuscitation has been ordered in the emergency department. After establishing intravenous access, the nurse should anticipate the administration of what fluid? A) 0.45% NaCl with 20 mEq/L KCl B) 0.45% NaCl with 40 mEq/L KCl C) Normal saline D) Lactated Ringer's

D) Lactated Ringer's Ans: D Feedback: Fluid resuscitation with lactated Ringers (LR) should be initiated using the American Burn Association's (ABA) fluid resuscitation formulas. LR is the crystalloid of choice because its composition and osmolality most closely resemble plasma and because use of normal saline is associated with hyperchloremic acidosis. Potassium chloride solutions would exacerbate the hyperkalemia that occurs following burn injuries.

18. A nurse is providing an educational presentation addressing the topic of Protecting Your Skin. When discussing the anatomy of the skin with this group, the nurse should know that what cells are responsible for producing the pigmentation of the skin? A) Islets of Langerhans B) Squamous cells C) T cells D) Melanocytes

D) Melanocytes Ans: D Feedback: Melanocytes are the special cells of the epidermis that are primarily responsible for producing the pigment melanin. Islets of Langerhans are clusters of cells in the pancreas. Squamous cells are flat, scaly epithelial cells. T cells function in the immune response.

1. A nurse is aware that the outer layer of the skin consists of dead cells that contain large amounts of keratin. The physiologic functions of keratin include which of the following? Select all that apply. A) Producing antibodies B) Absorbing electrolytes C) Maintaining acidbase balance D) Physically repelling pathogens E) Preventing fluid loss

D) Physically repelling pathogens E) Preventing fluid loss Ans: D, E Feedback: The dead cells of the epidermis contain large amounts of keratin, an insoluble, fibrous protein that forms the outer barrier of the skin. Keratin has the capacity to repel pathogens and prevent excessive fluid loss from the body. It does not contribute directly to antibody production, acidbase balance, or electrolyte levels.

32. A nurse is caring for a patient with burns who is in the later stages of the acute phase of recovery. The plan of nursing care should include which of the following nursing actions? A) Maintenance of bed rest to aid healing B) Choosing appropriate splints and functional devices C) Administration of beta adrenergic blockers D) Prevention of venous thromboembolism

D) Prevention of venous thromboembolism Ans: D Feedback: Prevention of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is an important factor in care. Early mobilization of the patient is important. The nurse monitors the splints and functional devices, but these are selected by occupational and physical therapists. The hemodynamic changes accompanying burns do not normally require the use of beta blockers.

19. A nurse is caring for a patient whose chemical injury has necessitated a skin graft to his left hand. The nurse enters the room and observes that the patient is performing active range of motion (ROM) exercises with the affected hand. How should the nurse best respond? A) Liaise with the physical therapist to ensure that the patient is performing exercises safely. B) Validate the patient's efforts to increase blood perfusion to the graft site. C) Remind the patient that ROM exercises should be passive, not active. D) Remind the patient of the need to immobilize the graft to facilitate healing.

D) Remind the patient of the need to immobilize the graft to facilitate healing. Ans: D Feedback: The nurse should instruct the patient to keep the affected part immobilized as much as possible in order to facilitate healing. Passive ROM exercises can be equally as damaging as active ROM.

7. An African American is admitted to the medical unit with liver disease. To correctly assess this patient for jaundice, on what body area should the nurse look for yellow discoloration? A) Elbows B) Lips C) Nail beds D) Sclerae

D) Sclerae Ans: D Feedback: Jaundice, a yellowing of the skin, is directly related to elevations in serum bilirubin and is often first observed in the sclerae and mucous membranes.

24. A patient with an exceptionally low body mass index has been admitted to the emergency department with signs and symptoms of hypothermia. The nurse should know that this patient's susceptibility to heat loss is related to atrophy of what skin component? A) Epidermis B) Merkel cells C) Dermis D) Subcutaneous tissue

D) Subcutaneous tissue Ans: D Feedback: The subcutaneous tissues and the amount of fat deposits are important factors in body temperature regulation. The epidermis is an outermost layer of stratified epithelial cells. Merkel cells are receptors that transmit stimuli to the axon through a chemical synapse. The dermis makes up the largest portion of the skin, providing strength and structure. It is composed of two layers: papillary and reticular.

6. A patient who has sustained third-degree facial burns and a facial fracture is undergoing reconstructive surgery and implantation of a prosthesis. The nurse has identified a nursing diagnosis of Disturbed Body Image Related to Disfigurement. What would be an appropriate nursing intervention related to this diagnosis? A) Referring the patient to a speech therapist B) Gradually adding soft foods to diet C) Administering analgesics as prescribed D) Teaching the patient how to use and care for the prosthesis

D) Teaching the patient how to use and care for the prosthesis Ans: D Feedback: The process of facial reconstruction is often slow and tedious. Because a person's facial appearance affects self-esteem so greatly, this type of reconstruction is often a very emotional experience for the patient. Reinforcement of the patient's successful coping strategies improves self-esteem. If prosthetic devices are used, the patient is taught how to use and care for them to gain a sense of greater independence. This is an intervention that relates to Disturbed Body Image in these patients. None of the other listed interventions relates directly to the diagnosis of Disturbed Body Image.

38. While performing a patient's ordered wound care for the treatment of a burn, the patient has made a series of sarcastic remarks to the nurse and criticized her technique. How should the nurse best interpret this patient's behavior? A) The patient may be experiencing an adverse drug reaction that is affecting his cognition and behavior. B) The patient may be experiencing neurologic or psychiatric complications of his injuries. C) The patient may be experiencing inconsistencies in the care that he is being provided. D) The patient may be experiencing anger about his circumstances that he is deflecting toward the nurse.

D) The patient may be experiencing anger about his circumstances that he is deflecting toward the nurse. Ans: D Feedback: The patient may experience feelings of anger. The anger may be directed outward toward those who escaped unharmed or toward those who are now providing care. While drug reactions, complications, and frustrating inconsistencies in care cannot be automatically ruled out, it is not uncommon for anger to be directed at caregivers.

6. An emergency department nurse has just admitted a patient with a burn. What characteristic of the burn will primarily determine whether the patient experiences a systemic response to this injury? A) The length of time since the burn B) The location of burned skin surfaces C) The source of the burn D) The total body surface area (TBSA) affected by the burn

D) The total body surface area (TBSA) affected by the burn Ans: D Feedback: Systemic effects are a result of several variables. However, TBSA and wound severity are considered the major factors that affect the presence or absence of systemic effects.

5. While assessing a dark-skinned patient at the clinic, the nurse notes the presence of patchy, milky white spots. The nurse knows that this finding is characteristic of what diagnosis? A) Cyanosis B) Addison's disease C) Polycythemia D) Vitiligo

D) Vitiligo Ans: D Feedback: With cyanosis, nail beds are dusky. With polycythemia, the nurse notes ruddy blue face, oral mucosa, and conjunctiva. A bronzed appearance, or external tan, is associated with Addison's disease. Vitiligo is a condition characterized by destruction of the melanocytes in circumscribed areas of skin and appears in light or dark skin as patchy, milky white spots, often symmetric bilaterally.

20. A young student comes to the school nurse and shows the nurse a mosquito bite. As the nurse expects, the bite is elevated and has serous fluid contained in the dermis. How would the nurse classify this lesion? A) Vesicle B) Macule C) Nodule D) Wheal

D) Wheal Ans: D Feedback: A wheal is a primary skin lesion that is elevated and has fluid contained in the dermis. An example of a wheal would be an insect bite or hives. Vesicles, macules, and nodules are not characterized by elevation and the presence of serous fluid.

5. An occupational health nurse is called to the floor of a factory where a worker has sustained a flash burn to the right arm. The nurse arrives and the flames have been extinguished. The next step is to cool the burn. How should the nurse cool the burn? A) Apply ice to the site of the burn for 5 to 10 minutes. B) Wrap the patient's affected extremity in ice until help arrives. C) Apply an oil-based substance or butter to the burned area until help arrives. D) Wrap cool towels around the affected extremity intermittently.

D) Wrap cool towels around the affected extremity intermittently. Ans: D Feedback: Once the burn has been sustained, the application of cool water is the best first-aid measure. Soaking the burn area intermittently in cool water or applying cool towels gives immediate and striking relief from pain, and limits local tissue edema and damage. However, never apply ice directly to the burn, never wrap the person in ice, and never use cold soaks or dressings for longer than several minutes; such procedures may worsen the tissue damage and lead to hypothermia in people with large burns. Butter is contraindicated.