A+ practice test A

Which of the following RAID levels uses a minimum of four disks in two disk mirrored blocks? A. RAID 10 B. RAID 1 C. RAID 5 D. RAID 0

Answer A is correct. RAID 10, or RAID 1+0, combines two RAID levels into one. It uses RAID 1 and RAID 0 to provide both mirroring from level 1 and striping from level 0. RAID 10 uses a minimum of four disks in two disk mirrored blocks. This configuration gives you better performance and system redundancy. Answers D and B are incorrect because RAID 0 and RAID 1 require a minimum of two physical disk drives. Answer C is incorrect because RAID 5 requires a minimum of three physical disk drives.

What are the advantages of using solid state hard drives (SSDs) over traditional magnetic hard disk drives (HDDs)?Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. More reliable and less susceptible to damage B. Consume less power C. Have more storage capacity D. Do not have moving parts

Answers A, B, and D are correct. A solid-state drive (SSD) uses solid-state memory to store persistent data. SSDs are different from traditional HDDs because they have no moving parts, meaning they do not use a read/write assembly. They are not as fragile as magnetic hard drives and are typically less susceptible to physical shock. They are quieter, faster, more reliable, and require less power than magnetic drives. Answer C is incorrect because SSDs have less storage capacity as compared to hard disks.

Maria, a network administrator, wants to extend a virtual LAN segment to employees working from home by transmitting data securely across the Internet. Which of the following will help her to complete the task? A. VPN B. NIDS C. ACL D. EAP

Answer A is correct. A Virtual Private Network (VPN) is a private communication network transmitted across a public, typically insecure, network connection. With a VPN, a company can extend a virtual LAN segment to employees working from home by transmitting data securely across the Internet. It provides secure connections between endpoints, such as routers, clients, or servers, by using tunneling to encapsulate and encrypt data. Answer C is incorrect. Access Control List (ACL) is a set of rules that are defined for controlling the network traffic and reducing network attacks. It is used to filter traffic based on the set of rules defined for the incoming or outgoing traffic from the network. Answer D is incorrect. Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP) is an authentication framework allowing point-to-point connections. Answer B is incorrect. Network Intrusion Detection System (NIDS) is a system that monitors network traffic and restricts or alerts when unacceptable traffic is seen in a system.

Which of the following is connected to multiple computing devices for storing videos, music, and pictures, and providing central access to all stored files with other computing devices? A. Home server PC B. Gaming PC C. Thin client D. Virtualization workstation

Answer A is correct. A home server PC is a server connected to multiple computing devices for storing videos, music, and pictures. It also provides central access to all stored files and is often used for file and print sharing with other computing devices. Answer D is incorrect. A virtualization workstation is a computer that uses both hardware virtualization and client virtualization resources to provide a comprehensive virtual workstation for users. Answer C is incorrect. A thin client is a business computer that relies heavily on another system, typically a server, to run most of its programs, processes, and services. Answer B is incorrect. A gaming PC is a computer that comes equipped with powerful graphics capabilities, fast processing capabilities, and a large amount of memory.

Which of the following allows server operating systems to access the shared storage list as if it were a locally attached drive? A. SAN B. RDP C. LDAP D. JBOD

Answer A is correct. A storage area network (SAN) is a high-speed data transfer network that provides access to consolidated block-level storage. It allows server operating systems to access the shared storage list as if it were a locally attached drive. It is primarily used to enhance storage devices, such as disk arrays, tape libraries, and optical jukeboxes. Answer C is incorrect. The Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) is a protocol used to access and modify information stored within directory services. Answer D is incorrect. Just a Bunch of Disks (JBOD) is a storage method that uses a number of external physical hard drives organized into a single logical drive to store data. Answer B is incorrect. The Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) is a proprietary protocol created by Microsoft for connecting to and managing devices that are not necessarily located at the same place as the administrator.

A company has its branches in several areas. At its headquarters, it has established its server with most applications, sensitive data, and memory that will be used by its employees who are working from other areas. What type of workstation should the company provide for its employees in this scenario? A. Thin client B. CAD workstation C. Home server PC D. A/V editing workstation

Answer A is correct. A thin client is a computer that relies heavily on another system, typically a server, to run most of its programs, processes, and services. Client setup requirements will be specific to a user's needs and will most likely be based on a job role. The system requirements for thin clients include: The computer must meet the minimum requirements to run the selected operating system. The computer may require a specific browser to run any web-based applications. The computer must have a fast network connection to access the server hosting the applications. Answer D is incorrect. An audio/video (A/V) editing workstation is a powerful computer setup that supports the editing of audio and video recordings. These computers must be able to support the demanding editing programs that audio/video technicians use in post-production editing functions. Answer C is incorrect. A home server PC is a server for your house that is connected to multiple computing devices within the home to store videos, music, and pictures. It also provides central access to all stored files and is often used for file and print sharing with other computing devices in the home. Answer B is incorrect. A computer-aided design (CAD) workstation requires both hardware and software on a system to meet certain requirements to produce complex 3D designs. CAD workstations require a high-end graphics card and monitor, and specialized input devices such as a digitizing tablet and light pen.

James, a network analyst, wants to create broadcast domains to eliminate the need for expensive routers. Which of the following will help him accomplish the task? A. VLAN B. NAT C. VPN D. SSH

Answer A is correct. A virtual local area network (VLAN) can be used to create broadcast domains that eliminate the need for expensive routers. A VLAN allows a network administrator to logically segment a LAN into different broadcast domains. Since this is a logical segmentation and not a physical one, workstations do not have to be physically located together. Users on different floors of the same building, or even in different buildings can now belong to the same LAN. Answer C is incorrect. A Virtual Private Network (VPN) is a private communication network transmitted across a public, typically insecure, network connection. Answer D is incorrect. Secure Shell (SSH) is a program that enables a user or an application to log on to another computer over a network, execute commands, and manage files. Answer B is incorrect. Network Address Translation (NAT) allows the use of a private IP address network for internal use and mapping it to a single public IP address connected to the Internet.

Which of the following can be used to assign priority to certain types of network traffic? A. NIDS B. QoS C. Load balancer D. MAC filtering

Answer B is correct. Quality of service (QoS) defines traffic priorities in the event of network congestion or impairments. By defining a QoS policy, you can prioritize critical or real-time applications over applications that can tolerate network impairments such as delay, dropped packets, or jitter. Answer A is incorrect. A network intrusion detection system (NIDS) is a hardware device or a software application that monitors traffic on a specific segment of the network. Answer D is incorrect. Media access control (MAC) filtering is a security technique of allowing or denying specific MAC addresses from connecting to a network device. Answer C is incorrect. A load balancer is a network device that distributes the network traffic or computing workload among multiple devices in a network.

There are 20 laptops in a room and they all need to connect wirelessly to a wired network. Which of the following would be the best device to use? A. WAP B. Switch C. Hub D. Repeater

Answer A is correct. A wireless access point (WAP) is a device that provides a connection between wireless devices and enables wireless networks to connect to wired networks. A WAP is sometimes called just an AP or a WLAN-AP. WAPs have a network interface to connect to the wired network and a radio antenna or infrared receiver to receive the wireless signals. Many include security features that enable you to specify which wireless devices can make connections to the wired network. Answer C is incorrect. A hub, or multiport repeater, is a networking device used to connect the nodes in a physical star topology network into a logical bus topology. A hub contains multiple ports that you can connect devices to. When data from the transmitting device arrives at a port, it is copied and transmitted to all other ports so that all other nodes receive the data. Answer D is incorrect. A repeater, sometimes also called an extender, is a device made to enable connections over longer distances. The simplest repeater has ports listening in two directions along a cable; when it receives a signal from one direction, it boosts it, then transmits the amplified signal in the other direction. Answer B is incorrect. A switch is a network hardware device that joins multiple computers together within the same LAN. Unlike a hub, switches forward data only to the intended destination. Because of this functionality, they are slightly "smarter" than hubs and are more common.

James, a graphic designer, is tasked to prepare a document of engineering and architectural design, including blueprints in both two and three dimensions. Which of the following will help him to accomplish the task? A. CAD/CAM workstation B. Home server PC C. Thin client system D. A/V editing workstation

Answer A is correct. Computer-aided design & computer-aided manufacturing (CAD/CAM) workstations are used in the design of engineering and architectural documentation, including blueprints in both two and three dimensions. These are generally used by designers for designing graphical content, advertisements, magazines, posters, and other graphic media. These workstations need a particular emphasis on the following areas: CPU enhancement Video enhancement Maximized RAM Answer B is incorrect. A home server PC is a server for your house that is connected to multiple computing devices within the home to store videos, music, and pictures. It also provides central access to all stored files and is often used for file and print sharing with other computing devices in the home. Answer C is incorrect. A thin client is a computer that relies heavily on another system, typically a server, to run most of its programs, processes, and services. A thin client can be defined as a tiny, low-powered local device that is fed and controlled by the server. It depends on its server to fulfill its traditional computational role requirement. It is a passive device with a low-maintenance requirement that is easy to install and operate. Answer D is incorrect. An audio/video (A/V) editing workstation is a powerful computer setup that supports the editing of audio and video recordings. These computers must be able to support the demanding editing programs that audio/video technicians use in post-production editing functions.

A network administrator is setting up a web-based application that needs to be continually accessible to end users. Which of the following concepts would best ensure this requirement? A. High availability B. Traffic shaping C. Quality of service D. Fault tolerance

Answer A is correct. High availability is a characteristic of a system that aims to ensure an agreed level of operational performance (usually uptime) for a higher time than the normal period. It refers to a system or component that is continuously operational for a desirably long length of time. Availability can be measured relative to "100% operational" or "never failing". Answer B is incorrect. Traffic shaping, also known as packet shaping, is the control of computer network traffic to optimize or guarantee performance, lower latency, and/or increase usable bandwidth by delaying packets that meet certain criteria. Answer D is incorrect. Fault tolerance is the ability of a network or device to withstand a foreseeable component failure and still continue to provide an acceptable level of service. Answer C is incorrect. Quality of service (QoS) is the overall connection quality as seen by users of the network, especially as connected to some expected baseline. QoS generally includes performance, reliability, and availability.

Andrew, a network analyst, is tasked to provide security to the network traffic by ensuring data confidentiality, data integrity, sender and recipient authentication, and replay protection. Which of the following will help him accomplish the task? A. IPSec B. FTP C. DHCP D. Telnet

Answer A is correct. Internet Protocol Security (IPSec) is a set of open and non-proprietary standards that can be used to secure data as it travels across the network or the Internet. IPSec uses different protocols and services to provide data authenticity and integrity, anti-replay protection, non-repudiation, and protection against eavesdropping and sniffing. Unlike Secure Sockets Layer (SSL)/Transport Layer Security (TLS) and Secure Shell (SSH), IPSec operates at the network layer (layer 3) of the OSI model, so the protocol is not application dependent. Answer C is incorrect. The Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) provides automatic assignment of IP addresses and other Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) configuration information. Answer B is incorrect. The File Transfer Protocol (FTP) is a TCP/IP protocol that enables the transfer of files between a user's workstation and a remote host. Answer D is incorrect. Telnet is an application protocol that allows logging into remote systems via a virtual text terminal interface.

John, a technician, is tasked to configure multi-function printers that will facilitate printing on both sides of a page. Which of the following printer configuration options will provide this functionality? A. Duplex B. Collate C. Quality D. Orientation

Answer A is correct. John will use the duplex option that is a printer configuration option of a multi-function printer. It helps to reduce the amount of paper consumed on a multi-function printer by allowing printing on both sides of a page. Answer B is incorrect. Collate is a printer configuration option, which refers to the gathering and arranging of printing components into a pre-determined sequence. It is used only when the number of copies is greater than 1. If collate is enabled the printer will print a complete copy of the document before the first page of the next copy is printed, and if collate is disabled the printer will print each page by the number of copies specified before printing the next page. Answer D is incorrect. Orientation is a printer configuration option that allows users to specify whether the document will be printed in a landscape or portrait orientation. Answer C is incorrect. Quality is a printer configuration option that enables users to specify whether they want to print draft, normal, or high-quality output.

Jennifer, a network administrator, wants to block external SSH connections from reaching internal machines. Which of the following ports should she block on the firewall? A. 22 B. 143 C. 23 D. 443

Answer A is correct. Secure Shell (SSH) is a cryptographic network protocol that uses port 22 for securing data communication. It establishes a secure channel over an insecure network in a client-server architecture, connecting an SSH client application with an SSH server. So according to the given scenario, blocking port 22 on the firewall will serve the purpose. Answer C is incorrect. Port 23 is used by Telnet. It is an interactive terminal emulation protocol that allows a remote user to conduct an interactive session with a Telnet server. Answer D is incorrect. Port 443 is used by the Hypertext Transfer Protocol over SSL (HTTPS). It is a combination of HTTP with Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) to make a secure connection. Answer B is incorrect. Port 143 is used by the Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP). It is a protocol with a store-and-forward capability. It can also allow messages to be stored on an email server instead of being downloaded to the client.

Which of the following is a UEFI feature that verifies an operating system's start-up loader is electronically signed by the vendor before it loads? A. Secure boot B. Virtualization C. TPM D. POST

Answer A is correct. Secure boot is a Unified Extensible Firmware Interface (UEFI) feature that verifies an operating system's startup loader is electronically signed by the vendor before it loads. It is a security standard developed by members of the PC industry to help make sure that a device boots using only software that is trusted by the Original Equipment Manufacturer (OEM). The secure boot helps to prevent malicious software applications and unauthorized operating systems from loading during the system start-up process. Answer C is incorrect. A Trusted Platform Module (TPM) is a microchip installed on the motherboard of desktop and portable computers, which stores critical encryption keys in hardware inaccessible to the operating system or most attackers. Answer B is incorrect. Virtualization is a technology through which one or more simulated computers run within a physical computer. It allows taking full advantage of a server's capacity. It refers to the act of creating a virtual (rather than actual) version of something. Answer D is incorrect. Power-On Self-Test (POST) is a built-in diagnostic program run every time a server starts up. It checks hardware to ensure that everything is present and functioning properly.

Lucy, a Chief Information Officer (CIO), has summoned an administrator due to the datacenter power bill being significantly higher than normal. The administrator explains that a new array was installed for a 20 TB application. Which of the following solutions would provide a new performance benefit and also reduce power consumption in the given scenario? A. SSD B. HDD C. PXE D. Fiber Channel

Answer A is correct. Solid State Drives (SSDs) are fixed storage devices, but they do not contain any moving parts like traditional hard drives do. They typically have fast access times and connect to the computer using a Serial Advanced Technology Attachment (SATA) connector. SSDs are extremely fast since these devices have no moving parts, eliminating seek time, latency, and other electromechanical delays inherent in conventional disk drives. SSD is faster than HDD and consumes less power than HDD. Answer C is incorrect. Preboot Execution Environment (PXE) is a booting or installation technique in which a computer loads the operating system from a connected network rather than from a boot device. It is also known as network share booting. Answer B is incorrect. Hard Disk Drive (HDD) is an electromechanical device containing spinning disks and movable read/write heads. HDD consumes more power than SSD. Answer D is incorrect. Fiber Channel is a reliable high-speed transmission technology that enables concurrent communications among workstations, mainframes, servers, data storage systems, and other peripherals that use the Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) and Internet Protocols (IPs).

Which of the following allows a user to remotely log in to a networked device and uses port 3389 as the default port? A. RDP B. SSH C. DNS D. DHCP

Answer A is correct. The Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) is a proprietary protocol created by Microsoft for connecting to and managing devices that are not necessarily located at the same place as the administrator. It uses port 3389 and works on the Application layer (Layer 7) of the OSI model. It allows a user to remotely log in to a networked device. The desktop interface, or application GUI, of the remote device looks as if it were accessed locally. RDP is a multiple-channel-capable protocol that allows for separate virtual channels for carrying device communication and presentation data from the server, as well as encrypted client mouse and keyboard data. Answer B is incorrect. Secure Shell (SSH) is a program that enables a user or an application to log on to another device over a network, execute commands, and manage files. It uses port 22 as the default port. Answer C is incorrect. The Domain Name System (DNS) is the primary name resolution service on the Internet and private IP networks. It uses port 53 as the default port. Answer D is incorrect. The Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) is a network service that provides automatic assignment of IP addresses and other TCP/IP configuration information. It uses port 68 as the default port.

Martha, a customer, reports to a technician about file system errors on her external hard drive. Which of the following commands will the technician use to repair these errors on the drive? A. chkdsk B. diskpart C. tasklist D. taskkill

Answer A is correct. The chkdsk command is used to verify the logical integrity of a file system. With the /f switch, the chkdsk command can fix errors on the volume. chkdsk "drive letter" /f can also be entered in the Run dialog box or at the command line. With the /r switch, the chkdsk command can locate bad sectors on the disk and recover any readable information. Entering chkdsk /? displays a list of all available switches. Answer B is incorrect. The diskpart command is used to manage computer drives including disks, partitions, volumes, and virtual hard disks. Answer D is incorrect. The taskkill command is used to end a task or process identified by process identifier (PID) or image name. Answer C is incorrect. The tasklist command is used to display a list of currently running processes on a local or remote computer.

A customer wants to transfer the data from a DVR to a DVD on a workstation. Which of the following cards should be used on the workstation in order to extract the data for archiving? A. Capture B. TV tuner C. Cellular D. Riser

Answer A is correct. Video capture from devices requires a special video capture card that converts the analog signals into digital form and compresses the data. A video capture card allows a computer to input video feeds, including digital video, and interact with the software necessary to process and edit video. It allows a workstation or a computer to display and record video signals from a video recording device, such as a digital video recorder (DVR). Answer C is incorrect. A wireless or cellular card allows remote communications, such as the Internet over the mobile phone or wireless data lines such as Wi-Fi, 3G, or 4G Internet that have been provided by a cellular service provider. Answer B is incorrect. A TV tuner card allows the computer to receive television signals and display the output on a display device. Answer D is incorrect. A riser card allows adding expansion cards to a system board while saving space within the system case. It allows the cards to stack horizontally rather than vertically within the system.

Which of the following is the virtualization technology for providing and managing virtual desktops? A. VDI B. VLAN C. NIDS D. VPN

Answer A is correct. Virtual desktop infrastructure (VDI) is the virtualization technology for providing and managing virtual desktops. VDI hosts desktop environments on a centralized server and deploys them to end clients on request. Answer D is incorrect. A Virtual Private Network (VPN) is a private network configured by tunneling through a public network, such as the Internet. It provides secure connections between endpoints, such as routers, clients, or servers, by using tunneling to encapsulate and encrypt data. Answer B is incorrect. Virtual Local Area Network (VLAN) is a point-to-point logical network created by grouping selected hosts together, regardless of their physical location. It uses a switch or a router that controls groups of hosts receiving network broadcasts. Answer C is incorrect. Network Intrusion Detection System (NIDS) is a system that monitors network traffic and restricts or alerts when unacceptable traffic is seen in a system.

A business owner wants to provide the facility to laptop users with the ability to charge their devices, access corporate LAN resources, and allow for a variety of their removable hardware to be connected simultaneously. Which of the following devices would best meet the owner's needs? A. Virtual switch B. Docking station C. Set-top box D. NAS appliance

Answer B is correct. A docking station provides the facility to laptop users with the ability to charge their devices, access corporate LAN resources, and allow for a variety of their removable hardware. It is a hardware frame and set of electrical connections that allow you to quickly connect and disconnect your mobile device to common desktop computer peripherals, such as a monitor, external keyboard, mouse, external disk drives, etc. It may even contain internal expansion ports or hard drives, making a laptop function more like a desktop computer. Answer C is incorrect. A set-top box is a device that takes video content and converts it to a format that can be viewed on a television. Answer A is incorrect. A virtual switch is a software program that allows one virtual machine (VM) to communicate with another. It can intelligently direct the communication on the network by inspecting packets before passing them on. Answer D is incorrect. A network-attached storage (NAS) appliance is a data storage device that can be connected to a network to provide direct data access and file sharing to multiple computing devices attached to the network.

Which of the following custom configurations has a chassis with the smallest dimensions? A. Virtualization workstation B. Home theatre PC C. Gaming PC D. Thin client

Answer B is correct. A home theatre PC (HTPC) is a computer system dedicated and configured to store and stream digital movies, either from the local hard drive or through an online subscription such as Netflix. HTPCs are built specifically for home theater purposes, so most of the required elements are built right into the actual system. They generally include: A TV tuner card that allows the computer to display high-definition (HD) digital output and attach the cable provider's cable TV wire directly to the system. A cable card that provides authentication and encryption services to connect with the cable set top box provided by the cable company. HDMI output for high-definition video and audio. Video card with both GPU and HD capabilities. Special chassis with small dimensions Bluetooth or wireless capabilities when using specialized remotes or input devices. Answer C is incorrect. A gaming PC is a computer equipped with powerful graphics capabilities, fast processing capabilities, and a large amount of memory. Answer A is incorrect. A virtualization workstation is a computer that uses both hardware and client virtualization resources to provide a comprehensive virtual environment for users. Answer D is incorrect. A thin client is a computer that relies heavily on another system, typically a server, to run most of its programs, processes, and services.

What type of server is responsible for blocking the sender's identity while passing the information to the destination to prevent security-related issues? A. File B. Proxy C. DHCP D. Web

Answer B is correct. A proxy server makes requests for resources on behalf of a client. It caches the information requested, which speeds up subsequent searches, and acts as a filter, which blocks content from prohibited websites. It modifies the requester's information and blocks the sender's identity as a measure of security while passing the information to the destination. Answer C is incorrect. The Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server runs software that automatically assigns IP addresses to client stations logging on to the Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) network. It eliminates the need to manually assign permanent IP addresses. Answer A is incorrect. A file server provides a central repository for users to store, manage, and access files on the network. File servers come in a variety of shapes and sizes. Answer D is incorrect. A web server provides content on request, which can include text, images, and videos, and they can also do things like run scripts to open additional functions, such as processing credit card transactions and querying databases.

Which of the following expansion card types allows remote communications, such as the Internet over the mobile phone? A. FireWire B. Wireless C. Thunderbolt D. Modem

Answer B is correct. A wireless or cellular card allows remote communications, such as the Internet over the mobile phone, or wireless data lines such as Wi-Fi, 3G, or 4G Internet that have been provided by a cellular service provider. Answer D is incorrect. A modem card is an internal type of modem that is plugged into the Peripheral Component Interconnect (PCI) slot of a PC motherboard. A modem is a communications device that allows a computer to send and receive data through telephone or cable lines. Answer C is incorrect. A Thunderbolt expansion card can be added to systems whose motherboard has a Thunderbolt header. The header needs to match the version of Thunderbolt that the card uses. After installing a Thunderbolt card, you can daisy chain up to 9 devices from the port on the card. Answer A is incorrect. A FireWire card provides the interface necessary for the computer to recognize and interact with all devices that connect to the computer via a FireWire connection. FireWire is mainly used for high-speed data transfer. Devices that use FireWire connections include external hard drives, video, and audio recording devices, and more.

James, a consultant, is helping a large company to migrate its development environment to a public cloud provider. The developers are working on a virtual desktop infrastructure solution. The development tools that employees utilize require greater control of the OS environment. Which of the following cloud types should the consultant implement? A. PaaS B. IaaS C. CaaS D. SaaS

Answer B is correct. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) is a cloud computing service that enables a consumer to outsource computing equipment purchases and run their own data center. It is an arrangement in which, rather than purchasing equipment and running your own data center, you rent those resources as an outsourced service. The consumer does not manage or control the underlying cloud infrastructure but has control over operating systems, storage, and deployed applications. Answer D is incorrect. Software as a Service (SaaS) is subscription-based access to applications or software, sometimes known as on-demand software. It eliminates the need to install software on user devices, and it can be helpful for mobile or transient workforces. Answer A is incorrect. Platform as a Service (PaaS) is an access to a computing platform or software environment the customer can use to develop and host web-based applications. It provides a platform allowing customers to develop, run, and manage applications without the complexity of building and maintaining the infrastructure typically associated with developing and launching an application. Answer C is incorrect. Communications as a service (CaaS) is an outsourced enterprise communications solution that can be leased from a single vendor. Such communications can include voice over IP (VoIP or Internet telephony), instant messaging (IM), collaboration, and video conference applications using fixed and mobile devices.

Maria, a technician, needs to check the running configuration of a remote router securely. Which of the following protocols will she utilize to accomplish the task in the given scenario? A. IPSec B. SSH C. TLS D. ARP

Answer B is correct. Maria will use the Secure Shell (SSH) protocol to check the running configuration of a remote router securely. SSH enables a user or an application to log on to another device over a network, execute commands, and manage files. It creates a shell or session with a remote system, offers strong authentication methods, and ensures that communications are secure over insecure channels. Answer A is incorrect. Internet Protocol Security (IPSec) is a protocol used to protect data flow between a pair of hosts, between a pair of security gateways, or between a security gateway and a host. Answer C is incorrect. Transport Layer Security (TLS) is a cryptographic protocol that provides communication security over a computer network. Answer D is incorrect. The Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) is a communication protocol that resolves IP addresses to MAC addresses.

An organization has subscribed to a cloud service and the cloud provider wants to monitor and meter the customer's use of resources. Which of the following cloud computing concepts does this represent? A. On-demand B. Measured service C. Resource pooling D. Rapid elasticity

Answer B is correct. Measured service refers to the cloud provider's ability to monitor and meter the customer's use of resources. This service supports the customer's ability to dynamically make changes to the resources they receive. Based on the metered and measured information, the provider knows what resources the customer has used and can then bill for those resources during the next billing cycle. Answer A is incorrect. On-demand cloud services enable end users to request and access cloud resources as they are needed. This type of cloud service is useful for project-based needs, giving the project members access to the cloud services for the duration of the project, and then releasing the cloud services back to the hosting provider when the project is finished. Answer C is incorrect. In resource pooling, the cloud provider's resources are pooled and shared between multiple customers in a multi-tenant fashion, and can be dynamically allocated to suit changing demands. As much as possible, the customer doesn't even need to know where the resources are hosted, they just work wherever they are. Answer D is incorrect. Rapid elasticity is the ability to quickly increase or decrease the number of resources required from a cloud service provider. Users request additional space, and the provider allocates additional resources seamlessly to the end user.

Jennifer, a technician, wants to set up a virtual private network for a small office. She also wants to ensure that the network traffic is routed to the correct machine. Which of the following will she use on the router to accomplish this task? A. Software patch B. Port forwarding C. WoL D. QoS

Answer B is correct. Port forwarding will enable Jennifer to open a port in the firewall and direct incoming traffic on that port to a specific IP address on her local area network (LAN). Network address translation (NAT) is used on most SOHO routers to redirect communication requests from one IP address and port number to another through port forwarding or mapping. This functionality allows one IP address outside the network to be used by multiple devices and systems inside the network. Answer A is incorrect. The software patch provides a new piece of software code that will fix a problem or a bug in the software. The software patch is usually the result of technical support issues or engineering and programming changes. Answer C is incorrect. Wake-on-LAN (WoL) is an Ethernet or Token ring computer networking standard that allows a computer to be turned on or awakened by a network message. Answer D is incorrect. Quality of service (QoS) defines the overall connection quality as seen by users of the network, especially as connected to some expected baseline. QoS generally includes performance, reliability, and availability. Special kinds of traffic, like high priority or time-sensitive communications, might have special QoS demands.

When choosing a type of storage that integrates with the existing network infrastructure, the storage must be easily configurable to share files and should communicate with all existing clients over TCP/IP. Which of the following is the best technology for the network administrator to implement in the given scenario? A. DAS B. NAS C. Fibre Channel D. iSCSI

Answer B is correct. The network administrator should implement the network attached storage (NAS) that can be attached anywhere on the network to store files. It connects the storage to the Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) network and enables users to access storage resources using both the Common Internet File System (CIFS) and Network File System (NFS) protocols over the familiar TCP/IP networks. The NAS appliance has its own IP address and hence can be accessed by users directly over the network to store files as well as retrieve them when required. NAS generally uses multiple disks to store data and provides file-level storage and access to data. Answer D is incorrect. Internet Small Computer Systems Interface (iSCSI) is an IP-based storage networking standard for linking data storage facilities. It is used to facilitate data transfers over intranets and to manage storage over long distances by carrying SCSI commands over IP networks. Answer A is incorrect. Direct attached storage (DAS) is a storage that is attached directly to a server without a network between the storage device and the server. Answer C is incorrect. Fibre Channel is a technology for transmitting data between computing devices at data rates of up to 16 Gbps. It is typically used for connecting servers to shared storage devices and interconnecting storage controllers and drives.

A user reports to a technician that his desktop is having intermittent issues with locking up and system errors. The technician starts troubleshooting and suspects that the issue might be the motherboard is not getting enough power. Which of the following tools should the technician use to verify that his assumption is correct? A. Crimper B. Multimeter C. Toner probe D. Loopback plug

Answer B is correct. The technician should use a multimeter for this purpose. A multimeter is a versatile electronic measuring instrument that combines several measurement functions in one unit. A typical multimeter has the ability to measure the voltage, current, and resistance of an electrical circuit. It combines three tools, a voltmeter, an ohmmeter, and an ammeter, as one Answer C is incorrect. A toner probe is used to trace a cable from one end to the other. It is mostly used to trace a wire in a wall from one location to another. It consists of two pieces, namely, a tone generator and a probe. Answer D is incorrect. A loopback plug is a tool that causes the device to transmit a signal back to itself. It is typically used for diagnosing transmission problems that redirect electrical signals back to the transmitting system. Loopback plugs are used to test the sending and receiving ability of network cards. Answer A is incorrect. A crimper clamps a modular jack onto the wire ends of a cable.

James, a user, enquires a technician for a device that has the ability to simply connect a laptop to an external monitor, mouse, and keyboard. Which of the following devices will the technician suggest to James? A. NAS appliance B. Set-top box C. Docking station D. Virtual switch

Answer C is correct. A docking station provides a simplified way of plugging-in an electronic device such as a laptop computer to common peripherals. The laptop is connected to the docking station through a docking port located on the back or bottom of the laptop. Docking stations typically extend the capabilities of the laptop by providing additional interfaces for the laptop. In addition, there are often slots for desktop Peripheral Component Interconnect (PCI) or instruction set architecture (ISA) expansion cards, drive bays for additional mass storage devices, and possibly additional ports and connectors, such as extra USB or wireless connections. Answer B is incorrect. A set-top box is a device that takes video content and converts it to a format that can be viewed on a television. Answer D is incorrect. A virtual switch controls network traffic between virtual machines (VMs), including VMs hosted on the same server and VMs hosted on other servers on the physical network. This allows running multiple networks through a single physical network. Answer A is incorrect. A network-attached storage (NAS) appliance is a data storage device that can be connected to a network to provide direct data access and file sharing to multiple computing devices attached to the network.

Which of the following is a characteristic of a hybrid drive? A. A drive that is partially internal and partially external B. A drive that can be used with Windows or Mac OS C. A drive that has both HDD and SSD components D. A drive that has a SATA interface as well as one other interface

Answer C is correct. A hybrid drive is a magnetic hard drive with flash memory chips added to it. The flash memory chips act as a buffer for operating systems and application files, allowing the system to boot up and start applications faster. These hybrid drives give you the solid-state drive (SSD) benefit of increased boot and application access speeds, along with the large storage size benefit of a magnetic hard disk drive (HDD). In practice, hybrid drives often give little performance benefit over hard drives, so you might be better off using both SSD and HDD separately. Answers D, B, and A are incorrect because these are not characteristics of a hybrid drive.

Which of the following is core virtualization software that enables multiple virtual computers to run on a single physical host? A. NAT B. NTP C. Hypervisor D. SR-IOV

Answer C is correct. A hypervisor, or virtual machine manager, is core virtualization software that enables multiple virtual computers to run on a single physical host. A PC on which a hypervisor is running one or more virtual machines is called a host machine and each virtual machine is called a guest machine. Answer A is incorrect. Network Address Translation (NAT) is an Internet standard that enables a local-area network (LAN) to use one set of IP addresses for internal traffic and a second set of addresses for external traffic. Answer D is incorrect. The single root input/output virtualization (SR-IOV) is a specification that allows the isolation of Peripheral Component Interconnect Express (PCIe) resources for manageability and performance reasons. Answer B is incorrect. The Network Time Protocol (NTP) is a networking protocol that provides time synchronization services for computer clocks in a network.

Which of the following expansion card types allows remote communications over the phone or data lines? A. FireWire B. Thunderbolt C. Modem D. TV tuner

Answer C is correct. A modem card allows remote communications over the phone or data lines that have been provided by a cable or an Internet service provider. Answer A is incorrect. A FireWire card allows adding more FireWire ports to a system. FireWire is a faster method of data transfer than USB, Ethernet, or wireless networks. Answer B is incorrect. A Thunderbolt expansion card can be added to systems whose motherboard has a Thunderbolt header. The header needs to match the version of Thunderbolt that the card uses. Answer D is incorrect. A TV tuner card allows the computer to receive television signals and display the output on a display device.

Which of the following is commonly the main concern in public cloud implementations? A. Compatibility B. Scalability C. Security D. Availability

Answer C is correct. A public cloud provides its services over a network that is open for public use. There may be little or no difference between public and private cloud architecture; however, since the services are made available for a public audience over a potentially non-trusted network, security considerations may be substantially different. Rackspace or Amazon are examples of public clouds. Answer A is incorrect. Compatibility is the capacity for two systems to work together without having to be altered to do so. Answer B is incorrect. Scalability in cloud computing refers to the ability to increase or decrease resources as needed to meet changing demand. Answer D is incorrect. Availability in cloud computing is calculated as the percentage of time an application and its services are available, given a specific time interval.

Jennifer, a technician, is constructing a workstation that will only be used to join remotely to a server and relies heavily on the server. Which of the following PC configurations is the best for this purpose? A. CAD workstation B. Home server PC C. Thin client D. A/V editing workstation

Answer C is correct. A thin client is a computer that relies heavily on another system, typically a server, to run most of its programs, processes, and services. Client setup requirements will be specific to a user's needs and will most likely be based on a job role. The system requirements for thin clients include: The computer must meet the minimum requirements to run the selected operating system. The computer may require a specific browser to run any web-based applications. The computer must have a fast network connection to access the server hosting the applications. Answer D is incorrect. An audio/video (A/V) editing workstation is a powerful computer setup that supports the editing of audio and video recordings. These computers must be able to support the demanding editing programs that audio/video technicians use in post-production editing functions. Answer B is incorrect. A home server PC is a server for your house that is connected to multiple computing devices within the home to store videos, music, and pictures. It also provides central access to all stored files and is often used for file and print sharing with other computing devices at home. Answer A is incorrect. A computer-aided design (CAD) workstation requires both hardware and software on a system to meet certain requirements to produce complex 3D designs. CAD workstations require a high-end graphics card and monitor, and specialized input devices such as a digitizing tablet and light pen.

A company wants to ensure that its cloud infrastructure is secure as well as fully available. The company also wants to be alerted in the event of a security breach. Which of the following solutions will meet these requirements? A. WPAN B. HTTP C. IDS D. DMZ

Answer C is correct. An Intrusion Detection System (IDS) will meet the requirements given in the scenario. It is used to detect possible malicious incursions into a network to monitor and audit suspected and known attack signatures and behavior. It scans, audits, and monitors the security infrastructure for signs of attacks in progress and automates the intrusion detection process. Answer D is incorrect. Demilitarized Zone (DMZ) enables external clients to access data on private systems, such as web servers, without compromising the security of the internal network as a whole. Answer B is incorrect. The Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) is a network protocol that works on the application layer of the OSI and the Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) models and enables clients to connect to and retrieve web pages from a server to interact with websites. Answer A is incorrect. A Wireless Personal Area Network (WPAN) is a network that connects devices in very close proximity but not through a wireless access point.

Which of the following servers examines the credentials of anyone trying to access the network, and also determines if network access is granted? A. Database B. Print C. Authentication D. Mail

Answer C is correct. An authentication server contains an application that has an access list and identifies the permitted access credentials. It examines the credentials of anyone trying to access the network and also determines if network access is granted. An authentication server can be a dedicated server machine, wireless router or access point, Ethernet switch, or a remote access server (RAS). Answer A is incorrect. A database server provides access to databases, including those for customer information, provided by database software such as Oracle or SQL Server. Answer B is incorrect. A print server enables many network users to share common printers. The printers might be directly attached to the network or attached to the server. Answer D is incorrect. A mail server provides post office facilities by storing incoming mails for distribution to users and forwards outgoing emails or messages through appropriate channels.

Which of the following allows a processor to execute instructions and to read and write data at a higher speed than the regular RAM? A. Clock multiplier B. CAS latency C. Cache memory D. Memory bus

Answer C is correct. Cache memory is random access memory located closer to a processor and allows the processor to execute instructions and to read and write data at a higher speed than the regular RAM. It is most often implemented with a static random-access memory (SRAM). Answer A is incorrect. The clock multiplier measures the ratio of the internal bus speed to the external bus speed in a CPU. Answer D is incorrect. A memory bus is also known as a system bus, front side bus, local bus, or host bus. It handles traffic between the CPU, the chipset, and RAM. Answer B is incorrect. The column access strobe (CAS) latency is the amount of time taken to retrieve data from a particular column of a specified row in a memory module.

John, a network administrator, has created a new virtual server according to specifications and verified that TCP/IP settings are correct. When the VM is powered on, an error message indicates that a network card MAC address conflict exists. What should John do to resolve this issue? A. Ping the IP address to determine the location of the conflict. B. Add an additional NIC with a loopback interface. C. Remove the virtual NIC and configure another one. D. Change the MAC to ff:ff:ff:ff:ff:ff and obtain a new address.

Answer C is correct. John should remove the virtual NIC and configure another one to resolve the issue in the given scenario. Virtual Network Interface Card (VNIC) is a program that virtualizes a physical network interface card, and is used by a virtual machine as its network interface. A virtual NIC is assigned to a MAC address, and each MAC address corresponds with a single virtual NIC. The virtual NIC enables the virtual machine to communicate with other virtual machines on the same host, but not on physical networks unless it is configured to bridge to the host NIC.

James, a network administrator, is testing a new web server from outside of the corporate office network. He performs a test from a single PC and the web server responds accordingly. He then provisions several virtual machines on a network behind NAT and uses them to perform the same operation on the web server at the same time, but thereafter soon discovers that none of the machines can reach the web server. Which of the following could be responsible for this condition? A. NAT B. IPS C. Firewall D. DHCP

Answer C is correct. Firewalls are generally deployed between the cloud network and the cloud consumer for the protection of unauthorized access into the networks. A firewall is either hardware-based or a virtualized device that inspects network traffic and compares the traffic to a list of defined rules to determine whether that traffic is allowed. If it is not permitted, the firewall will block the traffic from entering the network. Hence, firewalls provide a secure barrier in and out of a network. Answer A is incorrect. Network Address Translation (NAT) allows the use of a private IP address network for internal use and mapping it to a single public IP address connected to the Internet. Answer B is incorrect. Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) monitors the malicious activity and actively takes countermeasures to eliminate or reduce the effects of the intrusion. Answer D is incorrect. The Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) is a client/server protocol that provides automatic assignment of IP addresses and other Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) configuration information.

While configuring a firewall, a system engineer accidentally blocked port 443. Which of the following will be unavailable? A. SFTP B. POP3 C. HTTPS D. SMTP

Answer C is correct. Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure (HTTPS) is a combination of HTTP with Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) to make for a secure connection. It uses port 443 by default, and the beginning of the site address becomes https://. Therefore, if a system engineer has blocked port 443, HTTPS will be unavailable. Answer A is incorrect. The Secure File Transfer Protocol (SFTP) uses port 22 as the default port. Answer D is incorrect. The Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) uses port 25 as the default port. Answer B is incorrect. The Post Office Protocol version 3 (POP3) uses port 110 as the default port.

You want to connect a laptop to a mobile device's Internet for use in circumstances where there is no Internet connectivity. Which of the following technologies will you use? A. Accelerometer B. GPS C. Hotspot D. NFC

Answer C is correct. If you have a cellular-enabled device such as a smartphone, you may be able to turn that phone into a mobile hotspot. By doing so, you can share your cellular Internet connection with Wi-Fi enabled devices such as a laptop or tablet. Enabling an iPhone to be a mobile hotspot is done via Settings > Cellular > Personal Hotspot or Settings > Personal Hotspot and tapping the slider next to Allow Others to Join. On Android, you can enable a mobile hotspot by enabling the toggle button next to Portable Wi-Fi Hotspot in Settings > Wireless & Networks > Tethering & Portable Hotspot. Answer B is incorrect. A global positioning system (GPS) is a satellite-based navigation system that provides location and time services. The most common commercial use of GPS is navigation. With the help of GPS, you can get your current location and directions to where you want to go. Answer D is incorrect. Near field communication (NFC) is a wireless communication method that enables wireless devices to establish radio communications by touching them together or by bringing them into close proximity with each other, typically within 10 cm or less. Answer A is incorrect. An accelerometer is a mobile technology that can determine the orientation of a device with a sensor that measures the acceleration of the device's direction.

Which of the following is an IP-based storage networking standard that facilitates data transfers over intranets? A. DAS B. NAT C. iSCSI D. DHCP

Answer C is correct. Internet Small Computer System Interface (iSCSI) is an IP-based storage networking standard for linking data storage facilities. It facilitates data transfers over intranets and manages storage over long distances by carrying SCSI commands over IP networks. Answer D is incorrect. The Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) is a network service that provides automatic assignment of IP addresses and other TCP/IP configuration information on network systems that are configured as DHCP clients. Answer A is incorrect. Direct-Attached Storage (DAS) refers to a digital storage system. It is directly attached to a single host computer or server without a network between the storage device and the server. Answer B is incorrect. Network Address Translation (NAT) allows the use of a private IP address network for internal use and mapping it to a single public IP address connected to the Internet.

James, a technician, needs to extend the organization's remote access functionality to be used by staff while traveling. He needs to maintain separate access control functionalities for internal, external, and VoIP services. Which of the following represents the best access technology for him to use? A. LDAP B. EAP C. TACACS+ D. Kerberos

Answer C is correct. James should use the Terminal Access Controller Access Control System Plus (TACACS+) protocol to maintain separate access control functionalities for internal, external, and VoIP services. TACACS+ is an authentication protocol that provides centralized authentication and authorization services for remote users. It uses TCP port 49. It is considered more secure and more scalable than RADIUS because it accepts login requests and authenticates the access credentials of the user. TACACS+ is not compatible with TACACS because it uses an advanced version of the TACACS algorithm. Answer A is incorrect. The Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) is a directory service protocol that defines how a client can access information, perform operations, and share directory data on a directory server. Answer D is incorrect. Kerberos is an authentication service that is based on a time-sensitive ticket-granting system. It can be used to manage access control to several services by using one centralized authentication server. Answer B is incorrect. The Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP) is an authentication framework allowing point-to-point connections.

Which of the following represents the number of pixels that make up the dimensions of a display? A. Stuck pixel B. Contrast ratio C. Resolution D. Brightness

Answer C is correct. Resolution is the number of pixels that make up the dimensions of a display. The resolution value is given as the number of horizontal pixels by vertical pixels. Answer D is incorrect. Brightness is the amount of light being emitted from a display device. Brightness is measured in lumens, which is the unit of measurement for visible light being emitted from a light source. Answer B is incorrect. Contrast ratio is defined as the ratio of the luminance of the brightest color to that of the darkest color that the screen is capable of producing. Answer A is incorrect. A stuck pixel is a pixel that only shows one color of light, so it appears out of place when the display is on.

A customer needs a router that is able to handle all incoming and outgoing networking traffic independent of the rest of the building. The customer would like the PCs to immediately connect to the Internet and network resources without any additional configuration. Which of the following should the technician do to meet the requirements? A. Configure the router for NAT. B. Configure the router for DNAT. C. Configure the router for DHCP. D. Configure the router for QoS.

Answer C is correct. The Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) is a network management protocol that provides automatic assignment of IP addresses and other Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) configuration information on network systems that are configured as DHCP clients. DHCP requires a DHCP server computer configured with at least one active DHCP scope. The scope contains a range of IP addresses and a subnet mask, and can contain other options, such as a default gateway address or Domain Name Server (DNS) server address. When the service is enabled, it automatically leases TCP/IP configuration information to DHCP clients for a defined lease period. Answer A is incorrect. Network Address Translation (NAT) is used to conceal internal private IP addresses from external networks. Answer B is incorrect. Destination network address translation (DNAT) changes the destination address of incoming packets. It works best for local servers that receive connections from outside clients. Answer D is incorrect. Quality of service (QoS) defines the overall connection quality as seen by users of the network, especially as connected to some expected baseline. QoS generally includes performance, reliability, and availability. Special kinds of traffic, like high priority or time-sensitive communications, might have special QoS demands.

Maria, a technician, is troubleshooting an expansion card in a computer that allows the computer to receive faxes over a VoIP line. The line connected to the expansion card is most likely which of the following cable types? A. RG-59 B. SMF C. CAT6 D. RG-58

Answer C is correct. The line connected to the expansion card is most likely to be a CAT6 cable in the given scenario. It is an expansion card in a computer that allows the computer to receive faxes over a Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP), also called IP telephony, line. The CAT6 cable is used as the cabling infrastructure for 10BASE-T (Ethernet), 100BASE-TX (Fast Ethernet), 1000BASE-T (Gigabit Ethernet), and 10GBASE-T (10-Gigabit Ethernet) networks. The CAT6 standard provides performance of up to 250 MHz. CAT6 is backward compatible with the CAT3, CAT5, and CAT5e cable standards. Alike CAT5 and CAT5e cabling, CAT6 cables consist of four unshielded twisted pairs (UTP) of copper wire terminated by RJ-45 connectors. The CAT6 standard includes stringent specifications for crosstalk and system noise. Answer A is incorrect. RG-59 is used for cable television transmission. It also uses the Bayonet Neill-Concelman (BNC) and F connectors. It has a maximum transmission speed of 10 Mbps up to 250 meters in length and a maximum transmission speed of 100 Mbps up to 150 meters in length. Answer D is incorrect. RG-58 is a type of coaxial cable that has a maximum transmission speed of 10 Mbps using baseband transmission up to 185 meters in length. It is a type of media that is used for networking. It is also known as thinnet and is obsolete now. Answer B is incorrect. Single-mode fiber (SMF) is a type of fiber optic cable that only permits one mode of propagation for the light that eliminates the issue of multimode delay distortion.

A user is watching a training education video and notices black-colored and pin-sized dots in the same location on his laptop LCD screen. Which of the following is the cause of this issue? A. Pixelation B. Distorted image C. Dead pixel D. Pseudo color

Answer C is correct. The pixels that make up a liquid crystal display (LCD) output sometimes do not display the picture as they should. There are generally two types of pixels issues that are as follows: Dead pixels: These pixels do not display the light as expected. This effect is shown visually when the LCD is displaying a picture and there are black spots shown with no light. Stuck pixels: That only show light, so they appear out of place when the display is on. Light colors can vary from red to blue or green. Answer A is incorrect. Pixelation is a term used to describe the act of converting a printed image into a digitized image file. Answer D is incorrect. Pseudo color refers to a group of color rendering methods used to display images in color that were recorded in the visible or non-visible parts of the electromagnetic spectrum. Answer B is incorrect. The distorted image is caused when the resolutions that are not in the display's memory are used. Magnetic interference can also cause distortion or tilted images.

A user brings his PC to a technician asking for a method to transfer data from a DVR to a DVD. Which of the following cards should the technician advise him to extract the data for archiving? A. Modem B. Video C. Video capture D. Riser

Answer C is correct. The technician should advise the user to use a video capture card for this purpose. A video capture card allows a computer to input video feeds, including digital video, and interact with software necessary to process and edit video. It allows a workstation or a computer to display and record video signals from a video recording device, such as a digital video recorder (DVR). It can also be used to convert the raw video input to a format that can be shared electronically. Answer B is incorrect. A video card generates the visual output that is sent to the display device. It is also responsible for converting the data sent to it by the CPU into the pixels, addresses, and other items required for display. Answer A is incorrect. A modem card is an inner type of modem plugged into the Peripheral Component Interconnect (PCI) slot of a PC motherboard. It allows remote communications over the phone or data lines that have been provided by a cable or an Internet service provider. Answer D is incorrect. A riser card allows adding expansion cards to a system board while saving space within the system case.

A user asks a technician to set up emails on his mobile device. The user also wants the server to retain a copy of the email. Which of the following ports will be the best for the technician to use for this purpose? A. 80 B. 22 C. 143 D. 21

Answer C is correct. The technician should use port 143 for this purpose. The Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) port 143 is used by the Internet Mail Access Protocol version 4 (IMAP4). It is a secure protocol designed to download email. It allows a client to remain connected to the email server after the download. It also allows a client to store the email on the server. Answer A is incorrect. TCP port 80 is used by the Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) for transmitting hypermedia documents, such as HTML. It was designed for communication between web browsers and web servers. Answer B is incorrect. TCP port 22 is used by Secure Shell (SSH). It is a protocol that enables a user or an application to log on to another device over a network, execute commands, and manage files. Answer D is incorrect. TCP ports 20 and 21 are used by the File Transfer Protocol (FTP). It is used to send and receive files between a client and a server.

An organization wants to create a server VM that is segregated from the rest of the servers. Which of the following should be configured? A. EULA B. iSCSI C. VNIC D. VPN

Answer C is correct. Virtual Network Interface Card (VNIC) is a program that virtualizes a physical network interface card, and is used by a virtual machine as its network interface. It enables the virtual machine to communicate with other virtual machines on the same host, but not on physical networks unless it is configured to bridge to the host NIC. Answer A is incorrect. End User License Agreement (EULA) is a legal contract between a software application author or publisher and the user of that application. Answer D is incorrect. A Virtual Private Network (VPN) is a private communication network transmitted across a public network connection such as the Internet. It is a secured network connection made over an insecure network. Answer B is incorrect. Internet Small Computer System Interface (iSCSI) is an IP-based storage networking standard for linking data storage facilities.

Under ordinary situations, which of the following wireless standards offers the slowest transfer speed at 2.4 GHz frequency? A. 802.11a B. 802.11n C. 802.11g D. 802.11b

Answer D is correct. 802.11b is a wireless standard that operates at 2.4 GHz frequency and provides wireless speeds of up to 11 Mbps. It uses direct-sequence spread spectrum (DSSS) for data encoding. Answer A is incorrect. 802.11a is a wireless standard that operates at 5 GHz frequency and provides wireless speeds of up to 54 Mbps. Answer C is incorrect. 802.11g is a wireless standard that operates at 2.4 GHz frequency. It is backward compatible with 802.11b and provides data transmission of up to 54 Mbps. Answer B is incorrect. 802.11n is a wireless standard that can operate at 5 GHz or 2.4 GHz frequency. It is backward compatible with earlier standards and provides data transmission of up to 600 Mbps.

Which of the following is a small program that contains executable code to work as a loader for the installed operating system? A. POST B. TTL C. SR-IOV D. MBR

Answer D is correct. A Master Boot Record (MBR) is a small program that contains executable code to work as a loader for the installed operating system. This MBR code is usually referred to as a boot loader. This code is stored in the first sector of the hard disk and identifies where an operating system is located so that it can be loaded into the system's RAM. Answer B is incorrect. Time to live (TTL) is a mechanism that limits the lifetime of data in a computer or network. Answer A is incorrect. Power-On Self-Test (POST) is a built-in diagnostic program that runs every time a computer starts up. It checks hardware to ensure that everything is present and functioning properly. Answer C is incorrect. The single root input/output virtualization (SR-IOV) interface is an extension to the Peripheral Component Interconnect Express (PCIe) specification. SR-IOV allows a device, such as a network adapter, to separate access to its resources among various PCIe hardware functions.

Which device actively works to prevent collisions by making sure not to send data to a segment that is already busy? A. Gateway B. NIC C. Wireless antenna D. Bridge

Answer D is correct. A bridge is a bit like a repeater, except instead of blindly regenerating signals and passing them on, it actively works to prevent collisions by making sure not to send data to a segment that is already busy. It is just that it manages collisions by storing the frame it receives from one side and waiting for the network to be clear before sending it on the others. Answer A is incorrect. A gateway is a device, software, or system that has the ability to convert data between incompatible systems or devices. It can translate data between different operating systems, or email formats, or between totally different networks. Answer C is incorrect. A wireless antenna is a device that converts high-frequency signals on a cable into electromagnetic waves and vice versa. In wireless communication, an antenna is used to receive or transmit radio waves. Answer B is incorrect. A network interface card (NIC), also called a network adapter or network card, is a device that serves as an interface between a network node and the network.

For which of the following types of printers should a technician obtain a maintenance kit containing a fuser, transfer roller, and pickup rollers? A. Thermal B. Inkjet C. Impact D. Laser

Answer D is correct. A laser printer is a type of printer that forms high-quality images on one page of paper at a time, by using a laser beam, toner, and an electrophotographic drum. Laser printers include some specialized components: Toner cartridge Laser scanning assembly Paper transport mechanism Electrostatic Photographic drum (EP drum) Transfer corona assembly Fuser assembly Formatter board Answer B is incorrect. An inkjet printer is a printer that forms images by firing microscopic droplets of liquid ink out of microscopic inkjet nozzles mounted together on a carriage assembly that moves back and forth across the paper. You might need to replace inkjet cartridges, replace print heads, or run calibration programs on an inkjet printer. Answer C is incorrect. An impact printer is any type of printer that strikes a component directly against the ink ribbon to create characters on impact paper. A maintenance kit for an impact printer can include the ink ribbon that should be replaced when the printout is faded. Answer A is incorrect. A thermal printer is a general term for any printer that uses a heating element to create the image on the paper with dye, ink from ribbons, or directly with pins while the feed assembly moves the media through the printer. A maintenance kit for a thermal printer can include an electrostatic discharge (ESD)-safe vacuum cleaner to clean the thermal printer and isopropyl alcohol and a lint-free cloth or cotton swab to clean the heating element on the print head.

A network technician is troubleshooting an issue and has established a theory of probable cause. Which of the following steps should the network technician take next? A. Document findings, actions, and outcomes. B. Identify the problem. C. Verify full system functionality. D. Test the theory to determine the cause.

Answer D is correct. A logical and methodical approach to troubleshooting usually leads to quicker solutions, so there are certain general factors that will apply in any troubleshooting situation. These are as follows: Identify the problem. Establish a theory of probable cause. Test the theory to determine the cause. Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and implement the solution. Verify full system functionality and, if applicable, implement preventive measures. Document findings, actions, and outcomes.

A network engineer is asked to implement a network encompassing the five-block town center and nearby businesses. The inclusion of smartphones and portable devices is crucial to the plan. Which of the following is the network engineer being asked to implement? A. WPAN B. CAN C. LAN D. MAN

Answer D is correct. A metropolitan area network (MAN) covers an area equivalent to a city or a municipality. It is also used to mean the interconnection of several local area networks by bridging them with backbone lines. It is similar to a local area network (LAN) but spans an entire city. MANs are formed by connecting multiple LANs. Thus, MANs are larger than LANs but smaller than wide area networks (WAN). Answer B is incorrect. A campus area network (CAN) covers an area equivalent to an academic campus or business park. A CAN is typically owned or used exclusively by an entity. Answer C is incorrect. A local area network (LAN) is a self-contained network that spans a small area, such as a single building, floor, or room. In a LAN, all nodes and segments are directly connected with cables or short-range wireless technologies. Answer A is incorrect. A wireless personal area network (WPAN) is a variation of a PAN that connects wireless devices in close proximity but not through a Wireless Access Point (WAP). Infrared and Bluetooth are technologies used for connecting devices in a WPAN.

Which of the following is a passive monitoring system designed to alert administrators when something suspicious happens, but takes no action on its own? A. RDP B. SSH C. VDI D. IDS

Answer D is correct. An Intrusion Detection System (IDS) is a passive monitoring system designed to alert administrators when something suspicious happens, but takes no action on its own. Answer B is incorrect. Secure Shell (SSH) is a Linux-based protocol that enables a user or application to log on to another computer over a network, execute commands, and manage files. Answer A is incorrect. The Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) is a proprietary protocol created by Microsoft for connecting to and managing computers that are not necessarily located at the same place as the administrator. Answer C is incorrect. Virtual Desktop Infrastructure (VDI) is a desktop virtualization technology that separates the personal computing environment from a user's physical computer.

Which of the following is a form of microprocessor parallelization where each physical processor is treated as two virtual processors? A. Throttling B. Integrated GPU C. Overclocking D. Hyper-threading

Answer D is correct. Hyper-threading is a form of microprocessor parallelization where each physical processor is treated as two virtual processors. It is a feature of the Intel chip that makes one physical CPU appear as two logical CPUs. It uses additional registers to overlap two instruction streams to increase the CPU's performance by about 30 percent. Answer A is incorrect. Throttling is used to adjust the CPU speed. A CPU throttling is used to reduce the operating frequency of the CPU during idle times to conserve the battery or keep the system running at a lower performance level when hardware problems have been encountered. Answer C is incorrect. Overclocking is the practice of increasing the clock rate of a computer so that it exceeds the clock rate which is certified by the manufacturer. This increased clock rate boosts the processor performance. Answer B is incorrect. Integrated graphics processing unit (GPU) is a graphics processing unit on the same chip as the CPU. It allows the CPU to directly control displays provided that the motherboard has a display port.

You're troubleshooting a connection issue between a switch and a wall jack. You went into the switch room to check if the cable is plugged into the switch but you didn't recognize the cable because none of the cables were labeled. Which of the following tools will you most likely use to find the cable in the given scenario? A. Loopback plug B. Multimeter C. Wi-Fi analyzer D. Toner probe

Answer D is correct. If you need to trace a wire in a wall from one location to another, a toner probe is the tool for you. It consists of two pieces, namely, a tone generator and a probe. To use a toner probe, attach one end to the one end of the cable, such as the end of a computer. Then, go to the patch panel with the other end of the probe to locate the cable. These are lifesavers when the cables are not properly labeled. Answer C is incorrect. A wireless tester, wireless locator, or Wi-Fi analyzer, is a Wi-Fi spectrum analyzer used to detect devices and points of interference as well as to analyze and troubleshoot network issues on a wireless local area network (WLAN) or other wireless networks. Answer A is incorrect. A loopback plug is a tool that causes the device to transmit a signal back to itself. It is typically used for diagnosing transmission problems that redirect electrical signals back to the transmitting system. Answer B is incorrect. A multimeter is an electronic measuring instrument that combines several measurement functions in one unit. A typical multimeter may include features such as the ability to measure voltage, current, and resistance.

John, a technician, needs to allow multiple PCs to share a common display, keyboard, and mouse. Which of the following devices will he use? A. Network switch B. Set-top box C. NAS appliance D. KVM switch

Answer D is correct. John should use a KVM switch (with KVM being an abbreviation for "keyboard, video, and mouse"), which is a hardware device that allows a user to control multiple computers from a single keyboard, video monitor, and mouse. A user connects a monitor, keyboard, and mouse to the KVM switch and then uses special cables (generally Universal Serial Bus (USB) and Video Graphics Array (VGA)) to connect the KVM device to computers. Answer C is incorrect. Network-attached storage (NAS) appliance is a data storage device that can be connected to a network to provide direct data access and file sharing to multiple computing devices attached to a network. Answer B is incorrect. A set-top box is a device that takes video content and converts it to a format that can be viewed on a television. Answer A is incorrect. A network switch is a networking device used to connect devices together on a computer network.

Which of the following are features of a firewall? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. Protects systems from malware and spyware B. Filters inbound and outbound communication C. Protects from social engineering attacks D. Enables or disables port security on certain ports

Answers A, B and D are correct. A firewall provides many features that can be configured to suit various computing needs. Here are the features of a firewall: Enables or disables port security on certain ports Filters inbound and outbound communication Protects systems from malware and spyware Assigns, forwards, and triggers ports Answer C is incorrect. A firewall cannot protect from social engineering attacks. If attackers can somehow obtain passwords that they are not authorized to have or otherwise compromise authentication mechanisms through social engineering mechanisms, the firewall cannot stop them.

Which of the following is used to facilitate communication with a user's smartphone to make purchases and payments by proximity? A. Gyroscope B. GPS C. Siri D. NFC

Answer D is correct. Near field communication (NFC) is a wireless communication method that facilitates communication with a user's smartphone to make purchases and payments by proximity. It enables wireless devices to establish radio communications by touching them together or by bringing them close to each other, typically within 10 cm or less. NFC operates at 13.5 MHz and is slower than Bluetooth. However, it consumes less power and does not require pairing. Apple got into the NFC payment arena in 2014 with the launch of Apple Pay, which can be used from iPhones, iPads, and the Apple Watch. In 2015, Google introduced Android Pay, which is an update to the older Google Wallet app. Answer A is incorrect. Tablets and smartphones use accelerometers and gyroscopes to determine which way devices are being held and detect how they are being moved. Answer C is incorrect. Siri is the default virtual assistant for iOS. The assistant uses voice queries, gesture-based control, focus-tracking, and a natural-language user interface to answer questions, make recommendations, and perform actions by delegating requests to a set of Internet services. Answer B is incorrect. A global positioning system (GPS) is a satellite-based navigation system that provides location and time services. The most common commercial use of GPS is navigation. You can get your current location and directions to where you want to go.

Which custom configuration is most likely to include a RAID array? A. Virtualization workstation B. Gaming PC C. Home server PC D. NAS device

Answer D is correct. Network attached storage (NAS) device allows you to centralize storage on a network. This device can be connected to a network connection and can be accessed from any of the devices on the network. NAS uses a RAID array with data redundancy features as all the data is stored centrally in one place and you don't want a single drive failure to cause all of your data to be unavailable. RAID provides redundancy across all drives. So if any single drive fails, you still have access to your data. Answer A is incorrect. A virtualization workstation is a computer that uses both hardware and client virtualization resources to provide a comprehensive virtual environment for users. Answer C is incorrect. A home server PC is a server connected to multiple computing devices for storing videos, music, and pictures. It also provides central access to all stored files and is often used for file and print sharing with other computing devices. Answer B is incorrect. A gaming PC is a computer equipped with powerful graphics capabilities, fast processing capabilities, and a large amount of memory.

Which of the following cloud services would most likely be selected by a software development company that needs a cloud to develop software and does not have infrastructure requirements? A. NaaS B. CaaS C. SaaS D. PaaS

Answer D is correct. Platform as a Service (PaaS) is an access to a computing platform or software environment the customer can use to develop and host web-based applications. It provides a platform allowing customers to develop, run, and manage applications without the complexity of building and maintaining the infrastructure typically associated with developing and launching an application. The provider manages the underlying hardware infrastructure and development tools, so the customer only has to do the actual software development. Answer C is incorrect. Software as a Service (SaaS) is subscription-based access to applications or databases, sometimes known as on-demand software. It eliminates the need to install software on user devices, and it can be helpful for mobile or transient workforces. Answer A is incorrect. Network as a Service (NaaS) provides network-based services through the cloud, including monitoring and quality of service (QoS) management. Answer B is incorrect. Communications as a service (CaaS) is an outsourced enterprise communications solution that can be leased from a single vendor. Such communications can include voice over IP (VoIP or Internet telephony), instant messaging (IM), collaboration, and video conference applications using fixed and mobile devices.

Which of the following cloud service models would be recommended to a company for hardware capacity to host a production database application? A. DaaS B. NaaS C. SaaS D. PaaS

Answer D is correct. Platform as a Service (PaaS) is an access to a computing platform or software environment the customer can use to develop and host web-based applications. It provides a platform allowing customers to develop, run, and manage applications without the complexity of building and maintaining the infrastructure typically associated with developing and launching an application. The provider manages the underlying hardware infrastructure and development tools, so the customer only has to do the actual software development. An example of PaaS includes Amazon's Relational Database Service (RDS). Answer C is incorrect. Software as a Service (SaaS) is subscription-based access to applications or software, sometimes known as on-demand software. It eliminates the need to install software on user devices, and it can be helpful for mobile or transient workforces. Answer A is incorrect. Desktop as a Service (DaaS) is a form of virtual desktop infrastructure (VDI) in which the VDI is outsourced and handled by a third party. Answer B is incorrect. Network as a Service (NaaS) provides network-based services through the cloud, including monitoring and quality of service (QoS) management.

Which of the following allows to secure file transfer protocols? A. IPSec B. LDAP C. SNMP D. SSH

Answer D is correct. Secure Shell (SSH) is a cryptographic network protocol that is used for operating network services securely over an unsecured network. It is used for secure data communication, remote command-line login, remote command execution, and other secure network services between two networked devices. It also secures file transfer protocols, such as Secure Shell FTP (SFTP). Answer C is incorrect. The Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) is used to remotely manage and monitor network devices like routers and switches. It uses ports 161 and 162. Answer B is incorrect. The Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) is used for network directory services that centrally manage user accounts and network services. It uses ports 389 and 636. Answer A is incorrect. Internet Protocol Security (IPSec) is a set of open and non-proprietary standards that can use to secure data as it travels across the network or the Internet through data authentication and encryption.

You need to connect a piano keyboard to a PC. Which of the following interfaces should you look for on a piano keyboard to connect it to the PC? A. eSATA B. HDMI C. VGA D. MIDI

Answer D is correct. The Musical Instrument Digital Interface (MIDI) connection enables you to connect and control musical devices, such as electric keyboards, synthesizers, guitars, drum kits, and mixers. Sound cards usually include built-in synthesizers as well to produce MIDI sounds. MIDI devices can be connected to each other and then to the computer. These devices can connect to the computer using a number of ports. MIDI to the USB interface, MIDI to serial, or MIDI to FireWire connections are most commonly used, allowing for faster communication between the musical instrument and the computer or controller device. Answer C is incorrect. Video Graphics Array (VGA) is a three-row 15-pin DE-15 video connector. This connector can be used in many video cards, computer monitors, and high definition television sets. Answer A is incorrect. External SATA (eSATA) is an external interface for SATA connections. Like IEEE 1394, it provides a connection for external storage devices. Answer B is incorrect. The High Definition Multimedia Interface (HDMI) is a proprietary audio/video interface for transferring uncompressed video data and compressed or uncompressed digital audio data from a display controller to a compatible peripheral device over a single HDMI cable.

A junior network technician is setting up a new email server on the company network. Which of the following default ports should the technician ensure is open on the firewall so the new email server can send an email? A. 110 B. 143 C. 22 D. 25

Answer D is correct. The Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) is a communication protocol for formatting and sending email messages from a client to a server or between servers. It uses a store-and-forward process where it can store a message until the receiving device comes online. It uses port 25 as the default port. Answer C is incorrect. Secure Shell (SSH) is a protocol that enables a user or an application to log on to another device over a network, execute commands, and manage files. It uses port 22 and runs on the Transmission Control Protocol (TCP). Answer B is incorrect. The Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP) is a standard email protocol that is used to store email messages on a mail server and allows a user to view and modify the messages as though they were stored locally. It uses port 143 as the default port. Answer A is incorrect. The Post Office Protocol version 3 (POP3) is a client/server protocol that is used to receive e-mails. It uses port 110 as the default port.

A customer wants a computer for performing a single-threaded task as quickly as possible. Which of the following is a CPU characteristic that is the most important in the given scenario? A. Virtualization B. MMX C. Hyperthreading D. Clock speed

Answer D is correct. The customer should check the clock speed of the CPU. The clock speed is the number of processing cycles that a microprocessor can perform in a given second. Some CPUs require several cycles to assemble and perform a single instruction, whereas others require fewer cycles. The clock speed is a technical rating, actual performance speeds can vary from the published clock speed rating. The clock speed is typically referred to as the processor performance. Answer B is incorrect. Multimedia Extensions (MMX) is a set of additional instructions, called microcode, to support sound, video, and graphics multimedia functions. Answer C is incorrect. Hyperthreading is a feature of certain Intel chips that makes one physical CPU appear as two logical CPUs. It uses additional registers to overlap two instruction streams to increase the CPU's performance by about 30 percent. Answer A is incorrect. Virtualization allows your computer system to run as a unique computer system with full access to all hardware for individual applications.

The digitizer of a modern laptop computer is used to: A. convert a low power signal into a high power signal. B. encode analog audio into a digital format. C. enable hands-free control of common laptop functions. D. convert hand-drawn pictures into digital images.

Answer D is correct. The digitizer is used to convert hand-drawn pictures into digital images that can be manipulated using computer software. When a laptop, smartphone, or tablet has a touchscreen display, it uses a digitizer. The digitizer is sandwiched between a layer of glass and the Liquid Crystal Display (LCD). Analog signals are created when you tap or swipe the surface of the display. The digitizer is connected to the laptop with a flexible digitizer cable. A grid of sensors is activated when you tap or swipe the screen. The information from the sensors is sent through the digitizer cable to a circuit that converts the analog signal to a digital signal. Answer B is incorrect. An audio codec is a device that encodes analog audio as digital signals and decodes digital signals back into the analog signal. It contains both an analog-to-digital converter (ADC) and digital-to-analog converter (DAC) running off the same clock signal. Answer C is incorrect. Speech recognization software can be used to enable hands-free control of common laptop functions. It allows users to control some common laptop functions using their voice. Answer A is incorrect. An amplifier is a device that can convert a low power signal into a high power signal.

Maria, a system engineer, is required to implement a solution to handle data-at-rest encryption requirements for a database. Which of the following would be the best to satisfy these requirements? A. Implement an SME encryption on the virtual server and store the certificates remotely. B. Enable two-factor authentication on connections to the database server and log activities. C. Install an SSL certificate and only allow secure connections to the server. D. Create a virtual encrypted disk, add it to the virtual server, and use it.

Answer D is correct. The given scenario talks about data-at-rest encryption. Data-at-rest means inactive data that is stored physically in any digital form. The only option given that offers a solution for data-at-rest encryption is to create a virtual encrypted disk, add it to the virtual server, and use it, which means to have the database write to the virtual encrypted disk. This adds enhanced security to the algorithms used for system and partition encryption. Answer B is incorrect. Two-factor authentication (2FA) is a security process in which the user provides two different authentication factors to verify themselves to better protect both the user's credentials and the resources the user can access. Answer A is incorrect. Secure Memory Encryption (SME) is an x86 instruction set extension introduced by Advanced Micro Devices (AMD) for page-granular memory encryption support using a single ephemeral key. It provides the ability for software to mark certain pages to be encrypted. Marked pages are automatically decrypted and encrypted upon software read and write. Answer C is incorrect. Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) makes up a protocol group that operates on top of TCP to provide an encrypted session between the client and the server. It is commonly seen on websites implemented as the Hypertext Transport Protocol Secure (HTTPS) protocol.

Joe, a user, contacts the network administrator to request a list of all static IP addresses in the building. Which of the following server roles would the network administrator most likely examine to find that information? A. Proxy B. Mail C. Web D. DHCP

Answer D is correct. The network administrator would find a list of all static IP addresses in the building on the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server. The DHCP server runs software that automatically assigns IP addresses to client stations logging on to a Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) network. It eliminates the need to manually assign permanent IP addresses. Using DHCP, addresses can be assigned dynamically, or by reservation. In dynamic assignment every time a client connects to the network, it might have a different IP address, while in the reserved assignment, whenever a particular computer connects, it receives the same IP address. It ties an IP address to a computer's unique address. Answer A is incorrect. A proxy server is a system that isolates internal clients from the servers by downloading and storing files on behalf of the clients. It intercepts requests for web-based or other resources that come from the clients, and, if it does not have the data in its cache, it can generate a completely new request packet using itself as the source, or simply relay the request. Answer C is incorrect. A web server provides access to personal, corporate, or education website content. This service is provided primarily to external users, such as customers or students, who access the Web services from the Internet. Answer B is incorrect. A mail server, also called the message server, provides post office facilities by storing incoming mails or messages for distribution to users and forwarding outgoing mails or messages through appropriate channels.

Which of the following expansion ports would be used to enable the transfer of power, data, and video to peripheral devices on an Apple computer? A. HDMI B. USB 2.0 C. Lightning D. Thunderbolt

Answer D is correct. Thunderbolt is a standard interface developed by Intel in collaboration with Apple that allows the connection of external peripherals to an Apple computer. Thunderbolt connection is a high-speed input-output (I/O) technology interface that consists of a host controller that joins together Peripheral Component Interconnect (PCI)-Express data and/or DisplayPort video. Thunderbolt connection can support up to six peripheral devices, including full 4K video displays, audio, external graphics, and storage devices. It is capable of delivering up to 100 watts of power, so a single cable can be used to connect to a dock or display and charge your MacBook Pro or MacBook Air simultaneously. Answer B is incorrect. USB 2.0 is the most commonly implemented USB standard. USB 2.0 supports low-bandwidth devices such as keyboards and mice, as well as high-bandwidth devices such as scanners, multi-function printers, and high-resolution webcams. Answer C is incorrect. Lightning is Apple's proprietary expansion interface used to charge and connect its "i-branded" mobile devices, such as the iPhone, iPad, and iPod. The Lightning cable is a USB 2.0 cable with a very small 8-pin connector on one end and a USB Type A connector on the other. Lightning connectors contain a small authentication chip to prevent unauthorized production of the cables. Answer A is incorrect. The High Definition Multimedia Interface (HDMI) is a proprietary audio/video interface for transferring uncompressed video data and compressed or uncompressed digital audio data from a display controller to a compatible peripheral device, such as a display monitor, a video projector, digital TV, or digital audio device over a single HDMI cable.

Smith, a user, complains that his CD drive is not working. Lucy, a technician, verifies that it is completely dead. Lucy needs to ensure that the power coming to the CD drive is correct, and therefore she has to check its voltage. Which of the following tools will Lucy use? A. Cable tester B. Logic probe C. Time-domain reflectometer D. Multimeter

Answer D is correct. To verify the incoming voltage to the CD drive, Lucy will use a multimeter. It is an electronic measuring instrument that combines several measurement functions in one unit. A typical multimeter may include features such as the ability to measure voltage, current, and resistance. Answer A is incorrect. A cable tester is an electronic device that is used to verify the electrical connections in a signal cable or other wired assembly. Answer B is incorrect. A logic probe is a tool that is used to troubleshoot signal related problems in digital circuits. Answer C is incorrect. The time-domain reflectometer (TDR) is used to troubleshoot breaks in cabling. It determines the location of a cable break by sending an electrical pulse along the cable.

You're observing fine black particles on printouts and in the printer itself. Which of the following tools will you use to fix this problem? A. Extension magnet B. Logic probe C. Toner probe D. Toner vacuum

Answer D is correct. When you observe fine black particles on printouts and in the printer, the printer needs to be cleaned by using a toner vacuum. Toner vacuums are specifically designed to clean up toner within a printer. The vacuum is able to reserve the particles within the tool so that it is not dispersed back into the air. You should never use a conventional vacuum cleaner to clean up toner because the particles are so small that there is a risk of them getting blown back into the air surrounding the printer. This can be harmful to your health. Answer C is incorrect. A toner probe is a connectivity-testing tool that can be used to trace and identify a wire along its entire length. Answer A is incorrect. An extension magnet is a telescoping wand with a magnet attached to the end and is used to pick up screws or other metal pieces that may fall into the printer or scanner. Answer B is incorrect. A logic probe is a tool used to troubleshoot signal related problems in digital circuits.

You find that your system is performing slow and taking a long time in opening large database files placed on the local hard drive. Which of the following tools will you use to resolve the issue? A. BOOTREC B. MSCONFIG C. SFC D. DEFRAG

Answer D is correct. You will use the DEFRAG tool when systems are running slow and performance is suffering. This utility is used to reduce fragmentation on the hard disk by reorganizing stored data. Reducing fragmentation can affect disk performance. Answer C is incorrect. The Windows System File Checker (SFC) tool can be used to scan Windows and restore files if some Windows functions aren't working or Windows crashes. Answer B is incorrect. The MSCONFIG tool is used to test various configurations for diagnostic purposes rather than to permanently make configuration changes. Answer A is incorrect. The BOOTREC tool is used to troubleshoot and resolve master boot record (MBR) issues, boot sector problems, and Boot Configuration Data (BCD) issues.

You want to print 10 copies of a document that has a total of 9 pages and also want that whole document is printed at once, instead of printing 10 copies of the first page, then the second page, and so on. Which of the following printer configuration options will you use to fulfill these requirements? A. Orientation B. Quality C. Duplex D. Collate

Answer D is correct. You will use the collate option that lets you specify the order in which multiple copies of a multi-page document are printed. It refers to the gathering and arranging of individual sheets or other printed components into a pre-determined sequence. If collate is enabled the printer will print a complete copy of the document before the first page of the next copy is printed, and if collate is disabled the printer will print each page by the number of copies specified before printing the next page. Answer C is incorrect. Duplex is a printer configuration option that enables the user to automatically print on both sides of a page. Answer A is incorrect. Orientation is a printer configuration option that allows users to specify whether the document will be printed in a landscape or portrait orientation. Answer B is incorrect. Quality is a printer configuration option that enables users to specify whether they want to print draft, normal, or high-quality output.

Which of the following are features of a fitness monitor? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two. A. Counts the steps taken during a specified period of time B. Measures the intensity of the workout C. Enables you to search to the Internet, perform hands-free phone calls D. Transfers files and videos via Bluetooth, just like smartphones

Answers A and B are correct. A fitness monitor is a wearable device that enables the user to track activity and monitor health and fitness measurements. It might be worn on the wrist or ankle, or be attached to the user's clothing. Features of fitness monitors might include: An accelerometer to measure the intensity of the workout A pedometer to count the steps taken during a specified period of time A heart rate monitor A blood pressure monitor A calculator that calculates the number of calories burned Answers D and C are incorrect. A smartwatch is a digital watch with many features. It enables you to search the Internet and perform hands-free phone calls. It can also transfer files and videos via Bluetooth, just like smartphones.

Which of the following are the best features to include in a Home Theater PC? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two. A. Digital audio B. HDMI output C. High-end multi-core CPU D. Dual monitors

Answers A and B are correct. A home theater PC (HTPC) is a computer system that is dedicated and configured to store and stream digital movies, either from the local hard drive or through an online subscription such as Netflix. HTPCs are built specifically for home theater purposes, so most of the required elements are built right into the actual system. They generally include: A TV tuner card that allows the computer to display high-definition (HD) digital output and attach the cable provider's cable TV wire directly to the system. HDMI output for high-definition video and audio. A small form factor, such as micro-ATX or mini-ITX. Video card with both GPU and HD capabilities. Bluetooth or wireless capabilities when using specialized remotes or input devices. Answer D is incorrect. Dual monitors are used in audio/video (A/V) editing workstations. Answer C is incorrect. A high-end multi-core CPU is used in gaming computers.

Andrew, a network administrator, wants to remotely connect two computers over a network. Which of the following protocols will he use? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two. A. VNC B. RDP C. DHCP D. SMTP

Answers A and B are correct. Andrew will use the Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) and Virtual Network Computing (VNC) to remotely connect two computers over a network. The Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) is a proprietary protocol created by Microsoft for connecting to and managing computers that are not necessarily located at the same place as the administrator. Virtual Network Computing (VNC) is a platform-independent desktop sharing system. Answer C is incorrect. The Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) is a network service that provides automatic assignment of IP addresses and other TCP/IP configuration information on network systems that are configured as DHCP clients. Answer D is incorrect. The Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) is used to send emails from clients to servers and for transferring emails between servers.

James is tasked to update a computer's BIOS and firmware. What could be the possible reason for this update? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two. A. To provide support for new hardware B. To fix bugs that prevent the operating system from installing or running properly C. To filter inbound and outbound communication D. To block pop-up messages

Answers A and B are correct. There are various reasons to update the BIOS and firmware of a computer, which include: Providing support for new hardware, such as a large hard drive or removable storage device Fixing bugs that prevent the operating system from installing or running properly Enabling advanced plug-and-play or advanced power management features Providing eligibility for vendor support Answers C and D are incorrect because a firewall filters inbound and outbound communication and blocks pop-up messages.

Which of the following statements are true regarding USB 3.0 and USB 2.0?Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two. A. Unlike USB 2.0, USB 3.0 supports dual simplex communication pathways. B. USB 2.0 provides more current at high power as compared to USB 3.0. C. USB 2.0 supports streaming but USB 3.0 doesn't. D. Unlike USB 2.0, USB 3.0 supports continuous bursting.

Answers A and D are correct. USB 2.0 is a half-duplex technology, which means all devices must share a common bandwidth. USB 3.0 supports dual simplex communication pathways that collectively imitate full-duplex transmission, where devices at both ends of the cable can transmit simultaneously. USB 2.0 does not support bursting whereas USB 3.0 supports continuous bursting. Data burst is the broadcast of a relatively high-bandwidth transmission over a short period. Answer C is incorrect because USB 2.0 does not support streaming but USB 3.0 supports streaming. Streaming data is the continuous flow of data, which is generated by various sources. Answer B is incorrect because USB 2.0 provides a maximum of 100 milliamperes (mA) of current at low power and 500mA at high power. USB 3.0 provides 150mA and 900mA of current, respectively.

A server technician has been given a task to select the appropriate RAID levels that can recover the lost data if the server's hard drive crashes. Which of the following RAID levels should the technician select that can help to achieve this task? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. RAID 1 B. RAID 0 C. RAID 10 D. RAID 5

Answers A, C, and D are correct. The server technician can select RAID 1, RAID 5, and RAID 10 to recover the lost data if the server's hard drive crashes, and these levels provide fault tolerance to a database. RAID 1 is a type of RAID for standardizing and categorizing fault-tolerant disk systems by using disk mirroring. RAID 10, or RAID 1+0, combines two RAID levels into one and uses RAID 1 and RAID 0 to provide both mirroring from level 1 and striping from level 0. RAID 5 spreads data byte by byte across multiple drives, with parity information also spread across multiple drives. Answer B is incorrect because RAID 0 provides no backup for hard drive failure, it merely improves performance.

Which of the following characteristics are generally found on a docking station that port replicators do not offer? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two. A. Docks generally do not need separate power to function. B. Docks have independent hardware. C. Docks contain internal expansion ports. D. Docks usually have lesser USB ports than replicators.

Answers B and C are correct. A docking station has independent hardware and a set of electrical connections that allow you to quickly connect and disconnect your mobile device to common desktop computer peripherals, such as a monitor, external keyboard, mouse, external disk drives, etc. It may even contain internal expansion ports or hard drives, making a laptop function more like a desktop computer. Port replicator is similar to a docking station but usually simpler and less expensive. It is a scaled-down version of a docking station with only the standard ports available. It still has external ports that can be left permanently connected to desktop peripherals, but generally no expansion slots or disk drives. Most port replicators use a standard USB port on the laptop instead of a special docking port like a docking station, so they're compatible with a wider range of laptops.

Which of the following connections are typically on the external PC chassis? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two. A. SATA B. eSATA C. IEEE 1394 D. IDE

Answers B and C are correct. External SATA (eSATA) and Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) 1394 connections are typically on the external PC chassis. The IEEE 1394 connection is a PC connection that provides a high-speed interface for peripheral devices, which are designed to use the IEEE 1394 standard. IEEE 1394 can support up to 63 devices on one port, supports Plug-and-Play device discovery, supports hot-plugging, and can provide power to devices. It is often used to connect peripherals such as external hard drives, digital cameras, and digital video camcorders. eSATA is an external interface for SATA connections. Like IEEE 1394, it provides a connection for external storage devices. eSATA connections provide fast data transfers without having to translate data between the device and the host computer. eSATA interfaces do require an additional power connector to function. You can provide eSATA functionality by installing eSATA cards in systems. Answer A is incorrect. Serial ATA (SATA) is a computer bus interface that attaches host bus adapters to internal mass storage devices, such as hard disk drives, and solid-state drives. Answer D is incorrect. Integrated Drive Electronics (IDE) is an interface for connecting a motherboard to storage devices, such as CD-ROM/DVD drives and hard drives.

Which video display types can give flexible displays? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two. A. LCD TN B. OLCD C. OLED D. LCD IPS

Answers B and C are correct. Organic light emitting diode (OLED) and organic liquid crystal displays (OLCDs) can give flexible displays. The OLED display utilizes the same technology as the LED display but uses organic compounds such as carbon and hydrogen that emit light when subjected to an electric current as the light source. If thin-film electrodes and a flexible compound are used to produce the OLEDs, the OLED display can be made flexible. OLCDs are manufactured on low-cost plastic substrates and use inherently flexible and high-performance organic transistors instead of the rigid amorphous silicon transistors that were used in glass LCDs. Answer D is incorrect. The liquid crystal display in-plane switching (LCD IPS) is an LCD panel technology, which involves arranging and switching the orientation of the molecules of the liquid crystal (LC) layer between the glass substrates. Answer A is incorrect. The liquid crystal display twisted nematic (LCD TN) is an LCD panel technology where the panel is black when no electric current is running through the liquid crystal cells because the cells align themselves in a twisted state.

James, a technician, needs to replace the memory in laptops that are being brought to him for repair. Which of the following memory modules can he use? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two. A. 168-pin DIMM B. 72-pin SODIMM C. 72-pin SIMM D. 144-pin SODIMM

Answers B and D are correct. The technician should use the small outline dual inline memory module (SODIMM) for laptops. It is a type of computer memory, which is mostly used in laptops. SODIMMs come in smaller packages, consume lesser power, but are more expensive than DIMMs. The 72-pin SODIMM supports 32-bit transfers, and the 144-pin SODIMM supports 64-bit transfers. Answer A is incorrect. The dual inline memory module (DIMM), also known as the dual-sided inline memory module, is used for DDR SDRAM in desktops. It is a type of memory module that has 168 pins and supports data transfers on both the edges (rising and falling) of each system clock cycle. Answer C is incorrect. The single inline memory module (SIMM) is an older memory form factor that began the trend of placing memory chips on modules. There are two types of SIMMs, namely, 30-pin SIMM and 72-pin SIMM. SIMM is only used on very old computers, and frequently must be installed in matched pairs.

Which of the following types of cables are most likely to be used to connect to an external hard drive? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. HDMI B. USB 3.0 C. MIDI D. SPDIF E. eSATA

Answers B and E are correct. External hard drives are connected to an expansion card or an onboard motherboard port via USB 2.0 or higher, mini-USB, FireWire, SCSI, or eSATA cables and connectors. External SATA (eSATA) allows you to connect external SATA hard drives, solids state drives, and optical drives to your computer. When you have a SATA expansion card that includes an external connector, the external connector will be eSATA. USB 3.0 adds the new transfer rate referred to as SuperSpeed USB (SS). It has enhanced power efficiency and is backward compatible with USB enabled devices currently in use. USB 3.0 provides full-duplex communication by using two unidirectional data paths for sending and receiving data simultaneously. Answer A is incorrect. High Definition Multimedia Interface (HDMI) is a proprietary audio/video interface for transferring uncompressed video data and compressed or uncompressed digital audio data from a display controller to a compatible peripheral device (such as a display monitor, a video projector, digital TV, or digital audio device) over a single HDMI cable. Answer D is incorrect. Sony Phillips Digital Interconnect Format (SPDIF) is a digital format signal used to connect audio devices to output audio signals over a short distance. Answer C is incorrect. Musical Instrument Digital Interface (MIDI) is a connectivity standard for transferring digital instrument data. It is primarily used by computers, synthesizers, and electronic keyboards.