adult one prep u test 2

A client has been diagnosed with acute rhinosinusitis caused by a bacterial organism. What antibiotic of choice for treatment of this disorder does the nurse anticipate educating the client about?

Amoxicillin-clavulanic acid Explanation: Treatment of acute rhinosinusitis depends on the cause; a 5- to 7-day course of antibiotics is prescribed for bacterial cases. Antibiotics should be administered as soon as the diagnosis of ABRS is established. Amoxicillin-clavulanic acid ( Augmentin) is the antibiotic of choice. Other antibiotics prescribed previously to treat ABRS, including cephalosporins such as cephalexin (Keflex), cefuroxime (Ceftin), cefaclor (Ceclor), and cefixime (Suprax), trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim, Septra), and macrolides such as clarithromycin (Biaxin) and azithromycin (Zithromax), are no longer recommended because they are not effective in treating antibiotic-resistant organisms that are now more commonly implicated in ABRS.

The nurse is instructing the patient with asthma in the use of a newly prescribed leukotriene receptor antagonist. What should the nurse be sure to include in the education?

The patient should take the medication an hour before meals or 2 hours after a meal. Explanation: The nurse should instruct the patient to take the leukotriene receptor antagonist at least 1 hour before meals or 2 hours after meals.

Another term for clergyman's sore throat is

chronic granular pharyngitis. Explanation: In chronic granular pharyngitis, also referred to as clergyman's sore throat, the pharynx is characterized by numerous swollen lymph follicles. Aphonia refers to the inability to use one's voice. Atrophic pharyngitis is characterized by a membrane that is thin, white, glistening, and at times wrinkled. Hypertrophic pharyngitis is characterized by general thickening and congestion of the pharyngeal mucous membrane.

A patient visited a health care clinic for treatment of upper respiratory tract congestion, fatigue, and sputum production that was rust-colored. Which of the following diagnoses is likely based on this history and inspection of the sputum?

An infection with pneumococcal pneumonia Explanation: Sputum that is rust colored suggests infection with pneumococcal pneumonia. Bronchiectasis and a lung abscess usually are associated with purulent thick and yellow-green sputum. Bronchitis usually yields a small amount of purulent sputum.

Which drug is second-line pharmacotherapy for smoking abstinence?

Correct response: Clonidine Explanation: Second-line pharmacotherapy includes the antihypertensive agent clonidine. However, its use is limited by its side effects. First-line therapy includes nicotine gum, nortriptyline, and buproprion SR.

Which medication is contraindicated in acute asthma exacerbations?

Correct response: Cromolyn sodium Explanation: Cromolyn sodium is contraindicated in clients with acute asthma exacerbation.

A pneumothorax is a possible complication of COPD. Symptoms will depend on the suddenness of the attack and the size of the air leak. The most common, immediate symptom that should be assessed is:

Correct response: Sharp, stabbing chest pain Explanation: The initial symptom is usually chest pain of sudden onset that leads to feelings of chest pressure, dyspnea, and tachycardia. A cough may be present.

The classification of Stage II of COPD is defined as

Correct response: moderate COPD. Explanation: Stage II is moderate COPD. Stage 0 is at risk for COPD. Stage I is mild COPD. Stage III is severe COPD. Stage IV is very severe COPD.

Which statement would indicate that the parents of child with cystic fibrosis understand the disorder? Correct response:

"The mucus-secreting glands are abnormal." Explanation: Cystic fibrosis is caused by dysfunction of the exocrine glands with no cystic lesions present in the lungs. Early treatment can improve symptoms and extend the life of clients, but a cure for this disorder is presently not available. Allergens are responsible for allergic asthma and not associated with cystic fibrosis.

The nurse caring for a 2-year-old near-drowning victim monitors for what possible complication?

Acute respiratory distress syndrome Explanation: Factors associated with the development of ARDS include aspiration related to near drowning or vomiting; drug ingestion/overdose; hematologic disorders such as disseminated intravascular coagulation or massive transfusions; direct damage to the lungs through prolonged smoke inhalation or other corrosive substances; localized lung infection; metabolic disorders such as pancreatitis or uremia; shock; trauma such as chest contusions, multiple fractures, or head injury; any major surgery; embolism; and septicemia. Options A, C, and D are incorrect.

A client is being treated in the ED for respiratory distress coupled with pneumonia. The client has no medical history. However, the client works in a coal mine and smokes 10 cigarettes a day. The nurse anticipates which order based on the client's immediate needs?

Administration of antibiotics Explanation: Antibiotics are administered to treat respiratory tract infections. Chronic bronchitis is inflammation of the bronchi caused by irritants or infection. Hence, smoking cessation and avoiding pollutants are necessary to slow the accelerated decline of the lung tissue. However, the immediate priority in this case is to cure the infection, pneumonia. Corticosteroids and bronchodilators are administered to asthmatic clients when they show symptoms of wheezing. An ECG is used to evaluate atrial arrhythmias.

A client with asthma is being treated with albuterol. Which of the findings from the client's history would indicate to the nurse the need to administer this drug with caution?

Angina Explanation: Patients, especially older adults, with pre-existing cardiovascular disease may have adverse cardiovascular reactions with inhaled therapy. Albuterol (Proventil) does not increase the secretions of the GI tract or cause gastric irritation. It will not worsen a peptic ulcer

Which is an adverse reaction that would require the process of weaning from a ventilator to be terminated?

Blood pressure increase of 20 mm Hg Explanation: Criteria for terminating the weaning process include heart rate increase of 20 beats/min and systolic blood pressure increase of 20 mm Hg. A normal vital capacity is 10 to 15 mL/kg.

What is found with an IICP

Correct response: Bradypnea Explanation: Bradypnea is a slower than normal rate (<10 breaths/minute), with normal depth and regular rhythm. It is associated with IICP, brain injury, central nervous system depressants, and drug overdose. Tachypnea is associated with metabolic acidosis, septicemia, severe pain, and rib fracture. Hypoventilation is shallow, irregular breathing. Hyperventilation is an increased rate and depth of breathing.

A client has asthma. Which of the following medications is a commonly prescribed mast cell stabilizer used for asthma? You Selected: Albuterol

Correct response: Cromolyn sodium Explanation: Cromolyn sodium and nedocromil are mild to moderate anti-inflammatory agents and are considered alternative medications for treatment. These medications stabilize mast cells. Albuterol is a long-acting beta2-antagonist. Budesonide is an inhaled corticosteroid. Theophylline is a mild to moderate bronchodilator.

In which grade of COPD is the forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1) less than 30% predicted?

Correct response: IV Explanation: COPD is classified into four grades depending on the severity measured by pulmonary function tests. However, pulmonary function is not the only way to assess or classify COPD; pulmonary function is evaluated in conjunction with symptoms, health status impairment, and the potential for exacerbations. Grade I (mild): FEV1/FVC <70% and FEV1 ≥80% predicted. Grade II (moderate): FEV1/FVC <70% and FEV1 50% to 80% predicted. Grade III (severe): FEV1/FVC <70% and FEV1 <30% to 50% predicted. Grade IV (very severe): FEV1/FVC <70% and FEV1 <30% predicted.

Which measure may increase complications for a client with COPD?

Correct response: Increased oxygen supply Explanation: Administering too much oxygen can result in the retention of carbon dioxide. Clients with alveolar hypoventilation cannot increase ventilation to adjust for this increased load, and hypercapnia occurs. All the other measures aim to prevent complications.

A nurse is caring for a client who is at high risk for developing pneumonia. Which intervention should the nurse include on the client's care plan?

Correct response: Using strict hand hygiene Explanation: The nurse should use strict hand hygiene to help minimize the client's exposure to infection, which could lead to pneumonia. The head of the bed should be kept at a minimum of 30 degrees. The client should be turned and repositioned at least every 2 hours to help promote secretion drainage. Oral hygiene should be performed every 4 hours to help decrease the number of organisms in the client's mouth that could lead to pneumonia.

The nurse hears the patient's ventilator alarm sound and attempts to find the cause. What is the priority action of the nurse when the cause of the alarm is not able to be determined?

Disconnect the patient from the ventilator and manually ventilate the patient with a manual resuscitation bag until the problem is resolved. Explanation: If the cause of an alarm cannot be determined, the nurse should disconnect the patient from the ventilator and manually ventilate the patient, because leaving the patient on the mechanical ventilator may be dangerous.

The nurse is assessing a patient who has been admitted with possible ARDS. What findings would distinguish ARDS from cardiogenic pulmonary edema? Correct response:

Elevated B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) levels Explanation: Common diagnostic tests performed in patients with potential ARDS include plasma brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) levels, echocardiography, and pulmonary artery catheterization. The BNP level is helpful in distinguishing ARDS from cardiogenic pulmonary edema.

A junior-level nursing class has just finished learning about the management of clients with chronic pulmonary diseases. They learned that a new definition of COPD leaves only one disorder within its classification. Which of the following is that disorder? You Selected: Bronchiectasis

Emphysema Explanation: COPD may include diseases that cause airflow obstruction (eg, emphysema, chronic bronchitis) or any combination of these disorders. Other diseases such as cystic fibrosis, bronchiectasis, and asthma that were previously classified as types of COPD are now classified as chronic pulmonary disorders. Asthma is now considered a distinct, separate disorder and is classified as an abnormal airway condition characterized primarily by reversible inflammation.

The nurse should monitor a client receiving mechanical ventilation for which of the following complications?

Gastrointestinal hemorrhage Explanation: Gastrointestinal hemorrhage occurs in approximately 25% of clients receiving prolonged mechanical ventilation. Other possible complications include incorrect ventilation, oxygen toxicity, fluid imbalance, decreased cardiac output, pneumothorax, infection, and atelectasis. Immunosuppression and pulmonary emboli are not direct consequences of mechanical ventilation

A patient comes to the clinic with complaints of a sore throat and is diagnosed with acute pharyngitis. What does the nurse understand is the cause of acute pharyngitis?

Group A, beta-hemolytic streptococci Explanation: Viral infection causes most cases of acute pharyngitis. Responsible viruses include the adenovirus, influenza virus, Epstein-Barr virus, and herpes simplex virus. Bacterial infection accounts for the remainder of cases. Ten percent of adults with pharyngitis have group A beta-hemolytic streptococcus (GABHS), which is commonly referred to as group A streptococcus (GAS) or streptococcal pharyngitis.

A client arrived in the emergency department with a sharp object penetrating the diaphragm. When planning nursing care, which nursing diagnosis would the nurse identify as a priority?

Impaired Gas Exchange Explanation: The diaphragm separates the thoracic and abdominal cavities. On inspiration, the diaphragm contracts and moves downward, creating a partial vacuum. Without this vacuum, air is not as efficiently drawn into the thoracic cavity. Hypoxia or hypoxemia may occur from the poor availability of oxygen. Although the nursing diagnosis Acute Pain is probable, gas exchange is a higher priority. Ineffective Airway Clearance is the least concern because the problem is with ventilation.

A client with symptoms of mild persistent asthma is now initiating treatment. Which of the following is the preferred therapy that the nurse will teach the client to use at home?

Inhaled beclomethasone Explanation: For mild persistent asthma, the preferred treatment is an inhaled corticosteroid, such as beclomethasone (Beconase). The other medications are for long-term control, prevention, or both in moderate to severe persistent asthma.

A client has a nursing diagnosis of "ineffective airway clearance" as a result of excessive secretions. An appropriate outcome for this client would be which of the following?

Lungs are clear on auscultation. Explanation: Assessment of lung sounds includes auscultation for airflow through the bronchial tree. The nurse evaluates for fluid or solid obstruction in the lung. When airflow is decreased, as with fluid or secretions, adventitious sounds may be auscultated. Often crackles are heard with fluid in the airways.

The student nurse is learning breath sounds while listening to a client in the physician's office. An experienced nurse is assisting and notes air movement over the trachea to the upper lungs. The air movement is noted equally on inspiration as expiration. Which breath sounds would the nurse document?

Normal bronchovesicular sounds Explanation: Air movement over the trachea and upper lungs is a normal finding for broncho vesicular sounds. The air movement is noted equally on inspiration as expiration. The other choices do not match type of breath sound for the location in question.

Which diagnostic test is most accurate in assessing acute airway obstruction?

Pulmonary function studies Explanation: Pulmonary function studies are used to help confirm the diagnosis of COPD, determine disease severity, and monitor disease progression. ABGs and pulse oximetry are not the most accurate diagnostics for an airway obstruction. Spirometry is used to evaluate airflow obstruction, which is determined by the ratio of FEV1 to forced vital capacity (FVC).

Which homeostatic mechanism would the body of a critically ill client use to maintain normal pH?

The lungs eliminate carbonic acid by blowing off more CO2. Explanation: To maintain normal pH in critically ill clients, the lungs eliminate carbonic acid by blowing off more CO2. To maintain normal pH in critically ill clients, the lungs conserve CO2 by slowing respiratory volume. The lungs would retain more CO2 during an acid-base imbalance in cases of metabolic alkalosis. The kidneys would retain more HCO3 to compensate during an acid-base imbalance in cases of metabolic acidosis.

A client in acute respiratory distress is brought to the emergency department. After endotracheal (ET) intubation and initiation of mechanical ventilation, the client is transferred to the intensive care unit. Before suctioning the ET tube, the nurse hyperventilates and hyperoxygenates the client. What is the rationale for these interventions?

They help prevent cardiac arrhythmias. Explanation: ET suctioning removes oxygen, lowering the partial pressure of arterial oxygen; this, in turn, may induce a cardiac arrhythmia. Hyperventilating and hyperoxygenating the client before and during (or after) suctioning helps prevent this complication. Subcutaneous emphysema occurs when air from the pleural cavity leaks into subcutaneous tissue; it isn't a complication associated with suctioning. Hyperventilation and hyperoxygenation can't prevent a pneumothorax because this condition itself indicates air in the pleural space. Pulmonary edema is associated with cardiac dysfunction, not ET suctioning.

After undergoing a left thoracotomy, a client has a chest tube in place. When caring for this client, the nurse must:

encourage coughing and deep breathing. Explanation: When caring for a client who's recovering from a thoracotomy, the nurse should encourage coughing and deep breathing to prevent pneumonia. Fluctuations in the water-seal chamber are normal. Clamping the chest tube could cause a tension pneumothorax. Chest tube milking is controversial and should be done only to remove blood clots that obstruct the flow of drainage.

Which of the following factors contribute to the underlying pathophysiology of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)? Select all that apply.

orrect response: Inflamed airways obstruct airflow. Mucus secretions block airways. Overinflated alveoli impair gas exchange. Explanation: Because of the chronic inflammation and the body's attempts to repair it, changes and narrowing occur in the airways. In the peripheral airways, inflammation causes thickening of the airway wall, peribronchial fibrosis, exudate in the airway, and overall airway narrowing (obstructive bronchiolitis). The airways are actually moist, not dry. In the proximal airways, changes include increased goblet cells and enlarged submucosal glands, both of which lead to hypersecretion of mucus.

A client is receiving theophylline for long-term control and prevention of asthma symptoms. Client education related to this medication will include

the importance of blood tests to monitor serum concentrations. Explanation: The nurse should inform clients about the importance of blood tests to monitor serum concentration. The therapeutic range of theophylline is between 5 and 15 μg/mL. The client is at risk of developing hypokalemia.

The classification of Stage III of COPD is defined as

Correct response: severe COPD. Explanation: Stage III is severe COPD. Stage 0 is at risk for COPD. Stage I is mild COPD. Stage II is moderate COPD. Stage IV is very severe COPD.

A nurse is caring for a client admitted with an exacerbation of asthma. The nurse knows the client's condition is worsening when he:

Correct response: uses the sternocleidomastoid muscles. Explanation: Use of accessory muscles indicates worsening breathing conditions. Assuming the tripod position, a 93% pulse oximetry reading, and a request for the nurse to raise the head of the bed don't indicate that the client's condition is worsening.

The nurse is interviewing a patient who says he has a dry, irritating cough that is not "bringing anything up." What medication should the nurse question the patient about taking?

Angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors Explanation: Common causes of cough include asthma, gastrointestinal reflux disease, infection, aspiration, and side effects of medications, such as angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors. The other medications listed are not associated with causing a cough.

A client is diagnosed with a chronic respiratory disorder. After assessing the client's knowledge of the disorder, the nurse prepares a teaching plan. This teaching plan is most likely to include which nursing diagnosis? You Selected: Impaired swallowing

Correct response: Anxiety Explanation: In a client with a respiratory disorder, anxiety worsens such problems as dyspnea and bronchospasm. Therefore, Anxiety is a likely nursing diagnosis. This client may have inadequate nutrition, making Imbalanced nutrition: More than body requirements an unlikely nursing diagnosis. Impaired swallowing may occur in a client with an acute respiratory disorder, such as upper airway obstruction, but not in one with a chronic respiratory disorder. Unilateral neglect may be an appropriate nursing diagnosis when neurologic illness or trauma causes a lack of awareness of a body part; however, this diagnosis doesn't occur in a chronic respiratory disorder.

The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with rhinosinusitis. The physician has ordered the client to receive four sprays of budesonide (Rhinocort) in each nostril every morning. The nurse informs the client that a common side effect of this medication is

Correct response: Epistaxis Explanation: Common side effects of budesonide (Rhinocort) include epistaxis, pharyngitis, cough, nasal irritation, and bronchospasm.

During assessment of a patient with OSA, the nurse documents which of the following characteristic signs that occurs because of repetitive apneic events?

Correct response: Hypercapnia Explanation: Repetitive apneic events result in hypoxia and hypercapnia, which triggers a sympathetic response (increased heart rate and decreased tone and contractility of smooth muscle).

In which grade of COPD is the forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1) greater than 80% predicted?

Correct response: I Explanation: COPD is classified into four grades depending on the severity measured by pulmonary function tests. However, pulmonary function is not the only way to assess or classify COPD; pulmonary function is evaluated in conjunction with symptoms, health status impairment, and the potential for exacerbations. Grade I (mild): FEV1/FVC <70% and FEV1 ≥80% predicted. Grade II (moderate): FEV1/FVC <70% and FEV1 50% to 80% predicted. Grade III (severe): FEV1/FVC <70% and FEV1 <30% to 50% predicted. Grade IV (very severe): FEV1/FVC <70% and FEV1 <30% predicted.

Which clinical manifestation of hemorrhage is related to carotid artery rupture?

Correct response: Increased pulse rate Explanation: The nurse monitors vital signs for changes, particularly increased pulse rate, decreased blood pressure, and rapid, deep respirations. Cold, clammy, pale skin may indicate active bleeding.

Which is the priority nursing diagnosis for a client undergoing a laryngectomy? You Selected: Impaired verbal communication

Correct response: Ineffective airway clearance Explanation: The priority nursing diagnosis is Ineffective airway clearance, utilizing the ABCs. Imbalanced nutrition: Less than body requirement, impaired verbal communication, and anxiety and depression are all potential nursing diagnoses, but the question is asking for the priority nursing diagnosis for this patient. The priority is to identify any issues related to impaired airway.

Arterial blood gas analysis would reveal which value related to acute respiratory failure?

Correct response: pH 7.28 Explanation: Acute respiratory failure is defined as a decrease in arterial oxygen tension (PaO2) to less than 60 mm Hg (hypoxemia) and an increase in arterial carbon dioxide tension (PaCO2) to greater than 50 mm Hg (hypercapnia), with an arterial pH less than 7.35.

Which of the following interventions would be helpful for a client reporting nasal congestion, sneezing, sore throat, and muscle aches? Select all that apply.

Provide warm salt-water gargles. Administer oral ibuprofen. Teach the client about handwashing. Recommend guaifenesin. Explanation: Described signs and symptoms are consistent with viral rhinitis (the common cold). Management consists of symptomatic therapy, such as gargling with warm salt-water gargles, taking nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medications (e.g., ibuprofen [Motrin]), and using guaifenesin (Mucinex), which promotes removal of secretions. Handwashing is the most effective measure to prevent transmission of organisms. Antibiotics should not be used, because they are not effective against viruses and misuse of antibiotics have contributed to the development of antibiotic-resistant organisms.