All NPB practice questions

Imagine you are traveling from outside of a cell to the inner lumen (matrix) of a mitochondrion. How many lipid bilayers do you cross? (a) 3 (b) 6 (c) 2 (d) 4

(a) 3

In the Frank-Starling mechanism ... (B) increased stretch from the resting state of 70 bpm causes the contractile cells to generate less force according to the length-tension relationship. -(A) and (B) are correct. -all are correct. -(A) increased venous return causes the contractile cells in the heart to be stretched compared to the resting state of 70bpm. -increase venous return causes a decrease in stroke volume.

(A) increased venous return causes the contractile cells in the heart to be stretched compared to the resting state of 70bpm.

What do you expect would happen if an experimenter injected a bolus of negative ions (a near instantaneous "impulse") into a neuron at a discrete location. both A and D are correct. (D) the extra charge could be dissipated by leak of Na+ ions out of the cell. (C) the extra charge could be dissipated by leak of K+ ions out of the cell. (B) passive current flow away from the injection site would result in the transient spread of hyperpolarization to nearby parts of the cell. (A) the local patch of membrane would immediately depolarize.

(B) passive current flow away from the injection site would result in the transient spread of hyperpolarization to nearby parts of the cell.

Select the correct statement regarding the Na+/K+ ATPase. (C) dephosphorylation causes the binding sites for K+ but not Na+ to change affinity. (A) the binding sites for both Na+ and K+ ions are in the high affinity state when exposed to the ICF. B and C are correct. A and C are correct. (B) the phosphorylated conformation favors the release of Na+ ions to the ECF.

(B) the phosphorylated conformation favors the release of Na+ ions to the ECF.

When the membrane potential is at the value of EK+ ... B and C are correct. A and B are correct. (A) the driving force on Na+ due to the Na+ concentration gradient is larger in magnitude than the driving force on K+ due to the K+ concentration gradient. (B) there is no net diffusion of K+ across the membrane. (C) the electrical gradient on Na+ is larger in magnitude than the electrical gradient on K+.

(B) there is no net diffusion of K+ across the membrane.

At the resting membrane potential (A) both Na+ and K+ ions are at equilibrium. (D) the net leak of K+ out of the cell is larger than the net leak of Na+ into the cell. both C and D are correct. (B) the net electrochemical driving force on Na+ is larger than on K+, resulting is a larger net leak of Na into the cell. (C) the membrane is more permeable to K+ than to Na+.

(C) the membrane is more permeable to K+ than to Na+.

The composition of alveolar air differs from atmospheric air because of: (a)All of the factors listed contribute (b)Residual volume prevents all of the alveolar air from being replaced with fresh (atmospheric) air, even when we maximize tidal volume. (c)The continuous absorption of O2 from, and release of CO2 into the alveolar air due to ongoing gas exchange in the lungs. (d)The addition of H2O vapor as the air travels down the respiratory airways. (e)Only part of each breath we take consists of fresh (atmospheric) air because of the anatomical dead space.

(a) All of the factors listed contribute

What is the better analogy for action potential propagation? (note: don't over think this one) (a)dominoes. (b)stadium wave.

(a) and (b)

You went to the classical music concert at Los Angeles Music Center. The music started with lower pitch sounds and ended on a higher pitch sound. High- and low-frequency sounds are discriminated chiefly by: (a) low frequencies deflecting the basilar membrane at a greater distance from the oval window. The hair cells are depolarized. (b)low frequencies deflecting the basilar membrane at a greater distance from the oval window. The hair cells are hyperpolarized. (c)high frequencies deflecting the basilar membrane at a greater distance from the oval window. The hair cells are depolarized. (d)low frequencies producing larger action potentials. (e)high frequencies producing stronger vibrations.

(a) low frequencies deflecting the basilar membrane at a greater distance from the oval window. The hair cells are depolarized.

Which statements are correct? (Pick THREE) (a)The last step of protein digestion occurs in the brush border of small intestine epithelial cell. (b)The last step of carbohydrate digestion occurs in the lumen of the small intestine. (c)The last step of fat digestion occurs in the brush border of small intestine epithelial cell. (d)The last step of protein digestion occurs in the lumen of the small intestine. (e)The last step of fat digestion occurs in the lumen of the small intestine. (f)The last step of carbohydrate digestion occurs in the brush border of small intestine epithelial cell.

(a), (e), (f) The last step of fat digestion occurs in the lumen of the small intestine. The last step of protein digestion occurs in the brush border of small intestine epithelial cell. The last step of carbohydrate digestion occurs in the brush border of small intestine epithelial cell.

The following represent five steps in synaptic transmission that occur following the arrival of an action potential at the presynaptic terminal. Put them in correct order. 1 the neurotransmitter binds to the postsynaptic receptor. 2 action potential invades the presynaptic terminal. 3 a graded potential occurs in the postsynaptic cell. 4 calcium flows in the presynaptic terminal. 5 the permeability of the membrane of the postsynaptic neuron is altered. (a)2-4-1-5-3 (b)2-4-3-5-1 (c)1-2-3-4-5 (d)2-4-1-3-5 (e)4-2-1-5-3

(a)2-4-1-5-3

Vision mediated by rods (a)All of these answers. (b)provides vision in shades of gray. (c)has low acuity than cone-mediated vision. (d)is more sensitive to low light levels than cone-mediated vision.

(a)All of these answers.

Select the correct statement ... (a)As indicated by the Nernst equation, the equilibrium potential of an ion is proportional to its concentration gradient. (b)To create the amount charge separation needed to establish a resting potential, a large proportion of the ions in bulk solution have actually crossed the membrane. (c)Macromolecular anions inside the cell cross the membrane to contribute to charge separation. (d)The membrane prevents electrostatic interactions between ions on different sides of the membrane. (e)The electrogenic nature of the Na+/K+ ATPase pump (3 positive charge out for every 2 positive charges in) is the main source of charge separation underlying the resting potential.

(a)As indicated by the Nernst equation, the equilibrium potential of an ion is proportional to its concentration gradient.

Why are we no longer growing taller after puberty? (a)Because our epiphysial plates in the long bones of our bodies have closed (b)Because we developed resistance to insulin-like growth factor-I. (c)Because our growth hormone levels decrease drastically in response to rising sex steroid levels. (d)Because chondrocytes get encapsulated by cartilage and die, preventing us from making bone.

(a)Because our epiphysial plates in the long bones of our bodies have closed

Which statement about bile is incorrect? (a)Bile breaks down triglycerides into fatty acids in the liver. Bile also helps fat absorption in the small intestine. (b)The liver produces bile which helps digest fat. (c)The liver secretes bile salts into the duodenum. (d)The constituents of bile are salts, cholesterol, and lecithin. (e)Bile salts wrap the fatty acids and monoglycerides to form micelles that diffuse in the brush border. (f)All of them are correct.

(a)Bile breaks down triglycerides into fatty acids in the liver. Bile also helps fat absorption in the small intestine.

Which of these statement on glucagon is CORRECT (a)Glucagon worsens diabetes by stimulating hepatic gluconeogenesis. (b)Glucagon is the only hormone that can increase blood glucose levels. (c)Glucagon is released from G cells in pancreatic islets. (d)Glucagon release is inhibited by reductions in plasma glucose, fatty acids and amino acids.

(a)Glucagon worsens diabetes by stimulating hepatic gluconeogenesis.

A patient arrives at the ER by ambulance, unconscious, but with a strong pulse and breathing deeply and rapidly. The patient does not display any overt outward abnormalities or trauma, but has a fruity smell to her breath. Her 'Type 1 Diabetes' wristband alerts you of the possibility that her medical state has likely something to do with her diabetes. Your suspect that most likely: (a)Her increased pulmonary ventilation is an attempt to control arterial pH by venting off CO2. (b)She developed metabolic ketoacidosis as a consequence of her switching to ketone bodies as a source of energy to compensate for her lack of blood glucose. (c)Her pulmonary ventilation is an attempt to increase oxygen supply to her brain to regain consciousness. (d)She inadvertently overdosed herself with insulin, causing hypoglycemia.

(a)Her increased pulmonary ventilation is an attempt to control arterial pH by venting off CO2.

Select the incorrect statement regarding Facilitated Diffusion, a type of carrier-mediated transport: (a)The binding site is more likely to be occupied when it is exposed to the side of the membrane containing the lower concentration of solute. (b)Solute binding causes the carrier to flip orientation. (c)The carrier's binding site has fixed affinity for the solute. (d)The carrier is capable of flipping orientation which exposes the solute binding site alternatively to the outside or inside of the cell. (e)The net moment of solute is downhill, from area of higher to lower concentration.

(a)The binding site is more likely to be occupied when it is exposed to the side of the membrane containing the lower concentration of solute.

You first breathe at a tidal volume of 400 ml at 15 breaths per minute and then change to a tidal volume of 300 ml at 20 breaths per minute. Which of the following is TRUE. (a)Your pulmonary ventilation rate is constant throughout, but your alveolar ventilation rate goes down due to anatomical dead space. (b)Your pulmonary ventilation rate is constant throughout, but your alveolar ventilation rate goes down due to respiratory dead volume. (c)Your pulmonary ventilation rate increases, but your alveolar ventilation rate goes down due to anatomical dead space. (d)Your pulmonary ventilation rate increases, but your alveolar ventilation rate goes down due to respiratory dead volume.

(a)Your pulmonary ventilation rate is constant throughout, but your alveolar ventilation rate goes down due to anatomical dead space.

Which of these is NOT a disorder associated with adrenocortical dysfunction (a)acute stress (b)hirsutism (c)Addison's disease (d)Cushing's syndrome (e)adrenal diabetes

(a)acute stress

When blood pressure increases, baroreceptors near the outflow of the heart sense the increase in pressure and respond by sending sensor information to cardiovascular control centers in the brain. The output effects include ... (a)decreased sympathetic stimulation of the heart including decreased heart rate and decrease in contractile strength. (b)an increase in venous return but a decrease in stroke volume, to bring blood pressure back towards resting levels. (c)an increase in total peripheral resistance. (d)decreased parasympathetic stimulation leading to an increase in cardiac output. (e)increased sympathetic stimulation of the arterioles and veins resulting in vasoconstriction.

(a)decreased sympathetic stimulation of the heart including decreased heart rate and decrease in contractile strength.

Which of the following statements concerning refractory periods is correct? (a)during the relative refractory period, Na+ channels are deactivated. (b)K+ channels activate at the beginning of the relative refractory period. (c)refractory periods ensure bidirectional spread of action potentials. (d)the absolute refractory period refers to the period when Na+ channels are either inactivated or deactivated. (e)during the absolute refractory period, the patch of membrane that just fired an action potential is capable of generating another action potential, but only in response to a stronger-than-usual stimulus.

(a)during the relative refractory period, Na+ channels are deactivated.

When the need for blood flow to specific organs changes with task demand ... (a)none are correct. (b)intrinsic factors such as O2 or CO2 trigger local changes in arteriole inner diameter, anticipating task demand. (c)local arterioles change diameter to regulate blood flow to each organ: constrict to allow more blood into the target organ, dilate to allow less blood in. (d)local arterioles change diameter under influence of parasympathetic input. (e)heart contractile force increases to insure all tissues are supplied with sufficient flow.

(a)none are correct. also (b)intrinsic factors such as O2 or CO2 trigger local changes in arteriole inner diameter, anticipating task demand.

If water and a large concentration of solute molecules are placed outside a cell that internally contains water and a smaller concentration of solute molecules, and the membrane is permeable to solute only, which statement is incorrect? (a)the amount of water inside the cell would change. (b)the concentration of the solute inside the cell would change. (c)the concentration of solute outside the cell would change. (d)none; they're all correct. (e)the amount of solute inside the cell would change.

(a)the amount of water inside the cell would change.

At the resting membrane potential ... (a)the net leak of K+ out of the cell is equal in magnitude to the net leak of Na+ into the cell. (b)the net electrochemical driving force on Na+ is larger than on K+, resulting is a larger net leak of Na+ into the cell. (c)both Na+ and K+ ions are at equilibrium. (d)the membrane is more permeable to Na+ than to K+. (e)the net electrochemical driving force on Na+ and K+ is the same resulting in equal net leaks of Na+ into the cell and K+ out of the cell.

(a)the net leak of K+ out of the cell is equal in magnitude to the net leak of Na+ into the cell.

Auditory functions of the cerebral cortex are localized in (a)the temporal lobes (b)the frontal lobes (c)the parietal lobes (d)the occipital lobes (e)the limbic lobes

(a)the temporal lobes

What statement is true of venous valves or AV valves in the heart but not semilunar valves in the heart? (a)they can open even without a concurrent a ventricular contraction. (b)normally formed valves can allow forward or backward flow. (c)while and AV valves are purely mechanical devices (i.e. not innervated), semilunar valves receive ANS innervation. (d)their morphology is identical across all classes of venous and AV valves. (e)the forward pressure in the system is always enough to keep them open.

(a)they can open even without a concurrent a ventricular contraction.

The corpus callosum interconnects the (a)two cerebral hemispheres (b)brain stem and diencephalon (c)hypothalamus and thalamus (d)cerebellum and spinal cord (e)brain stem and cerebellum

(a)two cerebral hemispheres

Select the incorrect statement regarding spatiotemporal summation (a)EPSPs occurring simultaneously on nearby parts of the cell may sum together. (b) None; all are correct. (c)the axons from multiple presynaptic neurons can synapse onto the same postsynaptic neuron. (d)a postsynaptic cell may receive both excitatory and inhibitory synapses. (e)EPSPs and IPSPs can effectively cancel each other out.

(b) None; all are correct.

Thyroid hormone (a)is inactivated by the conversion of T4 into T3 by deiodinase. (b) increases our basic metabolic rate and heat production. (c)all of the other answers are incorrect (d)is a lipophilic hormone that circulates in the blood bound to thyroglobulin (e)consists of 3 or 4 tryptophans bound to an iodide group

(b) increases our basic metabolic rate and heat production.

Which factors can cause a reduction in gastric motility? (Pick THREE) (a)Increasing volume of chyme in the stomach (b)Increasing volume of chyme in duodenum (c)Increasing acid presence in duodenum (d)decreasing fat in the duodenum (e)increasing gastrin in the stomach

(b), (c), (e) decreasing fat in the duodenum Increasing gastrin in the stomach decreasing volume of chyme in duodenum

Pick the best answer: An organ, (a)is always larger in size than a tissue. (b)consist of two or more primary tissues organized to perform a function. (c)performs a series of related functions essential to survival (d)None of the other answers is correct. (e)is a musical instrument invented by the famous Dutch composer Wilhelmus van Nassau.

(b)consist of two or more primary tissues organized to perform a function.

Byetta is a relatively new drug to manage type 2 diabetes. It is an long-lived GLP1 mimetic. Based on what you learned in NPB101, this drug works by (note, one, two or three options could be correct). (a)stimulating release of GLP1 from intestinal L cells (b)acting as a satiety signal in the brain to reduce meal size (c)inhibiting somatatostatin secretion from the pancreatic delta cells (d)Amplifying glucose-stimulated insulin secretion

(b), (d) acting as a satiety signal in the brain to reduce meal size Amplifying glucose-stimulated insulin secretion

Which of the following best describes the sequence of events that occurs when a neuron fires an action potential? 1 Na+ channels deactivate 2 Na+ channels inactivate 3 Na+ channels activate 4 K+ channels deactivate 5 K+ channels activate (a)3-5-1-2-4 (b)3-2-5-1-4 (c)3-2-5-4-1 (d)3-2-1-5-4 (e)3-5-2-4-1

(b)3-2-5-1-4

Which muscle fiber shows a faster contraction? (a)A muscle fiber that is under the isotonic contraction than isometric contraction (b)A muscle fiber that has a higher myosin ATPase activity than lower myosin ATPase activity (c)A muscle fiber that is a part of a larger motor unit than a smaller motor unit (d)A muscle fiber with an increased concentration of ADP and Pi

(b)A muscle fiber that has a higher myosin ATPase activity than lower myosin ATPase activity

Motor neurons axon terminals release ______, which causes _____ of the muscle cells. (a)Acetylcholine, relaxation (b)Acetylcholine, contraction (c)Acetylcholine receptor, contraction (d)Acetylcholinesterase, relaxation

(b)Acetylcholine, contraction

Blue color is detected by (a)Rods in optic nerve (b)Cones in Retina (c)Cones in ganglion cells (d)lens (e)Rods in Retina

(b)Cones in Retina

Which of these is not a normal physiological function of the kidneys (note, the kidneys may not be the only organ system that contributes): (a)Excrete foreign substances. (b)Excretion of glucose. (c)Maintaining acid/base balance. (d)Maintaining osmolarity of body fluids. (e)Production of renin.

(b)Excretion of glucose.

Select the correct statement regarding graded potentials ... (a)Graded potentials often propagate down the entire length of the neuron. (b)Graded potentials occur as a result of a brief injection of current at a discrete site in the membrane. (c)Graded potentials are all or nothing events. (d)Graded potentials involve the active transport of current away from the transient current source. (e)Action potentials are graded potentials.

(b)Graded potentials occur as a result of a brief injection of current at a discrete site in the membrane.

Which of the following statements is true about our nutrient use during a fast? (a)Our bodies supply of glycogen will be deplieted in about 5 days (b)Most cells in our bodies will switch to free fatty acids as their main energy source to preserve glucose for the brain (c)We will gradually reduce the homeostatic set-point for plasma glucose to conserve nutrient stores. (d)we experience muscle wasting as a result of glycogenolysis in skeletal muscle

(b)Most cells in our bodies will switch to free fatty acids as their main energy source to preserve glucose for the brain

Which of the following reactions is UNLIKELY to occur during an integrated stress responses? (a)Increased CRH release will trigger ACTH release to cause the synthesis and secretion of cortisol from the adrenal cortex. (b)Reduced activation of the RAAS to promote sodium loss and prevent hypertension. (c)Increased sympathetic activity will cause arteriolar smooth muscle constriction to increase blood pressure. (d)Increases sympathetic activity will stimulate glucagon secretion.

(b)Reduced activation of the RAAS to promote sodium loss and prevent hypertension.

Which of the following statements does NOT describe a hormone in action according to the classic definition of hormones we discussed in class. While we may not have spoken about these specific examples yet, you can assume that the descriptions are factually correct and contain all the information you need to make your choice. (a)Glucagon released by pancreatic alpha cells to stimulate the production of glucose from amino acid metabolism in the live (b)Testosterone released from follicular cells surrounding the female oocyte that are locally converted into estrogen. (c)Thyroid Releasing Hormone (TRH) released into the capillary circulation of the anterior pituitary to stimulate Thyroid Stimulating Hormone secretion. (d)Leptin released by fat cells to travel to our brain and inhibit eating.

(b)Testosterone released from follicular cells surrounding the female oocyte that are locally converted into estrogen.

Which of the following does NOT contribute to the regulation of the overall amount of GH release? (a)The level of IGF-I released by the liver (b)The level of sex steroids released from the gonads (c)The level of GHRH released from the hypothalamus (d)The level of somatostatin released from the hypothalamus

(b)The level of sex steroids released from the gonads

Consider the following statements on the pressures and select the one that is FALSE: (a)All of the other answers are in fact correct. (b)The volume of the liquid-filled intra-pleural space does not meaningfully change during a respiratory cycle, but the intrapleural pressure increases when inhaling. (c)The largest difference between the intra-alveolar and atmospheric pressure during a typical resting respiratory cycle is approximately 1 mm Hg. (d)The transmural pressure gradient ensures the lungs do not collapse.

(b)The volume of the liquid-filled intra-pleural space does not meaningfully change during a respiratory cycle, but the intrapleural pressure increases when inhaling.

Action potentials ... (a)are initiated in the presynaptic terminals. (b)are triggered by a positive feedback cycle once the neuron depolarizes to threshold. (c)exhibit a waveform that is quite variable from one action potential to the next. (d)can be triggered by a single small EPSPs (excitatory postsynaptic potential). (e)result in the temporary closure of leak channels which underlie the resting potential.

(b)are triggered by a positive feedback cycle once the neuron depolarizes to threshold.

Tetanus is a debilitating medical condition that can be contracted via a wound contaminated with the bacteria Clostridium tetani. The major symptom of tetanus is muscle stiffness and rigidity. This stiffness and rigidity results from the tetanus toxin (a)exciting spinocerebeller axons. (b)blocking the release of inhibitory neurotransmsitter from interneurons within the spinal cord. (c)inhibiting activity in motor cortex. (d)blocking the release of excitatory neurotransmitter from interneurons within the spinal cord. (e)blocking voltage-gated Na+ channels in the plasma membrane of muscle cells.

(b)blocking the release of inhibitory neurotransmsitter from interneurons within the spinal cord.

Which of the following statements is NOT correct? Glomerular filtration: (a)is primarily controlled by changes in glomerular capillary blood pressure. (b)describes the selective transport of water and electrolytes across the glomerular capillary endothelial cells into Bowman's capsule. (c)describes the generation of an acellular, largely protein-free filtrate at the glomerulus. (d)decreases when the afferent arterioles constrict.

(b)describes the selective transport of water and electrolytes across the glomerular capillary endothelial cells into Bowman's capsule.

In the electrocardiogram ... (a)the delay between the P wave and onset of the QRS complex corresponds to the 100ms delay imposed by the AV node. (b)during a normal rhythm, the time from the onset of the P wave to the onset of the T wave corresponds to the period of one heartbeat. (c)the T wave corresponds to atrial depolarization. (d)the QRS complex corresponds to atrial contraction. (e)the P wave corresponds to ventricular repolarization.

(b)during a normal rhythm, the time from the onset of the P wave to the onset of the T wave corresponds to the period of one heartbeat.

Within the somatosensory cortex of humans, there is an over-representation of the body surface corresponding to the (a)legs (b)face (c)back (d)abdomen (e)arms

(b)face

High-frequency sound elicits maximal vibration of the basilar membrane (a)away from the oval window where the basilar membrane is wide and flexible. (b)near the oval window where the basilar membrane is wide and flexible. (c)away from the oval window where the basilar membrane is stiff and narrow. (d)near the oval window where the basilar membrane is stiff and narrow.

(b)near the oval window where the basilar membrane is wide and flexible.In the heart, the pacemaker potential ... C. initiates a twitch response in cardiac muscle cells of equal duration to the twitch response observed in skeletal muscle fibers. all are correct. A and C are correct. A. involves depolarization mediate by funny-type Na channels which leads to further depolarization mediated by T- type Ca channels, which causes a spike mediated by L-type Ca channels. B. exhibits autorhythmic activity of ~70 bpm (beats per minute) at both SA and AV nodes.

The thalamus (a)controls thirst, urine output, and food intake. (b)performs preliminary processing of sensory input on its way to the cortex. (c)selects and maintains purposeful motor activity while suppressing useless or unwanted patterns of movement. (d)inhibits muscle tone throughout the body. (e)plays a role in emotional and behavioral patterns.

(b)performs preliminary processing of sensory input on its way to the cortex.

During the cardiac cycle ... (a)there is no period of time during which both AV and semilunar valves are closed. (b)pressure rises in the ventricles prior to opening of the semilunar valves and onset of ventricular emptying. (c)atrial contraction forces opening of the AV valves which are otherwise closed. (d)none of these is correct. (e)more than 90% of blood is ejected from each ventricle during a normal cardiac cycle.

(b)pressure rises in the ventricles prior to opening of the semilunar valves and onset of ventricular emptying.

Which of the following is NOT an anterior pituitary hormone with its corresponding hypothalamic releasing hormone? (a)GH with GHRH (b)prolactin with oxytocin (c)ACTH with CRH (d)LH with GnRH (e)FSH with GnRH

(b)prolactin with oxytocin

The most common type of excitatory post-synaptic potential (EPSP) occurs when the neurotransmitter glutamate is released from a presynaptic terminal and binds to postsynaptic receptors (AMPA type). The depolarization caused by this EPSP peaks 5-10 mV above resting potential, and then returns to baseline. At the peak of this EPSP ... (a)the postsynaptic membrane, another neuron, will reach threshold for firing a spike (action potential). (b)the net inward driving force on Na+ is larger than the net outward driving force on K+. (c)the dominant charge carrier is K+ efflux, which produces a depolarization as positive charge leaves the cell. (d)equal amounts of Na+ and K+ currents flow through this ligand-gated ion channel, which is non-selective for Na+ and K+ ions. (e)the selectivity of the channel switches from non-selective to Na+ selective.

(b)the net inward driving force on Na+ is larger than the net outward driving force on K+.

Which of these is the path that a molecule of Na+ that enters the afferent arteriole can take through the kidney: (a)travel through the glomerular capillaries and leave via the efferent arteriole (b)two of the paths described are possible. (c)filtered into Bowman's capsule and travel down the length of the tubular system of the nephron to be collected as urine in the bladder. (d)filtered into Bowman's capsule from the glomerulus, followed by reabsorption across the epithelium of the descending loop of Henle. (e)all three of the paths described are possible.

(b)two of the paths described are possible.

Afferent fibers carrying touch information from Pacinian corpuscles enter the spinal cord (a)via the ventral horn on the side of the spinal cord away from the cell bodies of the afferent fibers. (b)via the dorsal horn on the side of the spinal cord closest to the cell bodies of the afferent fibers. (c)via the ventral horn on the side of the spinal cord closest to the cell bodies of the afferent fibers. (d)via the dorsal horn on the side of the spinal cord away from the cell bodies of the afferent fibers.

(b)via the dorsal horn on the side of the spinal cord closest to the cell bodies of the afferent fibers.

During forceful (active) expiration: (a)you are able to complete empty the air inside your lungs. (b)your abdominal muscles and internal intercostal muscles are active. (c)your diaphragm and internal intercostal muscles are relaxed. (d)you are unable to speak or otherwise produce sounds with your vocal cords.

(b)your abdominal muscles and internal intercostal muscles are active.

Myasthenia gravis: (a)Acetylcholine receptor inhibitors are commonly used. (b)Most effective treatment is to decrease the acetylcholine level. (c) is an autoimmune disease, and the patient generates antibodies which reduce the communication between nerve and muscle. (d)is a disease involved in the retina.

(c) is an autoimmune disease, and the patient generates antibodies which reduce the communication between nerve and muscle.

Which of the following statements is true? (a)Smooth muscle is striated. (b)Smooth muscle has the transverse (T) tubule organization that is characteristic of skeletal muscle. (c)Smooth muscle does not have troponin and therefore does not use the cross-bridge strategy. (d)Both skeletal and smooth muscles have thick and thin filaments. (e)Skeletal muscle is often found in the walls of hollow organs and tubes such as blood vessels and the intestines.

(d)Both skeletal and smooth muscles have thick and thin filaments.

Which of the following is NOT an example of a negative feedback mechanism in physiology. Note, we have not yet covered these examples. Assume that each of the following are accurate descriptions of real physiological feedback mechanism. Pick the one that does NOT describe NEGATIVE feedback. (hint: you may want to sketch a diagram of the pathways described below to help you determine if they represent negative feedback or not). (a)blood glucose levels rise after you've eaten a meal. Rising glucose levels trigger insulin secretion from beta cells, which acts on skeletal muscle and adipose tissue (among others) to promote the uptake of glucose. This lowers blood glucose and causes beta cells to reduce insulin release back to baseline levels (b)low body temperature triggers the release of thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) from the hypothalamus (bottom of the brain). TRH stimulates the release of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) from the anterior pituitary gland. TSH in turn stimulates the thyroid gland to release thyroid hormone. Thyroid hormone increases your metabolic rate, which causes your body temperature to increase as you are burning metabolic fuels. This causes TRH release to return to normal, further assisted by a direct inhibition of TRH release by thyroid hormone. (c)A baby nurses with her mom. This stimulates the nipple and is sensed by mom's hypothalamus. This triggers the release of the posterior pituitary hormone oxytocin, which travels via the blood to the breast tissue and stimulates milk letdown from the mammary gland. Baby continues to nurse. (d)A sudden increase in blood pressure is sensed by baroreceptors (pressure receptors) in certain blood vessels. This is registered in the brain, and causes a decrease in heart rate and a dilation (widening) of blood vessels. Together these actions reduce blood pressure to within homeostatic range.

(c)A baby nurses with her mom. This stimulates the nipple and is sensed by mom's hypothalamus. This triggers the release of the posterior pituitary hormone oxytocin, which travels via the blood to the breast tissue and stimulates milk letdown from the mammary gland. Baby continues to nurse.

Which of these is a trophic hormone? (a)CRH (b)TRH (c)ACTH (d)CCK (e)PRL

(c)ACTH

Select the correct statement regarding sensory processing. (a)The larger the receptive fields in a region, the greater the density of receptors in the region, and the greater the acuity in the region. (b)The higher the number of sensory receptors in a region, the less accurate the sensory perception of the area. (c)Acuity is determined by the density of receptors, the size of receptive fields, and by lateral inhibition. (d)Lateral inhibition results in a broadening of receptive fields.

(c)Acuity is determined by the density of receptors, the size of receptive fields, and by lateral inhibition.

The smaller the receptive fields in a region, the (a)greater the density of receptors in the region. (b)greater the acuity in the region. (c)All of these answers. (d)more cortical space allotted for sensory reception from the region.

(c)All of these answers.

Why do we have blind spots in our visual fields? (a)Because we have macular degeneration. (b)Because there are no rods in the fovea. (c)Because there are no photoreceptors in the optic disc. (d)Because rhodopsin is inactive in the darkness. (e)Because fovea has high visual acuity.

(c)Because there are no photoreceptors in the optic disc.

Which of the following statements on the transport of CO2 is NOT correct (a)Carbonic anhydrase inside red blood cells converts CO2 and H2O into H+ and HCO3-, accounting for the largest fraction of CO2 that is transported by the blood. (b)Some CO2 binds to hemoglobin and is transported from tissues to the lungs inside red blood cells. (c)CO2 is more soluble than O2 and therefore most CO2 is transported in solution. (d)The loading of CO2 onto hemoglobin is favored by the lower pO2 in tissues with a high cellular respiration rate.

(c)CO2 is more soluble than O2 and therefore most CO2 is transported in solution.

You are working at UCD pharmaceutical company and finally succeeded in creating a drug that acts as a muscle relaxant. What is the possible effect of the drug on the skeletal muscle? (a)Inhibiting the function of acetylcholinesterase. (b)Increasing intracellular calcium level. (c)Decreasing intracellular calcium level. (d)Decreasing extracellular calcium level. (e)Increasing calcium level in T-tubules.

(c)Decreasing intracellular calcium level.

Which of the following statements correctly describes a similarity between the anterior and posterior pituitary gland. (a)Both parts of the pituitary gland receive blood from the median eminence. (b)All hormones released from the pituitary gland are trophic hormones. (c)Hypothalamic neurons associated with both parts of the pituitary gland release their neurohormones via neuro-endocrine release. (d)Release of hormones from both parts of the pituitary gland is subject to negative feedback from hormones released by their peripheral endocrine gland.

(c)Hypothalamic neurons associated with both parts of the pituitary gland release their neurohormones via neuro-endocrine release.

What area of the brain is involved in regulating homeostasis (ex. thermoregulation and circadian rhythms)? (a)Thalamus (b)Cerebellum (c)Hypothalamus (d)Basal Ganglion (e)Brain Stem (f)Cerebral cortex

(c)Hypothalamus

Which organelle is described here: The sorting center for proteins and peptides to their final destination. Additional protein modifications may still take place here. (a)rough endoplasmic reticulum (b)lysosome (c)None of the other answers is correct. (d)smooth endoplasmic reticulum

(c)None of the other answers is correct.

You are in a very fancy restaurant in NY. Surprisingly, you find that Angelina Jolie is sitting right next to your table with her friends. You are so excited and want to text your friends using your phone. In the nervous system, your _____ stimulates your heart rate. The visual and touch information are processed in the _____ and _____, respectively. (a)Parasympathetic nervous system, Occipital lobe, Parietal lobe (b)Sympathetic nervous system, Occipital lobe, Frontal lobe (c)Sympathetic nervous system, Occipital lobe, Parietal lobe (d)Sympathetic nervous system, Frontal lobe, Parietal lobe (e)Parasympathetic nervous system, Frontal lobe, Parietal lobe

(c)Sympathetic nervous system, Occipital lobe, Parietal lobe

Autoregulation: (a)Ensures the coordinated activity of the nephrons between the left and right kidney. (b)Increases GFR in response to an increased mean arterial blood pressure during exercise. (c)Takes place at the juxtaglomerular apparatus. (d)Is activated by sympathetic innervation of the afferent arterioles.

(c)Takes place at the juxtaglomerular apparatus.

The central sulcus separates (a)The parietal lobe and the temporal lobe (b)The frontal lobe and the occipital lobe (c)The parietal lobe and the frontal lobe (d)Two cerebral hemispheres

(c)The parietal lobe and the frontal lobe

Which statement about protein digestion is correct? (a)Pepsinogen is released from chief cells in the stomach and converted to pepsin by enterokinase in stomach. (b)Trypsinogen is released from the pancreas and converted to Trypsin by enterokinase in pancreas. (c)Trypsinogen is released from the pancreas and converted to Trypsin by enterokinase in the duodenum. (d)Trypsinogen is released from the stomach and converted to Trypsin by enterokinase in duodenum. (e)Trypsinogen is released from the duodenum and converted to Trypsin by enterokinase in the duodenum.

(c)Trypsinogen is released from the pancreas and converted to Trypsin by enterokinase in the duodenum.

During a competitive fencing match your opponent's face guard shifts slightly and you accidentally pierce the base of his skull with your saber. He is rushed to the emergency room and given a magnetic resonance image to determine what part of his brain has been injured. The neurologist finds that the right optic tract has been severed. What form of visual field deficit does he have as a result of the accident? (a)a complete loss of vision in the upper visual field of the left eye and the lower visual field of the right eye. (b)a complete loss of vision in the right visual field of both eyes. (c)a complete loss of vision in the left visual field of both eyes. (d)a complete loss of vision in the left visual field of the left eye and the right visual field of the right eye. (e)a complete loss of vision in the right eye.

(c)a complete loss of vision in the left visual field of both eyes.

Antonie van Leeuwenhoek is (a)considered the founder of microbiology (b)a Dutch fabric trader from the 17th century. (c)all of the other options are correct. (d)considered the founder of microscopy

(c)all of the other options are correct.

A female patient presents at an endocrine specialist complaining of hyperglycemia, accumulation of fat tissue in the face and upper back and some uncharacteristic hair growth on the upper lip. Suspecting Cushing's syndrome, you order lab tests for blood levels of ____ and -_______. Lab results come back to indicate that both these hormones are increased well over the normal range. This suggests that the cause of the Cushing's syndrome is a tumor that secretes _____. The tumor is surgically removed and a control visit 3 months after surgery confirms that the size of the adrenal cortex is ______. (a)ACTH, cortisol, ACTH, increased to normal size (b)CRH, ACTH, cortisol, unchanged (c)cortisol, ACTH, ACTH, reduced to normal size (d)ACTH, cortisol, cortisol, reduced to normal size (e)DHEA, ACTH, DHEA, reduced to normal size

(c)cortisol, ACTH, ACTH, reduced to normal size

Countercurrent multiplication (a)is enabled by the selective permeability of the descending loop of Henle for Na+ and the ascending loop of Henle for H2O. (b)all of the other statements are correct. (c)enables the selective reabsorption of water under the influence of vasopressin in the distal and collecting tubules. (d)results in the concentration of the filtrate to a hypertonic solution at the end of the loop of Henle. (e)does not contribute to the overall reabsorption of Na+ and H2O

(c)enables the selective reabsorption of water under the influence of vasopressin in the distal and collecting tubules.

Which of these does NOT promote insulin secretion (a)the incretin hormones (b)acetylcholine (c)epinephrine (d)amino acids

(c)epinephrine

In the heart, the pacemaker potential ... (a)is subject to regulation by the sympathetic but not parasympathetic nervous system. (b)is typically initiated at the Purkinje fibers and then flows upward through the bundle of His and towards the AV node. (c)involves depolarization mediate by funny-type Na channels which leads to further depolarization mediated by T-type Ca channels, which causes a spike mediated by L-type Ca channels. K channels repolarize the membrane. (d)is typically initiated in the right SA node and then propagated to the L atria after a 100 ms delay. (e)exhibits a slow "ramp up" to spiking threshold which remains constant over the course of an active day.

(c)involves depolarization mediate by funny-type Na channels which leads to further depolarization mediated by T-type Ca channels, which causes a spike mediated by L-type Ca channels. K channels repolarize the membrane.

Homeostatic control of energy balance (a)is predominantly controlled by stomach distension, which signals to the satiety center in our brain stem via vagal afferents to terminate meals. (b)involves the integration of short-term adiposity signals and long-term satiety signals by the hypothalamus and brain stem. (c)is possible because adipocytes release leptin in proportion to total fat mass., is possible because adipocytes release leptin in proportion to total fat mass. (d)is achieved by limiting nutrient absorption when our energy reserves are high.

(c)is possible because adipocytes release leptin in proportion to total fat mass., is possible because adipocytes release leptin in proportion to total fat mass.

The most common type of excitatory post-synaptic potential (EPSP) occurs when the neurotransmitter glutamate is released from a presynaptic terminal and binds to postsynaptic receptors (AMPA type). The depolarization caused by this EPSP peaks 5-10 mV above resting potential, and then returns to baseline. At the peak of this EPSP ... (a)equal amounts of Na+ and K+ currents flow through this ligand-gated ion channel, which is non-selective for Na+ and K+ ions. (b)the dominant charge carrier is Na+ because the AMPA receptor is more highly selective for Na+ over K+. (c)the dominant charge carrier is Na+ because the net driving force on Na+ is higher than the net driving force on K+, even at the peak of the EPSP. (d)the dominant charge carrier is K+ efflux, which produces a depolarization as positive charge leaves the cell. (e)the postsynaptic membrane, another neuron, will reach threshold for firing a spike (action potential).

(c)the dominant charge carrier is Na+ because the net driving force on Na+ is higher than the net driving force on K+, even at the peak of the EPSP. the net inward driving force on Na+ is larger than the net outward driving force on K+.

Which of these is considered an organ system? (a)the pancreas (b)the heart (c)the immune system (d)the brain

(c)the immune system

Which of these statements on hemoglobin is NOT correct? (a)Hemoglobin transports O2 from the lungs to the tissues. (b)Hemoglobin is contained within red blood cells. (c)Hemoglobin transports CO2 from the tissues to the lungs. (d)Hemoglobin will release less oxygen at low pH.

(d) Hemoglobin will release less oxygen at low pH.

The glomerular capillary blood pressure in the nephron is 61 mm Hg. The Bowman's capsule hydrostatic pressure is 22 mm Hg. The blood colloidal osmotic pressure is 21 mm Hg. The net filtration pressure is ___ mm Hg. (a)60 mm Hg (b)20 mm Hg (c)19 mm Hg (d)18 mm Hg (e)62 mm Hg

(d)18 mm Hg

Select the incorrect statement regarding spatiotemporal summation (a)EPSPs occurring simultaneously on nearby parts of the cell may sum together. (b)the axons from multiple presynaptic neurons can synapse onto the same postsynaptic neuron. (c)a postsynaptic cell may receive both excitatory and inhibitory synapses. (d)EPSPs occurring on parts of the cell that are physically far away from one another (e.g. on different dendrites), but within a narrow time window, usually sum together. (e)EPSPs and IPSPs can effectively cancel each other out.

(d)EPSPs occurring on parts of the cell that are physically far away from one another (e.g. on different dendrites), but within a narrow time window, usually sum together.

A patient presents with reduced T3/T4, increased TSH and a goiter. What's the most likely diagnosis: (a)Hyperthyroidism caused by thyroid stimulating immunoglobulin (Graves's disease). (b)Hypothyroidism caused by a genetic defect of the TRH receptor on anterior pituitary thyrotropes. (c)A hypersecreting tumor of the anterior pituitary thyrotropes. (d)Hypothyroidism caused by Hashimoto's thyrioditis..

(d)Hypothyroidism caused by Hashimoto's thyrioditis.

A patient comes into your office complaining of being listless and having low energy. A physical exam reveals a body temperature of 36.2 degrees Celsius (97.2 degrees Fahrenheit), and otherwise no remarkable observations. She has also gained weight slowly over the last 6 months, without substantive changes to her diet. You suspect ______ and order a blood test to measure ______ levels. (a)Hypothyroidism due to dietary iodine insufficiency; T3/T4. (b)Hyperglycemia due to undiagnosed diabetes; leptin. (c)Hyperthyroidism due to a thyroid tumor; T3/T4. (d)Hypothyroidism due to a thyrotrope defect; T3/T4.

(d)Hypothyroidism due to a thyrotrope defect; T3/T4.

A person with Type 1 Diabetes runs out of insulin and develops severe diabetic ketoacidosis. Of the following symptoms, which is unlikely to develop? (a)Hypotension. (b)Excess urination (polyuria). (c)Feeling of thirst. (d)Hypoventilation.

(d)Hypoventilation.

The motor homunculus (a)overrepresents regions with low acuity. (b)is located in the somatosensory cortex. (c)represents a map of brain areas dedicated to sensory processing for different anatomical divisions of the body. (d)None of these answers are correct.

(d)None of these answers are correct.

Which statement about hormones is correct? (a)Secretin and Cholecystokinin (CCK) are released from the pancreas. (b)Cholecystokinin (CCK) is released in response to acid in the small intestine. CCK stimulates the release of enzymes from acinar cells. (c)The stomach releases Gastrin which breaks down fats, carbohydrates, and proteins within the stomach. (d)Secretin is produced in the duodenum and released directly into the bloodstream. Secretin stimulates the release of sodium bicarbonate from duct cells.

(d)Secretin is produced in the duodenum and released directly into the bloodstream. Secretin stimulates the release of sodium bicarbonate from duct cells.

Insulin is the only hormone in our body that promotes glucose storage, but multiple hormones can increase glucose. Which of the following does NOT contribute to increased plasma glucose? (a)Stimulation of hepatic glucose production by growth hormone. (b)Stimulation of gluconeogenesis in the liver by glucagon (c)Stimulation of liver glycogenolysis by epinephrine. (d)Stimulation of glucose uptake in skeletal muscle by cortisol.

(d)Stimulation of glucose uptake in skeletal muscle by cortisol.

Which of the following statements on the hypothalamus and pituitary gland is true? (a)Endocrine cells in the anterior pituitary are innervated by excitatory and inhibitory neurons from the hypothalamus. (b)All hypothalamic neurohormones are released into the median eminence to control the activity of specific pituitary endocrine cells. (c)Since pituitary hormones need to travel only a short distance to their target cells, they are secreted in very small quantities. (d)The hypothalamus integrates information from neural and blood-borne signals from many sites to direct the activity of the pituitary gland.

(d)The hypothalamus integrates information from neural and blood-borne signals from many sites to direct the activity of the pituitary gland.

A patient comes to your office with genetic mutation that causes a loss of the negatively charged glycoproteins that are normally part of the basement membrane of the glomerulus. What do you predict is the likely consequence of this defect? (a)The patient's Bowman's capsule hydrostatic pressure is reduced, leading to an increased GFR. (b)The patient's Bowman's capsule hydrostatic pressure is reduced, leading to a reduced GFR. (c)The patient's plasma-colloid osmotic pressure is increased, leading to a reduced GFR. (d)The patient's plasma-colloid osmotic pressure is reduced, leading to an increased GFR.

(d)The patient's plasma-colloid osmotic pressure is reduced, leading to an increased GFR.

You are an endocrinologist treating a child of unusually short stature. Genome sequence information informs you that the child carries mutations in both copies of its growth hormone receptor gene that interfere with normal receptor function. Which of the following would be a reasonable course of action to treat your patient? (a)Treatment with T3/T4. (b)Treatment with GHRH (c)Treatment with GH (d)Treatment with IGF-1.

(d)Treatment with IGF-1.

A "lub-whistle-dup" heart sound is most easily explained by a ... (a)an insufficient AV valve on either side of the heart. (b)an insufficient AV valve on the right side of the heart only. (c)a stenotic AV valve on the right side of the heart only. (d)a stenotic semilunar valve on either side of the heart. (e)a stenotic semilunar on the L side of the heart only.

(d)a stenotic semilunar valve on either side of the heart.

Which factors facilitate venous return of blood to the heart? (a)low resistance in veins due to large cross-sectional area. (b)decreased pressure in the chest cavity due to enhanced respiratory activity. (c)none are correct. (d)all are correct. (e)contraction of skeletal muscles which during exercise help to pump blood up through the veins of the legs, against gravity.

(d)all are correct.

In the heart, contractile cells ... -A and B are correct. -(C) initiate spikes via opening of a L-type voltage-gated Ca+ channel. -(A) use Ca2+-induced Ca2+ release from SR stores to sustain a long twitch contraction. -all are correct. -(B) exhibit a plateau potential which confers a long refractory period.

-A and B are correct.

Which of the following statements concerning refractory periods is incorrect? (a)the absolute refractory period ensures that the action potential will not propagate backwards. (b)the relative refractory period ends at approximately the time when membrane potential returns to its resting at the end of the action potential. (c)during the relative refractory period, the patch of membrane that just fired an action potential is capable of generating another action potential, but only in response to a stronger-than-usual stimulus. (d)during the relative refractory period the neuron is not capable of producing another action potential. (e)the absolute refractory period ends when Na+ channel inactivation is removed.

(d)during the relative refractory period the neuron is not capable of producing another action potential.

Which layer of the GI tract secretes mucus? (a)serosa (b)muscularis externa (c)submucosa (d)mucosa

(d)mucosa

Rank from most to least likely the fate of a molecule of Na+ that enters the afferent arteriole of a nephron in a person with hypertension: (a)filtered and lost by urination - reabsorbed across the ascending loop of Henle - reabsorbed across the descending loop of Henle (b)filtered and reabsorbed across the proximal tubules - filtered and lost by urination - remains in plasma (c)remains in plasma - reabsorbed across the descending loop of Henle - filtered and reabsorbed across the proximal tubules. (d)remains in plasma - filtered and reabsorbed across the proximal tubules - reabsorbed across the ascending loop of Henle.

(d)remains in plasma - filtered and reabsorbed across the proximal tubules - reabsorbed across the ascending loop of Henle.

Oxytocin does NOT (a)stimulate milk letdown (b)promote strong uterine contractions that promote labor and child birth (c)promote pair-bonding (d)stimulate milk production

(d)stimulate milk production

Which of the following best describes the sequence of events that occurs when a neuron fires an action potential? 1 K+ channels activate 2 K+ channels deactivate 3 Na+ channels activate 4 Na+ channel inactivation is removed 5 Na+ channels deactivate (a)3-4-5-1-2 (b)3-1-2-4-5 (c)3-1-5-2-4 (d)3-4-1-5-2 (e)3-1-4-5-2

(e)3-1-4-5-2

When we touch the hot plate, we reflexively withdraw our hand as soon as possible. Select the correct neural circuits. (a)Muscle → afferent neurons from peripheral nervous system → central nervous system → efferent neurons from central nervous system → sensory receptors (b)Sensory receptors → efferent neurons from peripheral nervous system → central nervous system → afferent neurons from central nervous system → muscle (c)Sensory receptors → afferent neurons from central nervous system → peripheral nervous system → efferent neurons from peripheral nervous system → muscle (d)Muscle → efferent neurons from peripheral nervous system → central nervous system → afferent neurons from central nervous system → sensory receptors (e)Sensory receptors → afferent neurons from peripheral nervous system → central nervous system → efferent neurons from central nervous system → muscle

(e)Sensory receptors → afferent neurons from peripheral nervous system → central nervous system → efferent neurons from central nervous system → muscle

Which statement is false? (a)The brain is protected by Blood-brain barrier, which mainly maintains oxygen and glucose. (b)Cranium and vertebral column (c)Three Meninges membranes (d)Cerebrospinal fluid, which surrounds the brain and spinal cord. (e)all of them are correct.

(e)all of them are correct.

Contiguous conduction of action potentials occurring in squid axons (a)relies on clusters of voltage-gated sodium and potassium channels found at nodes of Ranvier. (b)is slow and unreliable due to current leak out of the axon. (c)is facilitated by myelin wrappings, which act as insulation preventing the leak of current out of the cell. (d)is fast and reliable despite high resistance to current flow within the axon which results from their small diameter. (e)can occur in part due to relatively low resistance to current flow within the axon which results from their large diameter.

(e)can occur in part due to relatively low resistance to current flow within the axon which results from their large diameter.

Which of the following does not occur in a photoreceptor during exposure to light? (a)closure of Na+ channels in the outer segment. (b)decrease in cyclic GMP in the outer segment. (c)closure of Ca2+ channels in the synaptic terminal. (d)membrane hyperpolarization. (e)increased transmitter release from the synaptic terminal.

(e)increased transmitter release from the synaptic terminal.

A neuromuscular junction is located on the (a)sarcomere (b)thick filament (c)thin filament (d)myofibril (e)muscle fiber

(e)muscle fiber

For substances which cannot simply diffuse across the lipid bilayer, mechanisms for membrane transport include all of the following except (note: this does not imply that all mechanisms operate for all of the different substances) (a)membrane pumps in which ATP is used to establish and maintain a concentration gradient. (b)facilitated diffusion in which a carrier protein enables movement of the substance down its concentration gradient. (c)vesicular exocytosis which can deliver soluble materials to the ECF as well as integral membrane proteins to the plasma membrane. (d)ion channels which allow for ion permeation through a channel pore. (e)none; they're all correct.

(e)none; they're all correct.

The symptoms of Parkinson's disease--rigidity, slowness of movement, and resting tremor-- are caused by degeneration of a specific population of cells in the central nervous system. In which location are the affected (degenerating) cells located? (a)the cerebellum (b)the spinal cord (c)the thalamus (d)the motor cortex (e)the basal ganglia

(e)the basal ganglia

The following represent five steps in synaptic transmission that occur following the arrival of an action potential at the presynaptic terminal. Put them in correct order from 1 to 5 and select the fourth event in the sequence. (a)the neurotransmitter diffuses across the synaptic cleft. (b)calcium flows in the presynaptic terminal. (c)the permeability of the membrane of the postsynaptic neuron is altered. (d)neurotransmitter is released by exocytosis. (e)the neurotransmitter binds to the postsynaptic receptor.

(e)the neurotransmitter binds to the postsynaptic receptor.

When the glomerular filtration rate is 130 ml/min, a substance with a concentration of 50 mg/100 ml that is filtered, fully reabsorbed and not secreted, has a plasma clearance rate of: 0 ml/min. 65 ml/min. 130 ml/min. > 130 ml/min.

0 ml/min.

Which of the following best describes the anatomical pathway mediating visual perception? (a) (photoreceptor) - (bipolar cell) - (ganglion cell) - (lateral geniculate nucleus) - (primary visual cortex) - (extrastriate visual cortex) (b) (primary visual cortex) - (photoreceptor) - (ganglion cell) - (bipolar cell) - (lateral geniculate nucleus) - (extrastriate visual cortex) (c) (bipolar cell) - (ganglion cell) - (photoreceptor) - (lateral geniculate nucleus) - (primary visual cortex) - (extrastriate visual cortex) (d) (ganglion cell) - (photoreceptor) - (bipolar cell) - (lateral geniculate nucleus) - (primary visual cortex) - (extrastriate visual cortex)

(photoreceptor) - (bipolar cell) - (ganglion cell) - (lateral geniculate nucleus) - (primary visual cortex) - (extrastriate visual cortex)

Put the following steps of fat digestion and absorption in order: 1. Bile salts coat fat droplets. 2. Fatty acids are transported into cells. 3. Chylomicrons are formed. 4. Chylomicrons are released into lymphatic system. 5. Monoglycerides and fatty acids move out of micelles. 6. Pancreatic lipase breaks down fats.

1, 6, 5, 2, 3, 4

The average glomerular filtration rate is equal to 180 L/day. 5.5 L/min. 100 mmHg/hour. 8 mg/hour.

180 L/day.

The glomerular capillary blood pressure in the nephron is 62 mm Hg. The Bowman's capsule hydrostatic pressure is 21 mm Hg. The blood colloidal osmotic pressure is 22 mm Hg. The net filtration pressure is ___ mm Hg.

19

The following represent five steps in synaptic transmission that occur following the arrival of an action potential at the presynaptic terminal. Put them in correct order. 1 a graded potential occurs in the postsynaptic cell. 2 action potential invades the presynaptic terminal. 3 the neurotransmitter binds to the postsynaptic receptor. 4 the permeability of the membrane of the postsynaptic neuron is altered. 5 calcium flows in the presynaptic terminal.

2 5 3 4 1

How many pathways supply ATP as needed during muscle contraction? 1 2 3 4 5

3

Synapses Place the following steps in the correct order when sending a signal across a synapse: Neurotransmitters bind to receptors on the postsynaptic neuron Calcium enters the axon terminal An action potential runs down the length of the axon Neurotransmitters are released into the synaptic cleft 1-2-3-4 2-4-1-3 3-4-2-1 3-2-4-1

3-2-4-1

The glomerular capillary blood pressure in the nephron is 78 mm Hg. The Bowman's capsule hydrostatic pressure is 24 mm Hg. The blood colloidal osmotic pressure is 18 mm Hg. The net filtration pressure is ___ mm Hg. 18 26 36 42 78

36

The glomerular capillary blood pressure in the nephron is 78 mm Hg. The Bowman's capsule hydrostatic pressure is 24 mm Hg. The blood colloidal osmotic pressure is 18 mm Hg. The net filtration pressure is ___ mm Hg. 26 78 36 18 42

36

Order the following events involved in neurotransmission in the right order: 1 - neurotransmitter diffuses across the synaptic cleft. 2- entry of calcium to the presynaptic terminal induces exocytosis of the neurotransmitter. 3- permeability of the postsynaptic membrane is altered. 4- action potential reaches the presynaptic terminal. 5- neurotransmitter binds to the postsynaptic receptor.

4 - 2 - 1 - 5 - 3

Approximately what percentage of body weight does muscle comprise? 20% 30% 50% 70% 80%

50%

3. The pyloric gland area of the stomach antrum releases... gastrin histamine Intrinsic factor Two of the above answers are correct.

gastrin

4. Dihydropyridine (DHP) receptors are most closely associated with ATPase sites myosin-binding sites neuromuscular junctions axon terminals T-tubules

T-tubules

Stimuli for the activation of the RAAS pathway include low blood pressure in arterioles in the nephron only. a decrease in fluid flow through the distal tubule only. high blood pressure in the renal artery only. A and B are correct. A, B and C are correct.

A and B are correct.

Which of the following statements best describes the equilibrium potential of an ion (such as ENa+ or EK+)? A and B are correct. A and C are correct. (A) the membrane potential at which there is no net movement of that ion across the plasma membrane. (C) it is the value the membrane would acquire if the membrane contained leak channels only for that ion (assume the Na+/K+ pump is functioning normally). (B) the membrane potential at which the driving forces on that ion due to its concentration gradient and electrical gradient are aligned in the same direction.

A and C are correct.

In the roux-en-y gastric bypass (RYGB) surgery, the duodenum is excluded from the flow of nutrients. This would lead to: A decrease in secretion of sodium bicarbonate secretion from pancreatic duct cells An increase in secretion cholecystokinin from duodenal I cells An increase in secretion of proteolytic enzymes from pancreatic duct cells An increase in secretion of secretin from duodenal S cells

A decrease in secretion of sodium bicarbonate secretion from pancreatic duct cells

During skeletal muscle excitation, the initial depolarization derives from_____. Neuromodulators binding to and opening voltage‐gated Na+ channels. Acetylcholine binding to and opening ligand‐gated K+ channels. Opening of mechanically‐gated Na+ channels. Acetylcholine binding to and opening ligand‐gated Na+ channels. None of the above

Acetylcholine binding to and opening ligand‐gated Na+ channels.

A client shows up in your clinic not feeling well. You take a blood sample and observe lower-than-normal levels of circulating cortisol together with hypoglycemia. You decide to administer a CRH-stimulation test. In response, your client exhibits no change in ACTH and no change in cortisol. You can conclude that your client has: A primary endocrine disorder A secondary endocrine disorder A tertiary endocrine disorder Type I diabetes There is not enough information to conclude any of the above

A secondary endocrine disorder

What is the first source for supplying additional ATP when exercise begins? oxidative phosphorylation creatine phosphate lactate chondroitin glycolysis

creatine phosphate

Ionic movement across the plasma membrane (B) can be driven by electrostatic interactions at a distance, including the repulsion of 'like' charges. A and B are correct. (A) can be driven by molecular collisions between solute molecules freely diffusion in solution, which tends to disperse local areas of high concentration. (C) can be driven by electrostatic interactions at a distance, including the attraction of 'opposite' charges. A, B and C are correct.

A, B and C are correct.

Saltatory conduction of action potentials occurring in mammalian axons A, B and C are correct. (C) is fast and reliable despite high resistance to current flow within the axon that results from their small diameter. A and B are correct. (A) relies on clusters of voltage-gated sodium and potassium channels found at nodes of Ranvier. (B) is facilitated by myelin wrappings, which act as insulation preventing the leak of current out of the cell.

A, B and C are correct.

18. Which quality is not associated with leptin resistance? A. Adiposity signals decrease B. Satiety signals increase C. Catabolic response increases D. Fat mass is reduced

A. Adiposity signals decrease

27. Which of the following processes describes a hydrophilic secreted hormone becoming more active? A. Angiotensinogen cleaved by renin and angiotensin enzyme B. Thyroxine cleaved by 5 alpha reductase C. Testosterone cleaved by glp1 D. None of the above

A. Angiotensinogen cleaved by renin and angiotensin enzyme

11. What are the 4 factors of regulating digestive function? A. Autonomous smooth muscle, intrinsic nerve plexuses, extrinsic nerves, gastrointestinal hormones B. Mouth, pharynx, stomach, and small and large intestine C. intrinsic nerve plexuses, extrinsic nerves, stomach, and small and large intestine D. gastrointestinal hormones, autonomous smooth muscle, extrinsic nerves, interstitial cells of cajal

A. Autonomous smooth muscle, intrinsic nerve plexuses, extrinsic nerves,

13. What is the most common endocrine disorder? A. Diabetes B. Acromegaly C. Graves disease D. None of the above E. A and C

A. Diabetes

37. Catecholamines are A. Epinephrine and norepinephrine released from the medulla of the adrenal gland B. Epinephrine and acetylcholine released from the medulla of the adrenal gland C. Epinephrine and norepinephrine released from the cortex of the adrenal gland D. Epinephrine and acetylcholine released from the cortex of the adrenal gland

A. Epinephrine and norepinephrine released from the medulla of the adrenal gland

14. Which of the following reactions is NOT involved in the metabolic absorptive state? A. Glucogenogenesis B. Glycogenesis C. Protein Synthesis D. Lipogenesis

A. Glucogenogenesis

28. How does the metabolic growth hormone adapt during fasting? A. Increase in glucose production in liver B. Decrease in fatty acid breakdown C. Increase in protein turnover D. All of the above

A. Increase in glucose production in liver

4. What happens when the oxyntic mucosa degenerates? A. Loss of pepsinogen and HCL and loss of intrinsic factors. B. Loss of CCK . C. Loss of vitamin B12 which is essential for normal function of red blood cells. D. All of the above.

A. Loss of pepsinogen and HCL and loss of intrinsic factors.

Lectures 32 9. Which one is NOT a type of GI signaling? A. Protein Digestion B. Extrinsic C. Intrinsic nerve plexuses D. Hormones

A. Protein Digestion

8. Where does fat breakdown begin? A. Small Intestine B. Stomach C. Pancreas D. Liver

A. Small Intestine

In the heart, the pacemaker potential ... C. initiates a twitch response in cardiac muscle cells of equal duration to the twitch response observed in skeletal muscle fibers. all are correct. A and C are correct. A. involves depolarization mediate by funny-type Na channels which leads to further depolarization mediated by T- type Ca channels, which causes a spike mediated by L-type Ca channels. B. exhibits autorhythmic activity of ~70 bpm (beats per minute) at both SA and AV nodes.

A. involves depolarization mediate by funny-type Na channels which leads to further depolarization mediated by T- type Ca channels, which causes a spike mediated by L-type Ca channels.

In the digestive system, HCl is released by _____, whereas NaHCO3 (sodium bicarbonate) is secreted primarily from the ______. A. parietal cells of the stomach, pancreas B. the pancreas, parietal cells of the stomach C. parietal cells of the stomach, liver D. the liver, parietal cells of the stomach

A. parietal cells of the stomach, pancreas

In response to the arrival of acidic chyme in the duodenum, the blood levels of A. secretin rise. B. cholecystokinin fall. C. gastrin rise. D. enterocrinin fall. E. All of these answers are correct.

A. secretin rise.

3. In the RAAS Pathway, Renin cleaves Angiotensin II ACE cleaves Angiotensin I Angiotensinogen is cleaved to become ACE Aldosterone decreases Na+ reabsorption

ACE cleaves Angiotensin I

Propagation of action potentials through the heart is slowest in which of the following? SA node AV node Bundles of His Purkinje Cells The rate is the same in all of them

AV node

5. Calcium induced calcium release in muscle cells results when: Action potentials travel down the transverse tubules activating dihydropyridine receptors (DHPR) which then leads to the activation of ryanodine receptors Na+/K+ ATPase transports Ca2+ inside the cell The heart is in diastole The Ca2+ ATPase SERCA pump increases intracellular Ca2+

Action potentials travel down the transverse tubules activating dihydropyridine receptors (DHPR) which then leads to the activation of ryanodine receptors

2. What causes neuronal repolarization during an action potential? Opening of the inactivation gate in voltage gated Na+ channels Inactivation of Na+ leak channels The Na+/K+ ATPase Activation of voltage gated K+ channels

Activation of voltage gated K+ channels

3. Which of the following is NOT true regarding extrinsic control of arterioles Arterioles receive background input from sympathetic neurons Arteriolar vasoconstriction arises from increased sympathetic input Active tissues release metabolites which induce vasodilation of local arterioles Increased sympathetic input increases resistance to blood flow

Active tissues release metabolites which induce vasodilation of local arterioles

4. The function of surfactant is to... Create a functional connection between the parietal pleura and the visceral pleura Increase the inward pressure acting on individual alveoli Adjust the surface tension in the alveoli proportional to its concentration Reduce the radius of the alveoli

Adjust the surface tension in the alveoli proportional to its concentration

Destruction of the zona glomerulosa of the adrenal cortex would result in impaired secretion of: Epinephrine Norepinephrine Cortisol DHEA Aldosterone

Aldosterone

4. Under normal circumstances, you would expect an increase in venous return to... Lead to an increase in myocardial fiber length Lead to an increase in end diastolic volume Lead to an increase in stroke volume All of the above

All of the above

In diabetes type I Blood levels of glucose are high Blood levels of insulin are low Patients are diagnosed when they are kids Patients tend to be extremely thin All of these statements about diabetes type I are correct

All of these statements about diabetes type I are correct

All of the following statements about what happens during the fasting / post-absorptive state are correct EXCEPT: Muscle is breaking protein to amino acids. Fat cells are breaking tryglicerides into fatty acids. Many tissues rely on ketones for energy Amino acids are broken down to ketones All of these statements about the post-absorptive state are correct

All of these statements about the post-absorptive state are correct

7. In areas of the lung where blood flow (perfusion) is high relative to airflow (ventilation): Alveolar O2 will decrease, the pulmonary vascular smooth muscle will relax, and bloodflow will decrease. Alveolar CO2 will accumulate, the bronchiolar smooth muscle will relax, and airflow will increase. Alveolar O2 will decrease, the pulmonary vascular smooth muscle will constrict, and bloodflow will increase. Alveolar CO2 will accumulate, the bronchiolar smooth muscle will contract, and airflow will decrease.

Alveolar CO2 will accumulate, the bronchiolar smooth muscle will relax, and airflow will increase.

Which of the following properties is NOT a feature of arterioles? An arteriole's radius can only be changed by extrinsic factors, not intrinsic ones. Their walls contain a relatively thick layer of smooth muscle. They are responsible for regulating the distribution of blood flow to the various organs. They are the major vessels that contribute to total peripheral resistance.

An arteriole's radius can only be changed by extrinsic factors, not intrinsic ones.

Which of the following would NOT result in an increase in filtration of fluids from capillaries to the surrounding tissue (tissue edema)? An increase in the concentration of plasma proteins An increase in the pore size of the capillaries in the body An increase in venous pressure An increase in the arterial pressure A decrease in the hydrostatic pressure from the interstitial fluid.

An increase in the concentration of plasma proteins

9. Which of the following best describes the effects of increased afterload? As afterload increases, stroke volume increases due to increased venous return As mean arterial pressure (MAP) increases, afterload increases resulting in more force needed to be exerted by the left ventricle to open the aortic semilunar valve Increased afterload results from increased mean arterial pressure, resulting in the mitral (bicuspid) valve requiring more force to open Increased afterload enhances blood flow and results in decreased end systolic volume

As mean arterial pressure (MAP) increases, afterload increases resulting in more force needed to be exerted by the left ventricle to open the aortic semilunar valve

15. Which of the following is not a major job of insulin? A. Enhance glucose uptake via GLUT4 in skeletal muscles and adipocytes B. Insertion of GLUT4 through contraction of skeletal muscle C. Storage of glucose as glycogen in the liver D. Bind to insulin cell receptor on surface, activating an intracellular cascade

B. Insertion of GLUT4 through contraction of skeletal muscle

23. Which of the following is NOT associated with Type 1 Diabetes? A. The typical age of onset is during childhood. B. Excessive thirst due to hypoglycemia. C. Beta cells in the pancreas do not produce insulin. D. High glucose levels in urine. E. All of the answer choices are associated with Type 1 Diabetes.

B. Excessive thirst due to hypoglycemia.

Which enzymes are released in their inactive form? B and C B. digestive enzymes secreted by stomach C. digestive enzymes secreted by pancreas D. digestive enzymes secreted by liver A. digestive enzymes in saliva

B and C

1. Cardiac muscle differs from skeletal muscle in that... One is striated and the other is smooth Cardiac myofibers are innervated by autonomic nerve fibers, whereas skeletal muscles are innervated by alpha motor neurons The force of cardiac muscle contraction cannot be summated as a result of an increase of frequency of stimulation, whereas skeletal muscle does show temporal summation B and C are both correct

B and C are both correct

Regarding the Na+/K+ ATPase ... (B) The binding site for Na+ is high affinity when exposed to the inside of the cell, while the binding site for K+ is low affinity when exposed to the inside of the cell. A and C are correct. (C) It establishes and maintains concentration gradients for Na+ and K + ions. The concentration of Na+ is 10-fold higher outside while the concentration of K+ is 30-fold higher on the inside. (A) The binding site for Na+ is high affinity when exposed to the outside of the cell, while the binding site for K+ is low affinity when exposed to the outside of the cell. B and C are correct.

B and C are correct.

42. What releases Dehydroepiandrosterone in response to ACTH? A. DHEA B. Adrenal cortex C. Lipophilic hormones D. Adrenal glands

B. Adrenal cortex

41. What condition is caused by too little GH or GH receptors? A. Gigantism B. Dwarfism C. Epiphysis D. Acromegaly

B. Dwarfism

31. Which is the correct order of layers of the adrenal glands (from exterior to interior)? A. Zona fasciculata, medulla, zona glomerulosa, zona reticularis B. Zona glomerulosa, zona fasciculata, zona reticularis, medulla C. Medulla, zona glomerulosa, zona fasciculata, zona reticularis D. Zona reticularis, zona glomerulosa, zona fasciculata, medulla

B. Zona glomerulosa, zona fasciculata, zona reticularis, medulla

Which enzymes are most active under an acidic environment? B and C C. digestive enzymes secreted by pancreas D. digestive enzymes secreted by liver A. digestive enzymes in saliva B. digestive enzymes secreted by stomach

B. digestive enzymes secreted by stomach

When the need for blood flow changes in specific tissue ... A and B are correct. C. local venules vasodialate to regulate blood flow to each tissue. A and C are correct. B. intrinsic factors such as O2 or CO2 trigger local changes in arteriole inner diameter. A. heart contractile force increases to insure all tissues are supplied with sufficient flow.

B. intrinsic factors such as O2 or CO2 trigger local changes in arteriole inner diameter.

2. Your patient exhibits excessive movements while reaching for a cup on the desk. Which of the following would most likely contribute to his ailment? Basal ganglia damage Vestibulocerebellar damage A completely severed lateral corticospinal tract Temporal lobe damage

Basal ganglia damage

Swallowing c) is a sequentially programmed, multiple response, all-or-none reflex b) includes only the movement of the bolus from the mouth to the esophagus a) includes the movement of the bolus from the mouth to the stomach Both (a) and (c) Both (b) and (c)

Both (a) and (c)

The concentration gradient for Na+ in a normal neuron. favors its movement into the cell at resting potential. favors its movement out of the cell at resting potential. is maintained by the Na+-K+ pump. Both (a) and (c) above. Both (b) and (c) above.

Both (a) and (c) above.

5. Doug Coleman conducted a series of experiments that led to the discovery of leptin signalling. In these experiments, both the db/db mutated mice and the ob/ob mutated mice were obese; however, each mutation caused a different physiological malfunction. Which of the following CORRECTLY pairs the mutation with its malfunction? The db/db mutation results in a malfunction of the leptin receptor. The ob/ob mutation results in a malfunction of the leptin receptor. The db/db mutation results in a malfunction in the production of circulating leptin. The ob/ob mutation results in a malfunction in the production of circulating leptin. Both A and D Both B and C

Both A and D

1. Which of the following forces counter glomerular filtration in the kidney? blood colloid-osmotic pressure Bowman's capsule hydrostatic pressure glomerular-capillary blood pressure Both a and b are correct.

Both a and b are correct.

What law states that the pressure of a given quantity of gas is inversely proportional to its volume?

Boyle's Law

38. Aldosterone is produced in the _______ of the adrenal cortex in response to _________. A. Medulla, increase in blood sugar B. Zona glomerulosa, high blood pressure C. Zona reticularis, low blood pressure D. Zona glomerulosa, low blood pressure

C. Zona reticularis, low blood pressure

What would happen to the membrane potential of a cell that is permeable only to K+ if the permeability of the membrane to that ion suddenly doubled? a. it would slowly depolarize b. there would be no change c. it would vigorously fire action potentials at a high rate d. it would slowly hyperpolarize

b. there would be no change

Which of the following is/are NOT TRUE about glucagon? A) Glucagon is released in response to an increase in the concentration of amino acids in blood B) Glucagon decreases the synthesis of tryglicerides C) Glucagon increases the synthesis of proteins d) Glucagon is released in response to an increase in the concentration of glucose in blood C and D are both false.

C and D are both false.

7. What causes duct cells in the pancreas to secrete NaHC03? A. High protein in the chyme B. High fat in the chyme C. Acidic chyme D. High lectin

C. Acidic chyme

What is responsible for the fast neuronal repolarization during the falling phase of the action potential? A. Opening of the inactivation gate in voltage-gated Na+ channels B. Inactivation of Na+ leak channels C. Activation of voltage-gated K+ channels D. Inactivation of K+ leak channels E. Two options are correct

C. Activation of voltage-gated K+ channels

32. Fill in the blanks: When you have low blood pressure, ___ increases and the zona ___ in the adrenal cortex releases ___. A. CRH, fasciculata, cortisol B. CRH, reticularis, aldosterone C. Angiotensin II, glomerulosa, aldosterone D. Angiotensin II, reticularis, cortisol

C. Angiotensin II, glomerulosa, aldosterone

1. How is hydrogen secreted into the gastric lumen? A. As hydrogen chloride B. As plasma C. As carbonic acid D. As bicarbonate

C. As carbonic acid

16. Which one of these steps is involved in carbohydrate metabolism? A. Enhance glucose uptake in adipocytes for triglyceride synthesis B. Inhibit proteolysis C. Increase liver and muscle glycogenolysis D. Inhibit liver gluconeogenesis

C. Increase liver and muscle glycogenolysis

3. What does the propulsive movement do? A. Aid digestion by mixing food with digestive juices B. Facilitate absorption by exposed food to absorbing surfaces C. Move the contents forward through the digestive tract D. A and B

C. Move the contents forward through the digestive tract

6. What does the pancreas use to digest protein A. Pancreatic amylase B. Pancreatic lipase C. Proteolytic enzymes D. Secretin

C. Proteolytic enzymes

39. Someone with cortisol deficiency would experience all the following EXCEPT: A. Low blood sugar B. Vasoconstriction via the sympathetic nervous system C. Stress induced Gluconeogenesis and proteolysis D. None of the above

C. Stress induced Gluconeogenesis and proteolysis

Which of the following explains the unidirectional propagation of action potentials? A. The voltage dependence of the potassium channels B. Sufficient "leakiness" of the axons, such that backward propagation of action potentials is prevented C. The inactivation of the voltage gated channels D. The polarized orientation of microtubules within the axon E. The voltage dependence of the sodium channels

C. The inactivation of the voltage gated channels

Which of the following explains the unidirectional propagation of action potentials? A. The voltage dependence of the sodium channels B. The voltage dependence of the potassium channels C. The inactivation of the voltage gated channels D. Sufficient "leakiness" of the axons, such that backward propagation of action potentials is prevented E. The polarized orientation of microtubules within the axon

C. The inactivation of the voltage gated channels

40. What hormones regulate hormone secretion by another endocrine gland & stimulate and maintain their endocrine gland target tissue? A. Growth hormone B. Prolactin C. Tropic hormone D. Luteinizing hormone

C. Tropic hormone

24. Which of the following is true? A. Obesity is not associated with leptin resistance B. only A and C are true C. When total fat increases, leptin hormone increases D. CCK is only from the small intestine. GLP-1 is from both the small and large intestines. They are both satiety signals E. All of the above are true

C. When total fat increases, leptin hormone increases

5. Through which vessel is the velocity of blood flow the slowest? Arterioles Veins Capillaries Venules

Capillaries

Regarding the Na+/K+ ATPase ... (B) The binding site for Na+ is high affinity when exposed to the inside of the cell, while the binding site for K+ is low affinity when exposed to the inside of the cell. (A) The binding site for Na+ is high affinity when exposed to the outside of the cell, while the binding site for K+ is low affinity when exposed to the outside of the cell. A and C are correct. (C) It establishes and maintains concentration gradients for Na+ and K + ions. The concentration of Na+ is 10-fold higher outside while the concentration of K+ is 30-fold higher on the inside.

Correct Answer B and C are correct.

The relative refractory period of an action potential is the period during which a neuron can generate another action potential, but only if the intensity of the stimulus is greater than normal. Which process is responsible for the relative refractory period of a neuron? A. the inactivation of voltage gated K+ channels B. the inactivation of voltage gated Na+ channels C. the activation of voltage gated Na+ channels D. the activation of voltage gated K+ channels

D

The afferent division carries information away from the CNS. True False

False

10. How are fatty acids absorbed in the small intestine? A. Passively absorbed into the blood capillary B. Reforms triglycerides in epithelial cells, then chylomicrons and exocytosed from cell, enters lymphatic vessels C. Absorbed into epithelial cells via vesicles D. A and B E. None of the above

D. A and B

36. Failure of function of the anterior pituitary cell would result in A. Reduced tropic hormone release from the anterior pituitary B. Failure of function in the endocrine gland C. Decreased levels of hormone released from the endocrine gland D. A and C E. All the answers are correct

D. A and C

17. What are some mechanisms for homeostatic control of energy balance? A. CNS control of energy homeostasis B. Nutrients C. Satiety and adiposity signals D. All of the above

D. All of the above

2. How does pepsin function? A. Can act on other Pepsinogen molecules, converting them into pepsin B. Initiates protein digestion by splitting amino acid linkages C. Works effectively in acidic environment D. All of the above

D. All of the above

30. A defect at which of the following sites can lead to decreased peripheral hormone levels? A. Peripheral endocrine gland B. Hypothalamus C. Pituitary gland D. All of the above

D. All of the above

35. An increase in IGF-1 would A. Inhibit the anterior pituitary gland from making more growth hormone B. Excite the anterior pituitary gland to make more growth hormone C. Inhibit the hypothalamus from releasing GHIH (Growth Hormone Inhibiting Hormone) D. Both A and B

D. Both A and B

20. A high protein meal increases the secretion of what hormones? A. Secretin B. Pepsin C. Glucagon D. Both a and c E. Both a and b F. All of the above G. None of the above

D. Both a and c

26. Which of the following is not a hydrophilic hormone? A. Insulin B. Cck C. Glucagon D. Cortisone

D. Cortisone

29. What kind of stress is not 'good' for you? A. Exercise for an hour B. Being sick for a week C. Starving for a day D. Emotional stress for over a year

D. Emotional stress for over a year

22. Which is not an example of external work? A. Talking to an NPB TA B. Taking an NPB exam C. Walking to NPB discussion class D. Heart beating while taking an NPB exam

D. Heart beating while taking an NPB exam

34. Growth hormone results in... A. Increased glucose uptake in the muscles to support growth B. Decreased amino acid uptake in the muscles because glucose metabolism is the primary energy source C. Decrease in IGF-1 secretion because IGF-1 is growth inhibitor D. Increased adipocyte breakdown so glucose can be conserved

D. Increased adipocyte breakdown so glucose can be conserved

33. Vasopressin is a hormone of the posterior pituitary. How is it released into the body? A. Released into the neuronal cell bodies B. Released into the capillary of the anterior pituitary C. Released into the median eminence D. Released into the capillary of the posterior pituitary

D. Released into the capillary of the posterior pituitary

19. Can target cell receptors for insulin in people with Type II diabetes respond to insulin? A. Not at all B. Yes, at normal baseline insulin levels C. Yes, only after meals high in certain nutrients D. Yes, at high than normal baseline insulin levels

D. Yes, at high than normal baseline insulin levels

5. Under normal conditions, one would expect increasing the rate of ventilation to twice the normal rate to... Double the O2 content of arterial blood Decrease the O2 content of arterial blood Decrease the PCO2 of arterial blood None of the above

Decrease the PCO2 of arterial blood

Which of the following is NOT associated with increased sympathetic activity? Vasoconstriction of arterioles, which increases peripheral resistance. Decreased end diastolic volume, which increases cardiac output. Increased stroke volume, which increases cardiac output. Vasoconstriction of veins, which increases venous return. Vasoconstriction of veins, which increases stroke volume

Decreased end diastolic volume, which increases cardiac output.

6. To remove a cancerous lesion, Melissa has a large portion of her stomach's antrum removed. This will likely result in: Decreased secretion of Gastrin Removal of the cells that make CCK Removal of the cells that make secretin Removal of the cells that make HCl

Decreased secretion of Gastrin

Phagocytes... Destroy foreign particles or damaged cells by phagocytosis Secrete chemical mediators that stimulate kinin activation Secrete chemical mediators that result in the stimulation of the complement system All of the above A and B

Destroy foreign particles or damaged cells by phagocytosis

2. The binding of a fresh molecule of ATP to the myosin molecule leads to which step in cross-bridge cycling? The power stroke Detachment of myosin and actin Enables formation of the cross-bridge Rigor

Detachment of myosin and actin

3. If your metabolic demand increases (for instance when you engage in exercise) and you increase your ventilatory efforts to accommodate this new demand, which will lead to a greater increase in alveolar ventilation? Reducing respiratory rate by half while tidal volume remains the same Doubling respiratory rate while tidal volume is reduced by half Doubling tidal volume while respiratory rate is reduced by half Doubling tidal volume while respiratory rate remains the same

Doubling tidal volume while respiratory rate remains the same

6. At the end of normal expiration when outward airflow has ceased... Lung volume is maximal Intrapleural pressure is subatmospheric and balances the elastic recoil tendency of the lung All air within the lungs has been expelled None of the above

Intrapleural pressure is subatmospheric and balances the elastic recoil tendency of the lung

1. Internal intercostal muscles are used... During normal resting inspiration During forceful inspiration Only when sleeping During active expiration

During active expiration

Leptin Is released from adipose (fat) cells to inhibit food intake. Is released from the stomach to inhibit gastric emptying. Is released from adipose (fat) cells to facilitate triglyceride digestion. Is released from beta cells to stimulate lipolysis.

Is released from adipose (fat) cells to inhibit food intake.

In Graves' disease a Thyroid Stimulating Immunoglobulin (TSI) activates the TSH-R (thyroid stimulating hormone receptor). What is TRUE for Graves' disease? TSH levels will drop. Thyroid hormone levels will drop. No goiter will form. The patient will have a reduced metabolic rate as a result of altered thyroid hormone levels.

TSH levels will drop.

Lecture 31 5. Characteristics of micelles include: A. Bile salts, cholesterol, lecithin aid micelle formation B. Hydrophobic core and hydrophilic shell C. Hydrophilic core and hydrophilic shell D. If proportions are out of balance, bile salt will precipitate to form gallstones E. 2 or more answers are correct

E. 2 or more answers are correct

21. Which of these is an example of energy expenditure? A. External work B. Heat C. Internal work D. Both a and c E. All of the above

E. All of the above

Lecture 33-35 12. Which of the following organs does not need insulin to insert GLUT4 in the membrane? A. Brain B. Contracting skeletal muscles C. Liver D. All of the above E. B and C

E. B and C

Which of the following does NOT contribute to alveolar pO2 being lower than atmospheric pO2. The anatomic dead space that prevents the entire tidal volume to be replaced with fresh air. Each of these contributes to the reduced alveolar pO2 in comparison to atmospheric pO2. The residual volume of the lung that prevents refreshment of all air in the lung in each breath. The addition of water vapor as air travels down the nasal passage and the airways.

Each of these contributes to the reduced alveolar pO2 in comparison to atmospheric pO2.

3. Bill is an unusually short 13-year-old boy. At his annual physical, the clinician collects a blood sample and finds low levels of IGF-1 and low levels of growth hormone. Based on this information we predict: Bill has a tertiary endocrine disorder Bill has a primary endocrine disorder Bill has a secondary endocrine disorder Either A or C could be correct, more information is needed

Either A or C could be correct, more information is needed

1. Select the incorrect statement about the plasma membrane. It selectively controls movement of molecules between the ECF and ICF. It acts as the barrier surrounding the blood vessels and separates the blood plasma from the interstitial fluid. It has cholesterol to maintain rigidity. It serves as a mechanical barrier to hold in all the cell's contents.

It acts as the barrier surrounding the blood vessels and separates the blood plasma from the interstitial fluid.

The Nernst equation considers the concentration, charge and permeability of each ion. A. TRUE B. FALSE

FALSE

Which of the following is not a function of saliva? Plays an important role in oral hygiene. Facilitates speech Exerts an antibacterial effect Facilitates absorption of glucose across the oral mucosa. Begins digestion of carbohydrate.

Facilitates absorption of glucose across the oral mucosa.

3. True/False Goiters only form due to hyperthyroidism.

False

A neuron that releases a neurotransmitter onto multiple other neurons at the same time is an example of temporal summation.

False

An IPSP could be a result of opening of ligand gated Sodium Channels.

False

An IPSP could be a result of opening of ligand gated Sodium Channels. True False

False

Convergence is an example of multiple EPSP signals, while divergence is an example of multiple IPSP signals True False

False

Convergence is an example of multiple EPSP signals, while divergence is an example of multiple IPSP signals.

False

Increasing intracellular [K+] in a neuron at rest will depolarize it. True False

False

Which of the following statement about gastrin is true? Gastrin is a hydrophilic hormone, is synthesized on demand and is binds to a nuclear receptor in its target cell. Gastrin is a hydrophilic hormone, is synthesized and stored in secretory vesicles and activates a receptor on the surface of its target cell. Gastrin is a hydrophobic hormone, that is released by exocytosis in response to membrane depolarization and calcium entry into the cell. Gastrin is a hydrophobic hormone, is stored in secretory vesicles and circulates bound to carrier proteins.

Gastrin is a hydrophilic hormone, is synthesized and stored in secretory vesicles and activates a receptor on the surface of its target cell.

Which of these statement on glucagon is CORRECT Glucagon release is inhibited by reductions in plasma glucose, fatty acids and amino acids. Glucagon is released from G cells in pancreatic islets. Glucagon worsens diabetes by stimulating hepatic gluconeogenesis. Glucagon is the only hormone that can increase blood glucose levels.

Glucagon worsens diabetes by stimulating hepatic gluconeogenesis.

Match each of the following terms with the correct reaction Glycolysis Glycogenolysis Gluconeogenesis Glycogenesis

Glycolysis: Breakdown of glucose Glycogenolysis: Breaking glycogen to glucose Gluconeogenesis: Synthesis of glucose de novo (new) Glycogenesis: Synthesis of glycogen from glucose

During muscle contraction, the More than one of these answers. actin proteins contract. A band becomes shorter. I band remains unchanged. H zone becomes smaller or disappears.

H zone becomes smaller or disappears.

Compared to a neuron at rest, a neuron in the rising phase of an action potential... A. has low permeability to Na+ and high to K+ B. has activated voltage gated K+ channels C. is at equilibrium D. has changed its threshold to a more depolarized value E. Has activated many voltage-gated Na+ channels

Has activated many voltage-gated Na+ channels

7. A man suffers from a rare disease in which his alpha cells have degenerated. He would... Have an unusually high blood glucose level Undoubtedly die unless given exogenous insulin Have difficulty synthesizing protein Be deficient in liver glycogen Have some difficulty maintaining blood glucose at a steady level

Have some difficulty maintaining blood glucose at a steady level

2. Which of the following scenarios represents a negative feedback mechanism? Hormone A stimulates Hormone B, which inhibits Hormone C Hormone A inhibits Hormone B, which inhibits Hormone A Hormone A stimulates Hormone B, which inhibits Hormone A Hormone A stimulates Hormone B, which stimulates Hormone A

Hormone A stimulates Hormone B, which inhibits Hormone A

A patient presents herself with increased T3/T4, reduced TSH but no notable outward clinical abnormalities such as a goiter. What's the most likely diagnosis: Hyperthyroidism caused by an excess in dietary iodine. Hyperthyroidism caused by a hypersecreting tumor of the anterior pituitary thyrotropes. Hyperthyroidism caused by thyroid stimulating immunoglobulin (Graves's disease). Hyperthyroidism caused by a hypersecreting thyroid tumor.

Hyperthyroidism caused by a hypersecreting thyroid tumor.

Cardiovascular Physiology 1. Pick the correct statement about the vasculature Autoregulation occurs in veins which ensures constant blood flow through some vascular beds In capillaries, Pcap tends to favor filtration of water out of the blood vessel Venoconstriction increases vascular resistance of veins and reduces venous return In response to a sudden drop in MAP, the cardiovascular center causes vasodilation of the arterioles

In capillaries, Pcap tends to favor filtration of water out of the blood vessel

Chemical digestion of carbohydrates begins: In the small intestine In the large intestine In the stomach In the mouth

In the mouth

Chronic prescription of the strong synthetic glucocorticoid dexamethasone can cause a condition referred to as 'adrenal diabetes'. Which of the following actions of glucocorticoids does not contribute to this disorder? Inhibition of glucose uptake in skeletal muscle. Stimulations of proteolysis in skeletal muscle. Stimulation of hepatic gluconeogenesis. Inhibition of inflammation.

Inhibition of inflammation.

Which of the following is NOT TRUE about insulin? Insulin is released when the concentration of glucose in blood is high Insulin increases the uptake of glucose by all cells in the body Insulin increases glycogen synthesis Insulin is released from the B cells of the pancreas Insulin is the major absorptive state hormone

Insulin increases the uptake of glucose by all cells in the body

Which of these statements on insulin is CORRECT Insulin stimulates glycogenesis and gluconeogenesis. Insulin is necessary for glucose uptake in fat cells. Insulin is a major catabolic hormone. Insulin release is stimulated only by glucose, fatty acids and amino acids.

Insulin is necessary for glucose uptake in fat cells.

4. Which of the following is INCORRECT in regards to insulin dependence? Insulin is necessary for glucose uptake in the brain. Insulin is necessary for glucose storage in the liver. Insulin is necessary for glucose uptake in the adipose tissue. All are correct.

Insulin is necessary for glucose uptake in the brain

1. Pick the false statement about the spinal cord. It contains cell bodies of somatic motor neurons and post ganglionic autonomic neurons It mediates simple reflexes Patterned motor movements, like walking, are mediated here Both B and C are correct

It contains cell bodies of somatic motor neurons and post ganglionic autonomic neurons

Which of the following statements regarding pulmonary surfactant is TRUE? It is secreted by type I alveolar cells. It increases airway resistance. It increases the compliance of the lungs. It is secreted into the interpleural space It can only interact with other lipid molecules.

It increases the compliance of the lungs.

Which is TRUE about the pleural sac? It is a closed sac surrounding each lung that contains a volume of lubricating fluid. It is bounded by pleural membranes that are very thin, which allows for abundant gas exchange. It is a closed sac surrounding each lung and contains a large volume of surfactant. It is a closed, air-filled space surrounding both lungs that has a negative pressure compared to atmospheric pressure. It is continuous with the atmosphere and protects the lungs from infection.

It is a closed sac surrounding each lung that contains a volume of lubricating fluid.

3. Pick the true statement about the autonomic nervous system Its primary components are the sympathetic and enteric neurons It regulates visceral functions Preganglionic parasympathetic neurons are very short Input from postganglionic neurons are always excitatory

It regulates visceral functions

Ion X is negatively charged and has an equilibrium potential that is -100 mV. If channels that were selectively permeable to ion X were opened what would happen to the membrane potential of the neuron? (Assume it is a standard neuron at rest.) It would depolarize. It would hyperpolarize. It would not change. There is not enough information to answer the question.

It would hyperpolarize.

During ventricular ejection, the pressure difference smallest in magnitude is between which of the following? Pulmonary artery and the left atrium, Right ventricle and the right atrium Left ventricle and the aorta Left ventricle and left atrium Aorta and capillaries

Left ventricle and the aorta

2. Which statement regarding the cerebrospinal fluid is true? The composition of CSF is identical to that of plasma The CSF is produced by the choroid plexus and directly bathes neurons The CSF drains back into the blood at the blood brain barrier Lipid soluble material easily diffuses from the plasma into CSF

Lipid soluble material easily diffuses from the plasma into CSF

he substance responsible for directly coupling excitation to contraction in a skeletal muscle fiber is myosin K+ ATP Na+ None of the above

None of the above

Which of the following statements about myelination is FALSE? Myelin sheaths are created by glial cells. Myelin serves to sharply increase the distance passive electrical signals can travel in axons before fully dissipating Multiple layers of closely opposed glial membranes wrap the axon and serve as an electrical insulator. Myelin present at the nodes of Ranvier. Sodium and potassium channels are clustered at the nodes of Ranvier.

Myelin present at the nodes of Ranvier.

3. Which of the following is a form of active transport? Ion channels Facilitated diffusion Na/K Pump GLUT1

Na/K Pump

6. An increase in synthesis and secretion of insulin will... Occur in response to an increase in SNS activity Result in an increased rate of gluconeogenesis Result in an increased rate of glycogenolysis Mobilize fat None of the above

None of the above

Venous valves, unlike heart valves, allow for two-way flow which facilitates blood flow acting against gravity i.e. in the legs. false. true.

false.

Which of these statements does NOT describe an actual difference between our anterior and posterior pituitary. a. Only hypothalamic releasing factors that control the anterior pituitary are released into the median eminence. b. Only the anterior pituitary axes feature a 3-step cascade of activation where the peripheral hormone engages in negative feedback at the levels of the hypothalamus and pituitary gland. c. The posterior pituitary does not contain endocrine cells, but is merely the site of release for hormones that are made in the hypothalamus; the anterior pituitary contains multiple endocrine cell types. d. Only the posterior pituitary axes feature 'neurohormonal' mode of secretion where peptide hormones are released from synapse-like structures on blood capillaries.

Only the posterior pituitary axes feature 'neurohormonal' mode of secretion where peptide hormones are released from synapse-like structures on blood capillaries.

Which of the following statement is true about our nutrient use during a fast. Most cells in our bodies switch to triglycerides as their main energy source to preserve glucose for the brain. We will gradually reduce the homeostatic set-point for plasma glucose to conserve nutrient stores. Our bodies' supply of glycogen will be depleted in under 24 hours. Gluconeogenesis in the brain increases under the influence of glucagon to ensure a steady glucose supply.

Our bodies' supply of glycogen will be depleted in under 24 hours.

Which of the following statements about neural control of digestion is FALSE? Parasympathetic stimulation is excitatory to digestion. Sympathetic stimulation is generally inhibitory to digestion. Local neural networks (nerve plexuses) regulate digestive functions. Nerve plexuses receive input from the autonomic nervous system Parasympathetic stimulation inhibits GI exocrine gland secretions.

Parasympathetic stimulation inhibits GI exocrine gland secretions.

2. A toxin significantly reduces gastrointestinal acid production. What would be the most likely target of this toxin? Secretin producing cells Smooth muscle cells Mucous cells Parietal cells

Parietal cells

Which statement about partial pressures is CORRECT: None of these statements is correct. pO2, ranked from highest to lowest: atmospheric air > alveolar air > pulmonary arteries > systemic arteries. pO2 is reduced and pN2 is increased at altitude, making it more difficult to breathe if you travel from Davis to Denver. Partial pressures within alveolar air, ranked from highest to lowest, pN2 > pO2 > pH2O > pCO2. pCO2 is lower than pO2 in both the pulmonary and systemic venules.

Partial pressures within alveolar air, ranked from highest to lowest, pN2 > pO2 > pH2O > pCO2.

Wavelike muscular contraction of the gastrointestinal tract is called

Peristalsis

7, What component of the cardiac conduction system distributes electrical signals directly through the papillary muscles? AV nodes AV bundle SA node bundle of His Purkinje fibers

Purkinje fibers

Which of these statements on sodium reabsorption is TRUE Sodium reabsorption is active transport that takes place across the entire length of the kidney tubules. All sodium reabsorption is under hormone control. Sodium reabsorption is stimulated by the release of renin from the granular cells of the juxtaglomerular apparatus, which initiates activation of the RAAS system. Sodium transport is driven by sodium-potassium ATPase in the luminal membrane of the tubular epithelia cells

Sodium reabsorption is stimulated by the release of renin from the granular cells of the juxtaglomerular apparatus, which initiates activation of the RAAS system.

In an arteriole, if the blood vessel radius is 3 units and is then vasoconstricted to 1 unit, then Blood flow decreases by one-third Resistance increases 81 times Resistance increases 16 times Blood flow increases 81 times. There is no change in blood flow or resistance

Resistance increases 81 times

Muscle tension is produced internally within the ____. myosin molecules actin molecules sarcoplasmic reticulum T tubules Sarcomeres

Sarcomeres

Which of the following statements about the adrenal cortical hormones is FALSE? Cortisol, but not aldosterone, activates the glucocorticoid receptor. All hormones from the adrenal cortex are synthesized from cholesterol The different layers of the adrenal cortex make different steroid hormones depending on the combination of steroid biosynthesis enzymes they express. Secretion of aldosterone from the zona glomerulosa is stimulated by ACTH

Secretion of aldosterone from the zona glomerulosa is stimulated by ACTH

Nutrient absorption occurs primarily in the

Small intestine

If one stands abruptly after lying in a horizontal plane for a long time, then all the following decrease prior to the fall in MAP with the exception of a. cardiac output b. venous return c. baroreceptor afferent neuron firing rat d. stroke volume end diastolic volume

baroreceptor afferent neuron firing rat

You are observing a relaxed myofibril by using an electron microscope. You can see the darker and lighter bands. What kind of effect would you expect when you observe a contracted myofibril? -a. The lighter band becomes shorter. -a and d -b. The darker band becomes shorter. -c. Both darker and lighter bands do not change the length. -d. The sarcomere remains the same length.

a. The lighter band becomes shorter.

Acid chyme is buffered by __________ secreted from the pancreas

bicarbonate

In the heart, the contractile cells ... A and B are correct. all are correct. A. use Ca2+-induced Ca2+ release from SR stores to sustain a long twitch contraction. B. have a plateau potential which confers a long refractory period. C. initiate spikes via opening of a voltage-gated Na+ channel.

all are correct.

4. Which of the following is true with respect to the adrenal glands? The adrenal medulla is heavily innervated by preganglionic fibers of the parasympathetic nervous system Cortisol works along with the catecholamines to maintain blood pressure by facilitating vasodilation Aldosterone secretion increases primarily under the influence of the hypothalamus Stress increases synthesis and secretion of cortisol by first increasing synthesis and secretion of corticotropin releasing hormone

Stress increases synthesis and secretion of cortisol by first increasing synthesis and secretion of corticotropin releasing hormone

Which of the following statements on surfactant is true? Nursing of premature infants causes oxytocin release to induce surfactant production. Surfactant lubricates the pleura to decrease friction during normal breathing. Surfactant increases the transmural pressure gradient Surfactant decreases surface tension to prevent the thin layer of water that lines the alveoli to form droplets that would greatly reduce gas exchange.

Surfactant decreases surface tension to prevent the thin layer of water that lines the alveoli to form droplets that would greatly reduce gas exchange.

Which of the following descriptions of how sound is transduced in the ear is true?

The basilar membrane, which contains sterocilia (hair cells), vibrates due to sound and hits the rigid tectorial membrane.

Select the incorrect statement regarding Facilitated Diffusion, a type of carrier-mediated transport: a. The binding site is more likely to be occupied when it is exposed to the side of the membrane containing the lower concentration of solute. b. The carrier's binding site has fixed affinity for the solute. c. The net moment of solute is downhill, from area of higher to lower concentration. d. Solute binding causes the carrier to flip orientation. e. The carrier is capable of flipping orientation which exposes the solute binding site alternatively to the outside or inside of the cell.

The binding site is more likely to be occupied when it is exposed to the side of the membrane containing the lower concentration of solute.

The nervous system and the endocrine system may have differences in all the following aside from How they transfer information Proximity of the target cell Duration of effect The cells that send the signal They differ in all

The cells that send the signal

Which of the following statements on the hypothalamus and pituitary gland is true? The hypothalamus integrates information from neural and blood-borne signals from many sites to direct the activity of the pituitary gland. All hypothalamic neurohormones are released into the median eminence to control the activity of specific pituitary endocrine cells. Endocrine cells in the anterior pituitary are innervated by excitatory and inhibitory neurons from the hypothalamus. Since pituitary hormones need to travel only a short distance to their target cells, they are secreted in very small quantities.

The hypothalamus integrates information from neural and blood-borne signals from many sites to direct the activity of the pituitary gland.

Which structure in the wall of the gastrointestinal tract is coupled to the correct basic digestive process to which it makes a substantial contribution? None of these choices The mucosa facilitates absorption. The muscularis externa facilitates secretion. The serosa facilitates absorption.

The mucosa facilitates absorption.

1. You've experimentally created a voltage gated Na+ channel that lacks an inactivation gate. What will occur in neurons that contain this channel? The neuron will not exhibit refractoriness The resting membrane potential will be more positive than normal Sodium would not flux into the cell The voltage gated K+ channel will open later than normal

The neuron will not exhibit refractoriness

Which of these statements on pituitary hormones is NOT correct? CRH stimulates the release of ACTH, which promotes the release of cortisol from the zona fasciculata and zona reticularis of the adrenal cortex. The only inputs that act on the hypothalamus-pituitary axes (plural) is the negative feedback from peripheral endocrine hormones onto the hypothalamic and pituitary cells. Hypothalamic TRH causes the release of TSH from the anterior pituitary thyrotropes, which cause the release of thyroid hormone from the thyroid. GHRH promotes the secretion of growth hormone, which affects peripheral target tissues directly and indirectly by the release of IGF-I from the liver.

The only inputs that act on the hypothalamus-pituitary axes (plural) is the negative feedback from peripheral endocrine hormones onto the hypothalamic and pituitary cells.

Which of the following is true? Blood in the pulmonary veins is low in oxygen. Blood in the pulmonary veins is high in carbon dioxide. The oxygen concentration of inspired air is higher than that of alveolar air. All are correct Two are correct

The oxygen concentration of inspired air is higher than that of alveolar air.

1. Which of the following systems in the body is not directed entirely towards maintaining homeostasis? The endocrine system The reproductive system The integumentary system The muscular system

The reproductive system

4. Which of the following statements is false? The rising phase of action potentials is due to Na+ influx via ligand-gated Na+ channels The falling phase of action potentials is caused by K+ efflux Voltage-gated K+ channels do not have inactivation gates Action potentials are an all or nothing event

The rising phase of action potentials is due to Na+ influx via ligand-gated Na+ channels

1. During a swallow, what region is closed off to prevent food entry into the respiratory passageways? The lips The upper esophageal sphincter The soft palate/uvula The bronchioles

The soft palate/uvula

Which of the following are differences between the skeletal and cardiac muscle? The way that sarcomeres work The sources of calcium used for contraccion The presence of striations None of the answers are correct

The sources of calcium used for contraccion

2. Suppose a person experienced a sudden, massive drop in MAP due to hemorrhage. Which of the following is part of the compensatory response to the change in MAP? The high pressure baroreceptors would increase their firing rate in response to this altered MAP, which then ultimately increases sympathetic activity to arterioles The parasympathetic stimulation to the arterioles would decrease, which causes arteriolar vasoconstriction The sympathetic stimulation to skeletal muscle would increase which would cause the skeletal muscle pump to squeeze more venous blood to the ventricles The sympathetic stimulation to the ventricular muscles would increase. This would increase cardiac output, as the ventricles would beat stronger

The sympathetic stimulation to the ventricular muscles would increase. This would increase cardiac output, as the ventricles would beat stronger

1. Your patient exhibits difficulty with fine control of motor movements. She also doesn't play the piano well anymore, even though she was classically trained for 20 years. You expect nervous system damage in several regions EXCEPT... The vestibulocerebellum The spinocerebellum The basal ganglia The cerebrocerebellum

The vestibulocerebellum

Most anterior pituitary hormones are 'tropic hormones' in reference to: (note, there may be multiple correct answers, pick all that you think are correct) Their ability to inhibit the secretion of their hypothalamic releasing hormone. Their ability to maintain the size and mass of their endocrine target tissue. Their ability to stimulate growth of the somatic cells, such as growth hormone . Their ability to promote the release of another hormone from their peripheral target endocrine gland or tissue.

Their ability to maintain the size and mass of their endocrine target tissue. Their ability to promote the release of another hormone from their peripheral target endocrine gland or tissue.

3. Why is the resting membrane potential closer in value to K+'s equilibrium potential than to Na+'s equilibrium potential? The permeability of Na+ is higher at rest The Na+/K+ ATPase enzyme ensures there is a higher concentration of K+ outside the cell There are more leaky K+ channels than Na+ leaky channels, implying the permeability of K+ is higher at rest This statement is false and the resting membrane potential is closer to Na+'s equilibrium potential

There are more leaky K+ channels than Na+ leaky channels, implying the permeability of K+ is higher at rest

Which of the following best describes the function of the venous valves? They actively contract to force blood uphill against gravity. They passively close to prevent the backflow of blood in the veins. They prevent blood from flowing into lymphatic vessels. The primarily prevent blood plasma from moving into the interstitial fluid. They prevent blood from moving into the atria as the ventricles contract.

They passively close to prevent the backflow of blood in the veins.

3. Calcium turns on cross-bridges by physically changing the position of the troponin-tropomyosin complex. This uncovers the actin binding sites in cardiac muscle skeletal muscle smooth muscle all of the above are correct except for c

all of the above are correct except for c

An afferent fiber transmit information towards the brain. True False

True

The dorsal side of the spinal cord transmits sensory information while the ventral part transmits motor information. True False

True

The concentration gradient for Na+ in a normal neuron. a. favors its movement out of the cell at resting potential. b. No option is correct c. favors its movement into the cell at resting potential. d. Two options are correct e. is maintained by the Na+-K+ pump.

Two options are correct

Occipital

Visual information

2. Factors that affect gas transfer include all of the following except... Whether you engage in active inspiration or resting relaxed inspiration The partial pressure gradient for that gas The amount of surface area across which transfer can occur The thickness of the barrier across which transfer must occur

Whether you engage in active inspiration or resting relaxed inspiration

Curve B

Which of the following curves corresponds to what happens when one elicits an AP in the presence of a drug that blocks VG K+ channels? Curve A Curve B Curve C Curve D Curve E

Curve B

Which of the following curves corresponds to what happens when one elicits an AP in the presence of a drug that blocks VG K+ channels? Curve C Curve E Curve B Curve A Curve D

Curve E

Which of the following curves corresponds to what happens when one elicits an AP in the presence of a drug that blocks VG Na+ channels? Curve A Curve B Curve C Curve D Curve E

Curve E

Which of the following curves corresponds to what happens when one elicits an AP in the presence of a drug that blocks VG Na+ channels? Curve D Curve A Curve E Curve C Curve B

Vasopressin secretion induces the kidneys to produce a small volume of concentrated urine. is stimulated when the body fluids are hypertonic. is inhibited when the arterial blood pressure is dangerously low. a and b are correct a, b and c are correct

a and b are correct

Fatima discovers a new hormone that is released by the liver following a meal. This hormone binds to a nuclear receptor in skeletal muscle to increase glycogenesis. Based on this information we know: This is a lipophilic hormone This is a hydrophilic hormone This hormone elicits/ induces an anabolic response in skeletal muscle This hormone decreases circulating fatty acids a and c are correct

a and c are correct

The primary factor responsible for moving the chyme forward in the small intestine is stimulation of the intestinal smooth muscle by enterokinase a gradient in the frequency of segmentation along the length of the small intestine migrating motility complex mass movements sequential ringlike contractions that move progressively forward along the length of the small intestine in a stripping motion, pushing the chyme ahead of the contraction

a gradient in the frequency of segmentation along the length of the small intestine

In skeletal muscle, a motor unit is defined as: a sarcomere and all of the actin and myosin filaments contained within it. a motor neuron and all of the muscle fibers it innervates. a muscle fiber and all of the motor neurons that innervate it. a myofibril and all of its sarcomeres connected end to end.

a motor neuron and all of the muscle fibers it innervates.

The primary or most proximate event that accounts for light-induced hyperpolarization of photoreceptors is the gating of ion channels by released retinal monomers. a sudden increase in the concentration of cAMP, leading to activation of potassium channels. a rapid fall in the concentration of cGMP, leading to closure of Na+ channels a rapid rise in the concentration of cGMP, leading to closure of Na+ channels. light-induced photoisomerization of membrane-bound calcium channels.

a rapid fall in the concentration of cGMP, leading to closure of Na+ channels

In skeletal muscle fibers the normal process of excitation - contraction coupling depends on spread of a muscle action potential along the muscle membrane and through the transverse tubules (T) of the myofiber release of Ca++ from the Sarcoplasmic Reticulum (SR) binding of Ca++ by troponin a and c a, b and c

a, b and c

Which of the following statements are true about ion channels Ion channels are proteins. Ion channels are selectively permeable to specific ions. Ion channels can be gated. a and b. a, b and c.

a, b and c.

What is responsible for the fast neuronal repolarization during the falling phase of the action potential? a. Activation of voltage-gated K+ channels b. Opening of the inactivation gate in voltage-gated Na+ channels c. two options are correct d. Inactivation of Na+ leak channels e. Inactivation of K+ leak channels

a. Activation of voltage-gated K+ channels

Consider the following statements on leptin and the choose the one that is INCORRECT. a. Leptin is a lipophilic hormone that is released from fat cells. b. Mutations in leptin are rarely the cause of morbid obesity in the US. c. Leptin is a hormone that activates a receptor expressed by neurons in the ventromedial hypothalamus. d. Leptin inhibits food intake and energy expenditure

a. Leptin is a lipophilic hormone that is released from fat cells.

Which of the following statements about myelination is FALSE? a. Myelin present at the nodes of Ranvier. b. Myelin sheaths are created by glial cells. c. Multiple layers of closely opposed glial membranes wrap the axon and serve as an electrical insulator. d. Sodium and potassium channels are clustered at the nodes of Ranvier. e. Myelin serves to sharply increase the distance passive electrical signals can travel in axons before fully dissipating

a. Myelin present at the nodes of Ranvier.

Which of these statements on anterior and posterior pituitary hormones is CORRECT a. Secretion from the anterior and posterior pituitary glands directly or indirectly require the secretion of neuro-hormones from a hypothalamic neuron into blood capillaries. b. Hypothalamic neurohormones always stimulate hormone secretion from their anterior pituitary target cell. c. Prolactin promotes the growth of the mammary gland and is therefore a tropic hormone. d. All hormones released from the pituitary gland are released from endocrine cells.

a. Secretion from the anterior and posterior pituitary glands directly or indirectly require the secretion of neuro-hormones from a hypothalamic neuron into blood capillaries.

Growth hormone secretion from the ______ pituitary peaks during sleep. It ______ lipolysis, ______ liver glucose production, ______ protein synthesis and ______ protein turnover. As a result of the actions of growth hormone, plasma glucose and free fatty acid levels increase, while amino acid levels decrease. a. anterior - increases - increases - increases - reduces b. anterior - increases - reduces - increases - reduces c. posterior - increases - reduces - increases - reduces d. anterior - reduces - increases - increases - reduces

a. anterior - increases - increases - increases - reduces

Which part of a neuron is responsible for generating action potential? a. axon hillock b. dendritic spines c. soma / cell body d. terminal bouton / presynaptic terminal

a. axon hillock

The macula densa c. secretes renin. d. Both (a) and (c) b. consists of specialized arteriolar smooth-muscle cells in the juxtaglomerular apparatus. e. Both (b) and (c) a. consists of specialized tubular cells in the juxtaglomerular apparatus.

a. consists of specialized tubular cells in the juxtaglomerular apparatus.

Which is a symptom of hypothyroidism in an adult? a. easily fatigued b. severe mental retardation c. difficulty to put on weight d. poor tolerance for heat, excessive perspiration

a. easily fatigued

Sympathetic effects on the heart include activation of beta-adrenergic receptors, which slow the K+ component of the pacemaker potential. activation of muscarinic type acetylcholine receptors, which accelerate the K+ component of the pacemaker potential. regulation of stroke volume via intrinsic factors. all are correct. activation of a cAMP-dependent protein kinase within contractile cells, which increase the amount of duration of Ca2+ available to the sliding filament mechanism.

activation of a cAMP-dependent protein kinase within contractile cells, which increase the amount of duration of Ca2+ available to the sliding filament mechanism.

Select the incorrect statement regarding capillaries have an inner diameter approximately the size of a red blood cell. allow for protein exchange via diffusion through porous walls. in total have a larger cross-sectional area than any other component of the vasculature. can allow for bulk flow into or out of the tissue to maintain fluid balance. are sites of exchange of materials between the blood and interstitial space.

allow for protein exchange via diffusion through porous walls.

5. Proteins are primarily digested down into and absorbed as amino acids cellulose fatty acids and glycerol vitamins

amino acids

Action potentials ... a. can be triggered by a large IPSP (inhibitory postsynaptic potential). b. are all-or-nothing events triggered when the depolarization reaches a threshold. c. propagate from the axon terminals to neuronal dendrites. d. are initiated in the neuronal dendrites. result in the temporary closure of leak channels which underlie the resting potential.

are all-or-nothing events triggered when the depolarization reaches a threshold.

After CO2 is produced by tissues, in what form is most of that carbon transported to the lungs for removal from the body? as dissolved CO2 bound to hemoglobin as H2CO3 as dissolved HCO3- as carbonic anhydrase

as dissolved HCO3-

Temporal

auditory information

Which part of a neuron is responsible for generating action potential? a.terminal bouton / presynaptic terminal b. soma/cell body c. axon hillock d. dendritic spines

axon hillock

Which of the following statements correctly describes a similarity between the anterior and posterior pituitary gland. a. All hormones released from the pituitary gland are trophic hormones. b. Hypothalamic neurons associated with both parts of the pituitary gland release their neurohormones via neuro-endocrine release. c. Both parts of the pituitary gland receive blood from the median eminence. d. Release of hormones from both parts of the pituitary gland is subject to negative feedback from hormones released by their peripheral endocrine gland.

b. Hypothalamic neurons associated with both parts of the pituitary gland release their neurohormones via neuro-endocrine release.

Which of these statements on insulin is INCORRECT a. Insulin is a major anabolic hormone. b. Insulin release is only stimulated by glucose, fatty acids and amino acids. c. Insulin stimulates glycogenesis and inhibits gluconeogenesis. d. Insulin is necessary for glucose uptake in skeletal muscle cells during rest.

b. Insulin release is only stimulated by glucose, fatty acids and amino acids.

Which statement about partial pressures is CORRECT: a. pO2 is reduced and pN2 is increased at altitude, making it more difficult to breathe in Denver compared to Davis. b. Partial pressures within atmospheric air, ranked from highest to lowest, pN2 > pO2 > pH2O > pCO2. c. pO2, ranked from highest to lowest: atmospheric air > alveolar air > pulmonary arteries > systemic arteries. d. pCO2 is lower than pO2 in both the pulmonary and systemic venules.

b. Partial pressures within atmospheric air, ranked from highest to lowest, pN2 > pO2 > pH2O > pCO2.

Lecture 36-40 25. Which of the following is a characteristic of all hormones? a. Transported by plasma proteins (lipophilic hormones, not all hormones) b. Released in the blood and transported to distal tissues c. They are highly water soluble (hydrophilic hormones, not all hormones) d. Can all be chemically classified as steroids (can be classified as peptides, amines, steroids)

b. Released in the blood and transported to distal tissues

A "lub-swish-dup" heart sound is most easily explained by a ... a. an insufficient AV on the L side of the heart only. b. an insufficient AV valve on either side of the heart. c. a stenotic AV valve on the right side of the heart only. d. a stenotic semilunar valve on either side of the heart. e. an insufficient semilunar valve on the right side of heart only.

b. an insufficient AV valve on either side of the heart.

High-frequency sound elicits maximal vibration of the basilar membrane a. away from the oval window where the basilar membrane is wide and flexible. b. near the oval window where the basilar membrane is stiff and narrow. c. near the oval window where the basilar membrane is wide and flexible. d. away from the oval window where the basilar membrane is stiff and narrow.

b. near the oval window where the basilar membrane is stiff and narrow.

Select the correct statement regarding sensory processing. a. The larger the receptive fields in a region, the greater the density of receptors in the region, and the greater the acuity in the region. b. Lateral inhibition results in a broadening of receptive fields. c. Acuity is determined by the density of receptors, the size of receptive fields, and by lateral inhibition. d. The higher the number of sensory receptors in a region, the less accurate the sensory perception of the area.

c. Acuity is determined by the density of receptors, the size of receptive fields, and by lateral inhibition.

The following combinations of metabolic reactions would be expected to yield the greatest decrease in circulating (blood) fuels? a. Glycogenesis + Gluconeogenesis + Protein degradation b. Glycogenolysis + Gluconeogenesis + Lipolysis c. Lipogenesis + Protein synthesis + Glycogenesis d. Protein degradation + Glycogenesis + Lipogenesis e. Lipolysis + Gluconeogenesis + Protein degradation

c. Lipogenesis + Protein synthesis + Glycogenesis

Which organelle is described here: The sorting center for proteins and peptides to their final destination. Additional protein modifications may still take place here. a. smooth endoplasmic reticulum b. lysosome c. None of the other answers is correct. d. rough endoplasmic reticulum

c. None of the other answers is correct.

Which of these metabolic processes would NOT be appropriate to take place during the post-absorptive (fasted) state. a. Inhibition of glycogenesis in the liver by glucagon b. Stimulation of protein synthesis in skeletal muscle by growth hormone. c. Stimulation by insulin of glucose uptake in adipose (fat) cells. d. All of the other reactions are appropriate during the post-absorptive state e. Stimulation of lipolysis by glucagon in adipose (fat) cells.

c. Stimulation by insulin of glucose uptake in adipose (fat) cells.

The relative refractory period of an action potential is the period during which a neuron can generate another action potential, but only if the intensity of the stimulus is greater than normal. Which process is responsible for the relative refractory period of a neuron? a. the activation of voltage gated Na+ channels b. the inactivation of voltage gated Na+ channels c. the activation of voltage gated K+ channels d. the inactivation of voltage gated K+ channels

c. the activation of voltage gated K+ channels

What statement is true of venous valves or AV valves in the heart but not semilunar valves in the heart? a their morphology is identical across all classes of venous and AV valves. b. while and AV valves are purely mechanical devices (i.e. not innervated), semilunar valves receive ANS innervation. c. they can open even without a concurrent a ventricular contraction. d. the forward pressure in the system is always enough to keep them open. e. normally formed valves can allow forward or backward flow.

c. they can open even without a concurrent a ventricular contraction.

Thyroid hormone decreases our basic metabolic rate is inactivated by the conversion of T4 into T3 by deiodinase. cannot be synthesized in the absence of dietary iodine. consists of two tryptophans and 3 or 4 iodide molecules.

cannot be synthesized in the absence of dietary iodine.

The optic track carries information from the lateral (temporal) half of the retina on the same side and the medial (nasal) half of the retina on the opposite side. carries information from the lateral halves of both retinas carries information from the medial halves of both retinas carries information from the lateral half of the retina on the opposite side and the medial half of the retina on the same side. carries information from both the lateral and medial halves of the retina on the same side

carries information from the lateral (temporal) half of the retina on the same side and the medial (nasal) half of the retina on the opposite side.

Pepsin would not be found in the stomach if the __________ cells were destroyed

chief

Frontal lobe

complex cognitive functions

The macula densa consists of specialized tubular cells in the juxtaglomerular apparatus. consists of specialized arteriolar smooth-muscle cells in the juxtaglomerular apparatus. directly secretes renin. Both (a) and (c) above. Both (b) and (c) above.

consists of specialized tubular cells in the juxtaglomerular apparatus.

Sensory System You want to take a scalpel blade and make one small cut, 1 cm or less, somewhere in the brain to result in complete blindness in both eyes (relax, this will save the person's life due to some rather complicated circumstances that would take too much time to explain here). You should make this single cut in the: a) optic nerve b) optic radiations c) superior colliculus d) optic chiasm

d) optic chiasm

Imagine you are traveling from outside of a cell to the inner lumen (matrix) of a mitochondrion. How many lipid bilayers do you cross? a. 2 b. 4 c. 6 d. 3

d. 3

Which of the following statements on ventilation is correct? a. Valves in the bronchioles allow the use of only part of your total lung capacity when not exercising. b. Maximal exhalation is achieved by the contraction of the smooth muscles surrounding the terminal bronchioles to squeeze out as much air as possible. c. If you maximally exhale, gas exchange in the lungs ceases. d. Exhaling during normal, quiet breathing is achieved by simply relaxing the external intercostal muscles and the diaphragm.

d. Exhaling during normal, quiet breathing is achieved by simply relaxing the external intercostal muscles and the diaphragm.

A patient presents with reduced T3/T4, increased TSH and a goiter. What's the most likely diagnosis: a. A hypersecreting tumor of the anterior pituitary thyrotropes. b. Hyperthyroidism caused by thyroid stimulating immunoglobulin (Graves's disease). c. Hypothyroidism caused by a genetic defect of the TRH receptor on anterior pituitary thyrotropes. d. Hypothyroidism caused by Hashimoto's thyrioditis..

d. Hypothyroidism caused by Hashimoto's thyrioditis..

Which of the following does NOT take place during the integrated stress response a. Constriction of arterioles across the body to preserve or increase blood pressure. b. Release of vasopressin from the posterior pituitary to conserve water and activation of the RAAS system to conserve salt. c. Stimulation of cortisol release to stimulate gluconeogenesis and permit epinephrine-induced lipolysis. d. Stimulation of insulin and glucagon release from the pancreas to promote the mobilization of nutrients..

d. Stimulation of insulin and glucagon release from the pancreas to promote the mobilization of nutrients..

In Graves' disease a Thyroid Stimulating Immunoglobulin (TSI) activates the TSH-R (thyroid stimulating hormone receptor). What is TRUE for Graves' disease? a. No goiter will form. b. Thyroid hormone levels will drop. c. The patient will have a reduced metabolic rate as a result of altered thyroid hormone levels. d. TSH levels will drop.

d. TSH levels will drop.

Which of the following statements on the hypothalamus and pituitary gland is true? a. All hypothalamic neurohormones are released into the median eminence to control the activity of specific pituitary endocrine cells. b. Since pituitary hormones need to travel only a short distance to their target cells, they are secreted in very small quantities. c. Endocrine cells in the anterior pituitary are innervated by excitatory and inhibitory neurons from the hypothalamus. d. The hypothalamus integrates information from neural and blood-borne signals from many sites to direct the activity of the pituitary gland.

d. The hypothalamus integrates information from neural and blood-borne signals from many sites to direct the activity of the pituitary gland.

Which of the following statements on respiration is NOT correct? a. The movement of air into and out of our lungs is driven my relative small differences in air pressure. b. The movement of O2 from alveolar air into the plasma of the pulmonary capillaries is driven by a concentration gradient. c. The movement of CO2 from the ECF in the skeletal muscle into the muscle capillaries is driven by a concentration gradient.¬ d. The movement of air into the intrapleural space during deep inhalation is caused by the alveolar air pressure exceeding the transmural pressure.

d. The movement of air into the intrapleural space during deep inhalation is caused by the alveolar air pressure exceeding the transmural pressure.

The concentration gradient for Na+ in a normal neuron. a. favors its movement into the cell at resting potential. b. favors its movement out of the cell at resting potential. c. is maintained by the Na+-K+ pump. d. Two options are correct e. No option is correct

d. Two options are correct

Which of these is NOT a mechanism to alter the activity of a hormone AFTER release? a. Cleavage of pre-pro-glucagon into GLP1 or glucagon by L cells and alpha cells, respectively b. Reduction of T4 into T3 by deiodinases expressed by target tissues c. conversion of angiotensin-I into angiotensin-II by ACE in the lungs d. cleavage of GLP1 by the enzyme DPP-IV

d. cleavage of GLP1 by the enzyme DPP-IV

Which of the following statements is NOT correct? Glomerular filtration: a. decreases when the afferent arterioles constrict. b. is primarily controlled by changes in glomerular capillary blood pressure. c. describes the generation of an acellular, largely protein-free filtrate at the glomerulus. d. describes the selective transport of water and electrolytes across the glomerular capillary endothelial cells into Bowman's capsule.

d. describes the selective transport of water and electrolytes across the glomerular capillary endothelial cells into Bowman's capsule.

Rank from most to least likely the fate of a molecule of Na+ that enters the afferent arteriole of a nephron in a person with hypertension: a. filtered and reabsorbed across the proximal tubules - filtered and lost by urination - remains in plasma b. remains in plasma - reabsorbed across the descending loop of Henle - filtered and reabsorbed across the proximal tubules. c. filtered and lost by urination - reabsorbed across the ascending loop of Henle - reabsorbed across the descending loop of Henle d. remains in plasma - filtered and reabsorbed across the proximal tubules - reabsorbed across the ascending loop of Henle.

d. remains in plasma - filtered and reabsorbed across the proximal tubules - reabsorbed across the ascending loop of Henle.

At the resting membrane potential ... a. the net electrochemical driving force on Na+ is larger than on K+, resulting is a larger net leak of Na+ into the cell. b. the membrane is more permeable to Na+ than to K+. c. both Na+ and K+ ions are at equilibrium. d. the net leak of K+ out of the cell is equal in magnitude to the net leak of Na+ into the cell. e. the net electrochemical driving force on Na+ and K+ is the same resulting in equal net leaks of Na+ into the cell and K+ out of the cell.

d. the net leak of K+ out of the cell is equal in magnitude to the net leak of Na+ into the cell.

2. Pushing out materials to the outside of the cell via the plasma membrane is known as pinocytosis exocytosis phagocytosis all of these

exocytosis

Afferent arteriolar vasoconstriction __________ blood flow into the glomerulus, which causes the glomerular-capillary blood pressure to __________, leading to a(n) __________ in the net filtration pressure and a resultant __________ in the GFR. increases, increase, increase, increase decreases, decrease, decrease, decrease increases, increase, decrease, decrease decreases, decrease, increase, increase None of these answers.

decreases, decrease, decrease, decrease

Afferent arteriolar vasoconstriction __________ blood flow into the glomerulus, which causes the glomerular-capillary blood pressure to __________, leading to a(n) __________ in the net filtration pressure and a resultant __________ in the GFR. increases, increase, decrease, decrease increases, increase, increase, increase None of these answers. decreases, decrease, increase, increase decreases, decrease, decrease, decrease

decreases, decrease, decrease, decrease

In the proximal tubule, Na+ reabsorption depends on the Na+/K+ ATPase (pump) located in the tubular membrane of tubular epithelial cells. can be increased by atrial natriuretic peptide. can be increased by vasopressin. depends on the Na+/K+ ATPase (pump) located in the basolateral membrane of tubular epithelial cells. Two of the above answers.

depends on the Na+/K+ ATPase (pump) located in the basolateral membrane of tubular epithelial cells.

Which of the following statements is NOT correct? Glomerular filtration: decreases when the afferent arterioles constrict. is primarily controlled by changes in glomerular capillary blood pressure. describes the generation of an acellular, largely protein-free filtrate at the glomerulus. describes the selective transport of water and electrolytes across the glomerular capillary endothelial cells into Bowman's capsule.

describes the selective transport of water and electrolytes across the glomerular capillary endothelial cells into Bowman's capsule.

2. The lowest metabolic rate occurs... during sleep during exercise following a meal in males compared to females

during sleep

Choose the correct statement. (a)Tropomyosin prevents myosin cross bridges from detaching from the thin filaments. (b)Actin serves as an ATPase. (c)Tropomyosin forms cross bridges and attaches actin. (d)Myosin binds to Ca2+. (e)Tropomyosin prevents myosin cross bridges from attaching to the thin filaments.

e)Tropomyosin prevents myosin cross bridges from attaching to the thin filaments.

Which of the following statements about the RAAS system is NOT correct? a. Angiotensinogen, the inactive precursor for Angiotensin-I, is secreted by the liver. b. Renin is released from the kidneys in response to a reduction in NaCl in the filtrate at the juxtaglomerular apparatus. c. All of the other statements are correct. d. Angiotensin-II is generated from angiotensin-I by Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) in the lungs. e. Aldosterone promotes the reabsorption of Na+ across the length of the tubular system of the nephrons.

e. Aldosterone promotes the reabsorption of Na+ across the length of the tubular system of the nephrons.

Aldosterone a. stimulates Na+ reabsorption in the distal and collecting tubules. c. helps correct decreases in arterial blood pressure that are below normal. d. Both (a) and (b) e. Both (a) and (c) b. is secreted by the JG apparatus.

e. Both (a) and (c)

Countercurrent multiplication a. takes place at the boundary of the renal cortex and medulla. b. all of the other statements are correct. c. describes the exchange in Na+ between the ascending loop of Henle and the vasa recta. d. is enabled by the selective permeability of the descending loop of Henle for Na+ and the ascending loop of Henle for H2O. e. is responsible for establishing the vertical osmotic gradient in the medulla.

e. is responsible for establishing the vertical osmotic gradient in the medulla.

Which is NOT a function performed by saliva? moistening and lubricating food for swallowing starch digestion enabling the sense of taste killing bacteria emulsifying lipids

emulsifying lipids

During normal contraction of a skeletal muscle fiber the individual Sarcomeres within each myofibril lengthen energy derived from the hydrolysis of ATP is utilized the myosin myofilaments within individual sarcomeres are pulled inward by the actin myofilaments causing the opposing Z lines to come closer together a and b a, b and c

energy derived from the hydrolysis of ATP is utilized

6. The first heart sound happens when the AV valves open signals the start of ventricular diastole happens when the AV valves close, signaling the start of ventricular systole happens when the semilunar valves close, signaling the start of ventricular diastole

happens when the AV valves close, signaling the start of ventricular systole

Compared to a neuron at rest, a neuron in the rising phase of an action potential... a. has activated voltage gated K+ channels b. has low permeability to Na+ and high to K+ c. is at equilibrium d. has changed its threshold to a more depolarized value e. has activated many voltage-gated Na+ channels

has activated many voltage-gated Na+ channelsActivation of voltage-gated K+ channels

3. The gonads... produce gametes and secrete sex hormones consist of a pair of testes in males and ovaries in females refer to the externally visible genitalia in both sexes have only the characteristics described in a and b

have only the characteristics described in a and b

Which of the following would make the oxygen-hemoglobin curve shift right? increased H+ concentration increased pH decreased temperature decreased CO2 Three of the answers are correct

increased H+ concentration

If all other factors remain the same, which of these results in an increase in the amount of oxygen bound to hemoglobin? increased plasma PO2 increased plasma [2,3 diphosphoglycerate] inncreased plasma temperature increased plasma [H+] increased plasma [carbon monoxide]

increased plasma PO2

During an unforced exhalation/expiration, which would NOT be true? alveolar pressure is greater than atmospheric pressure interpleural pressure is greater than alveolar pressure interpleural pressure becomes less negative the diaphragm relaxes lung volume decreases

interpleural pressure is greater than alveolar pressure

At the end of active exhalation: the only air left inside our lungs is the air inside the anatomical dead space. our respiratory muscles are fully relaxed. The transmural pressure equals the intra-alveolar pressure intra-alveolar pressure equals atmospheric pressure

intra-alveolar pressure equals atmospheric pressure

4. Select the incorrect statement. Bile... aids fat digestion by working as a detergent aids fat absorption through the formation of micelles is almost entirely reabsorbed following secretion into the large intestine. All these are correct.

is almost entirely reabsorbed following secretion into the large intestine.

Homeostatic control of energy balance involves the integration of short-term adiposity signals and long-term satiety signals by the hypothalamus and brain stem. is achieved by limiting nutrient absorption when our energy reserves are high. is possible because adipocytes release leptin in proportion to total fat mass. is predominantly controlled by stomach distension, which signals to the satiety center in our brain stem via vagal afferents to terminate meals.

is possible because adipocytes release leptin in proportion to total fat mass.

Which statement regarding the hypothalamus is incorrect it represents the apex of the control hierarchy of the endocrine system. it releases hormones that act directly on peripheral endocrine glands. it integrates information from brain and body. it controls the anterior pituitary through release of hypophysiotropic hormones. it typically receives negative feedback from hormones downstream in the signaling cascade.

it releases hormones that act directly on peripheral endocrine glands.

1. Hyperthyroidism can be due to all of the following except ->> not sure if this is correct lack of iodine too much thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) too much thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)

lack of iodine

Passive expiration is caused by contraction of the external intercostals. contraction of the internal intercostals. lung recoil and increased intrapulmonary pressure. contraction of the scalenes. contraction of the diaphragm

lung recoil and increased intrapulmonary pressure.

What are the four basic digestive processes? chewing, absorbing, transporting, and energy storage physical, chemical, motility, and absorption chewing, swallowing, absorbing, and defecating motility, absorption, transporting, and defecating motility, secretion, digestion, and absorption

motility, secretion, digestion, and absorption

Which of the following statements concerning the characteristics of different types of muscle fibers is incorrect? the higher the ATPase activity, the faster the speed of contraction. muscles with high ATP-synthesizing ability are more resistant to fatigue. muscle fibers containing large amounts of myoglobin have a dark red color in comparison to the paler fibers, which have little myoglobin. muscles that have high glycolytic capacity and large glycogen stores are more resistant to fatigue. oxidative types of muscle fibers contain myoglobin.

muscles that have high glycolytic capacity and large glycogen stores are more resistant to fatigue.

4. What dual functions do the ovaries perform? oogenesis and secreting female sex hormones oogenesis and lactation menstruation and ovulation menstruation and secreting female sex hormones

oogenesis and secreting female sex hormones

All of the following are mechanisms to regulate blood pressure except sympathetic regulation of heart rate. parasympathetic regulation of heart rate. sympathetic regulation of arterioles and veins. sympathetic regulation of ventricle contractile strength. parasympathetic regulation of ventricle contractile strength.

parasympathetic regulation of ventricle contractile strength.

When blood pressure becomes elevated above normal,______________. sympathetic stimulation of systemic blood vessels increases. arteriolar vasoconstriction occurs as a compensatory response. parasympathetic stimulation of the heart increases. parasympathetic stimulation of systemic blood vessels increases. All of the above answers are correct.

parasympathetic stimulation of the heart increases.

Which of the following describes a correct order of structures in the respiratory passways? pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, bronchioles pharynx, trachea, larynx, bronchi, bronchioles larynx, pharynx, trachea, bronchiles, bronchi trachea, pharynx, larynx, bronchi, bronchioles

pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, bronchioles

A blind spot in the retina occurs where the fovea is located. ganglion cells synapse with bipolar cells. photoreceptors are absent, as the optic nerve leaves the eye. rod cells are clustered to form the macula amacrine cells are located.

photoreceptors are absent, as the optic nerve leaves the eye.

When a molecule is neither filtered, nor reabsorbed or secreted via tubular secretion plasma clearance rate exceeds glomerular filtration rate (GFR). plasma clearance rate is less than glomerular filtration rate (GFR), but not 0. plasma clearance rate is zero. plasma clearance equals glomerular filtration rate (GFR).

plasma clearance rate is zero.

A function of tropomyosin is serve as an ATPase. None of these answers. bind Ca2+. form attachments with myosin cross bridges. prevent myosin cross bridges from attaching to the thin filaments.

prevent myosin cross bridges from attaching to the thin filaments.

8. The atrioventricular node functions to excite the left atrium control the heart rate prevent the atria and ventricles from contracting at the same time repolarize the heart following systole

prevent the atria and ventricles from contracting at the same time

1. Tropic hormones... are secreted only by the hypothalamus are produced by the posterior pituitary gland directly stimulate target cells to induce an effect primarily regulate hormone secretion by certain other endocrine glands

primarily regulate hormone secretion by certain other endocrine glands

A stenotic but not insufficient tricuspid valve would ... produce a "lub-dub-whistle" heart murmur. not close completely. increase the stroke volume of the left ventricle. produce a striking abnormality on the ECG. result in regurgitation of blood from the right ventricle into the right atrium.

produce a "lub-dub-whistle" heart murmur.

Aldosterone is secreted in response to elevated levels of sodium in the blood. promotes sodium retention in the kidneys. helps decrease blood volume increases the concentration of sodium in urine. functions in pH regulation.

promotes sodium retention in the kidneys.

The T tubules store Ca2+. provide a means of rapidly transmitting the action potential from the surface into the central portions of the muscle fiber. have expanded lateral sacs. Both store Ca2+ and have expanded lateral sacs. store ATP.

provide a means of rapidly transmitting the action potential from the surface into the central portions of the muscle fiber.

4. The thalamus inhibits muscle contractions throughout the body. relays most sensory signals to the cortex. selects and maintains purposeful motor activity while suppressing useless or unwanted patterns of movement. controls thirst, urine output, and food intake.

relays most sensory signals to the cortex.

Rank from most to least likely the fate of a molecule of H2O that enters the afferent arteriole of a nephron in a person with normal kidney function who has been drinking alcohol in excess: a. remains in plasma - filtered and reabsorbed across the proximal tubules - filtered and lost by urination. b. remains in plasma - filtered and lost by urination - filtered and reabsorbed across the proximal tubules. c. filtered and lost by urination - remains in plasma - filtered and reabsorbed across the proximal tubules d. filtered and reabsorbed across the proximal tubules - filtered and lost by urination - remains in plasma

remains in plasma - filtered and reabsorbed across the proximal tubules - filtered and lost by urination.

2. When blood volume becomes lower than normal... sodium reabsorption is diminished dilute urine is formed renin activates the conversion of angiotensinogen aldosterone is secreted by the kidney

renin activates the conversion of angiotensinogen

Pick the TWO options that best characterize Type I but not Type II diabetes mellitus? typically, adult onset. results from autoimmune destruction of beta cells with the Islets of Langerhans in the pancreas. requires insulin injections. can usually be successfully managed by dietary control and weight reduction.

results from autoimmune destruction of beta cells with the Islets of Langerhans in the pancreas. requires insulin injections.

Contents in the peritubular capillaries are actively transported into proximal and distal convoluted tubules in a process known as: excretion filtration absorption secretion encretion

secretion

The renal process whereby substances are selectively transferred from the peritubular blood into the renal tubule is filtration. secretion. reabsorption. excretion. None of these answers

secretion.

Place the tunics of the GI tract wall in the correct order from superficial to deep.

serosa, muscularis, submucosa, mucosa

In the sympathetic nervous system, the pre-ganglion neuron axons are [ Select ] ["of variable length", "long", "short"] while the post-ganglionic axons are [ Select ] ["short", "of variable lengths", "long"] . The parasympathetic system releases [ Select ] ["acetylcholine", "epinephrine", "norepinephrine"] in the first synapse and [ Select ] ["norepinephrine", "epinephrine", "acetylcholine"] in the second synapse. The sympathetic system usually [ Select ] ["inhibits", "activates"] activity of its targets.

short long acetylcholine acetylcholine activates

Phineas Gage had the misfortune of piercing his prefrontal association cortex with a tamping iron that was 3 feet 7 inches long and weighed 13.5 pounds. Although he survived the accident, he displayed several behavioral deficits. Which group of deficits best matched those displayed by Phineas Gage? (a)difficulty regulating emotional responses (particularly fear) (b)socially unacceptable behavior, lack of planning, personality changes (c)lack of attention to the left side of his body, unable to recognize faces (d)inability to form new memories, difficulty with spatial guidance

socially unacceptable behavior, lack of planning, personality changes

Oxytocin does NOT stimulate milk production promote pair-bonding stimulate milk letdown promote strong uterine contractions that promote labor and child birth

stimulate milk production

Which of the following statements regarding tubular reabsorption is incorrect? Tubular reabsorption can occur by active or passive transport mechanisms. is important for the conservation of substances important to the body, such as Na+, Cl-, glucose, and amino acids. involves the process of transepithelial transport. takes place only in the proximal tubule. refers to the movement of a substance from the tubular fluid to the peritubular capillary blood.

takes place only in the proximal tubule

2. The primary reproductive organs in the male include the seminal vesicles bulbourethral glands prostate gland testes all of the above are correct

testes

All of the following are true statements about equilibrium potential (Eq) EXCEPT: it is calculated from the Nernst equation the Eq for one ion depends on the concentration of all ions inside and outside the membrane it is the membrane potential at which diffusion and electrical forces are balanced it is a unique value for each ion once the concentration inside and outside the cells for this one ion is set.

the Eq for one ion depends on the concentration of all ions inside and outside the membrane

Enzymes that are capable of digesting peptides or proteins are expressed by all of the cells below except: the acinar cells of the pancreas epithelial cells of the small intestinal mucosa the G-cells of the pyloric gland area the chief cells of the gastric pits

the G-cells of the pyloric gland area

3. Motor functions of the cerebral cortex are localized in the frontal lobe the occipital lobe the parietal lobe the temporal lobe

the frontal lobe

Air moves into the lungs because the gas pressure in the lungs is lower then outside. the volume of the lungs decreases with inspiration. the thorax is muscular. contraction of the diaphragm decreases the volume of the pleural cavity. All of the answers are correct.

the gas pressure in the lungs is lower then outside.

Cutting someone right optic tract will result in

them not seeing anything from the left field of vision

What would happen to the membrane potential of a cell that is permeable only to K+ if the permeability of the membrane to that ion suddenly doubled? a. it would vigorously fire action potentials at a high rate b. there would be no change c. it would slowly depolarize d. it would slowly hyperpolarize

there would be no change

What would happen to the membrane potential of a cell that is permeable only to K+ if the permeability of the membrane to that ion suddenly doubled? it would slowly depolarize there would be no change it would vigorously fire action potentials at a high rate it would slowly hyperpolarize

there would be no change

What two molecules DO NOT participate directly in cross-bridge interactions? tropomyosin and myosin troponin and myosin troponin and tropomyosin actin and myoblasts actin and myosin

troponin and tropomyosin

In the Frank-Starling mechanism, increased venous return causes the contractile cells in the heart to be stretched compared to the resting state. This moves the contractile elements within these cells from their sub-optimal point of overstretching in the resting state towards their optimal length-tension relationship. true. false.

true.

Which of the following is not a tubular component of the nephron? vasa recta. Bowman's capsule. descending limb of the loop of Henle. distal tubule.

vasa recta.

During complete heart block ... the AV delay doubles to ~200ms resulting in poor coordination between atrial and ventricular contractions. ventricular contractions occur at the autorhythmic period of the Purkinje fibers. neither atria nor ventricles contract. the ECG shows QRS waves occurring at regular intervals with P waves occurring at less frequent, random intervals. electrical signals are not generated by the SA node.

ventricular contractions occur at the autorhythmic period of the Purkinje fibers.

Which of the following situations represents negative feedback? when hormone A inhibits production of hormone B and hormone B inhibits production of hormone A when hormone A inhibits production of hormone B and hormone B stimulates production of hormone A when hormone A inhibits production of hormone B and hormone B stimulates production of hormone C. when hormone A stimulates production of hormone B and hormone B inhibits production of hormone C.

when hormone A inhibits production of hormone B and hormone B stimulates production of hormone A

Which of the following is not involved in the relaxation of muscle? when the troponin-tropomyosin complex slips back into its blocking position. when there is no longer a local action potential. when the actin and myosin molecules are no longer bound together. when acetylcholine is destroyed by acetylcholinesterase. when the T tubules actively take up the Ca2+ that had been released.

when the T tubules actively take up the Ca2+ that had been released.

In which situation would the stroke volume be the greatest? when venous return is increased when venous return is decreased when the force of contraction is decreased when the difference between EDV and ESV is small when calcium channel blockers are present

when venous return is increased

Hemoglobin: binds O2 only at the high pO2 that occurs in the pulmonary circulation. binds O2 in the plasma and delivers most O2 to the peripheral tissues. will release more O2 in the presence of high pCO2 will activate peripheral chemoreceptors when not saturated with O2.

will release more O2 in the presence of high pCO2