AST 115 Chapters 1-4 Review

Réussis tes devoirs et examens dès maintenant avec Quizwiz!

How far from Earth is the Sun? A. 8.3 light-minutes B. 2.5 Million light-years C. 4.2 light-years D. About 25,000 light-years E. 1 light-second

A. 8.3 light-minutes

How does the Space Shuttle take off? A. Hot gas shoots out from the rocket and, by conservation of momentum, the shuttle moves in the opposite direction. B. by achieving lift from its wings in the same way that airplanes do Its rocket engines push against the launch pad, propelling the shuttle upwards. C. by converting mass-energy to kinetic energy The hot rocket exhaust expands the air beneath the shuttle, propelling it forward.

A. Hot gas shoots out from the rocket and, by conservation of momentum, the shuttle moves in the opposite direction.

The fact that Voyager 10 continues to speed out of the solar system, even though its rockets have no fuel, is an example of A. Newton's first law of motion. B. Newton's second law of motion. C. Newton's third law of motion. D. the universal law of gravitation. E. none of the above

A. Newton's first law of motion.

Which of the following statements about the Milky Way Galaxy is not true? A. Our solar system is located very close to the center of the Milky Way Galaxy. B. One rotation of the galaxy takes about 200 million years. C. The galaxy is about 100,000 light-years in diameter. D. It contains between 100 billion and 1 trillion stars.

A. Our solar system is located very close to the center of the Milky Way Galaxy.

If traveling at the speed of light, approximately how far could you travel in one second? A. Seven times around the earth B. Infinitely far C. One time around the earth D. To the sun E. From New York to Los Angeles

A. Seven times around the earth

Why is it summer in the Northern Hemisphere when it is winter in the Southern Hemisphere? A. The Northern Hemisphere is tilted toward the Sun and receives more direct sunlight. B. The Northern Hemisphere is tilted away from the Sun and receives more indirect sunlight. C. The Northern Hemisphere is closer to the Sun than the Southern Hemisphere. D. The Northern Hemisphere is "on top" of Earth and therefore receives more sunlight. E. It isn't; both hemispheres have the same seasons at the same time.

A. The Northern Hemisphere is tilted toward the Sun and receives more direct sunlight.

On a scale where the Sun is about the size of a grapefruit and the Earth is about 10 meters away, how far away are the nearest stars besides the Sun? A. about the distance across the United States B. 100 meters C. about the distance across the state of Delaware D. about the distance across 50 football fields

A. about the distance across the United States

Gasoline is useful in cars because it has A. chemical potential energy. B. radiative energy. C. electrical potential energy. D. gravitational potential energy. E. kinetic energy.

A. chemical potential energy.

Which of the following is the reason for the solar day being longer than a sidereal day? A. the combined effect of the rotation of Earth and its orbit about the Sun B. the non-circular orbit of Earth around the Sun C. precession of Earth's axis D. Earth year being a non-integer number of Earth days E. the tilt of Earth's axis

A. the combined effect of the rotation of Earth and its orbit about the Sun

0 degrees Kelvin is A. the temperature at which all random particle motion stops. B. the temperature at which all particles transform into light. C. meaningless, a temperature outside the range defined for the Kelvin scale. D. the temperature at which all particles move at the speed of light.

A. the temperature at which all random particle motion stops.

Approximately, what is the age of the Universe? A. 4.5 million years B. 14 billion years C. 4.5 billion years D. 14 million years E. Infinite

B. 14 billion years

How many arcminutes are in one degree? A. 3600 B. 60 C. 100 D. 10,000 E. 360

B. 60

How many arcseconds are in one arcminute? A. 10,000 B. 60 C. 360 D. 100 E. 3600

B. 60

Suppose we imagine the Sun to be about the size of a grapefruit (about 10 cm across). Which of the following describes the size and distance of Earth on the same scale? A. Earth is the size of a golf ball about 15 meters away from the Sun. B. Earth is the size of a poppy seed about 10 meters away from the Sun. C. Earth is the size of a marble about 25 miles away from the Sun. D. Earth is the size of a point about 1 meter away from the Sun. E. Earth is the size of a golf ball about 1 meter away from the Sun.

B. Earth is the size of a poppy seed about 10 meters away from the Sun.

He discovered that Jupiter has moons. A. Tycho Brahe B. Galileo C. Ptolemy D. Kepler E. Aristotle

B. Galileo

Where does the energy come from that your body uses to keep you alive? A. It comes from the water you drink. B. It comes from the foods you eat. C. It is created during the time that you rest or sleep. D. It is produced from the radiative energy of the Sun on your skin. E. It is in the air that you breathe.

B. It comes from the foods you eat.

Which of the following statements does not use the term light-year in an appropriate way? A. It will take the Voyager spacecraft about 20,000 years to travel just 1 light-year. B. It will take me light-years to complete this homework assignment. C. It's about 4 light-years from here to Alpha Centauri. D. A light-year is about 10 trillion kilometers. The Milky Way Galaxy is about 100,000 light-years in diameter.

B. It will take me light-years to complete this homework assignment

Has Polaris always been the "North Star"? A. Yes, because the stars are unchanging. B. No, because the Earth's axis slowly changes the direction it points. C. No, because it is a young star that only formed a few hundred years ago. D. No, because the Milky Way blocked our line of site to it for a long time.

B. No, because the Earth's axis slowly changes the direction it points.

He developed a system for predicting planetary positions that remained in use for some 1,500 years. A. Copernicus B. Ptolemy C. Galileo D. Tycho Brahe E. Kepler

B. Ptolemy

In addition to the conditions required for any solar eclipse, what must also be true in order for you to observe a total solar eclipse? A. Earth must lie completely within the Moon's penumbra. B. The Moon's umbra must touch the area where you are located. C. The Moon's penumbra must touch the area where you are located. D. Earth must be near aphelion in its orbit of the Sun. E. Earth must lie completely within the Moon's umbra.

B. The Moon's umbra must touch the area where you are located.

Kepler's second law, which states that as a planet moves around its orbit it sweeps out equal areas in equal times, means that A. planets that are farther from the Sun move at slower average speeds than nearer planets. B. a planet travels faster when it is nearer to the Sun and slower when it is farther from the Sun. C. the period of a planet does not depend on its mass. planets have circular orbits. D. a planet's period does not depend on the eccentricity of its orbit.

B. a planet travels faster when it is nearer to the Sun and slower when it is farther from the Sun.

How did Eratosthenes estimate the size of Earth in 240 B.C.? A. by sending fleets of ships around Earth by observing the duration of a solar eclipse B. by comparing the maximum altitude of the Sun in two cities at different latitudes C. by measuring the size of Earth's shadow on the Moon in a lunar eclipse D. We don't know how he did it since all his writings were destroyed.

B. by comparing the maximum altitude of the Sun in two cities at different latitudes

When we see Venus in its full phase, what phase would Earth be in as seen by a hypothetical Venetian? A. first quarter B. full C. waning crescent D. new E. third quarter

B. full

The mass of Jupiter can be calculated by A. measuring the orbital speed of one of Jupiter's moons. B. measuring the orbital period and distance of one of Jupiter's moons. C. knowing the Sun's mass and measuring the average distance of Jupiter from the Sun. D. knowing the Sun's mass and measuring how Jupiter's speed changes during its elliptical orbit around the Sun. E. measuring the orbital period and distance of Jupiter's orbit around the Sun.

B. measuring the orbital period and distance of one of Jupiter's moons.

You are standing on Earth's equator. Which way is Polaris, the North star? A.directly overhead B. on the northern horizon C. 30 degrees up, due West D. The answer depends on whether it's winter or summer. E. The answer depends on what time of day (or night) it is.

B. on the northern horizon

Which of the following is largest? A. size of Pluto's orbit B. size of a typical galaxy C. 1 light-year D. distance to the nearest star (other than our Sun)

B. size of a typical galaxy

If you see Polaris directly overhead at midnight, you must be at A. the Tropic of Cancer. B. the North Pole. C. the equator. D. the South Pole.

B. the North Pole.

Orion is visible on winter evenings but not summer evenings because of A. the precession of Earth's axis. B. the location of Earth in its orbit. C. baseball on television. D. interference from the full moon. E. the tilt of Earth's axis.

B. the location of Earth in its orbit.

The total number of stars in the observable universe is about ________. A. the same as the number of atoms that make up the Earth B. the same as the number of grains of sand on all the beaches on Earth C. the same as the number of grains of sand in a school sandbox D. 100 billion

B. the same as the number of grains of sand on all the beaches on Earth

Why did Ptolemy have the planets orbiting Earth on "circles upon circles" in his model of the universe? A. to properly account for the varying distances of the planets from Earth B. to explain the fact that planets sometimes appear to move westward, rather than eastward, relative to the stars in our sky C. to explain why the Greeks were unable to detect stellar parallax D. to explain why more distant planets take longer to make a circuit through the constellations of the zodiac E. to explain why Venus goes through phases as seen from Earth

B. to explain the fact that planets sometimes appear to move westward, rather than eastward, relative to the stars in our sky

How many arcseconds are in one degree? A. 100 B. 360 C. 3,600 D. 60 E. 10,000

C. 3,600

How far from Earth is the nearest star besides the Sun? A. 1 light-second B. 2.5 Million light-years C. 4.2 light-years D. 8.3 light-minutes E. About 25,000 light-years

C. 4.2 light-years

Approximately, what is the age of the Earth? A. 14 million years B. 4.5 million years C. 4.5 billion years D. 14 billion years E. Infinite

C. 4.5 billion years

What causes the apparent retrograde motion of the planets? A. The other planets never really appear to move backward; the background stars shift due to Earth's revolution around the Sun. B. When planets are farther from the Sun, they move slower than when they are nearer the Sun; it is during this slower period that they appear to move backwards. C. As Earth passes another planet, the other planet appears to move backward with respect to the background stars, but the planet's motion does not really change. D. As Earth passes another planet, its gravitational pull slows down the other planet so that it appears to be traveling backward. E. Apparent retrograde motion is an illusion created by turbulence in Earth's atmosphere.

C. As Earth passes another planet, the other planet appears to move backward with respect to the background stars, but the planet's motion does not really change.

The controversial book of this famous person, published in 1543 (the year of his death), suggested that Earth and other planets orbit the Sun. A. Tycho Brahe B. Ptolemy C. Copernicus D. Galileo E. Kepler

C. Copernicus

What conditions are required for a solar eclipse? A. The phase of the Moon can be new or full, and the nodes of the Moon's orbit must be nearly aligned with Earth and the Sun. B. The phase of the Moon must be full, and the Moon's orbital plane must lie in the ecliptic. C. The phase of the Moon must be new, and the nodes of the Moon's orbit must be nearly aligned with Earth and the Sun. D. The phase of the Moon must be full, and the nodes of the Moon's orbit must be nearly aligned with Earth and the Sun. E. The phase of the Moon must be new, and the Moon's orbital plane must lie in the ecliptic.

C. The phase of the Moon must be new, and the nodes of the Moon's orbit must be nearly aligned with Earth and the Sun.

What happens during the apparent retrograde motion of a planet? A. The planet rises in the west and sets in the east. B. The planet moves backward in its orbit around the Sun. C. The planet appears to move eastward with respect to the stars over a period of many nights. D. The planet moves through constellations that are not part of the zodiac. E. The planet moves backward through the sky.

C. The planet appears to move eastward with respect to the stars over a period of many nights.

Which of the following critical features of the heliocentric model leads to Venus exhibiting a full range of phases? A. Venus physically distorts from a sphere as it orbits the sun. B. When Venus is closer to the Sun, it moves faster. C. Venus passes on the far-side of the sun from the Earth's perspective.

C. Venus passes on the far-side of the sun from the Earth's perspective.

In which direction does a quarter moon rise? A. south B. north C. east D. west E. The Moon becomes a quarter moon only after it has risen and changed phase.

C. east

If the Moon is setting at 6 A.M., the phase of the Moon must be A. third quarter. B. first quarter. C. full. D. new. E. waning crescent.

C. full.

The ultimate source of energy that powers the Sun is A. kinetic energy of the orbital motion of the Sun. B. chemical potential energy of hydrogen burning into helium. C. mass energy of hydrogen fusing into helium. D. thermal energy of the hydrogen atoms in the Sun. E. gravitational potential energy of the contraction of the gas cloud that formed the Sun.

C. mass energy of hydrogen fusing into helium.

An astronomical unit (AU) is ________. A. the average distance between any planet and the Sun B. the current distance between Earth and the Sun C. the average distance between Earth and the Sun D. any very large unit, such as a light-year

C. the average distance between Earth and the Sun

What is the ecliptic plane? A. the plane of Earth's equator B. the plane of the Sun's equator C. the plane of Earth's orbit around the Sun D. the plane of the Milky Way Galaxy

C. the plane of Earth's orbit around the Sun

If the Moon is rising at midnight, the phase of the Moon must be A. waning crescent. B. first quarter. C. third quarter. D. full. E. waxing crescent.

C. third quarter.

How far from Earth is the Moon? A. 4.2 light-years B. About 25,000 light-years C. 2.5 Million light-years D. 1 light-second E. 8.3 light-minutes

D. 1 light-second

How long does it take our solar system to complete one orbit around the Milky Way Galaxy? A. 10 thousand years B. 230 thousand years C. 100 million years D. 230 million years E. 1 million years

D. 230 million years

If your mass is 60 kg on Earth, what would your mass be on the Moon? A. 10 lb B. 60 lb C. 50 kg D. 60 kg E. 10 kg

D. 60 kg

In the Ptolemaic model of the solar system, Venus should exhibit which of the following phases? A. new B. crescent C. full D. A and B E. B and C

D. A and B

One of the "nails in the coffin" for the Earth-centered universe was A. the phases of the Moon. B. the retrograde motion of the planets. C. Galileo's observation of stars in the Milky Way. D. Galileo's observations of the moons of Jupiter. E. eclipses of the Sun.

D. Galileo's observations of the moons of Jupiter.

You are standing on a scale in an elevator. Suddenly you notice your weight decreases. What do you conclude? A. The elevator is moving at a constant velocity downwards. B. The elevator is moving at a constant velocity upwards. C. The elevator is accelerating upwards. D. The elevator is accelerating downwards. E. Your diet is working.

D. The elevator is accelerating downwards.

What conditions are required for a lunar eclipse? A. The phase of the Moon must be full, and the Moon's orbital plane must lie in the ecliptic. B. The phase of the Moon must be new, and the nodes of the Moon's orbit must be nearly aligned with Earth and the Sun. C. The phase of the Moon must be new, and the Moon's orbital plane must lie in the ecliptic. D. The phase of the Moon must be full, and the nodes of the Moon's orbit must be nearly aligned with Earth and the Sun. E. The phase of the Moon can be new or full, and the nodes of the Moon's orbit must be nearly aligned with Earth and the Sun.

D. The phase of the Moon must be full, and the nodes of the Moon's orbit must be nearly aligned with Earth and the Sun.

Which of the following is not a phase of the Moon? A. third-quarter moon B. first-quarter moon C. full moon D. half moon E. new moon

D. half moon

The principle of Occam's Razor states that A. scientific explanations may invoke supernatural causes if no other causes are found. B. while personal biases may influence individual scientists, the process of science itself can uncover these biases. C. only a model that has survived repeated observational tests deserves to be called a scientific theory. D. in explaining natural phenomena, the simplest explanation consistent with the observations is to be preferred. E. no scientific theory, no matter how well tested, can ever be proved absolutely true.

D. in explaining natural phenomena, the simplest explanation consistent with the observations is to be preferred.

How many galaxies are there in the observable universe? A. about as many as the number of grains of sand on all the beaches on Earth infinity B. roughly a thousand times more than the number of stars in our galaxy C. about as many as the number of stars we see in the sky with our naked eyes D. roughly (within a factor of 10) the same as the number of stars in our galaxy

D. roughly (within a factor of 10) the same as the number of stars in our galaxy

Which of the following is smallest? A. 1 AU B. 1 light-second C. size of a typical star D. size of a typical planet

D. size of a typical planet

The tides on Earth are an example of A. Newton's first law of motion. B. Newton's second law of motion. C. Newton's third law of motion. D. the universal law of gravitation. E. none of the above

D. the universal law of gravitation.

Which of the following statements about scientific models is true? A. All models that explain nature well are correct. B. A model tries to represent only one aspect of nature. C. A model tries to represent all aspects of nature. D. All current models are correct. E. A model can be used to explain and predict real phenomena.

E. A model can be used to explain and predict real phenomena.

If traveling at the speed of light, approximately how far could you travel in one second? A. To the sun B. Infinitely far C. From New York to Los Angeles D. All the way around the earth E. Approximately seven times around the earth

E. Approximately seven times around the earth

What makes the North Star, Polaris, special? A. It is the brightest star in the sky. B. t is the star straight overhead. C. It is the star directly on your northern horizon. D. It can be used to determine your longitude on Earth. E. It appears very near the north celestial pole.

E. It appears very near the north celestial pole.

He discovered that the orbits of planets are ellipses. A. Galileo B. Ptolemy C. Tycho Brahe D. Copernicus E. Kepler

E. Kepler

The Earth is instantly replaced in its orbit by a speck of dust. Which statement best describes the subsequent orbital motion of that piece of dust? A. The dust particle will be ejected from the Solar System. B. The dust particle will move to a larger orbit and orbit the Sun in more than 1 year. C. The dust particle will spiral into the Sun. D. The dust particle will move to a smaller orbit and orbit the Sun in less than 1 year. E. The dust particle will continue in the same orbit as the Earth did, orbiting the Sun in 1 year.

E. The dust particle will continue in the same orbit as the Earth did, orbiting the Sun in 1 year.

On the scale of the cosmic calendar, in which the history of the universe is compressed to 1 year, how long has human civilization (i.e., since ancient Egypt) existed? A. a few hours B. less than a millionth of a second C. about a month D. about half the year E. a few seconds

E. a few seconds

Galileo observed which of the following phases of Venus? A. full B. crescent C. new D. gibbous E. all of the above

E. all of the above

On a cosmic calendar, in which the history of the universe is compressed into 1 year, when did the dinosaurs become extinct? A. in late October B. in late September C. in late November D. in late August E. in late December

E. in late December

At approximately what time would a full moon be on your meridian? A. 6 A.M. B. 9 A.M. C. 6 P.M. D. noon E. midnight

E. midnight

True or False: A lunar eclipse occurs only when the Moon is new.

False

True or False: Columbus was the first person to discover that Earth is round.

False

True or False: Earth is always precisely 1 AU from the Sun

False

True or False: Kepler deduced his laws of planetary motion once Newton had published his universal law of gravitation.

False

True or False: The Moon and Sun are approximately the same physical size.

False

True or False: The Ptolemaic model of the solar system was useless for predicting planetary positions.

False

True or False: The solar system contains about 250 billion stars.

False

True or False: There is no gravity in space.

False

True or False: When energy is converted from one form to another, a tiny amount is inevitably lost.

False

True or False: One light-year is about 10 trillion kilometers.

True

True or False: A solar eclipse occurs only when the Moon is new.

True

True or False: The Moon and the Sun are approximately the same angular size.

True

True or False: The Moon is constantly falling toward Earth.

True

True or False: The solar system is a member of a galaxy containing approximately 250 billion stars.

True


Ensembles d'études connexes

Mark 3000 Ch 14, MARK 3000 CH 12, MARK 3000 CH 11, Mark 3000 Ch 10

View Set

Q3 Comma Splices and Fused Sentences

View Set

1.1 Imperfect Tense Spanish Quiz

View Set

ID 2 - Fungal Infections O'Donnell

View Set

CSCE 101 Possible Quiz 4 Questions

View Set