CAPM Quiz Questions Compiled

How many project management process belong to the Closing Process Group?

1

What are the 4 inputs of developing project charter?

1) Agreements 2) OPAs 3) EEFs 4) Business Documents

What are the 5 categories of interpersonal and team skills you need to interact with stakeholders effectively?

1) Conflict management 2) Cultural awareness 3) Negotiation 4) Observation/conversation 5) Political awareness

What are the 4 tools and techniques of develop project charter?

1) Interpersonal and team skills 2) Meetings 3) Expert judgement 4) Data gathering

What are the 10 outputs of plan procurement management?

1) OPAs updates 2) Project document updates 3) Procurement SOW 4) Procurement management plan 5) Source selection criteria 6) Make-or-buy decision 7) Procurement strategy 8) Change requests 9) Bid documents 10) Independent cost estimate

What are the 2 outputs of develop project charter?

1) Project charter 2) Assumptions log

How many project management processes belong to the Executing Process Group?

10

How many project management processes belong to the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group?

12

An activity's expected duration is 30 days, its most likely duration is 30 days and its pessimistic duration is 45 days. Using three-point estimating, how many days is the optimistic duration? a) 30 b) 10 c) 12 d) 15

15

An activity in a project network has the following characteristics: ES = 5 weeks, EF = 10 weeks, and LF = 14 weeks, Therefore, LS = a) 10 weeks b) 9 weeks c) 11 weeks d) 12 weeks

9 weeks

Which is the following definition of RACI chart? a) A bar chart showing the amount of time that a resource is scheduled to work over a series of time periods b) An organizational chart that shows functional relationships between resources c) A common type of responsibility assignment matrix to define the involvement of stakeholders in project activities d) A calendar that identifies the working days and shifts upon which each specific resource is available

A common type of responsibility assignment matrix to define the involvement of stakeholders in project activities

In many projects, negotiation is: a) A direct result of ineffective decision making b) Primarily the concern of the contract administration c) Conducted by senior executives to increase the probability of project success d) A discussion aimed at reaching an agreement

A discussion aimed at reaching an agreement

A change control board (CCB) is: a) A dashboard that provides integrated information to help control changes to cost, schedule, and specification throughout the life of the project b) A formal or informal group of stakeholders that has oversight of project execution c) A formally chartered group of stakeholders responsible for ensuring that only a minimal amount of changes occurs on the project d) A formally chartered group responsible for reviewing, evaluating, approving, deferring, or rejecting changes to the project, and for recording and communicating such decisions

A formally chartered group responsible for reviewing, evaluating, approving, deferring, or rejecting changes to the project, and for recording and communicating such decisions

Which of the following statements describes the WBS? a) A hierarchical decomposition of the total scope of work to be carried out by the project team b) A chart depicting scope and schedule of the work to be carried out by the project team c) A list of project documents required to complete work carried out by the project team d) A matrix of project activities to be carried out by the project team

A hierarchical decomposition of the total scope of work to be carried out by the project team

What do affinity diagrams allow to be classified into groups for review and analysis? a) A set of deliverables b) A select group of concepts c) A large number of ideas d) A group of quality grades

A large number of ideas

The perform qualitative risk analysis process assesses the priority of identified risks using all of the following EXCEPT: a) Relative probability or likelihood of occurrence of identified risks b) Risk perceptions and biases c) Impact on project objectives if the identified risks occur d) A mathematical technique, such as the expected monetary value (EMV), to create the impression of precision and accuracy

A mathematical technique, such as the expected monetary value (EMV), to create the impression of precision and accuracy

Which of the following best describes benchmarking? a) A financial analysis tool used to estimate the strengths and weaknesses of alternatives b) A workflow branching model used to associate steps in a process c) A diagrammatic method used to visually organize information d) A process that involves comparing actual or planned project practices to those of comparable projects

A process that involves comparing actual or planned project practices to those of comparable projects

The project schedule is a result of the project management team selecting and creating which of the following? a) A scheduling software, data sets, and analytical tools b) A scheduling model, sequencing activities and data analytics c) A scheduling method, project-specific data, and a schedule model d) A scheduling tool, resource costs and deliverable date

A scheduling method, project-specific data, and a schedule model

Which of the following is the best definition of a quality audit? a) A structured, independent process to determine if project activities comply with organizational and project policies, processes and procedures b) A description of a project or product attribute and how to measure it c) A document that includes quality management issues, recommendations for corrective actions and a summary of findings from quality control activities d) Establishes the basic principles that should govern the organization's actions as it implements its system for quality management

A structured, independent process to determine if project activities comply with organizational and project policies, processes and procedures

The detailed project scope statement includes which of the following? a) Business case b) Leads and lags c) Assumptions d) Acceptance criteria

Acceptance Criteria

Which of the following are deliverables that are formally signed off and approved by the authorized stakeholder? a) Verified deliverables b) Endorsed deliverables c) Authorized deliverables d) Accepted deliverables

Accepted deliverables

Which of the following is NOT an output of the Control Scope process? a) Project document updates b) Accepted deliverables c) Work performance information d) Change requests

Accepted deliverables

Which of the following is an output for the Validate Scope process? a) Approved change requests b) Validated deliverables c) Scope baseline d) Accepted deliverables

Accepted deliverables

General techniques for resolving conflict include: a) Withdraw, elaborate b) Smooth, compromise c) Accommodate, smooth d) Accept, separate

Accommodate, smooth

Tools and techniques to acquire resources include all of the following EXCEPT: a) Acquisition b) Decision making c) Pre-assignment d) Interpersonal and team skills

Acquisition

When using earned value management, the performance measurement baseline is compared to what result to determine if a change, corrective action, or preventative action is necessary? a) Forecasted results b) Budgeted results c) Resource results d) Actual results

Actual results

What is a project life cycle that is agile, iterative or incremental? a) Predictive life cycle b) Waterfall c) Progressive development d) Adaptive life cycle

Adaptive life cycle

The implement risk responses process ensures that agreed-upon risk responses are executed as planned in order to do what? a) Respond to overall project risk by analyzing the high-level outcomes of the project b) Respond to individual project risk by taking advantage of only opportunities c) Minimize overall project risk exposure, avoid individual project threats and control individual project opportunities d) Address overall project risk exposure, minimize individual project threats and maximize individual project opportunities

Address overall project risk exposure, minimize individual project threats and maximize individual project opportunities

All of the following statements related to advertising are part of the Conduct Procurements process EXCEPT: a) Advertisements in general circulation publications and using online resources can cause public pressure, resulting in bid disputes b) Some government jurisdictions require public advertising of certain types of procurement items c) Advertisements can be placed in general circulation publications such as selected newspapers or in specialty trade publications d) Advertising can often be used to expand existing lists of potential sellers

Advertisements in general circulation publications and using online resources can cause public pressure, resulting in bid disputes

Which of the following identifies any document or communication that defines the initial intentions of a project? a) Acceptance b) Deliverable c) Agreement d) Requirement

Agreement

What is the purpose of the Initiating Process group? a) Develop and complete the preliminary documentation that the project may commence b) Begin all components of the project management plan so that they may be completed as project work is carried out c) Complete the procurement and stakeholder management plans so that the project is officially authorized d) Align the stakeholders' expectations and the project purpose, inform stakeholders of the scope and objectives and discuss how their participation in the project and its associated phases can help to ensure their expectations are met

Align the stakeholders' expectations and the project purpose, inform stakeholders of the scope and objectives and discuss how their participation in the project and its associated phases can help to ensure their expectations are met

Project cost control includes all of the following EXCEPT: a) Allocating the overall estimates to individual work packages to establish a cost baseline b) Influence the factors that create changes to the authorized cost baseline c) Informing appropriate stakeholders of all approved changes and associated cost d) Monitoring cost performance to isolate and understand variances from the approved cost baseline

Allocating the overall estimates to individual work packages to establish a cost baseline

Which of the following is a tool and technique to the Plan Schedule Management process? a) Alternative analysis b) Variance analysis c) Reserve analysis d) Trend analysis

Alternative analysis

What is a tool and technique of plan scope management? a) Alternatives analysis b) Process analysis c) Trend analysis d) What-if scenario analysis

Alternatives analysis

Which of the following is an input to control quality? a) PERT chart b) Approved change requests c) Issue log d) Risk register

Approved change requests

Which of the following are used to describe the scope baseline? a) Scope statement, WBS and sum of the products b) Project scope statement, WBS, work package, planning package and WBS dictionary c) Approved version of the scope statement, WBS and it's associated WBS dictionary d) WBS, product requirements and backlogs

Approved version of the scope statement, WBS and it's associated WBS dictionary

How is the cost baseline developed? a) As a result of the management reserve minus the total budget b) By totaling the resource costs, technology costs and management costs c) As a summation of the approved budgets for the different schedule activities d) By creating an all-encompassing list of actual cost expenditures

As a summation of the approved budgets for the different schedule activities

To increase the changes of achieving project success, the project manager should do all of the following EXCEPT: a) Identify the stakeholders early in the project or phase b) Analyze the stakeholders' levels of interest and individual expectations as well as their important and influence c) Communicate and work with stakeholders to meet their needs/expectations d) As much as possible, create conflicts among various stakeholders to allow the project team to get optimal work done

As much as possible, create conflicts among various stakeholders to allow the project team to get optimal work done

To increase the chances of success, when should the process of stakeholder identification and engagement commence? a) During the creation of the project management plan b) Before the project charter has been approved c) As soon as possible after the project charter has been approved d) After the scope baseline has been established

As soon as possible after the project charter has been approved

Dawn is a PM in a successful product launch in Silicon Valley. She often comes across factors in the planning process that are considered to be true, real, or certain, without proof or demonstration. These are called: a) Dependencies b) Constraints c) Assumptions d) Leads and lags

Assumptions

Which of the following is a structured independent process used to determine if project activities comply with organizational and project policies and procedures? a) Interviews b) Surveys c) Regulatory compliance d) Audits

Audits

What is the right to apply project resources, expend funds, make decisions or give approvals? a) Management b) Authority c) Rights d) Permissions

Authority

Which of the following are techniques for resolving conflict? a) Accept, smooth, direct, collaborate and collocate b) Accommodate, reconcile, attack, separate and smooth c) Avoid, accommodate, reconcile, direct and problem solve d) Avoid, force, smooth, collocate and attack

Avoid, accommodate, reconcile, direct and problem solve

Which of the following are some strategies used to deal with project negative risks? a) Interpret, avoid and transfer b) Enhance, exploit and reject c) Avoid, escalate and accept d) Transfer, interpret and reject

Avoid, escalate and accept

Manage stakeholder engagement involves all of the following activties EXCEPT: a) Avoiding potential concerns that have not yet become issues b) Managing stakeholders' expectations through negotiation and communication c) Anticipating future problems that may be raised by stakeholders d) Clarifying and resolving issues that have been identified

Avoiding potential concerns that have not yet become issues

For projects, what is the supporting documentation that can be used to support the details used in establishing project estimates and may include assumptions, constraints, level of detail, ranges and confidence levels? a) Resource estimates b) Basis of estimates c) Duration estimates d) Cost estimates

Basis of estimates

What is an output of the Estimates Cost process? a) Cost of quality b) Scope baseline c) Expert judgement d) Basis of estimates

Basis of estimates

All of the following are true about projects and operations EXCEPT: a) Because of their temporary nature, projects cannot help achieve an organization's long-term goals b) Operations are ongoing endeavors that produce repetitive outputs, whereas projects are temporary endeavors c) At each point (in which projects can intersect with operations), deliverable and knowledge are transferred between the project and operations for implementation of delivered work d) Projects require project management activities and skill sets, whereas operations require business process management, operations management activities and skill sets

Because of their temporary nature, projects cannot help achieve an organization's long-term goals

Which of the following involves comparing actual or planned project practices to those of comparable projects to identify best practices, generate ideas for improvement, and provide a basis for measuring performance? a) PERT chart b) Benchmarking c) Matrix diagrams d) Cost-benefit analysis

Benchmarking

All of the following are tools and techniques of the Conduct Procurements process EXCEPT: a) Expert judgement b) Interpersonal and team skills c) Bid gathering analysis d) Bidder conferences

Bid gathering analysis

Which of the following is a tool and technique of the conduct procurements process? a) Seller proposals b) Audits c) Bidder conferences d) Claims administration

Bidder conferences

Requirement-related activities are the responsibility of which role within the Project Scope Management Knowledge Area? a) Business owner b) Business analyst c) Project specialist d) Project sponsor

Business analyst

Agile scope planning is especially useful when: a) Business requirements are not stable b) Quality requirements are not stable c) Solution requirements are emerging all the time d) Scope is well understood at the beginning

Business requirements are not stable

Which of the following is a process whereby modifications to documents, deliverables or baselines associated with the project are identified, documented, approved or rejected? a) Revision control b) Project management plan updates c) Document updates d) Change control

Change control

Which of the following describes a comprehensive list of changes submitted during the project and their current status? a) Change log b) Change treatment c) Revision list d) Activity changes

Change log

What is a formal proposal to modify a document, deliverable or baseline? a) Change proposal b) Revision request c) Modification bid d) Change request

Change request

What output is part of the Control Scope process? a) Requirements management plan b) Work performance data c) Change requests d) Project scope statement

Change requests

Which of the following is an output of the Control Scope process? a) Configuration management plan b) Change requests c) Trend analysis d) Organizational process assets

Change requests

Which of the following is an output to the Define Activities process? a) Schedule network diagram b) Change requests c) Duration estimates d) Project schedule

Change requests

Which of the following are outputs of the Plan Risk Responses process? a) Risk register and risk report b) Work performance information, and organizational process assets updates c) Risk management plan and risk register d) Change requests, project management plan updates, and project documents updates

Change requests, project management plan updates, and project documents updates

Which of the following are documented, processed, monitored and managed throughout the contract life cycle, usually in accordance with the terms of the contract? a) Appeals b) Claims c) Mediation d) Disputes

Claims

Which of the following project management processes belongs to the Closing Process Group? a) Implement Risk Responses b) Define activities c) Close project or phase d) Control quality

Close project or phase

Which of the following activities are necessary for the administrative closure of the project or phase? a) Collecting any suggestions for improving or updating the policies and procedures of the organization and sending them to the appropriate organizational unit b) Assuring benefits realization from the program and component projects c) Resolving constraints and conflicts that affect multiple projects within the program d) Prioritizing the work on the project to ensure the project resources are allocated to the appropriate work at the appropriate time

Collecting any suggestions for improving or updating the policies and procedures of the organization and sending them to the appropriate organizational unit

Customer satisfaction requires a combination of which of the following? a) Fitness for use and stakeholder teamwork b) Combination of conformance to requirements and fitness for use c) Sponsor participation and on time schedule d) Strict adherence to requirements and stakeholder teamwork

Combination of conformance to requirements and fitness for use

To communicate effectively, the project manager should do which of the following? a) Communicate with only the sponsor and allow the message to be internally disseminated b) Calculate the possible feedback channels c) Calculate the potential number of communication channels d) Communicate predictably and consistently

Communicate predictably and consistently

Which of the following is a technique of the plan communications management process that determines the information needs of the project stakeholder? a) PMIS b) Communication requirements analysis c) Communication requirements technology d) Information management system

Communication requirements analysis

Which of the following is an output of the plan communication management process and a component of the project management plan that describes how project communications will be planned, structured, implemented, and monitored for effectiveness? a) Benefits management plan b) Communications management plan c) Stakeholder engagement plan d) Scope management plan

Communications management plan

Benchmarking involves comparing actual or planned project practices to those of comparable projects with all the following characteristics EXCEPT: a) To provide a basis for measuring performance b) Comparing practices only within the same application area c) Comparing practices within the performning organization or outside of it d) To identify best practices and generate ideas for improvement

Comparing practices only within the same application area

Which of the following are examples of tacit knowledge? a) Records b) Data c) Competence d) Files

Competence

Personality refers to the individual differences in characteristic patterns of thinking, feeling, and behaving. Which of the following are the least appropriate characteristics for project management? a) Authentic, courteous, creative, cultural and emotional b) Authentic, managerial, service-oriented, social and system c) Complexity, courteous, intellectual, cultural and managerial d) Intellectual, managerial, political, service-oriented, and social

Complexity, courteous, intellectual, cultural and managerial

The following are all key differences between management and leadership EXCEPT: a) Concentrate on project activities vs emphasis on results b) Accept status quo vs challenge status quo c) Direct vs influencing d) Focus on systems vs focus on relationships

Concentrate on project activities vs emphasis on results

Communication activities have many potential dimensions that generally include all of the following EXCEPT: a) Formal and informal b) Conceptual and definitive c) Written, oral and nonverbal d) Internal and external

Conceptual and definitive

Which of the following options is not an output of the monitor stakeholder engagement process? a) Communications management plan b) Stakeholder engagement plan c) Resource management plan d) Configuration management plan

Configuration management plan

As part of the communications model, the sender is responsible for: a) Decoding the medium correctly b) Ensuring that the receiver agrees with the message c) Presenting the information in the most favorable manner d) Confirming that the communication is correctly understood

Confirming that the communication is correctly understood

What is calculated using a percentage of the estimated activity duration or fixed number of work periods? a) Management reserve b) Beta distribution c) Contingency reserve d) Triangular distribution

Contingency reserve

As the project manager, which of the following is your responsibility as part of the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group? a) Continuously monitor the work being completed b) Ensure stakeholder needs are being met in relation with the approved scope c) Build team cohesiveness and relationships to both external and internal stakeholders d) Integrate the various parts of the project work into a cohesive whole

Continuously monitor work being compeleted

Which of the following is the process of monitoring the status of the project to update the project schedule and manage changes to the schedule? a) Control schedule b) Develop schedule c) Sequence activities d) Define activities

Control schedule

Outputs from the Plan Risk Responses process include all of the following EXCEPT: a) Change requests b) Corrective actions c) Project document updates d) Project management plan updates

Corrective actions

All of the following are inputs to the Control Schedule process, EXCEPT: a) Scope baseline b) Performance measurement baseline c) Schedule baseline d) Cost baseline

Cost baseline

What describes the approved version of the time-phased project budget, excluding any management reserves which can be changed only through formal change control procedures and is used as a basis for comparison to actual results? a) Resource baseline b) Schedule baseline c) Cost baseline d) Budget baseline

Cost baseline

Which of the following most accurately describes the quantitative assessments of the probable costs required to complete project work, as well as contingency amounts to account for identified risks and management reserve to cover unplanned work? a) Duration estimates b) Budget estimates c) Parametric estimates d) Cost estimates

Cost estimates

Subsidiary management plan components include Scope Management Plan and which of the following? a) Vendor management plan b) Sponsor management plan c) Budget management plan d) Cost management plan

Cost management plan

Which of the following outputs is generated as a result of conducting the Plan Cost Management process? a) Deliverables b) Organizational Process Asset Updates c) Change requests d) Cost management plan

Cost management plan

Which cost-reimbursable contract provides the seller reimbursement for all allowable costs for performing the contract work and a fixed-fee payment calculated as a percentage of the initial estimated project cost? a) Cost plus incentive fee b) Cost plus fixed fee c) Cost plus award fee d) Cost plus time and materials fee

Cost plus fixed fee

Training has all of the following characteristics EXCEPT: a) Costs associated with training should never be included in the project budget as added skills will be used beyond one project b) It includes all activities designed to enhance the competencies of the project team members c) If project team members lack the necessary management or technical skills, such skills can be developed as part of the project work d) It can be formal or informal. Examples of training methods include classroom, online, computer-based, on-the-job training from another project team member, mentoring and coaching

Costs associated with training should never be included in the project budget as added skills will be used beyond one project

Any activity on the critical path in a project schedule describes which of the following: a) Critical path activity b) Negative slack activity c) Critical chain activity d) Positive slack activity

Critical path activity

What tool or technique is used in the Monitor and Control Project Work process? a) Work performance trends b) Schedule compression c) Data analysis d) Facilitation techniques

Data analysis

Which of the following is a tool and technique of the Perform Integrated Change Control process? a) Data analysis b) Stakeholder register c) Project management information system d) Virtual teams

Data analysis

Which of the following is the LARGEST part among the four of the project manager's role? a) Dealing with people b) Adhering to the schedule c) Developing skills and abilities d) Operating within budget

Dealing with people

Which of the following are tools and techniques used in the acquire resources process? a) Project documents b) Decision making c) Resource breakdown structure d) Resource calendars

Decision making

Which of the following tools and techniques are included in the monitor stakeholder engagement process? a) Decision making b) Agreements c) Expert judgment d) Inspection

Decision making

What tasks should be part of the scope management plan? a) Define a strategy for handling scope change requests and create a WBS b) Create a project schedule an develop a plan to ensure that project deliverables are complete c) Prepare for performance measurement and identify detailed control thresholds d) Define stakeholder communication requirements and decide upon contract types

Define a strategy for handling scope change requests and create a WBS

Which of the following is the process of identifying and documenting the specific actions to be performed to produce the project deliverables? a) Control activities b) Estimate activity durations c) Define activities d) Sequence activities

Define activities

What is the key benefit of the Planning Process Group? a) Illustrates the final project deliverables b) Defines the course of action to successfully complete the project or phase c) Generates the project charter d) Dictates which stakeholders will be involved with the project and at what capacity

Defines the course of action to successfully complete the project or phase

In the Define Activities process, what does decomposition accomplish? a) Allows precise planning by sorting the workload b) Organizes work activities by schedule constraints c) Identifies planning-related policies and procedures d) Defines the outputs as activities rather than deliverables

Defines the outputs as activities rather than deliverables

What is an output of the Direct and Manage Project Work process? a) Team charter b) Deliverables c) Requirements traceability matrix d) Statement of work

Deliverables

Which of the following are examples of source selection criteria? a) Relevant experience and vendor costs b) Delivery dates and financial stability c) Transportation organization and delivery resource d) Vendor recommendations and scheduled milestones

Delivery dates and financial stability

When managing a global project, you are likely to consult the WBS dictionary to find: a) SWOT of key stakeholders and their impact on the WBS b) Information relating the legal constraints of relevant international locations to the development of the WBS c) The language translation of technical terms used in the project d) Detailed deliverable, activity and scheduling information about each component in the WBS

Detailed deliverable, activity and scheduling information about each component in the WBS

Which of the following represents processes concerned with establish and controlling the cost baseline? a) Plan Resource Management and Control Costs b) Plan Resource Management, Cost Estimating and Cost Control c) Determine Budget and Control Costs d) Estimate Costs, Develop Budget, and Adhere to Baseline

Determine Budget and Control Costs Estimate Costs, Develop Budget, and Adhere to Baseline

The main purpose of control charts is to: a) Determine whether or not a process is stable or has a predictable performance b) Illustrate control limits that fit with sponsor requirements c) Illustrate how various factors might be linked to potential problems d) Determine root cause analysis

Determine whether or not a process is stable or has a predictable performance

Which of the following describes project tailoring? a) A partially complete document in a predefined format that provides a defined structure for collecting, organizing, and presenting information and data b) A component of the resource management plan that describes when and how team members will be acquired and how long they will be needed c) Project documents that describe the activities used to determine if the product meets the quality objectives stated in the quality management plan d) Determining the appropriate combination of processes, inputs, tools, techniques, outputs and life cycle phases to manage a project

Determining the appropriate combination of processes, inputs, tools, techniques, outputs and life cycle phases to manage a project

Which of the following BEST describes the Collect Requirements process? a) Determining, documenting and managing client needs and requirements to meet objectives b) Determining, documenting and managing stakeholder needs and requirements to meet objectives c) Determining, document and managing customer needs and requirements to meet objectives d) Determining, document and managing sponsor needs and requirements to meet objectives

Determining, documenting and managing stakeholder needs and requirements to meet objectives

Which of the following processes is included in Project Integration Management? a) Develop PM Plan, Perform Integrated Change Control, Close Project or Phase b) Monitor and Controls Project Work, Monitor and Validate Project Work, Close Project or Phase c) Develop Project Work, Direct and Manage Project Work, Integrate Change Controls d) Manage Project Knowledge, Monitor Project Charter, Develop Project Management Plan

Develop PM Plan, Perform Integrated Change Control, Close Project or Phase

Agreements are an input to which project integration management process? a) Develop project management plan b) Direct and manage project work c) Develop project charter d) Perform integrated change control

Develop project charter

Which of the processes is included in project integration management? a) Approve change requests b) Facilitate meeting management c) Control issue and defect management d) Develop project charter

Develop project charter

Which two project management processes belong to the Initiating Process Group? a) Identify stakeholders and define scope b) Develop project charter and define scope c) Develop project charter and identify stakeholders d) Define scope and estimate costs

Develop project charter and identify stakeholders

Which of the following is the process of analyzing activity sequences, durations, resource requirements and schedule constraints to create the project schedule module for project execution and monitoring and controlling? a) Control schedule b) Develop schedule c) Estimate activity durations d) Plan schedule management

Develop schedule

Which of the following is the process of analyzing activity sequences, durations, resource requirements, and schedule constraints to create the project schedule module for project execution and monitoring and controlling? a) Estimate activity durations b) Develop schedule c) Plan schedule management d) Control schedule

Develop schedule

Which of the following best describes how risk checklists are developed? a) Developed based on interviews and brainstorming conducted by the project manager b) Developed based on the project's budget and schedule c) Developed based on historical information and knowledge that has been accumulated from similar projects d) Developed based on input from experts, stakeholders and sponsors

Developed based on historical information and knowledge that has been accumulated from similar projects

What does the Develop Project Charter process entail? a) Developing an approach allows the PM to socialize the project with internal and external stakeholders b) Developing a document that formally authorizes the existence of a project and provides the PM with the authority to apply organizational resources to project activities c) Developing an agreement between the PM and the organization that formally authorizes the PM to utilize the budget as state in the project management plan d) Developing a strategy that formally authorizes how the project will be carried out and provides the stakeholders with authority to apply their input to project activities

Developing a document that formally authorizes the existence of a project and provides the PM with the authority to apply organizational resources to project activities

Which of the following best describes the first part of project communications management? a) Assessing the effectiveness of completed communication activities b) Developing a strategy to ensure communication is effective for stakeholders c) Carrying out activities necessary to implement the communication strategy d) Delivering the project communications plan to team members

Developing a strategy to ensure communication is effective for stakeholders

What process involves leading and performing the work defined in the project management plan and implementing approved changes to achieve the project's objectives? a) Monitor and Control Project Work b) Direct and Manage Project Work c) Performan Integrated Change Control d) Develop Project Management Plan

Direct and Manage Project Work

Which of the following project management processes do NOT belong to the Monitoring and Controlling Process Groups? a) Monitor communications b) Direct and manage project work c) Control procurements d) Control quality

Direct and manage project work

Which of the following describes a key difference between management and leadership? a) Directing vs Influencing b) Focus on bottom line vs accepting status quo c) Maintain vs administrate administer d) Focus on relationships vs focus on long-range vision

Directing vs influencing

All of the following are outputs to Close Project or Phase EXCEPT: a) Organizational process asset updates b) Final product, service or result transition c) Project documents updates d) EEF updates

EEF updates

What is an input to the Develop Project Management Plan process? a) Stakeholder management plan b) Project statement of work (SOW) c) Requirements management plan d) Enterprise environmental factors (EEFs)

EEFs

In earned value management, the cost variance is equal to: a) EV minus PV b) AC minus EV c) EV minus AC d) PV minus EV

EV minus AC

Which of the following is true about the WBS: a) Each descending level of the WBS represents an increasingly detailed definition of the project work b) Work not in the WBS is usually defined in the scope statement of the project c) The WBS shows only the critical path activities d) The WBS is another term for the bar (Gantt) chart

Each descending level of the WBS represents an increasingly detailed definition of the project work

Why is project tailoring necessary? a) Each project is unique b) resources have different skills and competencies c) Projects take a long time to complete d) Projects are expensive

Each project is unique

The communications management plan usually contains all of the following EXCEPT: a) Email archives, correspondence, reports and documents related to the project from all stakeholders b) Methods or technologies used to convey the information, such as memos, email, and/or press releases c) Information to be communicated, including language, format, content and level of detail d) Time frame and frequency for the distribution of required information and receipt of acknowledgement or management, if applicable

Email archives, correspondence, reports and documents related to the project from all stakeholders

What strategy for risks or positive opportunities is used to increase the probability and/or positive impact of an opportunity? a) Propagate b) Enhance c) Accept d) Share

Enhance

What is the prupose of a preventative action change request? a) Ensure the future performance of the project work is aligned with the project management plan b) Realign the performance of the project work with the project management plan c) Modify the nonconforming product or product component d) Adjust the performance of a product or product component

Ensure the future performance of the project work is aligned with the project management plan

To be effective, recognition and rewards systems should have the following characteristics EXCEPT: a) Ensure the the required performance for rewards is unachievable for most team members so that all team members strive for excellence b) Consider cultural differences when determining recognition and rewards c) Provide throughout the life cycle of the project rather than waiting until the project is completed d) Recognize and reward desirable behavior

Ensure the the required performance for rewards is unachievable for most team members so that all team members strive for excellence

Which of the following describes why a responsible, accountable, consult and inform (RACI) chart is a useful tool? a) Ensures a clear assignment of roles and responsibilities when the team consists of internal and external resources b) Identifies the working days and shifts upon which each specific resource is available c) Provides all team members with a hierarchical representation of resource by category and type d) Shows the sponsor the amount of time that a resource is scheduled to work over a series of time periods

Ensures a clear assignment of roles and responsibilities when the team consists of internal and external resources

Which of the following is LEAST likely to be a project manager role? a) Ensuring that organizations are operationally aligned with financial objectives b) Consulting with business leaders on advancing strategic objectives c) Assisting in business analysis, business case development, and aspects of portfolio management for a project d) Evaluation and analysis of project-related activities prior to project initiation

Ensuring that organizations are operationally aligned with financial objectives

Monitor communications is the process of: a) Securing and guarding any negative information related to project performance throughout the entire project life cycle to ensure that the project team can continue working on the project with minimal disruption b) Ensuring that the information needs of the project stakeholders are met throughout the entire project life cycle c) Providing all project information to all stakeholders to enhance full buy-in regarding project requirements d) Ensuring that information is provided on a need-to-know basis only to avoid unnecessary confusion and possible conflicts

Ensuring that the information needs of the project stakeholders are met throughout the entire project life cycle

All of the following are part of the project performance summary in the final report EXCEPT: a) Scope objectives, the criteria used to evaluate the scope and evidence that the completion criteria were met b) Quality objectives, the criteria used to evaluate the project and product quality c) Environmental objectives, the criteria used to evaluate the impact of the project on both internal and external organizations d) Cost objectives, the criteria used to evaluate the accepted cost range, actual costs, and reasons for any variances

Environmental objectives, the criteria used to evaluate the impact of the project on both internal and external organizations

Determining the approximate monetary resources required to complete project activities is the purpose of what Project Cost Management process? a) Determine budget b) Control costs c) Plan cost management d) Estimate costs

Estimate costs

Which of the following should be considered when tailoring processes for Project Cost Management? a) Budgeting, knowledge management and risk mitigation b) Budgeting, continuous improvement and knowledge management c) Estimating, governance and continuous improvement d) Estimating, budgeting and governance

Estimating, budgeting and governance

Which of the following tasks are involved in project management? a) Estimating, financing and spending b) Financing, budgeting and allocating c) Estimating, budgeting, and financing d) Financing, allocating and spending

Estimating, budgeting, and financing

You are involved in collecting requirements for your project. You are likely to use the stakeholder register for all of the following EXCEPT: a) Identifying stakeholders who can provide information on the requirements b) Evaluating the product breakdown structure (PBS) associated with each of the key stakeholders c) Capturing major requirements that stakeholders may have for the project d) Capturing main expectations that stakeholders may have for the project

Evaluating the product breakdown structure (PBS) associated with each of the key stakeholders

Tools and techniques of the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process include: a) Checklists, damage control reports, standard allowances, and inspection b) Interviewing, historical results, workarounds, and Risk Analysis development c) Contracting, contingency planning, alternative strategies and insurance d) Expert judgement, data gathering, simulations and decision tree analysis

Expert judgement, data gathering, simulations and decision tree analysis

What tool or technique is used in the Develop Project Management Plan process? a) Expert judgment b) Data analysis c) Change control tools d) Analytical techniques

Expert judgment

What are the tools and techniques used in the Close Project of Phase process? a) Expert judgment, PMIS and meetings b) Expert judgment, data analysis, and meetings c) Inspections and audits, analytical techniques and variance analysis d) Meetings, inspections and audits and expert judgment

Expert judgment, data analysis, and meetings

Each of the following is true about Project Stakeholder Management EXCEPT: a) Some stakeholders may have a limited ability to influence the project's work or outcomes; others may have signification influence b) To increase the changes of success, stakeholder identification and engagement should commence as soon as possible after the project charter has been approved c) The ability of the project manager and team to correctly identify and engage all stakeholders can mean the difference between project success and failure d) Failure to manage and control physical resources effectively may reduce the chance of completing the project successfully

Failure to manage and control physical resources effectively may reduce the chance of completing the project successfully

Which of the following are communication techniques that can be used for the manage communications process? a) Email, fax, and web conferencing b) Social media, feedback and email c) Nonverbal, web conferencing and social media d) Feedback, nonverbal and presentations

Feedback, nonverbal and presentations

All of the following are primary benefits of meeting quality requiremetns EXCEPT: a) Less rework b) Lower costs c) Higher productivity d) Fewer change orders

Fewer change orders

Which of the following is the most commonly used type of precedence relationships when using the PDM? a) Finish to finish b) Start to start c) Start to finish d) Finish to start

Finish to start

Which of the following contract types are used when the requirements are well defined and no significant changes to the scope are expected? a) Cost-reimbursement contracts b) Partnership contracts c) Fixed price contracts d) Time and material contracts

Fixed-price contracts

What is the name of a formally chartered group responsible for reviewing, evaluating, approving, deferring, or rejecting changes to the project, and for recording and communicating such decisions? a) Board of directors b) Change control board c) Focus group d) Nominal group

Focus group

Which of the following are dimensions of communication activities? a) Formal and informal b) Conceptual and definitive c) Printed and posted d) Positive and negative

Formal and informal

The buyer, usually through its authorized procurement administrator, provides the seller with BLANK as an output of the control procurements process: a) Formal written notice that the contract has been completed b) Informal notice of acceptance of the deliverables c) A copy of the internal notice of completion procided to senior management d) Letters of commendation to all project team members

Formal written notice that the contract has been completed

Team development stages include: a) Starting, organizing, preparing, executing and closing b) Forming, storming, norming, performing and adjourning c) Acquiring, managing, leading, decision making, and releasing d) Initiating, planning, executing, monitoring and controlling and closing

Forming, storming, norming, performing and adjourning

Which of the following resources ensure that the project receives the best resources possible in the required time frame and until their responsibilities are complete? a) Sellers b) Sponsors c) Functional managers d) Organizational groups

Functional managers

Examples of interpersonal skills that a project manager uses during Manage Stakeholder engagement include each of the following EXCEPT: a) Governance b) Political awareness c) Negotiation d) Conflict management

Governance

When tailoring processes for project schedule management, you should consider all of these EXCEPT: a) Life cycle approach b) Governance c) Technology support d) Project dimensions

Governance

Which of the following is LEAST likely to be within the project manager's sphere of influence? a) Customers b) Government c) Sponsors d) Project team

Government

The types of project management office (PMO) structures in organizations include all of the following EXCEPT: a) Harmonizing PMOs strive to reduce conflict and improve harmony among project team members b) Directive PMOs take control of the projects by directly managing the projects c) Supportive PMOs provide a consultative role to projects by supplying templates, best practices, training, access to information and lessons learned from other projects d) Controlling PMOs provide support and require compliance through various means

Harmonizing PMOs strive to reduce conflict and improve harmony among project team members

Which of the following best defines the cost management plan? a) How costs will be planned, structured, and controlled b) What tools will be used to control the project budget c) The cost of resource types and deliverables d) The best way to manage the project budget constraints

How costs will be planned, structured, and controlled

The configuration management plan describes: a) How information about the items of the project and which items will be recorded and updated so that the results of the project remain consistent b) How the change requests throughout the project will be formally authorized and incorporated c) The series of phases that a project passes through from its initiation to it's closure d) Points when the PM and relevant stakeholders will review project progress to determine the project is on track

How information about the items of the project and which items will be recorded and updated so that the results of the project remain consistent

The configuration management plan describes: a) How the change request throughout the project will be formally authorized and incorporated b) The series of phases that a project passes through from its initiation to closure c) Points when the project manager and relevant stakeholders will review project progress to determine if the project is on-track d) How information about the items of the project and which items will be recorded and updated so that the results of the project remain consistent

How information about the items of the project and which items will be recorded and updated so that the results of the project remain consistent

Which of the following describes the scope management plan? a) How the scope will be defined, developed, monitored, controlled and validated b) How the scope will be detailed, developed, monitored and validated c) How the scope will be classified, developed, monitored and validated d) How the scope will be identified, developed, monitored, controlled and validate

How the scope will be defined, developed, monitored, controlled and validated

Outputs from the estimate activity resources process include which of the following? a) Identification of the types and quantities of resources required for each activity in a work package b) Job descriptions of resources required for the project c) Salary schedules with various project resources d) Analogous estimates of resource requirements for each work package and each work period

Identification of the types and quantities of resources required for each activity in a work package

Constructive changes are: a) Postponed as long as possible to protect the budget b) Identified and documented by project correspondence c) Submitted for bids to relevant vendor list d) Viewed as negative, quantified and tabulated

Identified and documented by project correspondence Viewed as negative, quantified and tabulated

What is the purpose of the Standard of Project Management? a) Identifies the processes that are considered good practices on most projects, most of the time b) Compares various project management methodologies c) Describes the history of project management d) Provides specific instruction on how to tailor project management practices to your specific project

Identifies the processes that are considered good practices on most projects, most of the time

Agreements and procurement documentation are inputs to which process associated with project risk management? a) Monitor risks b) Identify risks c) Implement risk responses d) Plan risk responses

Identify risks

Which of the following project management processes do not belong to the Planning Process Group? a) Plan schedule management b) Identify stakeholders c) Estimate costs d) Define scope

Identify stakeholders

What is the main purpose of the stakeholder register? a) Identify stakeholders who can provide information on the requirements b) Identify stakeholders who evaluate the WBS c) Identify stakeholders who create the stakeholder engagement plan d) Identify decision making stakeholders

Identify stakeholders who can provide information on the requirements

Which of the following lists the steps - in order - used to resolve resource-related problems? a) Identify, inspect, analyze, investigate, repair and resolve b) Define, analyze, identify, repair, resolve c) Define, identify, analyze, solve, check d) Identify, define, investigate, analyze, solve, check

Identify, define, investigate, analyze, solve, check

Effective team development strategies and activities are expected to increase the team's performance, which increases the likelihood of meeting project objectives. The evaluation of a team's effectiveness may include all of the following indicators EXCEPT: a) Improvements in skills that allow individuals to perform assignments more effectively b) Improvements in the overall project performance as a result of increased intensity of conflict among project team members c) Improvements in competencies that help the team perform better as a unit d) Reduced staff turnover rate

Improvements in the overall project performance as a result of increased intensity of conflict among project team members

What are the objectives of the Project Risk Management Knowledge Area? a) Increase positive events and decrease negative events b) Increase neutral events and decrease negative events c) Decrease neutral events and increase positive events d) Decrease positive events and increase negative events

Increase positive events and decrease negative events

Which of the following is a tool or technique for the Validate Scope process? a) Variance analysis b) Product analysis c) Inspection d) Expert judgement

Inspection

Which of the following is a tool or technique used in the monitor communications process? a) Change requests b) Work performance info c) Issue log d) Interpersonal and team skills

Interpersonal and team skills

Which of the following tools and techniques are used in the Implement Risk Responses process? a) Data analysis b) Data gathering c) Interpersonal and team skills d) Meetings

Interpersonal and team skills

What tool or technique is used to obtain information from stakeholders by speaking with them directly? a) Brainstorming b) Focus groups c) Questionnaires and surveys d) Interviews

Interviews

As one of the tools and techniques of the Sequence Activities process, a lead: a) Means that the successor activity cannot start until after the predecessor is completed b) Could be accomplished by a finish-to-start relationship with a delay in time c) Directs a delay in the successor activity d) Is the amount of time whereby a successor activity can be started before the previous activity is completed

Is the amount of time whereby a successor activity can be started before the previous activity is completed

The control Schedule process for a project: a) Should focus primarily on activities that are difficult to carry out b) Focuses on starting the project earlier than scheduled to help mitigate schedule risk and to achieve the approved schedule baseline c) Is the process of monitoring the status of the project to update the project schedule and managing changes to the schedule baseline d) Is concerned mainly with activities that are on the critical path

Is the process of monitoring the status of the project to update the project schedule and managing changes to the schedule baseline

Which of the following are processes, policies and procedures for conducting project work during executing, monitoring and controlling? a) Issue and defect management procedures, and change control procedures b) Product and project life cycles, pre approved supplier lists and various types of contractual agreements c) Financial project audits and templates d) Traceability matrices and project closing guidelines

Issue and defect management procedures, and change control procedures

All of the following are inputs to the Implement Risk Responses processes EXCEPT: a) Organizational project assets b) Project management plan c) Project documents d) Issue log

Issue log

SWOT analysis has all of the following characteristics EXCEPT: a) Examines the project from each of the strengths, weaknesses, opportunities and threats perspectives to increase the breadth of identified risks by including internally generated risks b) It examines the degree to which organizational strengths offset threats, as well as identifies opportunities that may serve to overcome weaknesses c) It identifies any opportunities for the project that arise from organizational strengths, and any threats arising from organizational weaknesses d) It identifies strengths and weaknesses of the organization regardless of the specific project or the general business area

It identifies strengths and weaknesses of the organization regardless of the specific project or the general business area

All of the following are true about the project scope statement EXCEPT: a) It is an output of the Validate Scope process b) It describes, in detail, the project's deliverables and the work required to create those deliverables c) It provides a common understanding of the project scope among project stakeholders d) It may contain explicit scope exclusions that can assist in managing stakeholder expectations

It is an output of the Validate Scope process

The cost management plan has all of the following characteristics EXCEPT: a) It may specify the level of precision, which is the degree to which activity cost estimates will be rounded up and down b) It is based on project cost estimates and is separate from the project management plan c) It may specify variance thresholds for monitoring cost perfromance to indicate an agreed-upon amount of variation allowed before some action needs to be taken d) It describes how the project costs will be planned, structured and controlled

It is based on project cost estimates and is separate from the project management plan

How is the SOW for a procurement developed? a) It is developed by using work performance data necessary for project completion b) It is developed from the project management plan and outlines only costs above the contracted price c) It is developed by taking each component of the WBS, assigning a resource, and writing an amendment to the contract d) It is developed from the scope baseline and defines only that portion of the project scope that is to be included within the related contract

It is developed from the scope baseline and defines only that portion of the project scope that is to be included within the related contract

All of the following are true about the project scope management plan EXCEPT: a) It is not related to the project management plan b) It can be formal or informal, broadly framed or highly detailed, based on the needs of the project c) It describes how the scope will be defined, developed, monitored, controlled an validated d) It enables the creation of the WBS from the detailed project scope statement

It is not related to the project management plan

The plan stakeholder engagement process entails what? a) It is the process of developing approaches to involved project stakeholders based on their needs, expectations, interest and potential impact on the project b) It is the process of developing approached to communicated with project stakeholders based on their desire to participate c) It is the process of developing approached to involve project stakeholders based on their communication methods, physical location, and desire to participate d) It is the process of developing approaches to communicate with project stakeholders based on their abilities, physical location and languages

It is the process of developing approaches to involved project stakeholders based on their needs, expectations, interest and potential impact on the project

All of the following are characteristics of the project charter EXCEPT: a) It is used primarily to request bids for a project or a specific phase of a project b) It formally authorizes the existence of a project c) It provides the project manager with the authority to apply organizational resources to project activities d) It provides a direct link between the project and the strategic objectives of the organization

It is used primarily to request bids for a project or a specific phase of a project

Each of the following is true of project schedule management EXCEPT: a) It may require project managers to be familiar with sampling, including attribute sampling and variable sampling b) It should remain flexible throughout the project, if possible, to adjust for various factors like knowledge gained and value-added activities c) It is a detailed plan that represents how and when the project will deliver the products, services, and results defined in the project scope d) It is used as a tool for communication, managing stakeholder expectations, and basis for performance reporting

It may require project managers to be familiar with sampling, including attribute sampling and variable sampling

All of the following are true about conflict management EXCEPT: a) It should be addressed usually in private b) It is inevitable in a project environment and should be addressed early c) It should be addressed using a direct, collaborative approach d) It should be addressed only when it becomes disruptive and at an official team meeting

It should be addressed only when it becomes disruptive and at an official team meeting

The cost performance baseline has all of the following characteristics EXCEPT: a) It shows the actual cost expenditures throughout the project life cycle b) It is typically displayed in the form of an S-curve c) It is developed as a summation of the approved budgets for different schedule activities d) It is the approved version of the time-phased project budget, excluding any management reserves and is used as a basis for comparison with actual results

It shows the actual cost expenditures throughout the project life cycle

Which of the following are estimated for resources that are applied to the cost estimate? a) Technology, materials, and exchange rates b) Labor, materials and equipment c) Materials, exchange rates and time shortages d) Labor, time shortages and equipment

Labor, materials and equipment

Which of the following are types of project manager leadership styles? a) Charismatic and motivational b) Laissez-faire and charismatic c) Motivational and interactional d) Performance and suppressive

Laissez-faire and charismatic

Which of the following depicts the three key skill sets in the PMI Talent Triangle? a) Business management, communications management, and technical leadership b) Leadership, strategic and business management and technical project management c) Leadership, organizational resource management, and operational management d) Operational management, technical leadership, and strategic management

Leadership, strategic and business management and technical project management

Which of the following are primary benefits of meeting quality requirements? a) Less rework and lower costs b) Sponsor acceptance and on time schedule c) Lower costs and fewer change orders d) Higher productivity and fewer change orders

Less rework and lower costs

Which statement describes agile/adaptive environments? a) Less time is spent trying to establish a process for ongoing discovery and more time defining and agreeing on scope b) Equal time is spent trying to define and agree on scope while establishing ongoing discover c) Less time is spent trying to define and agree on scope and more time is spent of delivering process for its ongoing discovery d) No time is spent defining scope, all efforts are spent on establish ongoing discovery

Less time is spent trying to define and agree on scope and more time is spent of delivering process for its ongoing discovery

What are some key benefits of the Close Project or Phase process? a) The release of organizational resources and stakeholder approval b) Lessons learned and release of organizational resources c) Lessons learned and project document updates d) Project document updates and the release of the organizational resources

Lessons learned and release of organizational resources

Which document is used to improve the performance of the project and avoid repeating mistakes? a) Milestone list b) Risk register c) Lessons learned register d) Project schedule

Lessons learned register

All of the following Project Documents are inputs to Close Project or Phase EXCEPT: a) Requirements documentation, risk reports, and quality reports b) Lessons learned register, risk register and stakeholder register c) Milestone list, basis of estimates and quality control measurements d) Assumption log, change log and issue log

Lessons learned register, risk register and stakeholder register

What organizational process assets are updated as part of the Close Project or Phase process? a) Risk report b) Lessons learned repository c) Change log d) Business case

Lessons learned repository

Project Cost Management includes all of the following processes EXCEPT: a) Plan cost management b) Determine budget c) Control costs d) Level resources

Level resources

Which of the following are considerations for tailoring for project schedule management? a) Life cycle approach, resource availability, and project dimensions b) Knowledge management, resource requirements, and project deliverables c) Project durations, life cycle approach, and cost constraints d) Governance, resource constraints and project dimensions

Life cycle approach, resource availability, and project dimensions

On completion of the Identify risks process, which of the following would be included in the risk register? a) Analysis of threats and opportunities b) Corrective actions c) List of identified risks d) Qualified decision trees

List of identified risks

Which of the following is contained in the project scope statement? a) Cost estimates b) Process descriptions c) Major deliverables d) A summary budget

Major deliverables

Leveraging prior knowledge to improve outcomes and making knowledge created available for future projects is a key benefit of which of the following project integration management processes? a) Develop Project Management Plan b) Manage Project Knowledge c) Control Project Knowledge d) Develop Project Charter

Manage Project Knowledge

The process of implementing a set of planning and systematic acts and processes defined within the project's quality management plan is: a) Manage Quality b) Plan Quality Assurance c) Plan Quality Management d) Control Quality

Manage Quality

Updates to project documents such as schedule and cost forecasts, work performance reports, and the issue log are outputs of what process? a) Direct and Manage Project Work b) Monitor and Control Project Work c) Control Quality d) Plan Risk Responses

Manage and Control Project work

Which of the following processes helps to ensure that stakeholders clearly undersstand the project goals, objectives, benefits and risks for the project, as well as how their contribution will enhance project success? a) Identify stakeholders b) Monitor stakeholder engagement c) Control stakeholder engagement d) Manage stakeholder engagement

Manage stakeholder engagement

Which of the following Project Resource Management processes best defines the process of tracking team member performance, providing feedback, resolving issues, and managing team changes to optimize project performance? a) Acquire resources b) Control resources c) Manage team d) Develop team

Manage team

The PMBOK guide is the standard for: a) Managing all projects, most of the time b) Managing all projects all of the time c) Managing most projects, most of the time d) Managing some projects some of the time

Managing most projects, most of the time

A relationship that is contractually required or inherent in the nature of the work best describes which of the following? a) Discretionary dependency b) Mandatory dependency c) Internal dependency d) External dependency

Mandatory dependency

Classification of the engagement level of stakeholders includes all of the following EXCEPT: a) Manipulative b) Resistant c) Neutral d) Supportive

Manipulative

Project Quality Management includes the processes for incorporating the organization's quality policy regarding planning, managing and controlling project and product quality requirements in order to: a) Improve process capability b) Control products, services and results c) Meet standards of perfromance for the project team d) Meet stakeholder's objectives

Meet stakeholder's objectives

Which of the following is a tool and technique of the Monitor Risks process? a) What-if scenario analysis b) Meetings c) Data gathering d) Interpersonal and team skills

Meetings

Which of the following are included in the risk management plan? a) Methodology, funding, and timing b) Sponsor goals and timing c) Individual managements, funding, responsibilities d) Risk categories and individual managements

Methodology, funding, and timing

Assumption logs and issue logs are inputs to which Project Integration Management process? a) Develop Project Management Plan b) Monitor and Control Project Work c) Direct and Manage Project Work d) Perform Integrated Change Control

Monitor and Control Project Work

What process involves tracking, reviewing, and reporting project progress against the defined performance objectives in the project management plan? a) Direct and Manage Project Work b) Perform Integrated Change Control c) Develop Project Management Plan d) Monitor and Control Project Work

Monitor and Control Project Work

Which of the following is the process of monitoring project stakeholder relationships and tailoring strategies for engaging stakeholders through modification of engagement strategies and plans? a) Plan stakeholder engagement b) Stakeholders' relationship engagement c) Monitor stakeholder engagement d) Control stakeholder engagement

Monitor stakeholder engagement

You are observing and checking progress and quality of project stakeholder relationships and adjusting strategies and plans for engaging stakeholders. This is known as: a) Monitor stakeholder engagement b) Plan stakeholder engagement c) Manage stakeholder engagement d) Stakeholders' relationship engagement

Monitor stakeholder engagement

The monitor stakeholder engagement process entails what? a) Monitoring project stakeholder satisfaction and ensuring they are tailored appropriately for each stakeholder group b) Monitoring project stakeholder funding and tailoring strategies through modification of stakeholder funding strategies and plans c) Monitoring project stakeholder communciations and ensuring stakeholder communications are optimized not maximized d) Monitoring project stakeholder relationships and tailoring strategies for engaging stakeholders through modification of engagement strategies and plans

Monitoring project stakeholder relationships and tailoring strategies for engaging stakeholders through modification of engagement strategies and plans

Which of the following are interpersonal and team skills used as part of the manage stakeholder engagement process? a) Negotiation and conflict management b) Avoidance and governance c) Collaboration and tranfereance d) Governance and negotiation

Negotiation and conflict management

When tailoring processes for Project Resource Management, you should consider all of these EXCEPT: a) Life cycle approach b) Physical location c) Diversity d) Number of team members

Number of team members

Unplanned training takes place as a result of which of the following? a) Team performance assessments b) Resource management plan updates c) Observation and conversation d) Recognition and rewards

Observation and conversation

When is the plan risk management process performed in a project? a) During the initiating stage of the project b) During the executing stage of the project c) Once or at predefined points in a project d) Continuously throughout the project

Once or at predefined points in a project

The following are all key competencies of a project manager EXCEPT: a) Strategic management b) Technical project management c) Leadership d) Operational management

Operational management

The interaction of the various system components creates the organizational culture and capabilities that are important for the project. Which role is typically responsible for establishing the system? a) Project sponsor b) Project manager c) Organization's management d) Project team

Organization's management

Configuration management and issue defect management data are examples of which of the following? a) Organizational charts b) Organizational knowledge repositories c) Governance portfolios d) Governance frameworks

Organizational knowledge repositories

Lessons learned documentation generally includes all of the following EXCEPT: a) Reasoning behind the corrective action chosen b) Causes of issues c) Updates of the statement of work to reflect training and learning requirements d) Other types of lessons learned about communications management

Other types of lessons learned about communications management

What is used to construct a schedule model in which activities are represented by nodes and graphically linked by one or more logical relationships to show the performance sequence? a) Probability and impact matrix b) Precedence Diagramming Method c) Analytical techniques d) Dependency determination

PDM

Inputs to control quality include all of the following EXCEPT: a) Quality metrics b) PERT charts c) Project management plan d) Work performance data

PERT Chart

An information system consisting of the tools and techniques used to gather, integrate and disseminate the outputs of project management processes is known as: a) Delphi technique b) PMIS c) Risk management technology d) Gannt chart

PMIS

Which of the following best describes the system that provides access to information technology software tools, such as scheduling software and work authorization systems? a) Internal management systems b) PMIS c) Configuration management system d) Internal communications systems

PMIS

Which of the following is a toll and technique of the Direct and Manage Project Work process? a) Data analysis b) Reserve analysis c) Project Management Information System (PMIS) d) Critical Path Method (CPM)

PMIS

Which of the following is a tool or technique used in the manage communications process? a) PMIS b) Stakeholder engagement plan c) Risk report d) Communications management plan

PMIS

What tools and techniques are used in the monitor communications process? a) PMIS, expert judgment and meetings b) Communication technology, expert judgement, and meetings c) Communication technology, communication methods and performance reporting d) PMIS, communication technology and performance reporting

PMIS, expert judgment and meetings

Risk transference nearly often involves: a) Eliminating risk through beta testing b) Policies and procedures for a response system c) Payment of a risk premium to the party taking on the risk d) Accepting a lower profit if some activities overrun their budget

Payment of a risk premium to the party taking on the risk

What process prioritizes individual project risks for future analysis or action by assessing their probability of occurrence and impact? a) Perform quantitative risk analysis b) Monitor risks c) Plan risk responses d) Perform qualitative risk analysis

Perform qualitative risk analysis

The project charter establishes a partnership between which organizations? a) Performing and requesting b) Directing and managing c) Planning and scheduling d) Monitoring and controlling

Performing and requesting

The "fast tracking" method of schedule compression involves: a) Going on a "mandatory overtime schedule" to complete the project on schedule or earlier if possible at are normally done in sequence may result in rework and increased risk b) Performing in parallel for a portion of their duration activities or phases that are normally done in sequence may result in rework and increased risk c) The use of industrial engineering techniques to improve productivity, thereby finishing the project earlier than originally planned d) Assigning "dedicated teams" to critical path activities to achieve project schedule objectives

Performing in parallel for a portion of their duration activities or phases that are normally done in sequence may result in rework and increased risk

When does the control resources process typically take place in the project life cycle? a) Periodically throughout the project as needed b) During the initiating phase c) At predetermined points in the project d) During the planning phase

Periodically throughout the project as needed

What is the key benefit of the Closing Process Group? a) Project documentation is complete and filed according to your organization's specifications b) Ensures the project budget has been exhausted c) Phases, projects and contracts are closed out appropriately d) Transfers the responsibility of the next project to the next project manager

Phases, projects and contracts are closed out appropriately

Which of the following is a tailoring consideration for Project Resource Management? a) Number of team members b) Physical location c) Resource calendar d) Salary of resources

Physical location

Which of the following best describes the process of developing an appropriate approach and plan for project communications activities based on the info needs of each stakeholder or group, available organizational assets, and the needs of the project? a) Manage communications b) Communication requirements analysis c) Plan communications management d) Knowledge management

Plan communications management

The major processes of Project Communications Management are: a) Plan communications management, manage communications and monitor communications b) Distribute information, report changes, update project documents, and accept project c) Plan communications management, develop responses, report progress, and distribute information d) Plan communications, distribute information and schedule reporting

Plan communications management, manage communications and monitor communications

The major processes of Project Resource Management are: a) Develop project staffing plan, recruit project team, administer personnel actions, and manage labor relations b) Leadership, management, team building and negotation c) Plan resource management, estimate activity resources, acquire resources, develop team, manage team, and control resources d) Plan organizational structure, build project tea, develop communications plan, and manage team conflicts

Plan resource management, estimate activity resources, acquire resources, develop team, manage team, and control resources

The processes of project risk management are: a) Plan risk management, identify risks, perform qualitative risk analysis, perform quantitative risk analysis, plan risk responses, implement risk responses, and monitor risks b) Identify risks, perform qualitative risk validation, perform quantitative impact assessment, develop risk response strategies, document response strategies, and monitor risk responses c) Plan risk management, identify risks, assess risks, mitigate risks, transfer risks, and document outcomes d) Identify risks, plan risk management, evaluate risks, develop risk responses, mitigate risks, and document results

Plan risk management, identify risks, perform qualitative risk analysis, perform quantitative risk analysis, plan risk responses, implement risk responses, and monitor risks

What is the process of developing options, selecting strategies and agreeing on actions to address overall project risk exposure, as well as treat individual project risks? a) Perform quantitative risk analysis b) Identify risks c) Monitor risks d) Plan risk responses

Plan risk responses

Which of the following is the process of developing approaches to involve project stakeholders based on their needs, expectations, interests and potential impact on the project? a) Monitor stakeholder engagement b) Plan stakeholder management c) Plan stakeholder engagement d) Manage stakeholder engagement

Plan stakeholder engagement

During which time are team memebers commitments to the project strengthened? a) Planning b) Execution c) Monitoring d) Controlling

Planning

Acquire resources is the process of confirming resource availability and obtaining the team necessary to complete project activities. The enterprise environmental factors that can influence this process generally include all of the following EXCEPT: a) Market conditions b) Geographic locations c) Organizational structure d) Political philosophy

Political philosophy

Which of the following is a method of grouping stakeholders according to their level of authority, level of concern about the project outcomes and ability to influence the outcomes of the project? a) Salience model b) Directions of influence c) Stakeholder cube d) Power/interest grid

Power/interest grid

What is used to construct a schedule model in which activities are represented by nodes and graphically linked by one or more logical relationships to show the performance sequence? a) Precedence Diagramming Method b) Dependency determination c) Probability and impact matrix d) Analytical techniques

Precedence Diagramming Method

A form of project life cycle in which the project scope, time, and cost are determined in the early phases of the life cycle. a) Adaptive life cycle b) Predictive life cycle c) Project life cycle d) Product life cycle

Predictive life cycle

What type of projects use an approved version of the project scope statement, work breakdown structure (WBS) and its associated WBS dictionary as the scope baseline for the project? a) Projects with adaptive life cycles b) Predictive projects c) Hybrid projects d) Projects with waterfall life cycles

Predictive projects

Project Integration management includes all of the following concepts EXCEPT: a) The relationships of processes within and between the project management process groups are iterative b) Prevention is preferred over inspection. It is better to design quality into deliverables, rather than to find quality issues during inspection c) Projects and project management are integrative by nature, with most tasks involving more than one knowledge area d) Managing project performance and changes to the project activities

Prevention is preferred over inspection. It is better to design quality into deliverables, rather than to find quality issues during inspection

Change requests are processed for review and disposition through the Perform Integrated Change Control process and may include which of the following types of change activities? a) Swift action b) Nonconforming repair c) Preventive action d) Default repair

Preventive action

What change request is an intentional activity that ensures that the future performance of project work aligns with the project management plan? a) Defect repair b) Corrective action c) Preventive action d) Update

Preventive action

What is the key benefit of managing project knowledge? a) Prior knowledge is used to decrease project costs and maintain scheduled deliverables b) Prior knowledge is leveraged to improve outcomes and knowledge created is available to support future projects c) Knowledge within the lessons learned document is used to manage resources d) Knowledge is documented within the lessons learned register

Prior knowledge is leveraged to improve outcomes and knowledge created is available to support future projects

As an output of the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process, project documents are updated. One such update is: a) Checklists, corrective actions and qualified decision trees b) Prioritized list of individual project risks c) Direction, resources, and contingency costs d) Qualitative analysis of the threats to ignore and opportunities to accept

Prioritized list of individual project risks

Which of the following is the best definition of the perform qualitative risk analysis process? a) A mathematical technique such as the expected monetary value (EMV), to create the impression of precision accuracy b) Numerically analyzing the combined effects of identified individual project risks and other sources of uncertainty on overall project objectives c) A model that simulates the combined effects of individual project risks and other sources of uncertainty to evaluate their potential impact d) Prioritizing individual project risks for further analysis or action by assessing their probability of occurrence and impact

Prioritizing individual project risks for further analysis or action by assessing their probability of occurrence and impact

Which of the following is a toll and technique of the control resources process? a) Problem solving b) Data representation c) Meetings d) Virtual teams

Problem solving

Select the best description of the Closing Process Group a) The process required to track, review and regulate the progress and performance of the project b) Process performed to complete the project management plan c) Process performed to formally complete or close a project, phase or contract d) The process performed to formally abandon an unfinished project

Process performed to formally complete or close a project, phase or contract

Project Scope Management includes which of the following? a) Processes required to ensure that the project is on schedule and under budget to complete the project b) Processes required to ensure that the product meets all the scope requirements to complete the project c) Processes required to ensure that the project includes all the work required and only the work required to complete the project successfully d) Processes required to ensure that the project work is manageable to complete the project without error

Processes required to ensure that the project includes all the work required and only the work required to complete the project successfully

Statement of work, payment information, and contractor work performance information are examples of which of the following documents? a) Procurement documents b) Scope statement documents c) Technical documentation d) Requirements documentation

Procurement documents

Project Procurement Management includes all of the following EXCEPT: a) Procurement involves agreements that describe the relationship between a buy and a seller b) Agreements should comply with local, national, and international laws regarding contracts c) The project manager should ensure that all procurements meet the specific needs of the project d) Procurement uses a single contract for each project

Procurement uses a single contract for each project

Completion of the product scope is measured against which of the following? a) Product life cycle b) Product requirements c) Product cost d) Product deliverables

Product requirements

The iterative process of increasing the level of detail in a project management plan as greater amounts of information and more accurate estimates become available is called: a) Progressive elaboration b) Gantt chart c) Waterfall schedule d) Summary schedule

Progressive elaboration

An input to the Define Scope process is: a) Project charter b) Decomposition c) WBS d) The type of contract detail language

Project Charter

Which of the following is an input of the plan risk management process? a) Work performance data b) Procurement documentation c) Work performance reports d) Project charter

Project charter

Which of the following is an input to the plan communications management process? a) Project reporting b) Work performance data c) Work performance reports d) Project charter

Project charter

What of the following are inputs to Close Project or Phase? a) Procurement documents, lessons learned and EEFs b) PMIS, agreements and quality control measurements c) Project charter, accepted deliverables and OPAs d) Business documents, change control tools and requirements documentation

Project charter, accepted deliverables and OPAs

When tailoring processes for Project Quality Management, you should consider all of these EXCEPT: a) Project complexity, uncertainty and product novelty b) Policy compliance and auditing c) Standards and regulatory compliance d) Stakeholder engagement

Project complexity, uncertainty and product novelty

What is an output of the Control Scope process? a) Approved change requests b) Scope management plan c) Project document updates d) Verified deliverables

Project document updates

What input to the Manage Quality process may influence quality assurance work and should be monitored within the context of a configuration management system? a) Quality management plan b) Project documents c) Process improvement plan d) Quality metrics

Project documents

Which of the following can be used as an input in the Direct and Manage Project Work process? a) Team charter b) Project documents c) Agreements d) Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)

Project documents

What is an output of the perform qualitative risk analysis process? a) Change requests b) Probability and impact matrix c) Project documents updates d) Risk categorization

Project documents updates

Which of the following are tailoring considerations for project integration management? a) Project dimensions b) Project life cycle c) On-demand scheduling d) Validation and control

Project life cycle

Within project integration management knowledge area, who is responsible for combining the results in all other knowledge areas and has the overall view of the project? a) Project sponsor b) Project specialists c) Project team d) Project manager

Project manager

Within the Project Scope Management Knowledge Area, who is responsible for ensuring that requirements-related work is accounted for in the project management plan and that requirements-related activities are performed on time and within budget and deliver value? a) Project specialist b) Project manager c) Project sponsor d) Business analyst

Project manager

Which of the following is the least likely project consideration regarding tailoring? a) Addressing competing constraints b) Project manager's skills and competency c) Level of project governance varies d) Each project is unique

Project manager's skills and competency

What is the key benefit of the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group? a) Project performance is measured and analyzed at regular intervals, appropriate events or when exception conditions occur in order to identify and correct variances from the project management plan b) Project procurement activities are reviewed and analyzed at regular intervals, appropriate events, or when exception conditions occur in order to identify and correct variance from the project management plan c) Project performance is measured and analyzed one time in order to create a baseline d) Relevant Enterprise Environmental Factors can be reviewed and adjusted as needed, as the factors external to the organization fluctuate

Project performance is measured and analyzed at regular intervals, appropriate events or when exception conditions occur in order to identify and correct variances from the project management plan

In developing a stakeholder register, you need to include all of the following EXCEPT: a) Indentification information b) Stakeholder classification c) Project risk information d) Assessment information

Project risk information

Which of the following is an output to the Sequence Activities process? a) Project schedule network diagram b) Schedule traceability matrix c) Change requests d) Development approach

Project schedule network diagram

An output of the Define Scope process is" a) Resource Breakdown Structure (RBS) b) Project scope statement c) WBS d) Scope and schedule delays control plan

Project scope statement

In predictive projects, the scope baseline for the project is the approved version of which document? a) Project scope description b) Project scope statement c) Requirements documentation d) Planning package

Project scope statement

To tailor project risk management, you should consider which of the following factors? a) Project size b) Geographic location c) Data analysis d) Project quality

Project size

Within the Conduct Procurements process, expert judgment should be considered from individuals or groups with specialized knowledge or training in which of the following topics? a) Proposal evaluation b) Performance reporting c) Interpersonal and team skills d) Advertising

Proposal evaluation

Which of the following allows stakeholders to experiment with a model of the final product rather than being limited to discussing abstract representations of their requirements? a) Critical path b) Monte Carlo simulation c) Schedule module d) Prototypes

Prototypes

What is an input of Plan Scope Management? a) Quality management plan b) Requirements management plan c) Performance measurement baseline d) Stakeholder engagement plan

Quality management plan

What quality control tool may be used to gather data about customer satisfaction after the deployment of the product or service? a) Questionnaires and Surveys b) Audits c) Expert judgment d) Quality improvement methods

Questionnaires and Surveys

Which of the following are examples of explicit knowledge? a) Competence b) Records c) Commitment d) Experience

Records

Which of the following are forms of power? a) Referent, situational, and expert b) Cultural, adaptive, and situational c) Title, aggressive, and cultural d) Influence, title, and expert

Referent, situational and expert

All of the following are data analysis techniques used in project closeout EXCEPT: a) Regression analysis, used to determine which individual project risks or other sources of uncertainty have the most potential impact on project outcomes b) Document analysis, used to identify lessons learned and knowledge sharing for future projects and organizational asset improvements c) Trend analysis, used to validate the modules used in the organization and to implement adjustments for future projects d) Variance analysis, used to improve the metrics of the organization by comparing what was initially planned and the end result

Regression analysis, used to determine which individual project risks or other sources of uncertainty have the most potential impact on project outcomes

Which of the following best describes contested and constructive changes? a) Changes that are postponed to protect the budget b) Requested changes where the buyer and seller cannot reach an agreement on compensation for the change c) Changes subimtted for bigs to the relevant vendor list d) Forced changes viewed as negative, quantified and tabulated

Requested changes where the buyer and seller cannot reach an agreement on compensation for the change

What is an output of Plan Scope Management? a) Requirements management plan b) Project charter c) Quality management plan d) Expert judgement

Requirements management plan

Which of the following links product requirements from their origin to the deliverables that satisfy them? a) WBS b) Requirements traceability matrix c) Work performance data d) Configuration management system

Requirements traceability matrix

Which of the following is a tool or technique for the Determine Budget process? a) Alternative analysis b) Trend analysis c) Variance analysis d) Reserve analysis

Reserve analysis

All of the following are inputs to the Estimate Activity Resources process EXCEPT: a) Resource management plan b) Resource breakdown structure c) Enterprise environmental factors d) Activity list

Resource breakdown structure

Which of the following is an output of the Estimate Activity Resources Process? a) PMIS b) Analogous estimating c) Resource breakdown structure d) Scope baseline

Resource breakdown structure

Which of the following is an input to the Determine Budget process? a) Risk management plan b) Resource management plan c) Quality management plan d) Stakeholder engagement plan

Resource management plan

Which output of Plan Resource Management provides guidance on how team resources should be defined, staffed, managed and eventually released? a) Resource assignment matrix (RAM) b) Resource management plan c) Team charter d) Resource breakdown structure (RBS)

Resource management plan

The types and quantities of resources required for each activity in a work package are included in which of the following? a) Resource breakdown structure b) Resource requirements c) Resource package d) Organizational chart

Resource requirements

The risk management plan generally includes all of the following EXCEPT: a) Risk categories b) Methodology c) Responses to individual risks d) Risk strategy

Responses to individual risks

What is used to consider the effectiveness of the risk management process? a) Risk response analysis b) Risk audit c) Risk review d) Risk registration

Risk audit

Which of the following is a tool and technique used in the perform qualitative risk analysis process? a) Risk management plan b) Risk register c) Risk report d) Risk categorization

Risk categorization

A thorough analysis of the BLANK will help identify potential risks to the project: a) Project's mission statement b) Risk identification checklist based on historical information and knowledge c) Project's change control system d) Project's schedule and budget

Risk identification checklist based on historical information and knowledge

All of the following are inputs to the identify risks process EXCEPT: a) Scope baseline b) Quality management plan c) Risk mitigation plan d) Risk management plan

Risk mitigation plan

An output of the identify risks process is the: a) Expected monetary value of the risk events b) Risk mitigation plan c) List of corrective actions d) Risk register

Risk register

What is an input to the Estimate Costs process? a) Project charter b) Data analysis c) Assumption log d) Risk register

Risk register

Which of the following contains information on threats and opportunities that may impact resource planning? a) Risk register b) Project organization chart c) Resource calendar d) Staff release plan

Risk register

Which of the following is an input the Estimate Activity Resources process? a) Bottom-up estimating b) Risk register c) Project management information system d) Basis of estimates

Risk register

Which of the following project documents are updated as a result of the Implement Risk Responses process? a) Requirements documention b) Stakeholder register c) Assumption d) Risk register

Risk register

You are using a classification model for stakeholder analysis that groups the stakeholders based on their level of authority and their level of concern regarding the project outcomes. The following techniques are included in this model EXCEPT: a) Power/influence grid b) Power/interest grid c) Impact/influence grid d) Salience model

Salience model

Within conflict management, which of the following are sources of conflict? a) Rewards and recognition b) Scarce resources, scheduling priorities, and personal work styles c) Team meetings d) Ground rules and project management practices

Scarce resources, scheduling priorities, and personal work styles

Which of the following is a tool and technique to the Control Schedule process? a) Reserve analysis b) Schedule compression c) Rolling wave planning d) Decision making

Schedule compression

Which of the following is an output to the Control Schedule process? a) Schedule baseline b) Development approach c) Schedule forecasts d) Project calendar

Schedule forecasts

Where are the Project Schedule Management processes and their associated tools and techniques documented? a) Schedule management plan b) Schedule forecasts c) Project charter d) Scope baseline

Schedule management plan

Which of the following is an output to the Plan Schedule Management process? a) Activity attributes b) Activity list c) Schedule management plan d) Development approach

Schedule management plan

Which of the following are inputs to the Define Activities process of Project Schedule Management? a) Schedule management plan, EEFs and OPAs b) Schedule management plan, network diagrams, and change requests c) Schedule management plan, OPA and network diagrams d) Schedule management plan, WBS and change requests

Schedule management plan, EEFs and OPAs

What is an input to the Estimate Costs process? a) Scope baseline b) Resource calendars c) Project charter d) Agreements

Scope baseline

What is an output of the Create WBS process? a) Project scope statement b) Scope management plan c) Accepted deliverables d) Scope baseline

Scope baseline

Which of the following is an input to the Sequence Activities process? a) Performance measurement baseline b) Cost baseline c) Schedule baseline d) Scope baseline

Scope baseline

Which of the following is an input to the Plan Schedule Management process? a) Requirements management plan b) Scope management plan c) Stakeholder engagement plan d) Configuration management plan

Scope management plan

Which of the following plans can be formal or informal, broadly framed or highly detailed, based on the needs of the project? a) Scope management plan b) Requirements management plan c) Quality management plan d) Data management plan

Scope management plan

Which of the following are examples of the subsidiary management plan components in the PM plan? a) Scope management plan and vendor management b) Sponsor management plan and schedule management c) Sponsor management plan and scope management plan d) Scope management plan and quality management plan

Scope management plan and quality management plan

Which of the following data analysis techniques helps to determine which individual projec risks or other sources of uncertainty have the most potential impact on project outcomes? a) Sensitivity analysis b) Simulations c) Decision tree analysis d) Influence diagrams

Sensitivity analysis

As the PM, which of the following is NOT your responsibility as part of the executing process group? a) Build team cohesiveness and relationships external and internal to stakeholders b) Integrate the various parts of the project work into a cohesive whole c) Ensure stakeholder needs are being met in relation with the approved scope d) Sign off on all legal agreements and documents

Sign off on all legal agreements and documents

Which of the following is a PMIS tool that can be used to execute this process? a) Networking b) Conflict management c) Social media management d) Active listening

Social media management

When a buyer seeks to ensure that a proposal selected offer the best quality for the services required, what type of evaluation is used? a) Success criteria b) Source selection criteria c) Governance criteria d) Entrance criteria

Source selection criteria

Which of the following is a tailoring consideration for Project Scope Management? a) On-demand scheduling b) Knowledge management c) Stability of requirements d) Project dimensions

Stability of requirements

Which of the following are considerations for tailoring processes for project stakeholder management? a) Complexity of technology and sponsor communication network b) Seller diversity and contract terms c) Stakeholder engagement and seller diversity d) Stakeholder diversity and communication technology

Stakeholder diversity and communication technology

When tailoring processes for project stakeholder management you should consider all of these EXCEPT: a) Communication technology b) Stakeholder diversity c) Stakeholder engagement d) Complexity of stakeholder relationships

Stakeholder engagement

Identification information, asssessment information and stakeholder classification are included in which of the following documents? a) Stakeholder register b) Stakeholder analysis c) Stakeholder engagement plan d) Stakeholder engagement assessment matrix

Stakeholder register

Which of the following are types of project management office (PMO) structures? a) Supportive, harmonizing and collaborative b) Supportive, controlling and directive c) Interactive, monitoring and directive d) Interactive, integrating and developmental

Supportive, controlling and directive

The three dimensions of complexity are defined as which of the following? a) Understanding, skill, and dynamic behavior b) System behavior, human behavior, and ambiguity c) Observation, system behavior, and ambiguity d) Personal experience, human behavior and skill

System behavior, human behavior and ambiguity

In agile/adaptive environments, who determines how plans and components should integrate? a) Vendors b) Sponsors c) Team Members d) Customers

Team Members

Iterative and agile approaches promote the engagement of which of the following as local domain experts in Project Integration Management? a) Customers b) Team Members c) Vendors d) Sponsors

Team Members

Who should be included in a project schedule development meeting? a) Team members, stakeholders, the human resource director and others as needed b) Other project managers, the executive sponsor, and the program manager c) All relevant stakeholders and all team members d) Team members, sponsor, selected stakeholders and those with scheduling or executing duties

Team members, sponsor, selected stakeholders and those with scheduling or executing duties

When tailoring processes for project schedule management, you should consider all of these EXCEPT: a) Governance b) Project dimensions c) Life cycle approach d) Technology support

Technology support

What type of chart is well-suited for displaying detailed descriptions of team member responsibilities? a) Graphic-displays b) Organizational chart c) Hierarchical-type d) Text-oriented

Text-oriented

All of the following statements about Manage Stakeholder Engagement are true EXCEPT: a) Stakeholder expectations are managed through negotiation and communication b) Stakeholders should be engaged at appropriate project stages to obtain, confirm, or maintain their continued commitment to the success of the project c) The ability of stakeholders to influence the project is typically lowest during the initial stages and gets progressively higher as the project progresses d) Managing stakeholder engagement helps increase the probability of project success

The ability of stakeholders to influence the project is typically lowest during the initial stages and gets progressively higher as the project progresses

Analogous cost estimating uses which of the following costs? a) The forecasted cost of individual work packages b) The actual cost of previous, similar projects c) The budgeted cost of all project components d) The total cost of all estimate resource types

The actual cost of previous, similar projects

What is the definition of estimate at completion (EAC)? a) The expected cost to finish all remaining project work b) The expected cost incurred for the work performed on any activity completed c) The expected sum of all budgets established for the work to be performed d) The actual costs incurred for work completed, plus an estimate to complete (ETC) the remaining work

The actual costs incurred for work completed, plus an estimate to complete (ETC) the remaining work

What is the definition of free float? a) A technique used when a constraint on the late dates is violated by duration and logic b) The amount of time that a schedule activity can be delayed without delaying the early start date of any successor or violating a schedule constraint c) A technique that helps to find possible accelerated ways of bringing a delayed schedule back on track d) A technique used when backward pass is calculated from a schedule constraint that is later than the early finish date that was calculated during forward pass calculation

The amount of time that a schedule activity can be delayed without delaying the early start date of any successor or violating a schedule constraint

Where are high-level strategic and operational assumptions and constraints normally identified? a) The business case before the project is initiated and will flow into the project charter b) The basis of estimates document and will flow into the project charter c) The risk report document and will update the project charter d) The benefits management plan and will update the project charter

The business case before the project is initiated and will flow into the project charter

What does the schedule management plan establish? a) The benchmarking elements needed to maintain the project schedule b) The critieria and the activities for developing, monitoring and controlling the schedule c) The broadly framed project schedule needed to release deliverables d) The forecasted schedule for project completion

The critieria and the activities for developing, monitoring and controlling the schedule

Which of the following is affected by resource availability, resource requirements and types of resources? a) Amount of activities forecasted b) The work package c) Rolling wave planning d) The duration of the activity

The duration of the activity

Risk probability and impact assessments consider the likelihood that a risk will occur and its potential effect on project objectives, respectively. Which of the following characteristics further describe this data analysis technique? a) Risk impact is assessed more thoroughly than risk probability, to measure the degree of change expected from each risk b) The impact on project objectives should be assessed primarily at the end of the project, as part of the lessons learned c) The probability of risks should be estimated by using financial metrics d) The level of probability and its impact on each objective are evaluated during interviews or meetings

The level of probability and its impact on each objective are evaluated during interviews or meetings

The plan risk management process ensures that the aspects of risk management match which two primary factors? a) The amount of deliverables and the delivery date b) The type of industry and level of risk c) Stakeholder interest and quality of deliverables d) The level of risk and importance of the project

The level of risk and importance of the project

The precedence diagramming method (PDM) shows: a) The project completion date based on normal resource availability b) The logical relationships that exist between activities c) Activities likely to be involved in project Schedule and resource allocation processes d) Various levels of the WBS

The logical relationships that exist between activities

The duration of an activity is affected by all of the following EXCEPT: a) The estimated activity resource requirements b) The method of scheduling activities and resources c) The availability of the resources assigned to the activity d) The types of resources assigned to the activity

The method of scheduling activities and resources

Stakeholders are: a) The people, groups or organizations taht could impact or be impacted by a decision, activity or outcome of a project b) The organization's corporate attorney's c) The individuals or agencies that control contingecy funds and their disbursement through the PMO d) The project engineers who design and construct the project

The people, groups or organizations taht could impact or be impacted by a decision, activity or outcome of a project

In using cost-benefit analysis in the Plan Quality Management process, it can be noted that: a) The primary benefit of meeting quality requirements is the reduced cost associated with project quality management activities b) The primary cost of meeting quality requirements is the increased rework to ensure stakeholder satisfaction c) Quality cost cannot be evaluated in relationship to the expected benefit of quality in a given project d) The primary benefits of meeting quality requirements includes less rework, higher productivity, lower costs, increased stakeholder satisfaction, and increased profitability

The primary benefits of meeting quality requirements includes less rework, higher productivity, lower costs, increased stakeholder satisfaction, and increased profitability

What is the best definition of Project Quality Management? a) The process for incorporating the organization's quality policy regarding planning, managing, and controlling project and product quality requirements in order to meet stakeholders' objectives b) The process of planning, estimating, budgeting and financing so that the project can be completed within budget c) The process of defining and controlling project requirements and schedule in order to meet sponsors' objectives d) The process of planning quality requirements to manage the timely completion of the project

The process for incorporating the organization's quality policy regarding planning, managing, and controlling project and product quality requirements in order to meet stakeholders' objectives

What is the definition of Plan Resource Management? a) The process of defining how to estimate, acquire, manage and use physical and team resources b) The process of mapping project resources to deliverables and project budget c) The process of indentifying resources and associated costs d) The process of creating a formal document defining resource budgets

The process of defining how to estimate, acquire, manage and use physical and team resources

Managing and leading the project team include: a) Instructing the project team to avoid being caught in repetitive violations of the norms of professional and ethical behaviors specified by the performing organization b) The process of tracking team member performance, providing feedback, resolving issues and optimizing project performance c) Subscribing to the code of professional conduct, but does not involve ensuring that all team members follow professional and ethical behaviors d) Influencing the project team to achieve the triple constraints of the project; however, professional and ethical behaviors are outside the domain of the project management teams

The process of tracking team member performance, providing feedback, resolving issues and optimizing project performance

Select the best description of the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group? a) The process required to track, review, and regulate the progress and performance of the project; identify any areas in which changes to the plan are required; and initiate the corresponding changes b) The process performed to complete the work as defined by stakeholders c) The process required to oversee, review, and make changes to the progress and performance of the project; identify any areas of delay and initiated a plan for future d) The process required to track, review and regulate the progress and performance of the project

The process required to track, review, and regulate the progress and performance of the project; identify any areas in which changes to the plan are required; and initiate the corresponding changes

Which of the following best describes project procurement management? a) A technique of systematically gathering and analyzing quantitative and qualitative information b) A description of all purchases outside of the project scope c) The processes necessary to purchase or acquire products, services or results from outside the project team d) An agreement to purchase goods from a vendor or seller

The processes necessary to purchase or acquire products, services or results from outside the project team

Select the best description of the Executing Process Group. a) The processes required to track, review, and regulate progress and performance of the project b) The processes performed to complete the work defined in the project management plan to satisfy the project requirements c) The processes performed to complete the work as defined by stakeholders d) The processes required to track, review, and regulate the progress and performance of the project; identify any areas in which changes to the plan are required; and initiate corresponding changes

The processes performed to complete the work defined in the project management plan to satisfy the project requirements

Select the best description of the Initiating Process Group? a) The processes performed to define a new project or a new phase of an existing project by obtaining authorization to start the project or phase b) The processes performed to define a new project or a new phase of an existing project by outlining the first draft of the project management plan c) The processes required to establish the scope of the project, refine the objectives, and define the course of action required to attain the objectives that the project was undertaken to achieve d) The processes required to establish the scope of the project, refine the objectives, hire resources and define the course of action required to attain authorization to start the project or phase

The processes performed to define a new project or a new phase of an existing project by obtaining authorization to start the project or phase

All of the following statements about the project life cycle and the product life cycle are true EXCEPT: a) In a predictive life cycle, the project scope, time, and cost required to deliver are determined as early in the project life cycle as possible b) The product life cycle is the series of phases that represent the evolution of a product from concept through delivery, growth, maturity and to retirement c) In project iterative and incremental life cycles, project phases repeat one or more project activities as the project team's understanding of the product increases d) The product life cycle is contained within the predictive project life cycle

The product life cycle is contained within the predictive project life cycle

The Planning Process Group contains which of the following? a) The project management processes that occur when the project is started b) The project management processes that occur when the work is carried out c) The project management processes that occur when the project is being closed d) The project management processes that occur when the project is being organized and prepared

The project management processes that occur when the project is being organized and prepared

The initiating process group contains which of the following? a) The project management processes that occur when the project is being closed b) The project management processes that occur when the work is carried out c) The project management processes that occur when the project is being organized and prepared d) The project management processes that occur when the project is started

The project management processes that occur when the project is started

What is the definition of the work package? a) The approved version of a scope statement, WBS, and it's associated WBS dictionary, that is used for comparison to actual results b) A component of the project management plan that describes how the scope will be defined, developed, monitored, controlled, and validated c) The work defined at the lowest level of the WBS for which cost and duration are estimated and managed d) The uncontrolled expansion to product scope without adjustments to time, cost and resources

The work defined at the lowest level of the WBS for which cost and duration are estimated and managed

Which of the following in the key benefit of the Executing Process Group? a) The work needed to meet the project requirements and objectives is monitored for quality b) The effort needed to meet the project requirements and objectives is tracked and reviewed against the baseline c) The work needed to meet the project requirements and objectives is performed according to plan d) it illustrates the final project deliverables

The work needed to meet the project requirements and objectives is performed according to plan

In rolling wave planning: a) The work far in the future is planned in detail for work packages that are at a low level of the WBS b) A wave of detailed activities is planned during strategic planning to ensure that WBS deliverables and project milestones are achieved c) Focus is maintained on long-term objectives, allowing near-term objectives to be rolled out as part of the ongoing wave of activities d) The work to be accomplished in the near term is planning in detail, whereas the work in the future is planned at a higher level

The work to be accomplished in the near term is planning in detail, whereas the work in the future is planned at a higher level

Project managers are similar to conductors of a large orchestra because they perform which of the following similar roles? a) They represent one section of the project team b) They are an expert or knowledgeable in all the team members' different roles c) They communication with only the project sponsor on all major deliverable that impact the project outcome d) They are responsible for the team, and integrate multiple disciplines

They are responsible for the team and and integrate multiple disciplines

Which of the following best defines the purpose of test and evaluation documents? a) They are used to evaluate the achievement of quality objectives b) They are used to determine the appropriate combination of inputs, tools and techniques used to manage a project c) They are used in sensitivity analysis for comparing the relative importance of variables d) They are used to map dependent activities to one another within a schedule

They are used to evaluate the achievement of quality objectives

All of the following are true about affinity diagrams EXCEPT: a) They can be used to organize potential causes of defects b) They are used to identify key issues to be prioritized as a set of decisions for implementation c) They are part of the tools and techniques of Manage Quality process d) They allow large numbers of ideas to be classified into groups for analysis

They are used to identify key issues to be prioritized as a set of decisions for implementation

Control charts have all of the following characteristics EXCEPT: a) They are used to determine whether or not a process is stable or has predictable performance b) They are graphical displays of process data over time and against establish control limits c) They are used to illustrate how various factors might be linked to potential problems or effects d) They can be used to monitor various types of output variables

They are used to illustrate how various factors might be linked to potential problems or effects

What is the key benefit of the monitor stakeholder engagement process? a) To ensure that stakeholder communications are optimized throughout the various stages of the project b) To maintain or increase the efficiency and effectiveness of stakeholder engagement activities as the project evolves and its environments change c) To document all stakeholders and their relationships as the project evolves and its environment changes d) To monitor project stakeholder satisfaction and ensure communications are tailored appropraitely for each stakeholder group

To maintain or increase the efficiency and effectiveness of stakeholder engagement activities as the project evolves and its environments change

What is the WBS typically used for? a) To organize and define the total scope of the project b) To define the level of reporting that the seller provides to the buyer c) As a record of when work elements are assigned to individuals d) To identify the logical person to be project sponsor

To organize and define the total scope of the project

When performing integration on the project, the role of the project manager is: a) To perform all the work that is required to get the project approved and baselined for communication to the team b) To work with the project sponsor to understand the strategic objectives and ensure alignment of objectives and results with the project and business area c) To complete the project charter and seek formal approval from the sponsor of the project d) To involve the team in group activities to facilitate teamwork, which builds an integrated project organizational structure

To work with the project sponsor to understand the strategic objectives and ensure alignment of objectives and results with the project and business area

Which type of float is described as the amount of time that a schedule activity can be delayed or extended from its early start date without delaying the project finish date or violating a schedule constraint? a) Negative float b) Free float c) Positive float d) Total float

Total float

Which of the following requirements describes temporary capabilities needed to move from the current as-is state to the desired future state? a) Transition and readiness requirements b) Quality requirements c) Scope requirements d) Requirements management plan

Transition and readiness requirements

As the project manager, which of the following is NOT your responsibility as part of the Closing Process Group? a) Transition resources to their next assignments b) Update and archive documents c) Finalize all project activities to ensure that resources are released d) Completing performance metrics and reports

Transition resources to their next assignments

Manage quality is the process of: a) Translating the quality management plan into executable quality activities that incorporate the organization's quality policies into the project b) Assuring the implementation of appropriate specifications, which generally reduces the probability of the project being completed on schedule c) Applying planning, systematic quality activities to ensure effective policing and conformance of the project team to the approved specifications d) Providing the project team and stakeholders with standards by which project performance is measured

Translating the quality management plan into executable quality activities that incorporate the organization's quality policies into the project

What type of analysis examines project performance over time to determine whether performance is improving or deteriorating? a) Performance b) Root-cause c) Trend d) Variance

Trend

What tool or technique can be used in the Monitor and Control Project Work process? a) Trend analysis b) Cause-and-effect diagrams b) Matrix diagrams c) Logical data model

Trend analysis

Which of the following are classifications of the engagement level of stakeholders? a) Supportive, unaware, aggressive, leading and following b) Disengaged, aggressive, neutral, supportive and leading c) Disengaged, resistant, neutral, supportive and manipulative d) Unaware, resistant, neutral, supportive and leading

Unaware, resistant, neutral, supportive and leading

What is a project's status if the variance at completion (VAC) is positive? a) Over budget b) Ahead of schedule c) Under budget d) Behind schedule

Under budget

Which of the following are evolving trends in the integration processes? a) Standard methodologies b) Scheduling techniques c) Use of automated tools d) Life cycle approaches

Use of automated tools

Evolving trends in integration processes include which of the following? a) Use of quantitative analysis and visual management tools b) Use of hybrid methodologies and regression analysis c) Use of automated tools and regression analysis d) Use of automated tools and visual management tools

Use of automated tools and visual management tools

Which of the following best describes analogous duration estimating? a) Used to estimate project cost to the greatest level of specified detail b) Used as part of the three-point estimating c) Used to estimate uncertainty and risk of stakeholders d) Used to estimate project duration when there is a limited amount of detailed information about the project

Used to estimate project duration when there is a limited amount of detailed information about the project

Which of the following best describes a decision tree? a) A diagram that represents a project or situation within the project as a set of entities, outcomes, and influences, together with the relationships between them b) Used to support selection of the best of several alternative courses of action c) Displays the calculated correlation co-effecient for each element of the quantitative risk analysis model d) A graphical, qualitative risk analysis technique and not generally used in quantitative risk analysis

Used to support selection of the best of several alternative courses of action

Parametric estimating involves: a) Calculating individual cost estimates for each work package and integrating them to obtain the total cost of the project b) Using a statistical relationship between relevant historical data and other variables to calculate a cost estimate for project work c) Using the actual cost of a previous similar project to estimate the cost of the current project d) Defining cost or duration parameteres of the project life cycle

Using a statistical relationship between relevant historical data and other variables to calculate a cost estimate for project work

The process of formalizing acceptance of the completed project is which project management process associated with the Project Scope Management Knowledge Area? a) Define scope b) Control scope c) Plan scope management d) Validate scope

Validate scope

Which of the following project management processes do NOT belong to the Executing Process Group? a) Validate scope b) Acquire resources c) Manage communications d) Direct and Manage project work

Validate scope

Which of the following are deliverables that are completed and checked for correctness through the Control Quality process? a) Authorized deliverables b) Accepted deliverables c) Endorsed deliverables d) Verified deliverables

Verified deliverables

Which of the following is an input for the Validate Scope process? a) Project charter b) Quality metrics c) Verified deliverables d) Stakeholder register

Verified deliverables

As an output of the Monitor Risks process, an updated risk register generally includes the following EXCEPT: a) Identification of new risks, updates to probability, impact, priority, risk plans, ownership and other elements of the risk register b) Actual outcomes of the project's risks and of the response's risks c) WBS d) Outcomes of reassessments, risk audts and periodic risk reviews

WBS

The outputs from the Monitor Risks process include all of the following EXCEPT: a) WBS b) Change requests c) Project management plan udpates d) Project documents updates

WBS

The stakeholder engagement plan is updated regularly to reflect changes to the stakeholder community. Which of the following is NOT a trigger that would signify an update should be made? a) When you decide to begin root cause analysis on your stakeholder group b) When outputs of other project process areas, such as change management, risk management or issue management require a review of stakeholder engagement strategies c) When new individuals or groups become stakeholders d) The start of a new phase of the project

When you decide to begin root cause analysis on your stakeholder group

Questions that arise when planning the acquisition of team members generally include all of the following EXCEPT: a) Whether the compensation of senior executives is in the project budget b) Whether the costs associated with each level of expertise are needed for the project c) The elvel of assistance that the organization's human resource department and functional managers are able to provide to the project management team d) Whether the resources come from within the organization or from external, contracted sources

Whether the compensation of senior executives is in the project budget

A significant amount of data is collected and analyzed throughout the project. All of the following are examples of project data and information EXCEPT: a) Work performance data b) Work performance information c) Work performance reports d) Work performance analysis

Work performance analysis

Which of the following is an input of the Control Scope process? a) Expert judgement b) Work performance data c) Change requests d) Scope measurement baseline

Work performance data

An output of the control resources process is: a) Work performance info b) Agreements c) Activity list d) OPAs Updates

Work performance info

What is the performance data collected from controlling processes, analyzed in comparison with project management plan components and project documents? a) Activity observations b) Work performance data c) Work performance info d) Progress data

Work performance info

Which of the following is an output of Control Quality process associated with the Project Quality Management Knowledge Area? a) Cause-and-effect diagrams b) Work performance information c) Approved change requests d) Data gathering checklists

Work performance information

Which of the following is an output of the Monitor Risks process? a) WBS b) Risk categorization c) Project management plan d) Work performance information

Work performance information

Which of the following is an output of the monitor communications process? a) Project communications b) EEF updates c) Work performance info d) Project charter updates

Work performance information

What does the project scope statement describe? a) Product deliverables and budget constraints b) Process descriptions and acceptance criteria c) Work that will be performed and the work that is excluded d) A summary of the budget and work that is excluded

Work that will be performed and the work that is excluded

Project managers are responsible for guiding the team, and completing which of the following when performing integration on the project? a) Itemize all expenses related to project processes, knowledge and people b) Perform all work required to baseline the project c) Work with the sponsor to understand the strategic objectives d) Complete the project charter and receive formal approval

Work with the sponsor to understand strategic objectives

All of the following are characteristics of a decision tree EXCEPT: a) is primarily a qualitative risk analysis technique and is not generally used in quantitative risk analysis b) Uses expected monetary value (EVM) analysis to calculate the expected outcome for scenarios that may or may not happen c) It is a diagramming and calculation technique for evaluating the implications of a chain of multiple options in the presence of uncertainty d) It is a risk analysis tool that can be used to create an estimated monetary value from a particular set of decisions

is primarily a qualitative risk analysis technique and is not generally used in quantitative risk analysis

The responsibiltiy assignment matrix (RAM) is: a) Used to identify accountabilities and responsibilities in individual performance appraisals of project team members b) Illustrates the connections between work packages or activities and project team members. It ensures that there is only one person accountable for each c) Developed at the activtiy level and used to closely link project roles and responsibilities to project network activities d) Used for development of the project budget and network diagrams

llustrates the connections between work packages or activities and project team members. It ensures that there is only one person accountable for each