Chapter 08 Skeletal System: Axial and Appendicular Skeleton
127. A pollex has ______ phalanges. A. 2 B. 3 C. 14 D. 10 E. 7
A
69. Each auricular surface of the sacrum is located on a(n) A. ala. B. median sacral crest. C. sacral cornu. D. apex. E. spinous process.
A
70. The clavicles articulate with the sternum at the _____ notches. A. clavicular B. suprasternal C. mastosternal D. jugular E. first costal
A
1. The skull consists of _____ cranial bones and _____ facial bones. A. 8, 14 B. 7, 12 C. 10, 12 D. 5, 7 E. 9, 11
A
109. Which statement accurately compares the hand and the foot? A. The hand and the foot each have 14 phalanges. B. The hand and the foot each have 15 phalanges. C. Each hand has 14 phalanges, but each foot has 15 phalanges. D. Each hand has 15 phalanges, but each foot has 14 phalanges.
A
131. On the os coxae, the ischial ramus is fused to the A. inferior pubic ramus. B. superior pubic ramus. C. ischial spine. D. ischial body. E. pubic tubercle.
A
138. What are you resting your hands on when you rest them on your hips, just below the waist? A. Iliac crests B. Superior gluteal lines C. Ischial spines D. Ischial tuberosities E. Arcuate lines
A
14. The sagittal suture joins the A. left and right parietal bones. B. left and right temporal bones. C. parietal and occipital bones. D. temporal and occipital bones. E. frontal and parietal bones.
A
32. Which bone bears the mandibular fossa? A. Maxilla B. Temporal C. Zygomatic D. Mandible E. Frontal
B
52. The vertebral column protects A. the kidneys. B. the spinal cord. C. the spleen. D. All of the choices are correct.
B
186. The deltoid muscle attaches to the humerus at the deltoid _____________.
Tuberosity
105. The primary curves of the vertebral column are also called accommodation curves, while the secondary curves are also called _____________ curves.
compensation
119. At the distal end of the humerus is a depression on the anteromedial surface. This depression accommodates a pointy projection of the ulna and is known as the ___________ fossa.
coronoid
194. A narrow, slit-like opening through a bone is called a _________.
fissure
78. Blood vessels and nerves travel in a marking of each rib known as its costal _________.
groove
185. The radius and ulna exhibit ______________ borders that are connected to each other by dense regular connective tissue.
interosseous
133. The three bones that make up each of the ox coxae are the ilium, pubis, and _______.
ischium
188. The smooth, curved surface of the acetabulum that articulates with the head of the femur is called the _____________ surface.
lunate
187. The palm of the hand is formed by the _________ bones.
metacarpal
190. The ____________ arch of the foot runs perpendicular to the longitudinal arches.
transverse
121. In anatomic position, the radius lies _____ to the ulna. A. posterior B. medial C. superior D. inferior E. lateral
e
106. Each vertebral arch is composed of two pedicles and two _____________.
laminae
103. Collectively, the hollow cavities in the maxillae, ethmoid, sphenoid, and frontal bones are called the ____________ sinuses.
paranasal
49. Which is not a function of the vertebral column? A. Supporting the weight of the head B. Maintaining upright body position C. Passageway for cranial nerves D. Passageway for spinal nerves E. Protecting the spinal cord
C
50. What is the correct order for the vertebral regions, from superior to inferior? A. Cervical - thoracic - sacral - coccygeal - lumbar B. Thoracic - sacral - lumbar - thoracic - coccygeal C. Cervical - thoracic - lumbar - sacral - coccygeal D. Thoracic - coccygeal - cervical - lumbar - sacral E. Thoracic - cervical - lumbar - coccygeal - sacral
C
59. Transverse foramina are found in _____ vertebrae. A. thoracic B. lumbar C. cervical D. sacral E. all
C
61. The cervical and lumbar curvatures are ________ curves, and they arch ________. A. primary, anteriorly B. primary, posteriorly C. secondary, anteriorly D. secondary, posteriorly
C
73. How many pairs of ribs articulate (directly or indirectly) with the sternum? A. 7 B. 12 C. 10 D. 5 E. 24
C
9. Which of these bones does not contribute to the region known as the pterion? A. Frontal B. Sphenoid C. Occipital D. Parietal E. Temporal
C
39. Developmentally, the most significant growth in the skull occurs A. between the ages of 5 and 10. B. between the ages of 10 and 15. C. before age 5. D. between the ages of 15 and 20. E. between the ages of 20 and 25.
c
42. The ossicles are A. three of the fourteen facial bones. B. six of the fourteen cranial bones. C. three small bones within each ear. D. neck bones that articulate with the larynx (voice box).
c
100. The roof of the cranium is called the _________, or skullcap.
calvaria
189. The portion of the lower limb between the knee and the ankle is known as the _________ region, or leg.
crural
184. The ___________ neck of the humerus marks the position of the former epiphyseal plate.
anatomical
104. As a person ages, the teeth wear down from use in a process called dental __________.
attrition
72. The sternal angle can be used as an anatomical landmark to identify the position of the A. apex of the heart. B. jugular vein. C. second rib. D. trachea. E. hyoid bone.
C
75. Rib 1 articulates with vertebra ______ and the ______. A. T1, body of the sternum B. T2, body of the sternum C. T1, manubrium of the sternum D. C7, manubrium of the sternum E. T2, clavicle
C
76. Which bone count is not correct for a normal adult human? A. 14 facial bones B. 7 pairs of true ribs C. 7 lumbar vertebrae D. 6 auditory ossicles E. 8 cranial bones
C
10. The zygomatic process of the temporal bone and the _________ process of the zygomatic bone form the zygomatic arch. A. zygomatic B. maxillary C. frontal D. temporal E. mastoid
D
11. Which bones form the calvaria? A. Occipital and parietals B. Parietals and frontal C. Occipital, parietals, and temporals D. Occipital, parietals, and frontal E. Occipital, parietals, temporals, and frontal
D
116. The bones of the antebrachium are the A. radius, ulna, and humerus. B. radius, ulna, humerus, and carpals. C. radius, ulna, carpals, and metacarpals. D. radius and ulna. E. carpals, metacarpals, and phalanges.
D
111. The only direct connection between the pectoral girdle and the axial skeleton is where the _____ articulates with the _____. A. humerus, scapula B. scapula, clavicle C. scapula, thoracic cage D. clavicle, humerus E. clavicle, sternum
E
114. The ___________ of the scapula is the point where the medial and lateral borders meet. A. lateral angle B. superior angle C. supraglenoid tubercle D. infraglenoid tubercle E. inferior angle
E
140. Which is not a site for muscle attachment on the femur? A. Gluteal tuberosity B. Pectineal line C. Linea aspera D. Greater trochanter E. Lateral condyle
E
20. The portion of the sphenoid bone that houses the pituitary gland is the A. pterygoid process. B. pterygoid plate. C. greater wing. D. lesser wing. E. sella turcica.
E
23. Which is not a correct pairing of bone and feature? A. Occipital bone - foramen magnum B. Sphenoid bone - foramen rotundum C. Temporal bone - carotid canal D. Frontal bone - supraorbital foramen E. Parietal bone - mental foramen
E
38. Which is characteristic of a female skull, as compared to a male skull? A. Chin pointed and triangular B. Mandibular angle greater than 125 degrees C. Little or no prominence to superciliary arches D. External surface of occipital bone relatively smooth E. All of the choices are characteristic of a female skull.
E
65. Which of these features is found in a lumbar vertebra? A. Pedicles B. Vertebral foramen C. Spinous process D. Vertebral arch E. All of the choices are correct.
E
7. Which of these skull bones cannot be easily palpated? A. Frontal B. Temporal C. Occipital D. Parietal E. Ethmoid
E
176. The head of the radius is distal, the head of the ulna is proximal.
FALSE
177. Metacarpal V is located at the base of the thumb.
FALSE
180. The pelvic outlet is the space surrounded by the pelvic brim.
FALSE
47. A young child's cranium is relatively smaller compared to the rest of its body than that of an adult.
FALSE
51. The posterior fontanelle normally closes within one month after birth.
FALSE
92. Sutural bones are most commonly found in the squamous suture.
FALSE
95. The seven bones that form the orbit are the maxilla, frontal, nasal, ethmoid, sphenoid, palatine, and zygomatic bones.
FALSE
97. Supraorbital margins with thick, rounded, blunt borders are characteristic of female skulls.
FALSE
99. The tubercle of rib 4 articulates with the transverse costal facet of T3.
FALSE
124. The head of the ulna articulates with the distal medial surface of the radius known as the ulnar notch.
TRUE
132. The sacrum articulates with the ilium at a rough area of the ilium known as the auricular surface.
TRUE
136. The pelvic inlet is also known as the superior pelvic aperture.
TRUE
15. The orbital complex includes part of the sphenoid bone.
TRUE
16. The lacrimal bone helps form both the orbital and nasal complexes.
TRUE
175. The posterior "bump" of the elbow is the olecranon of the ulna.
TRUE
178. The acetabulum is formed by the fusion of three separate bones.
TRUE
179. The ossa coxae are united anteriorly by the pubic symphysis and posteriorly by the sacrum.
TRUE
181. In anatomic position, the fibula is lateral to the tibia.
TRUE
182. The medial longitudinal arch prevents the medial side of the foot from touching the ground.
TRUE
183. Age-related changes to the pubic symphysis make the os coxae a reliable indicator of age at death for skeletal remains.
TRUE
3. The calvaria is made up of cranial bones and is part of the skull.
TRUE
93. The crista galli of the ethmoid bone serves as a point of attachment for the falx cerebri of the dura mater.
TRUE
94. There are three pairs of nasal conchae in the nasal cavity, the superior and middle pairs are part of the ethmoid bone, but the inferior ones are separate bones.
TRUE
96. Though it does not articulate with any other bone, the hyoid bone is considered to be part of the axial skeleton.
TRUE
98. The "base" is the superior portion of the sacrum.
TRUE
107. Which bone does not belong to the appendicular skeleton? A. Femur B. Sacrum C. Calcaneus D. Clavicle E. Ulna
b
40. The membranous sheets that connect developing cranial bones are called A. sutures. B. fontanelles. C. intraosseous membranes. D. craniochondral articulations. E. ossicles.
b
44. A skull with five gracile features and one robust feature is most likely a _______ skull. A. male B. female
b
126. Which is not among the bones in the proximal row of carpals? A. Triquetrum B. Lunate C. Scaphoid D. Trapezoid E. Pisiform
D
41. Of the following list, which describe the functions of the paranasal sinuses? a: Warm and moisten inhaled air b: Strengthen the bone c: Provide resonance to the voice A. a, b, and c B. None of the listed functions describe those of the sinuses. C. a only D. b only E. a and c
E
60. The vertebral processes that are most easily palpated along the midline of the back are the _____ processes. A. transverse B. inferior articular C. superior articular D. lamellar E. spinous
E
64. Which cervical vertebra is also known as the vertebra prominens? A. C1 B. C2 C. C4 D. C5 E. C7
E
157. Upper limb development lags behind lower limb development by about three days.
FALSE
102. The auditory ossicles are the malleus, the incus, and the _________.
stapes
112. Which bones comprise each pectoral girdle? A. Scapula, clavicle, and sternum B. Scapula, clavicle, sternum, and humerus C. Scapula and clavicle D. Sternum and clavicle E. Scapula, clavicle, and humerus
C
125. When the radius and ulna are parallel with one another, the forearm is said to be in pronation.
FALSE
110. Joints of the upper limb are more mobile, whereas joints of the lower limb are more stable.
TRUE
45. One of the ossicles is the incus.
TRUE
43. The hyoid bone is located between the A. mandible and the larynx. B. maxilla and the mandible. C. pharynx and the nasal cavity. D. cranium and the axilla. E. larynx and the trachea.
a
101. The ________ forms the inferior portion of the nasal septum.
vomer
143. Which bones articulate with the femur? A. Os coxae, tibia, patella B. Os coxae, tibia, fibula C. Scapula, radius, ulna D. Os coxae, fibia, tibula E. Tibia, fibula, patella, os coxae
A
146. The tibial tuberosity is the attachment site for the A. patellar ligament. B. hamstring muscles. C. patellar tendon. D. sciatic nerve. E. intercondylar eminence.
A
148. The head of the fibula articulates with the fibular articular facet on the A. lateral condyle of the tibia. B. lateral condyle of the femur. C. medial malleolus of the tibia. D. medial condyle of the tibia. E. medial condyle of the femur.
A
2. Protection of vital organs and hematopoiesis are two functions commonly named for the __________ skeleton. A. axial B. appendicular
A
27. Which bone is not a facial bone? A. Temporal B. Mandible C. Zygomatic D. Maxilla E. Nasal
A
30. Which bones articulate with the zygomatic bone? A. Frontal, temporal, and maxilla B. Temporal and maxilla C. Temporal and parietal D. Frontal, parietal, and occipital E. Temporal, sphenoid, and maxilla
A
35. Which bones form the inferior margin of the orbit? A. Maxilla and zygomatic B. Frontal and sphenoid C. Palatine and sphenoid D. Lacrimal and ethmoid E. Zygomatic and sphenoid
A
37. What is the location of the auditory ossicles? A. Petrous part of temporal bone B. Squamous part of temporal bone C. Tympanic part of temporal bone D. Auditory part of temporal bone E. Mastoid part of temporal bone
A
48. Which fontanel is the last to close? A. Anterior B. Sphenoidal C. Mastoid
A
5. Which is not a cranial bone? A. Vomer B. Frontal C. Occipital D. Temporal E. Parietal
A
55. Which curves of the vertebral column are present at birth? A. Thoracic and sacral B. Lumbar and cervical C. Lumbar and sacral D. Cervical and thoracic E. Lumbar and thoracic
A
66. Which features are found only on thoracic vertebrae? A. Costal facets and demifacets B. Transverse foramina C. Spinous processes D. Vertebral foramina E. Laminae
A
67. Which feature is unique to the axis? A. Dens B. Bifid spinous process C. Superior articular facet D. Transverse foramen E. Vertebral foramen
A
77. The part of a rib that articulates with the demifacets on the bodies of vertebrae is the A. head. B. tubercle. C. shaft. D. tuberosity.
A
8. The _______ suture is the articulation between the occipital bone and both parietal bones. A. lambdoid B. coronal C. sagittal D. squamous E. frontal
A
113. What bone(s) does the clavicle articulate with? A. Scapula only B. Scapula and sternum C. Scapula and humerus D. Humerus and sternum E. Humerus only
B
115. The costal tuberosity is a feature of the A. manubrium of the sternum. B. clavicle. C. scapula. D. xiphoid process. E. body of the sternum.
B
12. Which cranial fossa supports the cerebellum? A. Anterior B. Posterior C. Middle D. Lateral E. Medial
B
122. Which is not a feature of the ulna? A. Trochlear notch B. Ulnar notch C. Coronoid process D. Head E. Styloid process
B
123. The biceps brachii muscle attaches to the _________ of the radius. A. neck B. radial tuberosity C. styloid process D. head E. radial notch
B
13. The basin in the floor of the cranium that accommodates the temporal lobe of the brain is the A. posterior cranial fossa. B. middle cranial fossa. C. inferior cortical plate. D. cribriform fissure. E. sella turcica.
B
134. The ___________ subdivides the pelvis into the "true pelvis" and the "false pelvis". A. sacral promontory B. pelvic brim C. pelvic inlet D. pelvic outlet E. pubic symphysis
B
137. Which is not characteristic of a male pelvis? A. Greater sciatic notch narrow, U-shaped, and deep B. Coccyx tilted posteriorly C. Pubic arch less than 90 degrees D. Obturator foramen oval E. Superior inlet heart-shaped
B
139. As an adult ages, the symphysial surface of the pubis A. becomes more flattened, and the bony ridge at its circumference progressively disappears. B. becomes more flattened, and a bony rim forms at its circumference. C. becomes more billowed, and the bony ridge at its circumference progressively disappears. D. becomes more billowed, and a bony rim forms at its circumference.
B
142. Which is a sesamoid bone? A. Femur B. Patella C. First metatarsal D. Clavicle E. Calcaneus
B
145. The medial and lateral condyles of the tibia articulate with the A. apex of the patella. B. medial and lateral condyles of the femur. C. medial and lateral epicondyles of the femur. D. head of the fibula. E. greater and lesser trochanters of the femur.
B
153. Not counting sesamoid bones, what is the total number of tarsals, metatarsals, and phalanges in a single ankle and foot? A. 24 B. 26 C. 27 D. 30 E. 32
B
155. Which is the highest of the three arches of the foot? A. The transverse arch B. The medial longitudinal arch C. The lateral longitudinal arch
B
156. The apical ectodermal ridge A. forms at the proximal end of each limb bud. B. plays a role in differentiation and elongation of the limb. C. ossifies prior to formation of the hand and foot plates. D. must undergo apoptosis before the limb can develop. E. secretes mesoderm for muscle formation.
B
19. What is the function of the nuchal lines? A. Attachment for dura mater B. Attachment for muscles and ligaments C. Passageway for cranial nerves D. Passageway for jugular vein E. Grooves for dural sinuses
B
192. Which bone marking does not serve as an articulating surface? A. Head B. Epicondyle C. Condyle D. Facet E. Trochlea
B
28. Which bone is unpaired? A. Lacrimal B. Vomer C. Inferior nasal concha D. Palatine E. Maxilla
B
29. The _________ process of the mandible articulates with the temporal bone. A. alveolar B. condylar C. mastoid D. temporal E. coronoid
B
53. Which statement accurately describes the articulations between ribs and vertebrae? A. Three of the cervical and ten of the thoracic vertebrae articulate with ribs. B. Twelve thoracic vertebrae articulate with the ribs. C. Two lumbar and ten thoracic vertebrae articulate with the ribs. D. Two cervical, two lumbar and eight thoracic vertebrae articulate with the ribs. E. Nine thoracic and three lumbar vertebrae articulate with the ribs.
B
56. Which of the spinal curves forms when a child is about 12 months of age? A. Sacral B. Lumbar C. Cervical D. Thoracic E. Coccygeal
B
57. The _________ provide passageways for spinal nerves to exit the vertebral column and travel to other parts of the body. A. vertebral foramina B. intervertebral foramina C. vertebral canals D. articular facets E. transverse foramina
B
58. What is the inner, gelatinous region of each intervertebral disc called? A. Annulus fibrosus B. Nucleus pulposus C. Lamella D. Chondral ring E. Articular ring
B
6. Which bone is not paired? A. Maxilla B. Mandible C. Lacrimal D. Nasal E. Zygomatic
B
62. The spinal curvature that develops as a child learns to walk shifts the trunk weight over the legs. It is an example of a ________ curve. A. primary B. secondary
B
63. The occipital condyles articulate with the A. axis. B. atlas. C. dens. D. vertebra prominens. E. odontoid process.
B
71. What is the superior portion of the sternum called? A. Xiphoid process B. Manubrium C. Body D. Gladiolus E. Coccyx
B
74. How many pairs of ribs are "floating ribs" that do not articulate with the sternum? A. 5 B. 2 C. 7 D. 12 E. 10
B
128. Which is not a carpal bone? A. Hamate B. Trapezium C. Capitulum D. Scaphoid E. Trapezoid
C
129. At what location do the three bones of the os coxae fuse? A. Iliac crest B. Ischial tuberosity C. Acetabulum D. Pelvic brim E. Pubic symphysis
C
147. What is the name of the prominence on the medial surface of the ankle? A. Tibial tuberosity B. Medial condyle C. Medial malleolus D. Calcaneus E. Head of the fibula
C
149. Which of the following choices accurately describes the crural bones? A. Both the tibia and fibula are weight-bearing. B. Only the fibula is weight-bearing. C. Only the tibia is weight-bearing. D. Neither the tibia nor fibula are weight-bearing.
C
150. The expanded distal end of the fibula is called the A. head. B. neck. C. lateral malleolus. D. medial malleolus. E. shaft.
C
152. Which bone articulates with all three cuneiform bones? A. Cuboid B. Calcaneus C. Navicular D. First metatarsal E. Talus
C
154. Which bone does not contribute to the medial longitudinal arch of the foot? A. Talus B. Navicular C. Cuboid D. Metatarsal I E. Medial cuneiform
C
18. Which bone bears the superior and inferior temporal lines? A. Temporal B. Occipital C. Parietal D. Frontal E. Zygomatic
C
193. Rami, trochanters, tubercles, and tuberosities are bone markings that serve as A. articulating surfaces. B. passageways for nerves. C. attachments for ligaments or tendons. D. pits or depressions to hold cartilage. E. passageways for blood vessels.
C
25. What is the function of the cribriform plate? A. Permits air to enter the cranial cavity to cool the brain B. Provides large surface area for muscle attachment C. Permits passage of the olfactory nerves D. Forms part of the nasal septum E. Articulates with the atlas for rotational head movement
C
26. The pterygoid spines and optic canals are features of the _____ bone. A. ethmoid B. temporal C. sphenoid D. occipital E. frontal
C
31. A perpendicular plate is a feature of the _____ and _____ bones. A. palatine, lacrimal B. ethmoid, sphenoid C. palatine, ethmoid D. nasal, lacrimal E. maxilla, zygomatic
C
36. Which bone bears the greater and lesser cornua? A. Maxilla B. Stapes C. Hyoid D. Incus E. Mandible
C
4. Which bone is not part of the axial skeleton? A. Malleus B. Sacrum C. Clavicle D. Atlas E. Frontal bone
C
130. Which is not correct regarding the pelvis? A. The adult pelvis is composed of 4 bones. B. The pelvis includes the sacrum. C. The pelvic girdle protects the viscera of the pelvic cavity. D. In anatomic position, the pubis is posterior and inferior to the ischium. E. There are two sacroiliac articulations.
D
135. Which does not contribute to the pelvic brim? A. Arcuate line B. Sacral promontory C. Pubic crest D. Gluteal line E. Pectineal line
D
141. Which is not correct regarding the femur? A. The condyles are located at the distal end of the bone. B. In anatomic position, the femur is angled medially. C. The head of the femur articulates with the acetabulum. D. The intercondylar fossa is located on the anterior surface of the bone. E. The depression in the head of the femur is called the fovea.
D
144. Which is not correct regarding the patella? A. The patella is triangular in shape. B. The patella is located in the tendon of the quadriceps femoris muscle. C. The posterior aspect of the patella articulates with the femur. D. The broad superior portion of the patella is called the apex. E. The patella can be palpated on the anterior surface of the knee.
D
151. Which tarsal bone articulates with metatarsals IV and V? A. Talus B. Calcaneus C. Lateral cuneiform D. Cuboid E. Medial cuneiform
D
158. Which is not a correct pairing of a bone and its common name? A. Clavicle - collar bone B. Patella - knee cap C. Scapula - shoulder blade D. Talus - heel E. Tibia - shin
D
17. Which bone is not part of the nasal complex? A. Nasal B. Frontal C. Inferior nasal concha D. Temporal E. Ethmoid
D
191. Each of the depressions on the maxillae and mandible that holds a tooth is called a(n) A. fossa. B. sulcus. C. sinus. D. alveolus. E. foramen.
D
21. Which is not a feature of the ethmoid bone? A. Cribriform foramina B. Perpendicular plate C. Crista galli D. Inferior nasal concha E. Orbital plate
D
22. Which bone bears the infraorbital foramen? A. Frontal B. Temporal C. Mandible D. Maxilla E. Zygomatic
D
24. The jugular foramen is located between the _____ and _____ bones. A. temporal, parietal B. sphenoid, ethmoid C. sphenoid, occipital D. occipital, temporal E. occipital, parietal
D
33. The incisive foramen and palatine process are features of which bone? A. Mandible B. Palatine bone C. Vomer D. Maxilla E. Temporal bone
D
34. Which of these is not a paranasal sinus? A. Maxillary sinus B. Ethmoid sinus C. Sphenoid sinus D. Mastoid sinus E. Frontal sinus
D
54. The vertebral column includes ___ cervical, ___ thoracic, and ___ lumbar vertebrae. A. 5, 12, 7 B. 6, 14, 6 C. 7, 13, 4 D. 7, 12, 5 E. 6, 13, 5
D
68. The inferior termination of the sacral canal is an opening called the A. anterior sacral foramen. B. sacral promontory. C. posterior sacral foramen. D. sacral hiatus.
D
117. Which bones articulate with the humerus? A. Scapula, radius, and ulna B. Scapula and radius C. Scapula and ulna D. Clavicle, scapula, ulna, and radius E. Clavicle and ulna 118. The head of the humerus articulates with the A. greater trochanter. B. trochlear notch. C. glenoid cavity. D. greater tubercle. E. intertubercular sulcus.
c
120. The bony projections that can be palpated medially and laterally at the wrist are the A. medial and lateral epicondyles. B. spinous processes. C. styloid processes. D. medial and lateral malleoli. E. greater and lesser trochanters.
c