chapter 23 prepu

When providing discharge instructions for a client who has been prescribed sublingual nitroglycerin for angina, the nurse should plan to include which instructions?

"See if rest relieves the chest pain before using the nitroglycerin." Decreased activity may relieve chest pain; sitting will prevent injury should the nitroglycerin lower BP and cause fainting. The client should expect to feel dizzy or flushed or to develop a headache following sublingual nitroglycerin use. The client should place one nitroglycerin tablet under the tongue if 2-3 minutes of rest fails to relieve pain. Clients may take up to three nitroglycerin tablets within 5 minutes of each other to relieve angina. However, they should call 911 if the three tablets fail to resolve the chest pain.

The nurse is discussing risk factors for developing CAD with a patient in the clinic. Which results would indicate that the patient is not at significant risk for the development of CAD?

High-density lipoprotein (HDL), 80 mg/dL * A fasting lipid profile should demonstrate the following values (Alberti et al., 2009): - LDL cholesterol less than 100 mg/dL (less than 70 mg/dL for very high-risk patients); - total cholesterol less than 200 mg/dL; - HDL cholesterol greater than 40 mg/dL for males - hdl cholesterol greater than 50 mg/dL for females; - triglycerides less than 150 mg/dL.

While receiving a heparin infusion to treat deep vein thrombosis, a client reports bleeding in the gums when brushing teeth. What should the nurse do first?

Notify the health care provider. Because heparin can cause bleeding gums that may indicate excessive anticoagulation, the nurse should notify the health care provider, who will evaluate the client's condition. The health care provider should order laboratory tests such as partial thromboplastin time before concluding that the client's bleeding is significant. The ordered heparin dose may be therapeutic rather than excessive, so the nurse shouldn't discontinue the heparin infusion unless the health care provider orders this after evaluating the client. Protamine sulfate, not a coumarin derivative, is given to counteract heparin. Heparin doesn't normally cause bleeding gums.

The nurse is assessing a client with severe angina pectoris and electrocardiogram changes in the emergency room. What is the most important cardiac marker for the client?

troponin This client exhibits signs of myocardial infarction (MI), and the most accurate serum determinant of an MI is troponin level. Creatine kinase, lactate dehydrogenase, and myoglobin tests can show evidence of muscle injury, but the studies are less specific indicators of myocardial damage than troponin.

Which nursing actions would be of greatest importance in the management of a client preparing for angioplasty?

withhold anticoagulant therapy The nurse knows to withhold the anticoagulant therapy to decrease chance of hemorrhage during the procedure. The nurse does inform the client of diagnostic test, will assess pulses, and prep the skin prior to the angioplasty, but this is not the most important action to be taken.

A client admitted to the coronary care unit (CCU) diagnosed with a STEMI is anxious and fearful. Which medication will the nurse administer to relieve the client's anxiety and decrease cardiac workload?

IV morphine IV morphine is the analgesic of choice for the treatment of an acute MI. It is given to reduce pain and treat anxiety. It also reduces preload and afterload, which decreases the workload of the heart. IV nitroglycerin is given to alleviate chest pain. Administration of atenolol and amlodipine are not indicated in this situation.

The nurse is caring for a client following a coronary artery bypass graft (CABG). The nurse notes persistent oozing of bloody drainage from various puncture sites. The nurse anticipates that the physician will order which medication to neutralize the unfractionated heparin the client received?

Protamine sulfate Protamine sulfate is known as the antagonist for unfractionated heparin (it neutralizes heparin). Alteplase is a thrombolytic agent. Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication that is given to reduce the risk of thrombus formation after coronary stent placement. The antiplatelet effect of aspirin does not reverse the effects of heparin.

A nurse is evaluating a client who had a myocardial infarction (MI) 7 days earlier. Which outcome indicates that the client is responding favorably to therapy?

The client demonstrates ability to tolerate more activity without chest pain. The ability to tolerate more activity without chest pain indicates a favorable response to therapy in a client who is recovering from an MI or who has a history of coronary artery disease. The client should have a normal electrocardiogram with no arrhythmias and a regular heart rate of 60 to 100 beats/minute. Smoking is a cardiovascular risk factor that the client must be willing to eliminate. A client who responds favorably to therapy shouldn't have chest pain.

Which term refers to pre-infarction angina?

Unstable angina Pre-infarction angina is also known as unstable angina. Stable angina has predictable and consistent pain that occurs upon exertion and is relieved by rest. Variant angina is exhibited by pain at rest and reversible ST-segment elevation. Silent angina manifests through evidence of ischemia, but the client reports no symptoms.

A client is receiving anticoagulant therapy. What question will the nurse ask the client to detect any signs of bleeding?

What color is your urine? The patient receiving anticoagulation therapy should be monitored for signs and symptoms of bleeding, such as changes in the color of the stool or urine. Anticoagulation therapy should not cause dry skin. The anticoagulation therapy should not change the client's breathing or appetite.

A client reports midsternal chest pain radiating down his left arm. The nurse notes that the client is restless and slightly diaphoretic, and measures a temperature of 99.6 °F (37.6 °C); a heart rate of 102 beats/minute; regular, slightly labored respirations at 26 breaths/minute; and a blood pressure of 150/90 mm Hg. What assessment is the nurse's highest priority?

acute pain The assessment of pain takes highest priority because it increases the client's pulse and blood pressure. During the acute phase of an MI, low-grade fever is an expected result of the body's response to myocardial tissue necrosis. The client's blood pressure and heart rate do not suggest a decreased cardiac output. Anxiety may be an important assessment, but addressing acute pain (the priority concern) may alleviate the client's anxiety.

A nurse is reevaluating a client receiving IV fibrinolytic therapy. Which finding requires immediate intervention by the nurse?

altered level of consciousness A client receiving fibrinolytic therapy is at risk for complications associated with bleeding. Altered level of consciousness may indicate hypoxia and intracranial bleeding, and the infusion should be discontinued immediately. Minimal bleeding requires manual pressure. Reperfusion dysrhythmias are an expected finding. A chest pain score of 2 is low and indicates the client's chest pain is subsiding, an expected outcome of this therapy.

A client is beginning to have more breathlessness with aortic stenosis. What is the treatment does the nurse anticipate for the client?

balloon valvuloplasty Additional treatment eventually becomes critical because average survival is 2 to 3 years once symptoms develop. Balloon valvuloplasty is an invasive, nonsurgical procedure to enlarge a narrowed valve opening. Balloon angioplasty, cardiac catheterization, and cardiac graft procedure are not indicated treatments for symptomatic aortic stenosis.

Which is a diagnostic marker for inflammation of vascular endothelium?

c-reactive protein CRP is a marker for inflammation of the vascular endothelium. LDL, HDL, and triglycerides are not markers of vascular endothelial inflammation. They are elements of fat metabolism.

A client with CAD thinks diltiazem (Cardizem) has been causing nausea. Diltiazem (Cardizem) is categorized as which type of drug?

calcium-channel blocker Calcium-channel blocking agents may be used to treat CAD as well, although research has shown that they may be less beneficial than beta-adrenergic blocking agents. Diltiazem (Cardizem) is an example of a calcium-channel blocker.

A nurse is caring for a client who experienced an MI. The client is ordered to received metoprolol. The nurse understands that this medication has which therapeutic effect?

decreases resting heart rate The therapeutic effects of beta-adrenergic blocking agents such as metoprolol are to reduce myocardial oxygen consumption by blocking beta-adrenergic sympathetic stimulation to the heart. The result is reduced heart rate, slowed conduction of impulses through the conduction system, decreased blood pressure, and reduced myocardial contractility to balance the myocardial oxygen needs and amount of oxygen available. This helps to control chest pain and delays the onset of ischemia during work or exercise. This classification of medication also reduces the incidence of recurrent angina, infarction, and cardiac mortality. In general, the dosage of medication is titrated to achieve a resting heart rate of 50-60 bpm. Metoprolol is not administered to decrease cholesterol levels, increase cardiac output, or decrease platelet aggregation.

The nurse is reviewing the laboratory results for a client diagnosed with coronary artery disease (CAD). The client's low-density lipoprotein (LDL) level is 115 mg/dL. The nurse interprets this value as

high Treatment of blood cholesterol to reduce cardiovascular risk in adults calls for a fasting lipid profile to demonstrate an LDL value below 100 mg/dL (or less than 70 mg/dL for very high-risk clients). An LDL level of 115 mg/dL is higher than the target for treatment.

Severe chest pain is reported by a client during an acute myocardial infarction. Which of the following is the most appropriate drug for the nurse to administer?

morphine sulfate Morphine sulfate not only decreases pain perception and anxiety but also helps to decrease heart rate, blood pressure, and demand for oxygen. Nitrates are administered for vasodilation and pain control in clients with angina-type pain, but oral forms (such as isosorbide dinitrate) have a large first-pass effect, and transdermal patch is used for long-term management. Meperidine hydrochloride is a synthetic opioid usually reserved for treatment of postoperative or migraine pain.

The nurse is assessing a client with suspected post-pericardiotomy syndrome after cardiac surgery. What manifestation will alert the nurse to this syndrome?

pericardial friction rub Post-pericardiotomy syndrome is characterized by fever, pericardial pain, pleural pain, dyspnea, pericardial effusion, pericardial friction rub, and arthralgia. Leukocytosis (elevated WBCs) occurs, along with elevation of the ESR. Hypothermia is not a symptom of post-pericardiotomy syndrome.

The nurse is reviewing the results of a total cholesterol level for a client who has been taking simvastatin. What results display the effectiveness of the medication?

160-190 Simvastatin is a statin frequently given as initial therapy for significantly elevated cholesterol and low-density lipoprotein levels. Normal total cholesterol is less than 200 mg/dL.

A client asks the nurse how long to wait after taking nitroglycerin before experiencing pain relief. What is the best answer by the nurse?

5 minutes Nitroglycerin may be given by several routes: sublingual tablet or spray, oral capsule, topical agent, and intravenous (IV) administration. Sublingual nitroglycerin is generally placed under the tongue or in the cheek (buccal pouch). The nurse should instruct the client to take a second dose five minutes after the first if pain persists. The nurse should instruct the client to take a third dose five minutes after the second if pain still persists. The nurse should advise the client to call 911 if pressure or pain is not relieved in 15 minutes by taking 3 tablets at 5-minute intervals.

After percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA), the nurse confirms that a client is experiencing bleeding from the femoral site. What will be the nurse's initial action?

Apply manual pressure at the site of the insertion of the sheath. The immediate nursing action would be to apply pressure to the femoral site. Reviewing blood studies will not stop the bleeding. The nurse cannot decrease anticoagulation therapy independently. If the bleeding does not stop, the health care provider needs to be notified.

When starting a client on oral or I.V. diltiazem, for which potential complication should the nurse monitor?

Atrioventricular block The chief complications of diltiazem are hypotension, atrioventricular blocks, heart failure, and elevated liver enzyme levels. Other reported reactions include flushing, nocturia, and polyuria, but not renal failure. Although flushing may occur, it's an adverse reaction, not a potential complication.

The nurse is providing education about the nutrient content of the Therapeutic Lifestyle Changes (TLC) diet to a community group. What information will the nurse provide? Select all that apply.

Carbohydrates should make up 50% to 60% of the total calories. Dietary fiber should be 20 to 30 grams per day. Protein should make up approximately 15% of total calories. According to the nutrient content of the TLC diet, cholesterol should make up less than 200 mg/day, carbohydrates should make up 50% to 60% of the total calories, dietary fiber should be 20 to 30 grams per day, protein should make approximately 15% of the total calories, and fat should make up 25% to 30% of the total calories.

The nurse is administering a calcium channel blocker to a patient who has symptomatic sinus tachycardia at a rate of 132 bpm. What is the anticipated action of the drug for this patient?

Decreases the sinoatrial node automaticity Calcium channel blockers have a variety of effects on the ischemic myocardium. These agents decrease sinoatrial node automaticity and atrioventricular node conduction, resulting in a slower heart rate and a decrease in the strength of myocardial contraction (negative inotropic effect).

Which of the following is inconsistent as a condition related to metabolic syndrome?

Hypotension A diagnosis of metabolic syndrome includes three of the following conditions: insulin resistance, abdominal obesity, dyslipidemia, hypertension, proinflammatory state, and prothrombotic state.

The nurse is explaining the cause of angina pain to a client. What will the nurse say most directly caused the pain?

a lack of oxygen in the heart muscle cells Angina pectoris refers to chest pain that is brought about by myocardial ischemia. It is the result of cardiac muscle cells being deprived of oxygen due to the progressive symptoms of coronary artery disease. Artery blockage or closure leads to myocardial death. The destroyed part of the heart (death of heart tissue) is a myocardial infarction.

A client is admitted for treatment of Prinzmetal angina. When developing this client's care plan, the nurse should keep in mind that this type of angina is a result of what trigger?

coronary artery spasm Prinzmetal angina results from coronary artery spasm. Activities that increase myocardial oxygen demand may trigger angina of effort. An unpredictable amount of activity may precipitate unstable angina. Worsening angina is brought on by the same type or level of activity that caused previous angina episodes; anginal pain becomes increasingly severe.

Which complication of cardiac surgery occurs when fluid and clots accumulate in the pericardial sac, which compresses the heart, preventing blood from filling the ventricles?

cardiac tamponade Cardiac tamponade is fluid and clot accumulation in the pericardial sac, which compresses the heart, preventing the blood from filling the ventricles. Fluid overload is exhibited by high pulmonary artery wedge pressure, central venous pressure, and pulmonary artery diastolic pressure, as well as crackles in the lungs. Hypertension results from postoperative vasoconstriction. Hypothermia is a low body temperature that leads to vasoconstriction.

A client who has been diagnosed with Prinzmetal's angina will present with which symptom?

chest pain that occurs at rest and usually in the middle of the night A client with Prinzmetal's angina will complain of chest pain that occurs at rest, usually between 12 and 8:00 AM, is sporadic over 3-6 months, and diminishes over time. Clients with stable angina generally experience chest pain that lasts 15 minutes or less and may radiate. Clients with Cardiac Syndrome X experience prolonged chest pain that accompanies exercise and is not always relieved by medication. Clients with unstable angina experience chest pain of increased frequency, severity, and duration that is poorly relieved by rest or oral nitrates.

Which medication is given to clients who are diagnosed with angina but are allergic to aspirin?

clopidogrel Clopidogrel or ticlopidine is given to clients who are allergic to aspirin or are given in addition to aspirin to clients who are at high risk for MI. Amlodipine, diltiazem, and felodipine are calcium channel blockers.

What is a modifiable risk factor for the development of atherosclerosis?

consumption of a high-fat diet There are many known risk factors for development of atherosclerosis. Factors that are modifiable, or that a client can change, include diet, activity level, and smoking cessation. Some that are nonmodifiable include gender, heredity, certain diseases, and history of infection with Chlamydia pneumoniae. These factors individually or collectively contribute to hyperlipidemia, which then triggers atherosclerotic changes.

A client comes to the emergency department (ED) reporting precordial chest pain. In describing the pain, the client describes it as pressure with a sudden onset. What disease process would the nurse suspect in this client?

coronary artery disease The classic symptom of CAD is chest pain (angina) or discomfort during activity or stress. Such pain or discomfort typically is manifested as sudden pain or pressure that may be centered over the heart (precordial) or under the sternum (substernal). Raynaud syndrome in the hands presents with symptoms of hands that are cold, blanched, and wet with perspiration. Cardiogenic shock is a complication of an MI. Venous occlusive disease occurs in the veins, not the arteries.

The nurse is caring for a client with coronary artery disease. What is the nurse's priority goal for the client?

enhance myocardial oxygenation Enhancing myocardial oxygenation is always the first priority when a client exhibits signs or symptoms of cardiac compromise. Without adequate oxygen, the myocardium suffers damage. A nurse administers sublingual nitroglycerin to treat acute angina pectoris, but its administration isn't the first priority. Although educating the client and decreasing anxiety are important in care, neither is a priority when a client is compromised.

The nurse is administering oral metoprolol. Where are the receptor sites mainly located?

heart Metoprolol works at beta 1 -receptor sites. Most beta1-receptor sites are located in the heart. Beta2-receptor sites are located in the uterus, blood vessels, and bronchi.

A client comes to the health care provider's office for a follow-up visit 4 weeks after suffering a myocardial infarction (MI). Which evaluation statement suggests that the client needs more instruction?

"Client walks 4 miles in 1 hour every day." Four weeks after an MI, a client's walking program should aim for a goal of 2 miles in less than 1 hour. Walking 4 miles in 1 hour is excessive and may induce another MI by increasing the heart's oxygen demands. Therefore, this client requires appropriate exercise guidelines and precautions. Performing relaxation exercises, following a low-fat, low-cholesterol diet, and seeking emergency help if the heart rate increases markedly at rest indicate understanding of the cardiac rehabilitation program. For example, the client should reduce stress, which speeds the heart rate and thus increases myocardial oxygen demands. Reducing dietary fat and cholesterol intake helps lower risk of atherosclerosis. A sudden rise in the heart rate while at rest warrants emergency medical attention because it may signal a life-threatening arrhythmia and increase myocardial oxygen demands.

A client with angina pectoris must learn how to reduce risk factors that exacerbate this condition. When developing the client's care plan, which expected outcome should a nurse include?

"Client will verbalize the intention to stop smoking." A client with angina pectoris should stop smoking at once because smoking increases the blood carboxyhemoglobin level; this increase, in turn, reduces the heart's oxygen supply and may induce angina. The client must seek immediate medical attention if chest pain doesn't subside after three nitroglycerin doses taken 5 minutes apart; serious myocardial damage or even sudden death may occur if chest pain persists for 2 hours. To improve coronary circulation and promote weight management, the client should get regular daily exercise. The client should eat plenty of fiber, which may decrease serum cholesterol and triglyceride levels and minimize hypertension, in turn reducing the risk for atherosclerosis (which plays a role in angina).

A client, who has undergone a percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA), has received discharge instructions. Which statement by the client would indicate the need for further teaching by the nurse?

"I should expect a low-grade fever and swelling at the site for the next week." Fever and swelling at the site are signs of infection and should be reported to the physician. Showers should be taken until the insertion site is healed. Prolonged sitting can result in thrombosis formation. Bruising at the insertion site is common and may take from 1 to 3 weeks to resolve.

A client is ordered a nitroglycerine transdermal patch for treatment of CAD and asks the nurse why the patch is removed at bedtime. Which is the best response by the nurse?

"Removing the patch at night prevents drug tolerance while keeping the benefits." Tolerance to antianginal effects of nitrates can occur when taking these drugs for long periods of time. Therefore, to prevent tolerance and maintain benefits, it is a common regime to remove transdermal patches at night. Common adverse effects of nitroglycerin are headaches and contact dermatitis but not the reason for removing the patch at night. It is true that while the client rests, there is less demand on the heart but not the primary reason for removing the patch.

When assessing a client who reports recent chest pain, the nurse obtains a thorough history. Which client statement most strongly suggests angina pectoris?

"The pain occurred while I was mowing the lawn." Decreased oxygen supply to the myocardium causes angina pectoris. Lawn mowing increases the cardiac workload, which increases the heart's need for oxygen and may precipitate this chest pain. Anginal pain typically is self-limiting, lasting 5 to 15 minutes. Food consumption doesn't reduce angina pain, although it may ease pain caused by a GI ulcer. Deep breathing has no effect on anginal pain.

A client is prescribed a nitroglycerin transdermal patch to treat angina. Which statement does the nurse include when reinforcing medication teaching to the client prior to discharge?

"The patch should be worn for 12 hours and then removed for 12 hours." A transdermal nitroglycerin patch is prescribed for the prevention of angina pectoris. Nitroglycerin transdermal patches are typically applied for 12 to 14 hours, and then removed for the same amount of time. Though it is true that common adverse effects of nitroglycerin are headaches and contact dermatitis and that there is less demand on the heart when the client rests, these are not the reasons for applying and removing the patch for the same length of time in a 24-hour period.

Following a percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty, a client is monitored in the postprocedure unit. The client's heparin infusion was stopped 2 hours earlier. There is no evidence of bleeding or hematoma at the insertion site, and the pressure device is removed. With regards to partial thromboplastin time (PTT), when should the nurse plan to remove the femoral sheath?

50 seconds or less. Heparin causes an elevation of the PTT and, thereby, increases the risk for bleeding. With a large cannulation such as a sheath used for angioplasty, the PTT should be 50 seconds or less before the sheath is removed. Removing the sheath before the PTT drops below 50 seconds can cause bleeding at the insertion site. The other PTT results are incorrect for determining when to remove the sheath.

To be effective, percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA) must be performed within what time frame, beginning with arrival at the emergency department after diagnosis of myocardial infarction (MI)?

60 minutes The 60-minute interval is known as "door-to-balloon time" in which a PTCA can be performed on a client with a diagnosed MI. The 30-minute interval is known as "door-to-needle time" for the administration of thrombolytics after MI. The time frame of 9 days refers to the time until the onset of vasculitis after administration of streptokinase for thrombolysis in a client with an acute MI. The 6- to 12-month time frame refers to the time period during which streptokinase will not be used again in the same client for acute MI.

A nurse is caring for a client who is exhibiting signs and symptoms characteristic of a myocardial infarction (MI). Which statement describes priorities the nurse should establish while performing the physical assessment?

Assess the client's level of pain and administer prescribed analgesics. The cardinal symptom of MI is persistent, crushing substernal pain or pressure. The nurse should first assess the client's pain and prepare to administer nitroglycerin or morphine for pain control. The client must be medically stabilized before pulmonary artery catheterization can be used as a diagnostic procedure. Anxiety and a feeling of impending doom are characteristic of MI, but the priority is to stabilize the client medically. Although the client and family members should be kept informed at every step of the recovery process, this action isn't the priority when treating a client with a suspected MI.

A client has had oral anticoagulation ordered. What should the nurse monitor for when the client is taking oral anticoagulation?

Prothrombin time (PT) or international normalized ratio (INR) The nurse should monitor PT or INR when oral anticoagulation is prescribed. Vascular sites for bleeding, urine output, and hourly IV infusions are generally monitored in all clients.

A nurse is educating a client with coronary artery disease about nitroglycerin administration. The nurse tells the client that nitroglycerin has what actions? Select all that apply.

Reduces myocardial oxygen consumption Dilates blood vessels Decreases ischemia Relieves pain

A triage team is assessing a client to determine if reported chest pain is a manifestation of angina pectoris or an MI. The nurse knows that a primary distinction of angina pain is?

Relieved by rest and nitroglycerin One characteristic that can differentiate the pain of angina from a myocardial infarction is pain that is relieved by rest and nitroglycerine. There may be some exceptions (unstable angina), but the distinction is helpful especially when combined with other assessment data.

The nurse is caring for a client presenting to the emergency department (ED) reporting chest pain. Which electrocardiographic (ECG) finding would be most concerning to the nurse?

ST elevation The first signs of an acute MI are usually seen in the T wave and the ST segment. The T wave becomes inverted; the ST segment elevates (it is usually flat). An elevated ST segment in two contiguous leads is a key diagnostic indicator for MI (i.e., ST-elevation MI). This client requires immediate invasive therapy or fibrinolytic medications. Although the other ECG findings require intervention, elevated ST elevations require immediate and definitive interventions.

The nurse provides care to a menopausal client, who states, "I read a news article that says I am at risk for coronary vascular disease due to inflammation." Which method should the nurse suggest to the client to aid in the prevention of inflammation that can lead to atherosclerosis?

addressing obesity The 2019 ACC/AHA Guideline on the Primary Prevention of Coronary Vascular Disease (CVD) indicates a relationship between body fat and the production of inflammatory and thrombotic (clot-facilitating) proteins. This information suggests that decreasing obesity and body fat stores via exercise, dietary modification, or developing drugs that target proinflammatory proteins may reduce risk factors for heart disease. The risk for CVD accelerates for clients after menopause due to withdrawal of endogenous estradiol levels, which can worsen many traditional CVD risk factors, including body fat distribution. Avoiding the use of caffeine, using a multivitamin, and drinking at least 2 liters of water a day are not actions that will address the prevention of inflammation that can lead to atherosclerosis.

The nurse is teaching a client diagnosed with coronary artery disease about nitroglycerin. What is the cardiac premise behind administration of nitrates?

preload is reduced Nitroglycerin dilates primarily the veins, and in higher dosages, also the arteries. Dilation of the veins causes venous pooling of the blood throughout the body. As a result, less blood returns to the heart, and filling pressure (preload) is reduced. Nitroglycerine is administered to reduce myocardial oxygen consumption, thereby decreasing ischemia and relieving pain.

A client presents to the ED with a myocardial infarction. Prior to administering a prescribed thrombolytic agent, the nurse must determine whether the client has which absolute contraindication to thrombolytic therapy?

prior intracranial hemorrhage History of a prior intracranial hemorrhage is an absolute contraindication for thrombolytic therapy. An allergy to iodine, shellfish, radiographic dye, and latex are of primary concern before a cardiac catheterization but not a known contraindication for thrombolytic therapy. Administration of a thrombolytic agent with heparin increases risk of bleeding; the primary healthcare provider usually discontinues the heparin until thrombolytic treatment is completed.

A client with known coronary artery disease reports intermittent chest pain, usually on exertion. When teaching the client about nitroglycerin administration, which instruction should the nurse provide?

"Be sure to take safety precautions because nitroglycerin may cause dizziness when you stand up." Nitroglycerin commonly causes orthostatic hypotension and dizziness. To minimize these problems, the nurse should teach the client to take safety precautions, such as changing to an upright position slowly, climbing up and down stairs carefully, and lying down at the first sign of dizziness. To ensure the freshness of sublingual nitroglycerin, the client should replace tablets every 6 months, not every 9 months, and store them in a tightly closed container in a cool, dark place. Many brands of sublingual nitroglycerin no longer produce a burning sensation. The client should take a sublingual nitroglycerin tablet at the first sign of angina. He may repeat the dose every 5 minutes for up to three doses; if this intervention doesn't bring relief, the client should seek immediate medical attention.

The nurse is caring for a client with Raynaud syndrome. What is an important instruction for a client who is diagnosed with this disease to prevent an attack?

Avoid situations that contribute to ischemic episodes. Teaching for clients with Raynaud syndrome and their family members is important. They need to understand what contributes to an attack. The nurse should instruct the clients to avoid situations that contribute to ischemic episodes. Reporting changes in the usual pattern of chest pain or avoiding fatty foods and exercise does not help the client to avoid an attack; it is more contributory for clients with CAD. In addition, the nurse advises clients to avoid over-the-counter decongestants.

A nurse is teaching a client who receives nitrates for the relief of chest pain. Which instruction should the nurse emphasize?

Lie down or sit in a chair for 5 to 10 minutes after taking the drug. Nitrates act primarily to relax coronary smooth muscle and produce vasodilation. They can cause hypotension, which makes the client dizzy and weak. The nurse should instruct the client to lie down or sit in a chair for 5 to 10 minutes after taking the drug. Nitrates are taken at the first sign of chest pain and before activities that might induce chest pain. Sublingual nitroglycerin is taken every 5 minutes for three doses. If the pain persists, the client should seek medical assistance immediately. Nitrates must be stored in a dark place in a closed container because sunlight causes the medication to lose its effectiveness. Alcohol is prohibited because nitrates may enhance the effects of the alcohol.

The nurse is caring for a client after cardiac surgery. What is the most immediate concern for the nurse?

potassium 6 mEq Changes in serum electrolytes should be immediately reported, especially a potassium level of 6 mEq/L. An elevated blood sugar is common postoperatively, and the weight gain is not significant. The abnormal breath sounds are of concern, but the electrolyte imbalance is the most immediate condition that needs to be addressed.

A client reports chest pain that occurs when playing tennis but resolves when sitting down. The nurse knows these symptoms are common for which type of angina?

stable Angina is usually caused by atherosclerotic disease and most often is associated with a significant obstruction of at least one major coronary artery. Normally, the myocardium extracts a large amount of oxygen from the coronary circulation to meet its continuous demands. When demand increases, flow through the coronary arteries needs to be increased. When there is a blockage in a coronary artery, flow cannot be increased and ischemia results. There are different types of angina. Stable angina is predictable and consistent pain that occurs on exertion and is relieved by rest or nitroglycerin. This is the type of angina the client is describing. Variant angina is pain at rest with reversible ST-segment elevation and is thought to be caused by a spasm of a coronary artery. In unstable angina, the symptoms increase in frequency and severity and may not be relieved with rest or nitroglycerin. Intractable angina pectoris causes severe incapacitating chest pain.