CompTIA Project + Test B

You work as a project manager for Honeywell, Inc. You've been distributing performance information, including status reports, progress measurements, and forecasts to various stakeholders. A company trainee wants to know the various inputs for generating performance reports. What will you tell her? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose two. A. WPI B. WPM C. Variance analysis D. Change request

A and B are correct. For this scenario, you can use the following inputs to generate performance reports: WPI (work performance information): The data gathered on status of project schedule activities performed to accomplish project work. The data are collected as part of the direct and manage-project-execution processes. WPI includes: Deliverables status Schedule Progress Costs incurred WPM (work performance measurements): Created from the WPI, WPMs are an output of control schedule, control cost, and control scope processes, which are themselves monitoring and controlling processes. WPMs consist of planned versus actual performance indicators with respect to scope, schedule, and cost. They're documented and communicated to stakeholders, and used to make project activity metrics such as: Planned versus actual technical performance and scope performance Planned versus actual schedule performance Planned versus actual cost performance

As a project manager for uCertify, Inc., you've been instructed to assess specific IT risks associated with an application. You'll use HLRA (high-level risk assessment) to accomplish this task. One of your new team members wants to know why you're using HLRA. How will you reply? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. It improves the level of confidence in system security. B. It reduces the cost and time element. C. It improves regular reviews. D. It acknowledges changes in the sensitivity.

A and B are correct. HLRA (high-level risk assessment) is a targeted assessment of specific risks associated with an application, using the "80/20 rule." HLRA is used to improve the level of confidence in system security and to reduce cost and time elements. The HLRA components are: Threat assessment Risk assessment Recommendations

Which of the following activities represent the purpose of a project kickoff meeting? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. Communicating project goals and objectives B. Communicating work package assignments C. Communicating stakeholder expectations D. Obtaining a signature on a project charter

A and C are correct. A project kickoff meeting is held at the beginning of the executing phase and serves the following activities: Introduces team members Communicates project goals and objectives Communicates stakeholder expectations Reviews roles and responsibilities of team members

You're manager of a project, the scope of which has expanded. The change has been approved by the change control board (CCB). What two steps must you take to acknowledge the expansion? A. Modify the project scope statement. B. Modify the project charter document. C. Obtain a new sign-off on the project scope statement. D. Obtain a new sign-off on the project charter document.

A and C are correct. Any time there's a significant project expansion or modification, its project scope statement must be modified and agreed to in writing by obtaining sign-off.

The network communication model is a visual depiction of what? A. Lines of communication B. Participant model C. Communication model D. Participant communication model

A is correct. A network communication model is a visual depiction of lines of communication among participants.

Which of the following options best describes a scope statement? A. It serves as a baseline of understanding for all project team members and stakeholders and as a basis for future decision making. B. It provides a detailed list of all the resources needed to complete the project. C. It describes how the project's activities will be scheduled. D. It describes the process to manage change control.

A is correct. A scope statement is a document used throughout a project to assist a project manager and team members in determining whether the project is on the right track. It's also used to make future decisions about project scope, particularly regarding change requests.

This tool is often used in the vendor selection process to pick a winning bidder. A. Weighted scoring model B. Bidder conference C. invitation for bid (IFB) D. Statement of Work (SOW)

A is correct. A weighted scoring model is a tool that weights evaluation criteria and provides a way to score vendor responses. Bidder conferences, an IFB (invitation for bid), and an SOW (statement of work) are all used during vendor solicitation.

Which option below describes how you will know that completed deliverables are satisfactory? A. Acceptance criteria B. KPIs C. Metrics D. EVM

A is correct. Acceptance criteria describes how to determine whether deliverables are complete and meet project requirements.

Which of the following types of communication is described under the category of informal communication? A. Phone calls B. Project kickoff meetings C. Team status meetings D. Written status reports

A is correct. An informal communications are unplanned or ad hoc and consist of, for example, phone calls, e-mails, hallway conversations, or impromptu meetings.

What is the most important reason for performance appraisal of individual project team members? A. It rewards superior performance and identifies inadequate performance. B. It allows individual team members to provide project input. C. It creates project-team unity. D. It provides a way for individuals to compare themselves with other team members.

A is correct. Appraisal of individual project team members helps identify positive and negative aspects of a team. In the process of appraisal, superior team performance is identified and rewarded. In this way, it can also be identified which team is performing inadequately. Rewards encourage individuals to do well in the future; likewise, poor performance is marked out and guides individuals to perform better.

Which of the following conflict resolution techniques should a project manager employ when there's a minor conflict between several project team members that doesn't impact their project? A. Avoidance B. Force C. Compromise D. Confrontation

A is correct. Avoidance is a method for resolving conflict in which a person physically leaves the conflict situation, rather than bring the issue to the other person's attention or otherwise address the problem. Thus, there's no impact on the project.

You're a new project manager entrusted with a software development project. As this is a crucial project with multiple teams, you'd like to make sure that inter-team communication is maximized and efficient. Which of the following will contribute most to that effect? A. Co-location B. External feedback C. Performance appraisal D. Conflict resolution

A is correct. Co-location is the strategy of placing many or all of the most active project team members in the same physical location to enhance their abilities to communicate and perform as a team.

This positive risk strategy looks for opportunities to take advantage of positive project impacts if a risk event occurs. A. Exploit B. Contingency C. Enhance D. Share

A is correct. Exploit is a positive risk-response strategy that looks for opportunities to take advantage of positive impacts of a potential risk event.

Which of the following allows activities normally performed in sequence to be done in parallel? A. Fast-tracking B. Crashing C. Lag time D. Lead time

A is correct. Fast-tracking is a technique frequently used to compress a project's schedule. It's often the most effective way to shorten project duration. You fast-track a project by rescheduling tasks originally scheduled to run in sequence to run in parallel. This technique shortens the project schedule without reducing its scope or compromising its quality. The problem with fast-tracking is that there's no "free lunch." Additional resources—even "seasoned" ones—pulled in to take on the parallel tasks might make mistakes, skip crucial steps, or make assumptions because results from the required parallel step were as yet unavailable. If something goes wrong, your schedule could slip or its quality, scope, or budget suffer. In general, the risks of fast-tracking are small. However, to make the most of this technique, first look at the longest tasks on the critical path. These provide the largest potential decrease in duration with the fewest number of risks to manage.

Midway through a project's execution, a sponsor tells the project manager to cancel the project. Which of the following actions should the project manager take? A. Begin an administrative closure process. B. Send a sponsor change request to the change control board. C. Notify the requester of the change. D. Call the project manager and request an immediate transfer to a new contract.

A is correct. If a sponsor decides to cancel a project midway, its manager should begin an administrative closure process, because administrative closure includes gathering and centralizing project documents, performing a post-project review, and writing the final project closure report. It also completes and settles each contract, including resolution of any open item, and closes each contract applicable to the project or its phases.

Steven is project manager for the HNN organization. HNN employs a project-based management structure. Steven's current project has a budget of $345,000 and a deadline for completion in seven months. The project is of low to moderate priority in the organization's portfolio. What percentage of the project team's schedule is likely to be spent on Steven's project alone? A. High to almost total B. Moderate to high C. Low to moderate D. Low

A is correct. In a project-based environment, a project team will participate on a project in a nearly full-time role.

Your sponsor's lost interest in your current project and has focused all attention on a new one. The equipment originally intended for your project has been redistributed to other parts of your organization. What type of project ending does this describe? A. Integration B. Starvation C. Addition D. Extinction

A is correct. Integration occurs when resources are distributed to other areas of an organization, and addition occurs when projects evolve into ongoing operations. Starvation is a project ending caused by project resources being cut off. Extinction occurs when project work is completed and accepted by its stakeholders.

You and a colleague are discussing PERT (program evaluation and review technique) and "three-point estimates." What is the difference between these two time estimating approaches? A. PERT uses six factors while three-point estimates use three factors. B. PERT uses four factors while three-point estimates are really just averages. C. PERT can be used for time and cost, while three-point estimates can only be used for time. D. PERT and three-point estimates are the same thing.

A is correct. PERT (program evaluation and review technique) and the Three-Point Estimates are similar, but PERT uses the formula: Optimistic+(4 x Most Likely)+Pessimistic)/6, while three-point estimates are an average of three factors: optimistic, most likely, and pessimistic. PERT chart A PERT (program evaluation review technique) chart is a project management tool used to schedule, organize, and coordinate project tasks. Its methodology was developed by the U.S. Navy in the 1950s to manage the Polaris submarine missile program. A PERT chart represents a project as a network diagram consisting of numbered nodes (circles or rectangles) that represent project events or milestones linked by labeled vectors (directional lines) that represent project tasks. The direction of arrows on the lines indicates the sequence of tasks.

This process should be performed whenever a project is canceled or ends prematurely. A. Post-mortem analysis B. Post-project review C. Lessons learned D. Project closeout

A is correct. Post-mortem analysis should be performed for any project that's canceled or ends prematurely. Post-project reviews are conducted after a successful project. Lessons learned should be gathered for any project, whether or not it ends prematurely. Project closeout procedures are performed for all projects.

You're program manager of your organization and have created a program that will produce things for the organization throughout the program, not only at program closure. All of the following are elements you might transfer to the organization throughout the program's life cycle, except for which one? A. Program personnel B. Outputs from team development C. Benefits D. Risk management outcomes

A is correct. Program personnel generally remain on a program for its duration. Its transition plan defines what's transferred to the organization and when the transfer might happen. What is a program transition plan? A program transition plan defines how program benefits are moved from program control to organizational control. Benefits can be moved from the program to operations throughout the program, not just at its closure.

During the planning process group, the purpose of a project scope statement is to document project objectives, deliverables, and work required to produce the deliverables. Which of the following would most likely to function as an input to project scope statement? A. Project acceptance criteria B. Risk register C. Cost baseline D. Quality metric

A is correct. Project acceptance criteria are most likely to function as an input to a project scope statement because they include a process and criteria that describe how to determine whether deliverables are complete and satisfactorily meet project requirements. Acceptance criteria should include a definition of specifications, and deliverables must meet the expectations of stakeholders

Human resources, equipment, materials, supplies, and the quantity of each are planned for during this process. A. Resource planning B. Organizational planning C. Procurement planning D. Cost estimating

A is correct. Resource planning is where resources, including human, equipment, materials, supplies and the quantity of each are determined.

You're a project manager at uCertify, Inc. You have to provide stakeholders with information regarding your project in a timely manner via status reports, project meetings, review meetings, emails, and so on. Which of the following processes will you use to accomplish the above task? A. Information distribution B. Communication planning C. Communication distribution D. Information planning

A is correct. The information distribution process provides stakeholders with project information in a timely manner via status reports, project meetings, review meetings, emails, and so on.

You're the project manager for your organization and are currently performing quality control. You've identified a problem in your project's deliverable and would like to create a quality control chart to help identify the elements contributing to the error. What type of chart could you create that would show factors that could be contributing to the defect in the project's deliverable? A. Ishikawa B. Control chart C. Run chart D. Pareto chart

A is correct. An Ishikawa chart/diagram, also known as a cause-and-effect chart, would help you diagram the effect you're trying to solve and the factors contributing to the problem. The Ishikawa diagram displays causes of a certain event. A common use of this diagram is to identify causal factors that result in an overall effect and their root causes. It s sometimes called a fishbone diagram because of its resemblance to a fish skeleton. It's considered a basic tool of quality management. The figure below is an example of an Ishikawa diagram.

You're the project manager in your organization. A key stakeholder has requested that you change your project's scope, yet there are only four days left until its completion. What step must you take next to address this request? A. You will tell the key stakeholder to submit the request to the change control board. B. You will revise the statement of work (SOW) for the key stakeholder. C. You will make the requested change for the key stakeholder. D. You will tell the key stakeholder that it is too late to provide the approval.

A is correct. As project manager, you're responsible for managing project work according to its defined scope. However, changing the project and its schedule is the responsibility of the change control board. Therefore, if the stakeholder requests that you change the project's scope, you should ask him/her to submit the request to the change control board (CCB). The CCB reviews all change requests and has the authority to approve, deny, or delay requests, because whenever there's a significant project expansion or modification, its scope statement is modified and agreed to in writing by a sign-off.

All of the following are true regarding CPI except for which one? A. If CPI is greater than 1, you've spent more money than anticipated at the measurement date. B. CPI is the most critical of all EVM measurements. C. The CPI formula is EV divided by AC. D. Performance indexes are primarily used to calculate performance efficiencies.

A is correct. If the CPI is greater than 1, you've spent less money than anticipated (not more, as the option states) at the measurement date

To address a project's quality defects, a quality control technician diagrams test results on a run chart. He finds 25 points on the chart, 12 consecutive points of which are below the median line; the other 13 are above the median line. What do the run chart's 12 consecutive points represent? A. The run denotes special-cause variation. B. The run denotes common-cause variation. C. The quality process is redundant. D. The product doesn't adhere to specification.

A is correct. Run charts are used to show variations in a process over time, or trends such as process improvement (or its lack). For addressing quality defects in a project, a quality control technician diagrams test results on a run chart. The 12 consecutive points on the chart represent special-cause variation, because the points below the median line show where the customer or end user will reject the product because of defects.

You managed the GHG project, which had a budget of $567,000 and was expected to last two years. You completed the project in 26 months. The actual project cost was $589,987. What was its earned value? A. $567,000 B. $589,987 C. -$22,987 D. $.93

A is correct. The earned value can be found by multiplying the percent complete times the budget at completion. Because this project is 100 percent complete, the earned value is $567,000

Why should you obtain formal sign-off when you conclude your project? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. Sign-off allows the project manager to start a new assignment. B. Sign-off acknowledges that the project team's no longer accountable for its product. C. Sign-off is the trigger for releasing team members back to their functional organization. D. Sign-off indicates that the project meets its documented requirements and the client's accepted project deliverables. F. Sign-off describes project successes and failures.

A, B, C, and D are correct. A sign-off is formal project acceptance. Team members are released according to the staffing management plan, but both the project manager and team members may continue their project involvement until all closure activities are complete.

Which of the following require a WBS as an input? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. Cost estimating B. Resource planning C. Activity definition D. Negotiation

A, B, and C are correct. Cost estimating, resource planning, and activity definition all require a WBS as an input Answer option D is incorrect because a negotiation is an interpersonal skill that a project manager can use when project conflicts arise.

A work breakdown structure (WBS) is the process of subdividing project deliverables and project work into smaller, more manageable components. Which of the following are inputs to the Create WBS process? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. Scope management plan B. Project scope statement C. Organizational process assets D. Scope baseline

A, B, and C are correct. Create WBS is the process of subdividing project deliverables and project work into smaller, more manageable components. The key benefit of this process is that it provides a structured vision of what has to be delivered. The following are the inputs to the Create WBS process: A scope management plan A project scope statement Requirements documentation Enterprise environmental factors Organizational process assets

You work as project manager for uCertify, Inc. You're in the project kickoff meeting. Which of the following documents will you review at the meeting? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. Project charter B. Project scope C. Project budget D. Project WBS

A, B, and C are correct. Documents you'll review at the project kickoff meeting are: Project charter Project scope Project budget

Which of the following are described as organizational governance considerations or project processes to be taken into account? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. Standards compliance B. Phase gate approval C. Sponsor approvals D. Decision oversight

A, B, and D are correct. According to CompTIA, organizational governance components include standards compliance, internal process compliance, decision oversight, and phase gate approval.

What are three elements that might be required for a quality turnover of project deliverables? A. Providing end-user documentation B. Providing end-user training C. Documenting final budget figures D. Documenting maintenance costs and ongoing requirements E. Transferring project equipment back into the organization F. Releasing project resources

A, B, and D are correct. A quality turnover includes making certain any training requirements are met, that end-user documentation is turned over, that maintenance or licensing costs are identified, and that any ongoing requirements are described to the organization taking over the project's product.

Which of the following factors could adversely affect the successful completion of an international project? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. Time-zone differences B. Cultural differences C. Project plans D. Language barriers

A, B, and D are correct. The following factors could adversely affect the successful completion of an international project: Time-zone differences Cultural differences Language barriers

As project manager, which of the following are the important areas you should focus on when discussing performance with a team member? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. Specify performance expectations. B. Know about the team member's background. C. Identify inadequate performance behaviors. D. Reward superior performance.

A, C, and D are correct. The following are the important areas a project manager should focus on when discussing performance with a team member: Specify performance expectations. Identify inadequate performance behaviors. Reward superior performance. Reprimand inadequate performance. Provide specific consequences for choices made. The project manager should publicly reward superior performance, but discussion of inadequate performance should always be done privately.

Which of the following are some of the objectives of project variance analysis? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. Determining whether variances are due to anomalies or the estimates are incorrect B. Determining the project cost baseline C. Determining the root cause of variances D. Preventing variances in forthcoming projects

A, C, and D are correct. The objectives of analyzing project variances are: Determining whether variances are due to anomalies or the estimates are incorrect Determining the root cause of the variances Preventing variances in forthcoming projects Determining if the variances can be expected on future projects Variance is the difference between actual value and baseline value. Related fields are duration, work, cost, start date, and finish date. Field values for duration variance, work variance, cost variance, start variance, and finish variance are automatically calculated in Microsoft Project 2007, which performs a simple subtraction calculation to get these values: Duration Variance=Current Variance - Baseline (Planned) Duration

You work as a project manager for uCertify, Inc., and you're currently working on a project's closure documents. A new team member wants to know who is responsible for signing off on these documents. How will you reply? A. The program manager B. The project team member C. The project sponsor D. The project manager

Answer option C is correct. The project sponsor is responsible for signing off on a project's closure documents. The sponsor is an advisor to the project manager and acts as tie-breaking decision maker when consensus can't be reached among stakeholders.

Which of the following project criteria describes the following statement: "The characteristics of a project consist of assigning resources to complete the project work and assuring project results to meet quality standards outlined in the project plan." A. Unique B. Temporary C. Resources and quality D. Stakeholder satisfaction

Answer option C is correct. The purpose of a project is to deliver one or more business products according to a specified business case. Projects have the following characteristics: They are unique. They are temporary in nature and have a definite beginning and ending date They are completed when the project goals are achieved Their success is measured by evaluating whether they meet or exceed expectations of the stakeholders

You work as a project manager for uCertify, Inc., which is a matrix organization. You have to assign project tasks to employees. One of the employees wants to know the characteristics of a matrix organization. How will you reply? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. Low to moderate project manager authority B. A mix of full time and part time project resources C. Better inter-departmental communication D. Multiple projects compete for the same limited resources

Answer options A, B, and C are correct. A matrix organization is characterized by: Low to moderate project manager authority A mix of full time and part time project resources Better inter-departmental communication

Business case validation includes which three of the following steps? A. Aligning the project goals to the strategic plan B. Determining the decision model you'll use for project selection C. Performing a feasibility study D. Justifying the tangible and intangible benefits of performing the project

Answer options A, C, and D are correct. Business case justification includes performing a feasibility study, justifying the tangible and intangible benefits of the project, and aligning project goals to the strategic plan. Answer option B is incorrect because after the business case is created, you'll need some method to decide how you or the project selection committee will choose among competing projects. The decision model is a formal method of project selection that helps managers makes decisions regarding the use of limited budgets and human resources.

Which schedule format shows task duration on a horizontal timeline, along with predecessors, successors, and milestones? A. PERT B. Gantt C. Milestone chart D. Pareto chart

B is correct. A Gantt chart shows a task on a horizontal timeline. Dependencies are shown as well as milestones. Gantt charts are useful for providing a visual image of how long each task will take to complete.

You're a project manager for uCertify, Inc. You have to provide a seller with payments for all costs incurred to deliver or produce a requested product or service. Which of the following contracts will you use to accomplish the task? A. Time-and-material contract B. Cost-reimbursable contract C. Fixed-price contract D. Underpinning contract

B is correct. A cost-reimbursable contract, sometimes called a cost-plus contract, is one in which a contractor is reimbursed for all allowable expenses plus an allowance for profit. Cost reimbursement contracts differ from fixed-price contracts; in the latter, the contractor is paid a negotiated amount regardless of incurred expenses.

Law requires certain industries to track all document changes. Which of the following should be implemented by a project manager for this purpose? A. Change management system B. Version control system C. Cost control system D. Change control system

B is correct. A project manager should implement a version control system that records changes to a file over time. This system helps recall specific versions later; thus, all project document changes are tracked.

You're manager of the NJY Electrical Grid Project. Cathy, an electrical engineer on your project team, will complete all electrical design activities as part of her duties. Cathy's electrical engineering duties are best described by what project management term? A. Role B. Responsibility C. Accountability D. Assignments

B is correct. A responsibility is the work that a project team member is expected to perform during a project.

You work as project manager in your company, and you're determining the cost of project resources. Which of the following is not a project resource? A. Software B. Staffing management plan C. Power Cable D. Engineers

B is correct. A staffing management plan is not a project resource. A staffing management plan is not a project resource; it's a subsidiary of an overall project management plan and defines when project team members will be brought onto and released from the project. It describes when and how human resource requirements will be met. Depending on project needs, it can be formal or informal, highly detailed, or broadly framed. The staffing management plan can include staff acquisition, resource calendars, a staff release plan, training needs, recognition and rewards, compliance, and safety. The staffing management plan should be updated throughout the project. According to the PMBOK guide, the staffing management plan should include the following elements: Staff acquisition: Describes how team members are acquired (from inside or outside an organization), where they're located, and the costs for specific skills and expertise. Resource calendars: Defines time frames in which project resources will be needed and when the recruitment process should begin. Resources can be described individually, by teams, or by function (programmers, testers, and so on). Many staffing management plans use a resource histogram, usually in chart form, with project time along the horizontal axis and hours needed along the vertical axis. Staff release plan: Attention should be given to how to release project team members at the end of their assignments. You should have reassignment procedures in place to move them to other projects or back to their pre-project assignments. Doing so reduces overall project costs because you pay them only for their work time, then release them, thus avoiding the need to keep them busy between assignments or until the scheduled end date, should they complete their activities early. Having these procedures in place will also maintain morale, because everyone will be clear about their reassignment, thus reducing post-project employment anxiety. Training needs: Describes training plans necessary for team members without the required skills or abilities to perform project tasks. Recognition and rewards: Describes systems you'll use to reward and reinforce desired work behavior. Compliance: If your project involves regulations or contractual obligations (such as union contracts) that must be met, the staffing management plan should detail these and any human resource policies that deal with compliance issues. Safety: Include in the staffing management plan any safety policies and procedures applicable to the project or its field of industry.

You're manager of a small project in its closing phase. Which of the following is created as part of the closing phase? A. Quality baseline B. Post-project review C. Activity estimation D. Feasibility analysis

B is correct. An element of the closing phase is a post-project review. Its primary purpose is to collect and document lessons learned; it covers all positive and negative aspects of each project phase.

In which of the following conflict resolution methods does a person drop out of a conflict situation and not try to bring the issue to the other person's attention or deal with the problem? A. Smoothing B. Avoidance C. Compromise D. Force

B is correct. Avoidance is a conflict resolution method in which a person physically drops out of the situation and doesn't try to bring the issue to the other person's attention or deal with the problem. In most cases, this wouldn't be an effective method of resolving conflict

A project selection method determines which proposed projects an organization should implement. Which of the following is a common project selection method? A. Constrained optimization B. Benefit measurement C. User acceptance testing D. System design testing

B is correct. Benefit measurement is a common project selection method that provides a means by which to evaluate and compare the benefits obtained from project requests using the same criteria. The four common benefit measurement methods are cost-benefit analysis, the scoring model, the payback period, and the economic model.

You work as a project manager for uCertify, Inc. You need to determine who will need project information, when and how often it should be distributed, and its format. Which of the following processes will you use to accomplish this objective? A. Information distribution B. Communication planning C. Human resources planning D. Organizational planning

B is correct. Communication planning defines the type of information, frequency, format, and method of distribution that a project stakeholder requires during a project.

Which formula is used to calculate Cost Variance (CV)? A. Cost Variance (CV) = Actual Cost (AC) - Earned Value (EV) B. Cost Variance (CV) = Earned Value (EV) - Actual Cost (AC) C. Cost Variance (CV) = Earned Value (EV) / Actual Cost (AC) D. Cost Variance (CV) = Earned Value (EV) x Actual Cost (AC)

B is correct. Cost Variance (CV) is calculated using the following formula: Cost Variance (CV) = Earned Value (EV) - Actual Cost (AC) Cost variance (CV) is a measure of project cost performance. A variance is used to determine if costs are higher or lower than budgeted. Cost variance is calculated by the following formula: CV = Earned value (EV) - Actual cost (AC) A positive value means that spending is less than budgeted, whereas a negative value indicates that project costs are higher than originally planned. Earned value (EV) Earned value (EV) is the value of completed work. It's the budgeted amount for work actually completed on a schedule activity during a given time period, typically expressed as a percentage of work completed compared to a budget amount. EV is also called budgeted cost of work performed (BCWP). Actual cost (AC) Actual cost (AC) is the total cost actually incurred and recorded in accomplishing work performed during a given period for a schedule activity. It's the cost of work and money spent to date, including direct and indirect costs. AC is sometimes called actual cost of work performed (ACWP).

In project management, the process of breaking down high-level project requirements into tasks that will generate deliverables is called what? A. Analyzing B. Decomposing C. Entity-relationship diagramming D. Documenting

B is correct. Decomposition is the process of analyzing project requirements in such a way that you reduce them to only those steps and tasks needed to produce them.

As a project manager for uCertify, Inc., you'll need to include examining, measuring, or testing project work results. Which of the following techniques will you use to accomplish this task? A. Negotiating B. Inspection C. Parametric estimating D. Quantitative risk analysis

B is correct. Inspection consists of examining, measuring, or testing project work results.

A pharmacy chain wants to implement a new photo-processing option for its customers, which will allow customers to email images to the store for processing. However, the chain's project manager is unfamiliar with photo processing. What should the project manager do? A. Utilize scope project management plan templates. B. Obtain expert judgment. C. Obtain a work breakdown structure template. D. Create a detailed project scope statement.

B is correct. It's always best to obtain expert judgment when a project manager or project team requires specialized knowledge they don't possess.

You work as project manager for uCertify, Inc. Which of the following techniques will you use to determine whether it would be more cost effective to produce a product or service in house or using an outside vendor? A. Risk analysis B. Make-or-buy analysis C. Checklist analysis D. What-if scenario analysis

B is correct. Make-or-buy analysis is a technique used to determine whether it would be more cost effective to produce a product or service in-house or using an outside vendor. A make-or-buy analysis is used to verify whether a particular work can best be accomplished by the project team or must be purchased from outside sources. Budget constraints can influence make-or-buy decisions; thus, make-or-buy analysis must consider all related costs, both direct and indirect support costs.

You've been assigned as manager of a new project that involves deployment of a new software application for all employees of your organization. As you're preparing the project schedule, you notice that your resources are being overallocated. Which of the following techniques would you use to prevent this from happening? A. What-if scenario analysis B. Resource leveling C. Critical path method D. RACI matrix

B is correct. Resource leveling is a network analysis technique applied to a schedule that's already been analyzed using the critical path method. Resource leveling is necessary when resources have been overallocated, and commonly involves changing activity durations to match resource availability.

Jane is a project manager who's working with her project team. Some project stakeholders have been circumventing the change control process and approaching team members directly. Jane wants to inform the project team that stakeholders must use the approved change control form. What's it called when project team members complete unapproved change requests for stakeholders? A. Gold-plating B. Scope creep C. Cost of quality D. Integrated change control

B is correct. Scope creep (also called focus creep, requirement creep, feature creep, and sometimes "kitchen sink syndrome") refers to uncontrolled changes in a project's scope, including those that circumvent the change control process and thus aren't tracked. Such changes take away from valid project time and costs. Scope creep can occur when project scope isn't properly defined, documented, or controlled. It s generally considered a negative occurrence to be avoided.

This document describes project deliverables, a code of accounts identifier, estimates, resources, and criteria for acceptance. A. Project scope statement B. WBS dictionary C. Scope management plan D. Project description

B is correct. The WBS dictionary describes project deliverables, a code of accounts identifier, estimates, resources, criteria for acceptance, and other information that helps clarify deliverables.

During the planning process, you were asked to estimate project cost to create a project budget. Which of the following tools is best used for estimating project cost? A. Vendor estimate B. Historical document C. Parametric estimate D. Stakeholders estimate

B is correct. The best tool for project cost estimation is a historical document or data based on analogous estimation. A historical document provides a high-level cost estimate for an entire project, project phase, or deliverable, and thus comprises the project budget.

You're a project manager for uCertify, Inc. You need definite dates for deliverables to be transferred to the organization. Which of the following objectives of the transition plan will you use to accomplish the above task? A. Ownership B. Transition dates C. Training D. Extended support

B is correct. The objectives of a transition plan are: Transition dates: There needs to be a definite date for deliverables to be transferred to the organization, and an account of conditions for deliverables to be moved from project management to operations management. Ownership: When you've completed a project and created a set of deliverables, someone must now be responsible for management of deliverables. The transition plan describes ownership of project deliverables and designates someone responsible for maintenance and upkeep of deliverables. Training: The project team needs to train recipients of deliverables and define their use and maintenance through training manuals, train-the-trainer sessions, hands-on exercises, or a combination of knowledge transfer events. Extended support: It's important to provide some extended support, depending on the type of project and the deliverables. Extended support requires the project team and operations team to work together as the new technology is applied, so that the operations team can learn about the deliverables and their implementation. Warranties: There must be some warranty information about project deliverables if the project was completed by a vendor for a client. The warranty must be detailed in the project contract and discussed during the operations transfer.

A project requires many different resources for its execution. Thus, a project manager has requested a new part from an out-of-state supplier. The supplier promises to ship the part within 24 hours, but due to a trade blockage, the shipment may take 3 to 6 business days to deliver. On the other hand, a local supplier can deliver the part within 4 business days. The project manager wants to execute the project smoothly without any delay. What's the minimum number of days within which the project manager can receive the part? A. 1 business day B. 4 business days C. 3 business days D. 6 business days

B is correct. To minimize the risk of delay in receiving the part on time, the project manager should order the part from the local supplier, so that it can be delivered within 4 business days. If the project manager were to order the part from the out-of-state supplier, the total process would take up to 6 days, which might impact the project schedule.

Your department is responsible for performing system maintenance to customer support servers. A new software package was implemented on these servers last year, and this is the first time maintenance is required. Which of the following three statements are true? A. This was brought about because of a technological need. B. This was handed off from a project and is now an ongoing operation. C. This is not temporary in nature. D. This was brought about because of a business need. E. The project manager is responsible for assigning resources to this task. F. This does not create a unique product or service.

B, C, and F are correct. The work you're undertaking doesn't create a unique product or service; it's part of ongoing operational maintenance.

Which two costs are associated with cost of poor quality? A. Appraisal B. Prevention C. Internal D. External

C and D are correct. Failure costs include cost of activities required should a product fail. Internal and external costs are failure costs, which are also known as cost of poor quality. Internal failure costs result when customer requirements aren't satisfied but the product is still controlled by the organization. Examples of internal failure costs include corrective action, rework, scrapping, and downtime. External failure costs occur when a customer, upon receipt of a product, determines that it doesn't meet correct requirements. For example, external failure costs include inspections at the customer site, returns, and customer service costs.

Your project has completed a project scope and its stakeholders have signed off on project deliverables. Frances, another project manager in your organization, wants to know when you and your project team will help her team deliver the software solution your project created for users in the organization. What should you tell Frances? A. Complete a change request in order for your project to assume delivery of the software solution to users. B. Create a project charter for the software solution delivery because your project is completed. C. Complete the solution implementation on her own, as your project scope has been completed. D. Allow her to use your project team, as your project is complete and your resources are available.

C is correct. As tough as this choice sounds, it's the correct answer. Because your project team has completed a project scope and you've signed off on all project deliverables from the stakeholders, you can't do additional project work. In addition, Frances is project manager of the solution delivery, not you or your project team.

Which cost-estimating technique relies on first estimating work packages and then rolling up these estimates to arrive at total cost? A. Top-down B. Parametric C. Bottom-up D. Analogous

C is correct. Bottom-up cost estimation method is highly precise, because you begin your estimation at the level of work package activities, and then roll them up to arrive at a total. For more information, please see Chapter 6.

A project closure report includes activities required to formally end the project. Which of the following is not included in a project closure report? A. Recap of the original goals and objectives of the project B. Lessons learned and historical data C. Earned value analysis D. Summary of project schedule

C is correct. Earned value analysis is included in cost estimation and represents the value of work completed up to a specified date, as compared to the budget.

This term describes the amount of time an activity may have between its earliest start date and latest start date. A. Slack B. Hammock C. Float D. Buffer

C is correct. Float describes the amount of time between an activity's early and late start or early and late finish. Tasks with zero float are critical path tasks.

What will happen when a change control board approves a change request that would decrease a project's schedule by 30 days without altering its scope? A. The number of project resources will decrease. B. Project quality will increase. C. Project cost will increase. D. Workload will decrease.

C is correct. If we decrease a project's schedule by 30 days without altering its scope, its cost will increase. This is because the amount of work necessary to complete the project doesn't change, which means that you'd need to employ additional resources, which will in turn require additional project funding.

Your team has settled into day-to-day interactions and everyone is comfortable with their team positions. You make decisions jointly, and team members show mutual respect for each other. Which stage of team development does this scenario represent? A. Forming B. Performing C. Norming D. Storming

C is correct. Norming is the stage in team development when team members are comfortable with one another, show mutual respect for each other, and make decisions jointly.

Which of the following formulas is used to calculate the schedule variance (SV)? A. Earned Value (EV) + Planned Value (PV) B. Earned Value (EV) * Planned Value (PV) C. Earned Value (EV) - Planned Value (PV) D. Earned Value (EV) / Planned Value (PV)

C is correct. Schedule variance (SV) is an earned-value technique used for measuring project schedule performance. The variance signifies that the schedule is ahead or behind what was planned at a given time and is calculated by the following formula: SV = Earned value (EV) - Planned value (PV) If the resulting value is negative, it indicates that the project is behind schedule. A value greater than 0 shows that the project is ahead of the planned schedule. A value of 0 indicates that the project is on schedule. Earned value (EV) Earned value (EV) is the value of completed work. It's the budgeted amount for work actually completed on a schedule activity during a given time period, typically expressed as a percentage of work completed compared to a budget amount. EV is also called budgeted cost of work performed (BCWP). Budgeted cost of work scheduled (BCWS), or planned value (PV), is the authorized budget assigned to scheduled work to be accomplished for a schedule activity or work breakdown structure (WBS) component.

When developing a project schedule, which methodology will reveal tasks with zero float? A. Activity sequencing B. Logical relationships C. Critical path method (CPM) D. Activity definition

C is correct. The critical path method determines a project's critical path, which is defined by those projects with zero float.

You're a project manager for uCertify, Inc. You notice that two members of your team have different ways of organizing their tasks and the disparity in styles is causing them to bicker. Which of the following statements describes the above situation? A. This situation should be resolved by the project manager as soon as possible. B. This situation should be escalated to the project sponsor. C. This situation is a common cause of conflict. D. This situation is a team formation stage that will pass as they get to know each other better.

C is correct. The differing work styles in this scenario are indicative of a common cause of conflict. Competing resource demands and expert judgment are also common causes of conflicts. It's best if the project manager doesn't immediately jump into the fray; team members should first be allowed to work out their differences on their own. Also, situations such as this must not escalate to the point where they must be brought to a project sponsor.

As manager of the NHQ Project, you're performing quantitative risk analysis. You've discovered that one project risk has a 40 percent probability of occurring and would cost the project $67,000. What is the expected monetary value of the risk event? A. $67,000 B. Negative $67,000 C. Negative $26,800 D. Zero - the risk event has not yet occurred

C is correct. The expected monetary value of the risk is determined by multiplying the cost of the risk by its probability of happening. In this scenario, the expected monetary value is negative $26,800 ( $67,000 x 40%).

Henry and Fred are working together on business analysis duties for implementation of new software. Henry suggests that they should take the current measurement of productivity, then measure again after the solution has been implemented. This benchmarking approach will allow Henry and Fred to see the real effect of the solution on business need. What is the term for this measurement? A. S-Curve B. Yield C. Key performance indicators D. Post implementation factor

C is correct. The measurements are known as key performance indicators, a metric of how well a solution has affected an organization.

Which of the following scheduling techniques identifies successor and predecessor activities to assist a project manager in sequencing project work? A. Dependency determination B. Schedule network template C. Precedence diagramming method D. Activity on the Node

C is correct. The precedence diagramming method (PDM) uses both predecessors and successors as nodes in the project network diagram. The PDM approach is the most common network diagram approach in use.

You're project manager in your company. An end user has suggested that everyone undergo extensive training to learn how to use a new system being developed. What's the next step you should take? A. Analyze the RFP. B. Schedule the necessary training for end users. C. Analyze the impact of including the training in the project. D. Analyze the SOW.

C is correct. Whenever a new system is being developed, a project manager should analyze the impact of including training in the project. Doing so will give the project manager a clear idea of whether extensive training will enhance competencies of project team members and support their ability to benefit the project.

You're manager of a complex project. Your experience on previous projects tells you that a complex project can be completed in not less than 24 months, but a project sponsor is determined that this complex project must be completed within 12 months. Which of the following tools can you use to demonstrate the improbability of the proposed timeline? A. Pareto analysis B. Decision tree analysis C. Monte Carlo analysis D. Quantitative risk analysis

C is correct. You will use Monte Carlo analysis, a technique/tool in which a distribution of possible activity durations is defined for each activity and is used to calculate a distribution of possible project outcomes.

You're project manager for Bluewell, Inc. and currently working on the NGQQ project. You've completed risk analysis for all risk events, for which you and your project team have created risk responses. Which of the following risk-response planning techniques will you use to shift the impact of a threat to a third party, together with the responses? A. Risk mitigation B. Risk acceptance C. Risk transference D. Risk avoidance

C is correct. Risk transference is a risk-response planning technique used to shift threat impact to a third party, together with ownership of the response to it. Risk-response planning is a method of developing options to decrease the amount of threat and make the most of opportunities. A risk response should align with risk consequence and cost-effectiveness. This planning documents the processes for managing risk events and addresses the owners and their responsibilities, risk identification, results from qualification and quantification processes, budgets and times allotted for responses, and contingency plans. Here are the risk-response planning techniques: Risk acceptance: Indicates that a project team has decided not to change their project management plan to deal with a risk, or are unable to identify any other suitable response strategy. Risk avoidance: A technique for changing the project management plan to either eliminate the risk or protect project objectives from its impact. Risk mitigation: Listing specific actions for dealing with specific risks associated with threats and seeking to reduce risks' probability of occurrence or impact to a level below an acceptable threshold. Risk transference: Shifting threat impact to a third party, together with ownership of the response to it.

Wendy is manager of the NHQ project, which is slated to last eight months. It mustn't be late or her company will incur a daily cost penalty. She'd like to review the project team's work availability, as well as their scheduled vacations or other times away from the project. What should Wendy review to accomplish this? A. Project calendar B. Staffing management plan C. Human resources management plan D. Resource calendar

D is correct. A resource calendar will help Wendy determine when her project team has scheduled time away from the project. A resource calendar is used to make sure that work resources (people and equipment) are scheduled only when they're available for work. It pertains to a specific resource or category of resources. By default, the resource calendar's working time settings are the same as those in the project calendar. However, a user can customize the resource calendar to show individual schedule information, such as vacations, leaves of absence, or equipment maintenance time.

During the planning process group, a project manager has received many requests to make changes in his project. Which of the following did he fail to complete? A. Proper project team selection B. Subject matter expert (SME) solicitation C. Milestone scheduling D. Stakeholder analysis

D is correct. A stakeholder analysis is the identification of stakeholder needs, wants, and expectations. It involves documentation, prioritization, and quantification of needs that help in defining a project's scope. Therefore, if a project manager doesn't complete the stakeholder analysis or properly analyze stakeholder needs, wants, and expectations, it's inevitable that the project will have to undergo some changes.

What signals the end of the planning phase? A. The project team begins to execute the tasks in the project plan. B. The project scope document is formally signed. C. The vendor delivers the materials, equipment, or supplies. D. The project management plan is approved and signed.

D is correct. After the sponsor has formally signed the project management plan, you've finished the planning stage and now move into the executing process.

Which of the following is used to document and monitor elements under discussion or in dispute between project stakeholders? A. Change control form B. Risk register C. Work breakdown structure (WBS) D. Issue log

D is correct. An issue log is a project document that you use to document and monitor elements under discussion or in dispute between project stakeholders. It facilitates communication, ensures a common understanding of issues, and helps in monitoring those responsible for resolving specific issues by a target date.

You're a project manager for a medium-sized project. Some of its stakeholders, not including its project sponsor, have asked to meet with you as a group. They tell you that they're not happy with the deliverables, even though the acceptance criteria for each requirement have been met. They want you to immediately kill the project because any further expenditure of resources would simply be "throwing good money after bad." How will you answer them? A. That you'll close the project immediately. B. You ask for a few more days to see whether you can complete the remainder of the project. C. You tell them they're too far into the project and too many deliverables have been accepted to kill the project at this stage. D. You should schedule a meeting with the stakeholders and the project sponsor before canceling the project prior to completion.

D is correct. Because the sponsor isn't involved in these conversations, and the sponsor ultimately has final say, you're not authorized to cancel the project until the sponsor instructs you to do so. You'll need to schedule a meeting with the stakeholders and the project sponsor and get to the bottom of their grievances, and then take whatever action the sponsor requires.

Which element of your project's scope document lists certain resources that will be available during the months of April through September while the project moves forward? A. Product description B. Deliverables C. Assumptions D. Constraints

D is correct. Constraints are anything that either restricts or dictates the actions of a project team. Stating that certain resources will be available during specific months.

Organizational planning happens during the human resource planning process. Each of the following is an environmental factor you should take into consideration when performing organizational planning except for which one? A. Personnel policies B. Location and logistics C. Interpersonal factors D. Labor union agreements

D is correct. Labor union agreements are a constraint you should consider when planning for human resources. Other environmental factors applicable to human resource planning are organizational and technical.

Select the component that's not a function of the planning process group. A. Risk identification B. Risk quantification C. Risk response development D. Risk control

D is correct. Risk identification, quantification, and response development occur in a project's planning stage. Risk control occurs during the monitoring and controlling stage.

Risk planning involves identification of potential risk events and their impact on a project. Which of the following risk planning techniques reduces impact of a project threat? A. Risk acceptance B. Risk transference C. Risk avoidance D. Risk mitigation

D is correct. Risk mitigation is the practice of reducing severity of loss or likelihood of loss from occurring. It's a list of specific actions taken to deal with specific risks associated with threat and seeks to reduce probability of occurrence or impact of risks below an acceptable threshold.

When faced with a proposed scope deviation, what will be your first order of business? A. Say no. B. Quantify the effect of the deviation in terms of cost, resources, and time. C. Calculate budget variances. D. Determine the cause.

D is correct. The first order of business is to ascertain why the proposed scope deviation is needed. After validating that the proposed change is necessary, you have to validate its impact on scope in budget, time, and resources.

The initiating process group includes which important task? A. Assigning work to team members B. Creating the work breakdown structure C. Coordinating the resources necessary to complete the project work D. Approving the project and authorizing work to begin

D is correct. The initiating process group involves both formal project acceptance and authorization for the project manager to start the work. The other options are important tasks undertaken during the planning phases.

You're manager of the NHQ project for your organization. You and your project team have just completed the first phase of a technical implementation project. Before you can move onto its next phase, there must be a security and quality review of project deliverables. What's this review called? A. Quality control B. Process control C. Phase closure D. Phase-gate approval

D is correct. The review at the end of a project phase is known as phase-gate, or stage-gate, approval. Depending on the review's outcome, the project team must either correct any identified problems or continue project work.

After a project inspection, a project manager realizes that key personnel have left the organization, and those remaining don't have the skills to cover this shortage. Which of the following documents will most likely be updated to recruit replacements for the team? A. Project scope, staffing management plan, and cost management plan B. Project charter, project schedule, and cost management plan C. Project scope, communications management plan, and staffing management plan D. Staffing management plan, risk register, and project schedule

D is correct. To recruit new skilled personnel, a project manager will most likely update the following three documents: First, he'll update the staffing management plan, as it describes when and how human resources will be added and removed from the project team and what they'll be working on during their tenure. Second, he'll update the risk register, as it helps personnel to communicate the project risk and action plans to other stakeholders. Third, he'll update the project schedule, as it determines start and finish dates for project activities, and then assign resources to those activities.

Mike's manager of the WAM project, which has a budget at completion of $295,000. His project's currently 40 percent complete but should be 50 percent complete by now. Mike's spent $125,000 on the project. What's the estimated cost of completing this project? A. $17,500 B. $118,000 C. $147,500 D. $187,500

D is correct. An estimate to complete requires several calculations, as it's the estimate at completion minus actual costs. To find the EAC, you'll need to divide the budget at completion (BAC) by the project's cost performance index (CPI). The CPI's found by dividing the project's earned value (EV) by the actual cost (AC). Thus, in this scenario, Mike's project needs $187,500 more for completion. What is Estimate at Completion (EAC)? Estimate at Completion (EAC) is a field that displays the final cost of the project including the actual costs and the forecast of remaining costs based on the cost performance index (CPI) so far. The formula used to calculate estimate at completion are as follows: EAC = BAC/CPI This formula is used when you thought your original estimates were solid but there has been a variation in the cost and you expect that cost variation to continue as the project progresses. This formula projects your current performance against your original budget. EAC = AC + (BAC-EV) This formula is used when something unexpected happened in the project and you need to account for the atypical event but you want to assume that the remaining project performance will not change. EAC = AC + Bottom Up Estimate to Completion (ETC) This formula is used when you are recreating the cost baseline of the project to figure out where the project is going to be at the end. EAC = AC+ (BAC-EV) / (CPI * SPI) This formula is used when there are substantial variations in both the cost and the schedule and you are going to expect both of these to continue for the remainder of the project.

Which of the following is a forecast of the cost of all remaining project work? A. Actual cost (AC) B. Budget at completion (BAC) C. Estimate at completion (EAC) D. Estimate to complete (ETC)

D is correct. Estimate to complete (ETC) is a forecast of the cost of all remaining project work.

A project manager has been engaged to deliver a project in South America. He doesn't speak Spanish, yet more than half of project team members speak Spanish and speak little or no English. Which of the following would be the project manager's best option to implement? A. Insist that all communication be in English. B. Use automated translation technologies to communicate with team members in writing. C. Engage team members who can speak the language of the project manager. D. Engage interpreters at both locations for all key team communication.

D is correct. In the above scenario, the project manager can engage interpreters at both locations for all key team communication to maintain clear communication during the course of the project.

Given the following values: PV = 85, AC = 83, and EV = 81, What's the CV? A. .98 B. -4 C. .95 D. -2

D is correct. The formula for CV is EV minus AC (in this case, 81 - 83 = -2)

You're manager of an important, high-profile project in your matrix structure. Your team must work with a new technology with which most team members have no experience. What should you do in this scenario? A. Consult with the matrix structure's functional management to identify more suitable team members. B. Consult with the project sponsor to procure additional, experienced team members. C. Consult with the project's customer about trimming the scope to meet the current competency level. D. Consult with the project team to determine what type of training they need.

D is correct. When a project team's lacking in competency, the project manager should determine what training is required to help them complete their duties.

All projects are comprised of nine knowledge areas. Which knowledge area contains the "identifying project stakeholders" process? A. Project communications management B. Project scope management C. Project integration management D. Project risk management

option A is correct. Project communications management is the project management knowledge area that contains the "identifying project stakeholders" process.

The closing process group is the last set of project processes that you'll perform. In this process, you prepare closing documentation. What's the main purpose of this documentation? A. To identify the project's strengths and weaknesses equally B. To deliver daily emails with project sheets and updates C. To employ phase closure meetings D. To identify weaknesses of the team members

option A is correct. The closing process group documents the formal acceptance of project work and hands off the completed product to the organization for ongoing maintenance and support. The closing process group uses a closing document, the main purpose of which is to identify the project's strengths and weaknesses equally.

Which of the following processes includes all activities that lead up to final authorization to begin a project, starting with the original project request? A. Monitoring and controlling B. Executing C. Planning D. Initiating

option D is correct. The initiating process includes all activities that lead up to final authorization to begin a project, starting with the original project request. This process can be formal or informal, depending on the organization.

From the following list, select the three elements that represent the PMBOK Guide knowledge areas. A. Vendor relationships B. Communications C. Human resources D. Procurement E. Validation

options B, C, and D are correct. The nine PMBOK Guide knowledge areas are Scope, Time, Cost, Quality, Human Resources, Communications, Risk, Procurement, and Integration.