Exam 3

A patient is to receive an infusion of 250 mL of platelets over 2 hours through tubing that is labeled: 1 mL equals 10 drops. How many drops per minute will the nurse infuse?

21 gtts/min To infuse 250 mL over 2 hours, the calculated drip rate is 20.8 drops/minute or 21 drops/minute.

The nurse estimates the extent of a burn using the rule of nines for a patient who has been admitted with deep partial-thickness burns of the anterior trunk and the entire left arm. What percentage of the patients total body surface area (TBSA) has been injured?

27%. When using the rule of nines, the anterior trunk is considered to cover 18% of the patient's body and each arm is 9%.

An 80-kg patient with burns over 30% of total body surface area (TBSA) is admitted to the burn unit. Using the Parkland formula of 4 mL/kg/%TBSA, what is the IV infusion rate (mL/hour) for lactated Ringers solution that the nurse will administer during the first 8 hours?

600mL. The Parkland formula states that patients should receive 4mL/kg/%TBSA burned during the first 24 hours. Half of the total volume is given in the first 8 hours and then the last half is given over 16 hours: 4 x 80 x 30 = 9600 mL total volume; 9600/2 = 4800 mL in the first 8 hours; 4800 mL/8 hr = 600 mL/hr.

A 63-year-old patient who began experiencing right arm and leg weakness is admitted to the emergency department. In which order will the nurse implement these actions included in the stroke protocol? (Put a comma and a space between each answer choice [A, B, C, D].) a. Obtain computed tomography (CT) scan without contrast. b. Infuse tissue plasminogen activator (tPA). c. Administer oxygen to keep O2 saturation >95%. d. Use National Institute of Health Stroke Scale to assess patient.

C, D, A, B. The initial actions should be those that help with airway, breathing, and circulation. Baseline neurologic assessments should be done next. A CT scan will be needed to rule out hemorrhagic stroke before tPA can be administered.

Burns

Chapter 24

Kidney Disease (AKI & CKD)

Chapter 46

Nervous System

Chapter 55

ICP and Head Injury

Chapter 56

Stroke

Chapter 57

In which order will the nurse take these actions when doing a dressing change for a partial-thickness burn wound on a patients chest? (Put a comma and a space between each answer choice [A, B, C, D, E].) a. Apply sterile gauze dressing. b. Document wound appearance. c. Apply silver sulfadiazine cream. d. Administer IV fentanyl (Sublimaze). e. Clean wound with saline-soaked gauze.

D, E, C, A, B Because partial-thickness burns are very painful, the nurses first action should be to administer pain medications. The wound will then be cleaned, antibacterial cream applied, and covered with a new sterile dressing. The last action should be to document the appearance of the wound.

A 70-year-old male patient has multiple myeloma. His wife calls to report that he sleep most of the day, is confused when awake, and reports nausea and constipation. Which complications of cancer is this most likely caused by? a. hypercalcemia b. tumor lysis syndrome c. spinal cord compression d. superior vena cava syndrome

a

A kidney transplant recipient has had fever, chills, and dysuria over the past 2 days. What is the first action that the nurse should take? a. assess temperature and initiate workup to rule out infection b. reassure the patient that this is common after transplantation c. provide warm covers to the patient and give 1 gm oral acetaminophen d. notify the nephrologist that the patient has manifestations of acute rejection

a

During admission of a patient with a severe head injury to the emergency department the nurse places the highest priority on assessment for a. Patency of airway b. Presence of neck injury c. Neurologic status with Glasgow coma scale d. Cerebrospinal fluid leakage from the ears or nose

a

During the neurological assessment, the patient is unable to respond verbally to the nurse but cooperates with the nurse's directions to move his hands and feet. What should the nurse suspect as a likely cause of these findings? a. frontal lobe damage b. a temporal lobe lesion c. brainstem lesion d. cerebellar injury

a

The injury that is least likely to result in a full thickness burn is: a. sunburn b. scald injury c. chemical burn d. electrical injury

a

To maintain a positive nitrogen balance in a major burn, the patient must a. eat a high-protein, high carbohydrate diet b. increase normal caloric intake by about four times c. eat at least 1500 calories/day in small, frequent meals d. eat a gluten-free diet for a chemical effect on nitrogen balance

a

To prevent capsular formation after breast reconstruction with implants, teach the patient to a. gently massage the area around the implant b. bind the breasts tightly with elastic bandages c. exercise the arm on the affected side to promote drainage d. avoid strenuous exercise until the implant has healed

a

The nurse is planning care for a client who has dysphagia and a new dietary prescription. Which of the following should the nurse include in the plan of care? (SATA) a. have suction equipment available for use b. feed the client on the unaffected side of client's mouth c. feed client with thickened liquids d. assign an assistive personal to feed the client slowly e. teach the client to swallow with the neck flexed

a, b, c, e Client should be taught to flex the neck, tuck the chin down and under to close the epiglottis during swallowing

Patients with chronic kidney disease have an increased incidence of cardiovascular disease related to (SATA) a. hypertension b. vascular calcifications c. a genetic predisposition d. hyperinsulinemia and dyslipidemia e. increased high-density lipoprotein levels

a, b, d

A nurse in the critical care unit is completing an admission assessment of a client who has a gunshot wound to the head. Which of the following assessment findings are indicative of increased ICP? (Select all that apply.) A. Headache B. Dilated pupils C. Tachycardia D. Decorticate posturing E. Hypotension

a, b, d Headache, dilated pupils, bradycardia, decorticate and decerebrate posturing and hypertension are findings associated with increased ICP.

A patient with a head injury has an arterial BP of 92/50 mmHg and ICP of 18mmHg. The nurse uses the assessments to calculate the cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP). How should the nurse interpret the results? a. The CPP is so low that brain death is imminent b. The CPP is low, and the BP should be increased c. The CPP is high, and the ICP should be reduced d. The CPP is adequate for normal cerebral blood flow

a. CPP = MAP - ICP MAP = 92 + 50(2)/3 = 64 CPP = 64 - 18 = 46 Normal CPP: 60-100. CPP < 50 is ischemia and neuronal death. CPP <30 is ischemia and not compatible with life

A patient arrives in the emergency department with facial and chest burns caused by a house fire. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Auscultate the patients lung sounds. b. Determine the extent and depth of the burns. c. Infuse the ordered lactated Ringers solution. d. Administer the ordered hydromorphone (Dilaudid).

a. A patient with facial and chest burns is at risk for inhalation injury, and assessment of airway and breathing is the priority. The other actions will be completed after airway management is assured.

A 68-year-old male patient is brought to the emergency department (ED) by ambulance after being found unconscious on the bathroom floor by his spouse. Which action will the nurse take first? a. Check oxygen saturation. b. Assess pupil reaction to light. c. Verify Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score. d. Palpate the head for hematoma or bony irregularities.

a. Airway patency and breathing are the most vital functions, and should be assessed first. The neurologic assessments should be accomplished next and additional assessment after that.

A 45-year-old patient has a dysfunction of the cerebellum. The nurse will plan interventions to a. prevent falls. b. stabilize mood. c. avoid aspiration. d. improve memory.

a. Because functions of the cerebellum include coordination and balance, the patient with dysfunction is at risk for falls. The cerebellum does not affect memory, mood, or swallowing ability.

An appropriate nursing intervention for a patient with non-Hodgkins lymphoma whose platelet count drops to 18,000/L during chemotherapy is to a. check all stools for occult blood. b. encourage fluids to 3000 mL/day. c. provide oral hygiene every 2 hours. d. check the temperature every 4 hours.

a. Because the patient is at risk for spontaneous bleeding, the nurse should check stools for occult blood. A low platelet count does not require an increased fluid intake. Oral hygiene is important, but it is not necessary to provide oral care every 2 hours. The low platelet count does not increase risk for infection, so frequent temperature monitoring is not indicated.

A nurse in a clinic is talking with a client scheduled for a sentinel lymph biopsy. Which of the following information should the nurse include? a. dye is used during the procedure b. lymph nodes closest to the tumor are removed during biopsy c. small amount of chemo us used to test the lymph node response d. 2mm plug of tissue is removed during biopsy

a. Client will receive dye or colloid as a tracer to help identify lymph nodes during sentinel lymph node biopsy

A female patient who had a stroke 24 hours ago has expressive aphasia. The nurse identifies the nursing diagnosis of impaired verbal communication. An appropriate nursing intervention to help the patient communicate is to a. ask questions that the patient can answer with yes or no. b. develop a list of words that the patient can read and practice reciting. c. have the patient practice her facial and tongue exercises with a mirror. d. prevent embarrassing the patient by answering for her if she does not respond.

a. Communication will be facilitated and less frustrating to the patient when questions that require a yes or no response are used. When the language areas of the brain are injured, the patient might not be able to read or recite words, which will frustrate the patient without improving communication. Expressive aphasia is caused by damage to the language areas of the brain, not by the areas that control the motor aspects of speech. The nurse should allow time for the patient to respond.

A college athlete is seen in the clinic 6 weeks after a concussion. Which assessment information will the nurse collect to determine whether a patient is developing postconcussion syndrome? a. Short-term memory b. Muscle coordination c. Glasgow Coma Scale d. Pupil reaction to light

a. Decreased short-term memory is one indication of postconcussion syndrome. The other data may be assessed but are not indications of postconcussion syndrome.

Which action will the public health nurse take to reduce the incidence of epidemic encephalitis in a community? a. Encourage the use of effective insect repellents during mosquito season. b. Remind patients that most cases of viral encephalitis can be cared for at home. c. Teach about the importance of prophylactic antibiotics after exposure to encephalitis. d. Arrange for screening of school-age children for West Nile virus during the school year.

a. Epidemic encephalitis is usually spread by mosquitoes and ticks. Use of insect repellent is effective in reducing risk. Encephalitis frequently requires that the patient be hospitalized in an intensive care unit during the initial stages. Antibiotic prophylaxis is not used to prevent encephalitis because most encephalitis is viral. West Nile virus is most common in adults over age 50 during the summer and early fall.

A 51-year-old patient with a small immobile breast lump is considering having a fine-needle aspiration (FNA) biopsy. The nurse explains that an advantage to this procedure is that a. FNA is done in the outpatient clinic and results are available in 1 to 2 days. b. only a small incision is needed, resulting in minimal breast pain and scarring. c. if the biopsy results are negative, no further diagnostic testing will be needed. d. FNA is guided by a mammogram, ensuring that cells are taken from the lesion.

a. FNA is done in outpatient settings and results are available in 24 to 48 hours. No incision is needed. FNA may be guided by ultrasound, but not by mammogram. Because the immobility of the breast lump suggests cancer, further testing will be done if the FNA is negative.

For a patient who had a right hemisphere stroke the nurse establishes a nursing diagnosis of a. risk for injury related to denial of deficits and impulsiveness. b. impaired physical mobility related to right-sided hemiplegia. c. impaired verbal communication related to speech-language deficits. d. ineffective coping related to depression and distress about disability.

a. The patient with right-sided brain damage typically denies any deficits and has poor impulse control, leading to risk for injury when the patient attempts activities such as transferring from a bed to a chair. Right-sided brain damage causes left hemiplegia. Left-sided brain damage typically causes language deficits. Left-sided brain damage is associated with depression and distress about the disability.

Which patient should the nurse assess first? a. A patient with smoke inhalation who has wheezes and altered mental status b. A patient with full-thickness leg burns who has a dressing change scheduled c. A patient with abdominal burns who is complaining of level 8 (0 to 10 scale) pain d. A patient with 40% total body surface area (TBSA) burns who is receiving IV fluids at 500 mL/hour

a. This patient has evidence of lower airway injury and hypoxemia and should be assessed immediately to determine the need for oxygen or intubation. The other patients should also be assessed as rapidly as possible, but they do not have evidence of life-threatening complications.

A nursing measure that can reduce the potential for seizures and increased ICP in the patient with bacterial meningitis is a. administering codeine for relief of head and neck pain b. controlling fever with prescribed drugs and cool techniques c. maintaining strict bed rest with HOB slightly elevated d. keeping the room dark and quiet to minimize environmental stimulation

b

A patient has a tumor in the cerebellum. What goal should the nurse use to focus the plan of care? a. improve memory b. prevent falls c. stabilize mood d. avoid aspiration

b

During the oliguria phase of ARF, the nurse monitors the patient for (SATA) a. hypotension b. ECG changes c. hypernatremia d. pulmonary edema

b, d

A nurse is caring for a client who has a closed-head injury with ICP readings ranging from 16-22 mmHg. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to decrease the potential for raising the client's ICP? (SATA) a. suction the endotracheal tube frequently b. decrease the noise level in the client's room c. elevate the client's head on two pillows d. administer stool softener e. keep the client well hydrated

b, d Decreasing noise level and restricting the number of people in the client's room can help prevent increases in ICP. Administering stool softener will decrease the need to bear down (Valsalva maneuver) during bowel movements, which can increase ICP. Suctioning increases ICP and only performed when indicated. Hyperflexion of the client's neck with pillow carries the risk for increasing ICP. HOB should be raised at least 30 degree, but head should be maintained in an upright neutral position. Overhydration carries risk for increasing ICP. Monitor fluid and electrolyte closely.

A patient with acute myelogenous leukemia is starting chemotherapy. When teaching the patient about the induction stage of chemotherapy, what is an appropriate statement? a. "The drugs are started slowly to minimuze side effects." b. "You will be at increased risk for bleeding and infection." c. "High doses will be administered every day for several months." d. "Most patients have more energy and are resistant to infection."

b. Aggressive treatment given and first thing wiped out is bone marrow cells.

The nurse is titrating the IV fluid infusion rate immediately after a patient has had kidney transplantation. Which parameter will be most important for the nurse to consider? a. Heart rate b. Urine output c. Creatinine clearance d. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level

b. Fluid volume is replaced based on urine output after transplant because the urine output can be as high as a liter an hour. The other data will be monitored but are not the most important determinants of fluid infusion rate.

Which statement by a 40-year-old patient who is being discharged from the emergency department (ED) after a concussion indicates a need for intervention by the nurse? a. I will return if I feel dizzy or nauseated. b. I am going to drive home and go to bed. c. I do not even remember being in an accident. d. I can take acetaminophen (Tylenol) for my headache.

b. Following a head injury, the patient should avoid driving and operating heavy machinery. Retrograde amnesia is common after a concussion. The patient can take acetaminophen for headache and should return if symptoms of increased intracranial pressure such as dizziness or nausea occur.

A patient in the clinic reports a recent episode of dysphasia and left-sided weakness at home that resolved after 2 hours. The nurse will anticipate teaching the patient about a. alteplase (tPA). b. aspirin (Ecotrin). c. warfarin (Coumadin). d. nimodipine (Nimotop).

b. Following a transient ischemic attack (TIA), patients typically are started on medications such as aspirin to inhibit platelet function and decrease stroke risk. tPA is used for acute ischemic stroke. Coumadin is usually used for patients with atrial fibrillation. Nimodipine is used to prevent cerebral vasospasm after a subarachnoid hemorrhage.

The nurse in the dialysis clinic is reviewing the home medications of a patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD). Which medication reported by the patient indicates that patient teaching is required? a. Multivitamin with iron b. Magnesium hydroxide c. Acetaminophen (Tylenol) d. Calcium phosphate (PhosLo)

b. Magnesium is excreted by the kidneys, and patients with CKD should not use over-the-counter products containing magnesium. The other medications are appropriate for a patient with CKD.

The nurse teaches a patient with cancer of the liver about high-protein, high-calorie diet choices. Which snack choice by the patient indicates that the teaching has been effective? a. Lime sherbet b. Blueberry yogurt c. Cream cheese bagel d. Fresh strawberries and bananas

b. Yogurt has high biologic value because of the protein and fat content. Fruit salad does not have high amounts of protein or fat. Lime sherbet is lower in fat and protein than yogurt. Cream cheese is low in protein.

A nurse is assessing a client. Which of the following findings indicates that the client has experienced a left-hemispheric stroke? a. impulse control difficulty b. poor judgement c. inability to recognize familiar objects d. loss of depth perception

c. Client with left-hemispheric stroke as agnosia, an inability to recognize familiar objects. A client with right-hemispheric stroke experience difficulty with impulse control, poor judgment and loss of depth perception

Which action will the nurse include in the plan of care for a patient with right arm lymphedema? a. Check blood pressure (BP) on both right and left arms. b. Avoid isometric exercise on the right arm. c. Assist with application of a compression sleeve. d. Keep the right arm at or below the level of the heart.

c. Compression of the arm assists in improving lymphatic flow toward the heart. Isometric exercises may be prescribed for lymphedema. BPs should only be done on the patients right arm. The arm should not be placed in a dependent position.

A licensed practical/vocational nurse (LPN/LVN) is caring for a patient with stage 2 chronic kidney disease. Which observation by the RN requires an intervention? a. The LPN/LVN administers the erythropoietin subcutaneously. b. The LPN/LVN assists the patient to ambulate out in the hallway. c. The LPN/LVN administers the iron supplement and phosphate binder with lunch. d. The LPN/LVN carries a tray containing low-protein foods into the patients room.

c. Oral phosphate binders should not be given at the same time as iron because they prevent the iron from being absorbed. The phosphate binder should be given with a meal and the iron given at a different time. The other actions by the LPN/LVN are appropriate for a patient with renal insufficiency.

The charge nurse is observing a new staff nurse who is assessing a patient with a traumatic spinal cord injury for sensation. Which action indicates a need for further teaching of the new nurse about neurologic assessment? a. The new nurse tests for light touch before testing for pain. b. The new nurse has the patient close the eyes during testing. c. The new nurse asks the patient if the instrument feels sharp. d. The new nurse uses an irregular pattern to test for intact touch.

c. When performing a sensory assessment, the nurse should not provide verbal clues. The other actions by the new nurse are appropriate.

Which cytotoxic antibiotic does the nurse identify as most likely to cause pulmonary fibrosis? a. doxorubicin b. danorubicin c. mitomycin d. bleomycin

d

A patient with a large stomach tumor that is attached to the liver is scheduled to have a debulking procedure. Which information should the nurse teach the patient about the outcome of this procedure? a. Pain will be relieved by cutting sensory nerves in the stomach. b. Relief of pressure in the stomach will promote better nutrition. c. Tumor growth will be controlled by the removal of malignant tissue. d. Tumor size will decrease and this will improve the effects of other therapy.

d. A debulking surgery reduces the size of the tumor and makes radiation and chemotherapy more effective. Debulking surgeries do not control tumor growth. The tumor is debulked because it is attached to the liver, a vital organ (not to relieve pressure on the stomach). Debulking does not sever the sensory nerves, although pain may be lessened by the reduction in pressure on the abdominal organs.

A patient has been assigned the nursing diagnosis of imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements related to painful oral ulcers. Which nursing action will be most effective in improving oral intake? a. Offer the patient frequent small snacks between meals. b. Assist the patient to choose favorite foods from the menu. c. Provide teaching about the importance of nutritional intake. d. Apply the ordered anesthetic gel to oral lesions before meals.

d. Because the etiology of the patients poor nutrition is the painful oral ulcers, the best intervention is to apply anesthetic gel to the lesions before the patient eats. The other actions might be helpful for other patients with impaired nutrition, but would not be as helpful for this patient.

The nurse is admitting a patient scheduled this morning for lumpectomy and axillary lymph node dissection. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Teach the patient how to deep breathe and cough. b. Discuss options for postoperative pain management. c. Explain the postdischarge care of the axillary drains. d. Ask the patient to describe what she knows about the surgery.

d. Before teaching, the nurse should assess the patients current knowledge level. The other teaching also may be appropriate, depending on the assessment findings.

When teaching about clopidogrel (Plavix), the nurse will tell the patient with cerebral atherosclerosis a. to monitor and record the blood pressure daily. b. that Plavix will dissolve clots in the cerebral arteries. c. that Plavix will reduce cerebral artery plaque formation. d. to call the health care provider if stools are bloody or tarry.

d. Clopidogrel (Plavix) inhibits platelet function and increases the risk for gastrointestinal bleeding, so patients should be advised to notify the health care provider about any signs of bleeding. The medication does not lower blood pressure, decrease plaque formation, or dissolve clots.

Eight hours after a thermal burn covering 50% of a patients total body surface area (TBSA) the nurse assesses the patient. Which information would be a priority to communicate to the health care provider? a. Blood pressure is 95/48 per arterial line. b. Serous exudate is leaking from the burns. c. Cardiac monitor shows a pulse rate of 108. d. Urine output is 20 mL per hour for the past 2 hours.

d. The urine output should be at least 0.5 to 1.0 mL/kg/hr during the emergent phase, when the patient is at great risk for hypovolemic shock. The nurse should notify the health care provider because a higher IV fluid rate is needed. BP during the emergent phase should be greater than 90 systolic, and the pulse rate should be less than 120. Serous exudate from the burns is expected during the emergent phase.

An unconscious patient with a traumatic head injury has a blood pressure of 130/76 mm Hg, and an intracranial pressure (ICP) of 20 mm Hg. The nurse will calculate the cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP) as ____ mm Hg.

74 mmHg Calculate the CPP: (CPP = mean arterial pressure [MAP] ICP). MAP = DBP + 1/3 (systolic blood pressure [SBP] diastolic blood pressure [DBP]). The MAP is 94. The CPP is 74.

A patient in the oliguric phase after an acute kidney injury has had a 250 mL urine output and an emesis of 100 mL in the past 24 hours. What is the patient's fluid restriction for the next 24 hours?

950 mL The general rule for calculating fluid restrictions is to add all fluid losses for the previous 24 hours, plus 600 mL for insensible losses: (250 + 100 + 600 = 950 mL).

Which information will be included when the nurse is teaching self-management to a patient who is receiving peritoneal dialysis (select all that apply)? a. Avoid commercial salt substitutes. b. Drink 1500 to 2000 mL of fluids daily. c. Take phosphate-binders with each meal. d. Choose high-protein foods for most meals. e. Have several servings of dairy products daily.

A, C, D Patients who are receiving peritoneal dialysis should have a high-protein diet. Phosphate binders are taken with meals to help control serum phosphate and calcium levels. Commercial salt substitutes are high in potassium and should be avoided. Fluid intake is limited in patients requiring dialysis. Dairy products are high in phosphate and usually are limited.

The nurse at the clinic is interviewing a 64-year-old woman who is 5 feet, 3 inches tall and weighs 125 pounds (57 kg). The patient has not seen a health care provider for 20 years. She walks 5 miles most days and has a glass of wine 2 or 3 times a week. Which topics will the nurse plan to include in patient teaching about cancer screening and decreasing cancer risk (select all that apply)? a. Pap testing b. Tobacco use c. Sunscreen use d. Mammography e. Colorectal screening

A, C, D, E The patients age, gender, and history indicate a need for screening and/or teaching about colorectal cancer, mammography, Pap smears, and sunscreen. The patient does not use excessive alcohol or tobacco, she is physically active, and her body weight is healthy.

A patient develops neutropenia after receiving chemotherapy. Which information about ways to prevent infection will the nurse include in the teaching plan (select all that apply)? a. Cook food thoroughly before eating. b. Choose low fiber, low residue foods. c. Avoid public transportation such as buses. d. Use rectal suppositories if needed for constipation. e. Talk to the oncologist before having any dental work done.

A, C, E Eating only cooked food and avoiding public transportation will decrease infection risk. A high-fiber diet is recommended for neutropenic patients to decrease constipation. Because bacteria may enter the circulation during dental work or oral surgery, the patient may need to postpone dental work or take antibiotics.

A nurse is planning care for a client who has a platelet count of 10,000/mm. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care? a. apply prolong pressure to the puncture site after blood sampling b. administer epoetin alfa as prescribed c. place the client in a private room d. have the client use an oral topical anesthetic before meals

a

A patient has recently been diagnosed with early stages of breast cancer. What is most appropriate for the nurse to focus on? a. maintaining the patient's hope b. preparing a will and advance directives c. discussing replacement child care for the patient's children d. discussing the patient's past experiences with her grandmother's cancer

a

A patient is admitted to the hospital with CKD. The nurse understands that this condition is characterized by: a. progressive irreversible destruction of the kidneys b. a rapid decrease in urine output with an elevated BUN c. an increasing creatinine clearance with a decrease in urine output d. prostration, somnolence, and confusion with coma and imminent death

a

A patient is suspected of having a brain tumor. The s/s include: memory deficits, visual disturbances, weakness of right upper and lower extremities and personality changes. The nurse recognizes that the tumor is most likely located in the a. Frontal lobe b. Parietal lobe c. Occipital lobe d. Temporal lobe

a

A patient's eyes jerk while the patient looks to the left. The nurse will record this finding as a. nystagmus. b. CN VI palsy. c. ophthalmic dyskinesia. d. oculocephalic response.

a

A therapeutic measure used to prevent hypertrophic scarring during the rehabilitation phase of burn recover is a. apply pressure garments b. reposition the patient every 2 hours c. performing active ROM at least every 4 hours d. massaging the new tissue with water-based moisturizers

a

An ESRD patient receiving hemodialysis is considering asking a relative to donate a kidney for transplantation. In assisting the patient to make a decision about treatment, the nurse informs the patient that: A. successful transplantation usually provides a better quality of life than that offered by dialysis B. if rejection of the transplanted kidney occurs, no further treatment for the renal failure is available C. the immunosuppressive therapy that is required following transplantation causes fatal malignancies in many patients D. hemodialysis replaces the normal functioning of the kidneys and patients do not have to live with the continual fear of rejection

a

When discussing risk factors for breast cancer with a group of women, you emphasize that the greatest known risk factor for breast cancer is a. being a woman over age 60 b. experiencing menstruation for 30 years or more c. using hormone therapy for 5 years for menopausal symptoms d. having a paternal grandmother with postmenopausal breast cancer

a

A patient with breast cancer has a lumpectomy with sentinel lymph node biopsy that is positive for cancer. You explain that, of the other tests done to determine the risk for cancer recurrence or spread, the results that support the more favorable prognosis are (SATA) a. well-differentiated tumor b. estrogen receptor-positive tumor c. overexpression of HER-2 cell marker d. involvement of two or four axillary nodes e. aneuploidy status from cell proliferation studies

a, b

Nutritional support and management are essential across the entire continuum of CKD. Which statements are true related to nutritional therapy? (SATA) a. sodium and salt may be restricted in someone with advanced CKD b. fluid is usually not restricted for patients receiving peritoneal dialysis c. decreased fluid intake and a low-potassium diet are part of the diet for a patient receiving hemodialysis d. decreased fluid intake and a low-potassium diet are part of the diet for a patient receiving peritoneal dialysis e. decreased fluid intake and a diet in protein-rich foods are part of a diet for a patient receiving hemodialysis

a, b, c

A nurse is caring for a client who has cervical cancer and is scheduled for brachytherapy. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? (SATA) a. permit visitors to stary with the client 30 min at a time b. warn pregnant individuals to visit the room only once daily c. wear a dosimeter when in the client's room d. place soiled dressings in a biohazard bag before discarding it the regular trash e. dispose soiled linens in the hamper outside the client's room

a, b, c Pregnant individual should not enter room of client receiving brachytherapy.

A nurse is planning care for a client who has postrenal AKI due to metastatic cancer. The client has a blood creatinine of 5 mg/dL. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan? (SATA) a. provide high protein diet b. assess urine for blood c. monitor for intermittent anuria d. weight client once a week e. provide NSAIDs for pain

a, b, c Provide high protein due to high rate of protein breakdown with AKI. Assess urine for blood, stones, particles or anuria causing obstruction to urinary structure. Weigh client daily and NSAIDs are toxic to the nephrons in the kidney.

Stimulation of the parasympathetic nervous system results in (SATA) a. constriction of the bronchi b. dilation of skin blood vessels c. increased secretion of insulin d. increased blood glucose levels e. relaxation of the urinary sphincters

a, b, c, e

A nurse is planning care for a client who has stage 4 CKD. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care? (SATA) a. assess for JVD b. provide frequent mouth rinses c. auscultate for pleural friction rub d. provide high sodium diet e. monitor for dysrhythmias

a, b, c, e Reduce client's dietary sodium intake

A nurse is caring for a client who has experienced a right-hemispheric stroke. The nurse should expect the client to have difficulty with which of the following? (SATA) a. impulse control b. moving the left side c. depth perception d. speaking e. situational awareness

a, b, c, e A client who has experienced right-hemispheric stroke can exhibit difficulty with impulse control, left-sided hemiplegia, loss of depth perception and lack of awareness of surroundings. Left-hemispheric stroke can experience aphasia.

Nurses can screen patients at risk for developing chronic kidney disease. Those considered to be at increased risk include (select all that apply) a. older black patients. b. patients more than 60 years old. c. those with a history of pancreatitis. d. those with a history of hypertension. e. those with a history of type 2 diabetes.

a, b, d, e

A nurse is caring for a client who has breast cancer and asks why the treatment plan contains a combination therapy of cyclophosphamide, methotrexate, and fluorouracil. The response by the nurse should include that combination chemotherapy is used to do which of the following? SATA a. decrease medication resistance b. attack cancer cells at different stages of cell growth c. block chemotherapy agent from entering healthy cells d. stimulate immune system e. decrease injury to normal body cells

a, b, e Medication resistance is decreased with combo therapy because chance of developing resistance to several meds is less than to only one med. Each med kills cancer cells at different stage of growth and combo meds can kill more cells than only one med. Injury to normal body cells can be decreased by combo therapy because the meds used have different toxicities

A nurse is caring for a client with global aphasia (both receptive and expressive). Which of the following should the nurse include in the client's plan of care? (SATA) a. speak to the client at a slower rate b. assist the client to use cards with pictures c. speak to the client in a loud voice d. complete sentences that the client cannot finish e. give instructions one step at a time

a, b, e Client with global aphasia has difficulty speaking and understanding speech. Speak to the client at a slower rate. alternate forms of communication such as cards with pictures or a computer, allowing adequate time to finish sentences and not complete it for them and giving instructions one step at a time.

Pain management for the burn patient is most effective when (SATA) a. a pain rating tool is used to monitor the patient's level of pain b. painful dressing changes are delayed until the patient's pain is completely relieved c. the patient is informed about and has some control over the management of pain d. multimodal approach is used (sustained-release and short-acting opioids, NSAIDs, adjuvant analgesics) d. nonpharmacologic therapies (music therapy, distraction) replace opioids in the rehabilitation phase of a burn injury

a, c, d

You are a community health nurse planning a program on breast cancer screening guidelines for women in the neighborhood. Which recommendations you would include? (select all that apply) a. Women over age 55 may have biennial screening b. screening should end when the women reaches age 65 c. women aged 45-54 years should be screened annually d. regular screening mammography should start at age 45 years e. clinical breast examinations can be used if the woman has average risk

a, c, d

What features of cancer cells distinguish them from normal cells? (SATA) a. cells lack contact inhibition b. cells undergo rapid proliferation c. cells return to a previous undifferentiated state d. proliferation occurs when there is a need for more cells e. new proteins characteristic of embryonic stage emerge on cell membrane

a, c, e

Common psychosocial problems a patient may have post stroke include (select all that apply) a. depression. b. disassociation. c. intellectualization. d. sleep problems. e. denial of severity of stroke.

a, d, e

When assessing a patient with a partial-thickness burn, the nurse would expect to find (SATA) a. blisters b. exposed fascia c. exposed muscles d. intact nerve endings e. red, shiny, wet appearance

a, d, e

A nurse is planning care for a client who is scheduled for genetic testing for suspected cancer. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care? a. determine the need for informed consent b. send testing results to the client's insurance agency c. verify prescription for a tumor marker assay d. ensure the client is placed in a recovery position after testing

a. Informed consent should be obtained prior to procedure, and it involves a collection of blood or saliva.

A student nurse prepares a list of teaching topics for a patient with a new diagnosis of breast cancer. Which item should the charge nurse suggest that the student nurse omit from the teaching topic list about breast cancer diagnostic testing? a. CA 15-3 level testing b. HER-2 receptor testing c. Estrogen receptor testing d. Oncotype DX assay testing

a. Tumor markers such as CA 15-3 are used to monitor response to treatment for breast cancer, not to detect or diagnose breast cancer. The other tests are likely to be used for additional diagnostic testing in a patient with breast cancer.

A patient undergoing external radiation has developed a dry desquamation of the skin in the treatment area. The nurse teaches the patient about management of the skin reaction. Which statement, if made by the patient, indicates the teaching was effective? a. I can buy some aloe vera gel to use on the area. b. I will expose the treatment area to a sun lamp daily. c. I can use ice packs to relieve itching in the treatment area. d. I will scrub the area with warm water to remove the scales.

a. Aloe vera gel and cream may be used on the radiated skin area. Ice and sunlamps may injure the skin. Treatment areas should be cleaned gently to avoid further injury.

Which patient is most appropriate for the burn unit charge nurse to assign to a registered nurse (RN) who has floated from the hospital medical unit? a. A 34-year-old patient who has a weight loss of 15% from admission and requires enteral feedings. b. A 67-year-old patient who has blebs under an autograft on the thigh and has an order for bleb aspiration c. A 46-year-old patient who has just come back to the unit after having a cultured epithelial autograft to the chest d. A 65-year-old patient who has twice-daily burn debridements and dressing changes to partial- thickness facial burns

a. An RN from a medical unit would be familiar with malnutrition and with administration and evaluation of response to enteral feedings. The other patients require burn assessment and care that is more appropriate for staff who regularly care for burned patients.

Which patient is most appropriate for the intensive care unit (ICU) charge nurse to assign to a registered nurse (RN) who has floated from the medical unit? a. A 45-year-old receiving IV antibiotics for meningococcal meningitis b. A 25-year-old admitted with a skull fracture and craniotomy the previous day c. A 55-year-old who has increased intracranial pressure (ICP) and is receiving hyperventilation therapy d. A 35-year-old with ICP monitoring after a head injury last week

a. An RN who works on a medical unit will be familiar with administration of IV antibiotics and with meningitis. The postcraniotomy patient, patient with an ICP monitor, and the patient on a ventilator should be assigned to an RN familiar with the care of critically ill patients.

A patient will need vascular access for hemodialysis. Which statement by the nurse accurately describes an advantage of a fistula over a graft? a. A fistula is much less likely to clot. b. A fistula increases patient mobility. c. A fistula can accommodate larger needles. d. A fistula can be used sooner after surgery.

a. Arteriovenous (AV) fistulas are much less likely to clot than grafts, although it takes longer for them to mature to the point where they can be used for dialysis. The choice of an AV fistula or a graft does not have an impact

A patient has just been admitted with a 40% total body surface area (TBSA) burn injury. To maintain adequate nutrition, the nurse should plan to take which action? a. Insert a feeding tube and initiate enteral feedings. b. Infuse total parenteral nutrition via a central catheter. c. Encourage an oral intake of at least 5000 kcal per day. d. Administer multiple vitamins and minerals in the IV solution.

a. Enteral feedings can usually be initiated during the emergent phase at low rates and increased over 24 to 48 hours to the goal rate. During the emergent phase, the patient will be unable to eat enough calories to meet nutritional needs and may have a paralytic ileus that prevents adequate nutrient absorption. Vitamins and minerals may be administered during the emergent phase, but these will not assist in meeting the patient's caloric needs. Parenteral nutrition increases the infection risk, does not help preserve gastrointestinal function, and is not routinely used in burn patients.

The nurse will inform a patient with cancer of the prostate that side effects of leuprolide (Lupron) may include a. flushing. b. dizziness. c. infection. d. incontinence.

a. Hot flashes may occur with decreased testosterone production. Dizziness may occur with the alpha-blockers used for benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). Urinary incontinence may occur after prostate surgery, but it is not an expected side effect of medication. Risk for infection is increased in patients receiving chemotherapy.

A patient with carotid atherosclerosis asks the nurse to describe a carotid endarterectomy. Which response by the nurse is accurate? a. The obstructing plaque is surgically removed from an artery in the neck. b. The diseased portion of the artery in the brain is replaced with a synthetic graft. c. A wire is threaded through an artery in the leg to the clots in the carotid artery and the clots are removed. d. A catheter with a deflated balloon is positioned at the narrow area, and the balloon is inflated to flatten the plaque.

a. In a carotid endarterectomy, the carotid artery is incised and the plaque is removed. A catheter with a deflated balloon is positioned at the narrow area describes an angioplasty. The final response beginning, A wire is threaded through the artery describes the mechanical embolus removal in cerebral ischemia (MERCI) procedure.

A nurse is preparing to administer cyclophosphamide IV to a client who has Hodgkin's disease. Which of the following medications should the nurse expect to administer concurrently with the chemotherapy to prevent an adverse effect of cyclophosphamide? a. protectant agent, such as mesna b. opioid, such as morphine c. loop diuretic, such as furosemide d. H1 receptor antagonist, such as diphenhydramine

a. Mesna is a uroprotectant agent that can help prevent hemorrhagic cystitis when administering IV with a nitrogen mustard chemotherapy medication

A patient who is receiving methotrexate for severe rheumatoid arthritis develops a megaloblastic anemia. The nurse will anticipate teaching the patient about increasing oral intake of a. iron. b. folic acid. c. cobalamin (vitamin B12). d. ascorbic acid (vitamin C).

a. Methotrexate use can lead to folic acid deficiency. Supplementation with oral folic acid supplements is the usual treatment. The other nutrients would not correct folic acid deficiency, although they would be used to treat other types of anemia.

A 42-year-old patient who has bacterial meningitis is disoriented and anxious. Which nursing action will be included in the plan of care? a. Encourage family members to remain at the bedside. b. Apply soft restraints to protect the patient from injury. c. Keep the room well-lighted to improve patient orientation. d. Minimize contact with the patient to decrease sensory input.

a. Patients with meningitis and disorientation will be calmed by the presence of someone familiar at the bedside. Restraints should be avoided because they increase agitation and anxiety. The patient requires frequent assessment for complications. The use of touch and a soothing voice will decrease anxiety for most patients. The patient will have photophobia, so the light should be dim.

The nurse assesses a patient with non-Hodgkins lymphoma who is receiving an infusion of rituximab (Rituxan). Which assessment finding would require the most rapid action by the nurse? a. Shortness of breath b. Temperature 100.2 F (37.9 C) c. Shivering and complaint of chills d. Generalized muscle aches and pains

a. Rituximab (Rituxan) is a monoclonal antibody. Shortness of breath should be investigated rapidly because anaphylaxis is a possible reaction to monoclonal antibody administration. The nurse will need to rapidly take actions such as stopping the infusion, assessing the patient further, and notifying the health care provider. The other findings will also require action by the nurse, but are not indicative of life-threatening complications.

Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate) is ordered for a patient with hyperkalemia. Before administering the medication, the nurse should assess the: a. bowel sounds. b. blood glucose. c. blood urea nitrogen (BUN). d. level of consciousness (LOC).

a. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate) should not be given to a patient with a paralytic ileus (as indicated by absent bowel sounds) because bowel necrosis can occur. The BUN and creatinine, blood glucose, and LOC would not affect the nurses decision to give the medication.

The charge nurse observes the following actions being taken by a new nurse on the burn unit. Which action by the new nurse would require an intervention by the charge nurse? a. The new nurse uses clean latex gloves when applying antibacterial cream to a burn wound. b. The new nurse obtains burn cultures when the patient has a temperature of 95.2 F (35.1 C). c. The new nurse administers PRN fentanyl (Sublimaze) IV to a patient 5 minutes before a dressing change. d. The new nurse calls the health care provider for a possible insulin order when a nondiabetic patient's serum glucose is elevated.

a. Sterile gloves should be worn when applying medications or dressings to a burn. Hypothermia is an indicator of possible sepsis, and cultures are appropriate. Nondiabetic patients may require insulin because stress and high calorie intake may lead to temporary hyperglycemia. Fentanyl peaks 5 minutes

Admission vital signs for a brain-injured patient are blood pressure 128/68, pulse 110, and respirations 26. Which set of vital signs, if taken 1 hour after admission, will be of most concern to the nurse? a. Blood pressure 154/68, pulse 56, respirations 12 b. Blood pressure 134/72, pulse 90, respirations 32 c. Blood pressure 148/78, pulse 112, respirations 28 d. Blood pressure 110/70, pulse 120, respirations 30

a. Systolic hypertension with widening pulse pressure, bradycardia, and respiratory changes represent Cushings triad. These findings indicate that the intracranial pressure (ICP) has increased, and brain herniation may be imminent unless immediate action is taken to reduce ICP. The other vital signs may indicate the need for changes in treatment, but they are not indicative of an immediately life-threatening process.

A patient with circumferential burns of both legs develops a decrease in dorsalis pedis pulse strength and numbness in the toes. Which action should the nurse take? a. Notify the health care provider. b. Monitor the pulses every 2 hours. c. Elevate both legs above heart level with pillows. d. Encourage the patient to flex and extend the toes on both feet.

a. The decrease in pulse in a patient with circumferential burns indicates decreased circulation to the legs and the need for an escharotomy. Monitoring the pulses is not an adequate response to the decrease in circulation. Elevating the legs or increasing toe movement will not improve the patient's circulation.

Which action will the nurse include in the plan of care for a patient with impaired functioning of the left glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX) and the vagus nerve (CN X)? a. Withhold oral fluid or foods. b. Provide highly seasoned foods. c. Insert an oropharyngeal airway. d. Apply artificial tears every hour.

a. The glossopharyngeal and vagus nerves innervate the pharynx and control the gag reflex. A patient with impaired function of these nerves is at risk for aspiration. An oral airway may be needed when a patient is unconscious and unable to maintain the airway, but it will not decrease aspiration risk. Taste and eye blink are controlled by the facial nerve.

The nurse is caring for a client who was recently admitted to the emergency department following a head-on motor vehicle crash. The client is unresponsive, has spontaneous respirations of 22/min, and has a laceration on the forehead that is bleeding. Which of the following is the priority nursing action at this point? a. keep neck stabilized b. insert nasogastric tube c. monitor pulse and BP frequently d. establish IV access and start fluid replacement

a. The greatest risk to the client is permanent damage to the spinal cord if a cervical injury does exist. The priority nursing intervention is to keep the neck immobile until damage to the cervical spine can be ruled out

The nurse is caring for a patient with colon cancer who is scheduled for external radiation therapy to the abdomen. Which information obtained by the nurse would indicate a need for patient teaching? a. The patient swims a mile 3 days a week. b. The patient snacks frequently during the day. c. The patient showers everyday with a mild soap. d. The patient has a history of dental caries with amalgam fillings.

a. The patient is instructed to avoid swimming in salt water or chlorinated pools during the treatment period. The patient does not need to change habits of eating frequently or showering with a mild soap. A history of dental caries will not impact the patient who is scheduled for abdominal radiation.

A patient who is scheduled for a lumpectomy and axillary lymph node dissection tells the nurse, I would rather not know much about the surgery. Which response by the nurse is best? a. Tell me what you think is important to know about the surgery. b. It is essential that you know enough to provide informed consent. c. Many patients do better after surgery if they have more information. d. You can wait until after surgery for teaching about pain management.

a. This response shows sensitivity to the individual patients need for information about the surgery. The other responses are also accurate, but the nurse should tailor patient teaching to individual patient preferences.

A 40-year-old patient has a ruptured cerebral aneurysm and subarachnoid hemorrhage. Which intervention will be included in the care plan? a. Apply intermittent pneumatic compression stockings. b. Assist to dangle on edge of bed and assess for dizziness. c. Encourage patient to cough and deep breathe every 4 hours. d. Insert an oropharyngeal airway to prevent airway obstruction.

a. The patient with a subarachnoid hemorrhage usually has minimal activity to prevent cerebral vasospasm or further bleeding and is at risk for venous thromboembolism (VTE). Activities such as coughing and sitting up that might increase intracranial pressure (ICP) or decrease cerebral blood flow are avoided. Because there is no indication that the patient is unconscious, an oropharyngeal airway is inappropriate.

A 72-year-old patient with a history of benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is admitted with acute urinary retention and elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels. Which prescribed therapy should the nurse implement first? a. Insert urethral catheter. b. Obtain renal ultrasound. c. Draw a complete blood count. d. Infuse normal saline at 50 mL/hour.

a. The patient's elevation in BUN is most likely associated with hydronephrosis caused by the acute urinary retention, so the insertion of a retention catheter is the first action to prevent ongoing postrenal failure for this patient. The other actions also are appropriate but should be implemented after the retention catheter.

The nurse caring for a patient admitted with burns over 30% of the body surface assesses that urine output has dramatically increased. Which action by the nurse would best ensure adequate kidney function? a. Continue to monitor the urine output. b. Monitor for increased white blood cells (WBCs). c. Assess that blisters and edema have subsided. d. Prepare the patient for discharge from the burn unit.

a. The patient's urine output indicates that the patient is entering the acute phase of the burn injury and moving on from the emergent stage. At the end of the emergent phase, capillary permeability normalizes, and the patient begins to diuresis large amounts of urine with a low specific gravity. Although this may occur at about 48 hours, it may be longer in some patients. Blisters and edema begin to resolve, but this process requires more time. White blood cells may increase or decrease, based on the patient's immune status and any infectious processes. The WBC count does not indicate kidney function. The patient will likely remain in the burn unit during the acute stage of burn injury.

A male patient who has possible cerebral edema has a serum sodium level of 116 mEq/L (116 mmol/L) and a decreasing level of consciousness (LOC). He is now complaining of a headache. Which prescribed interventions should the nurse implement first? a. Administer IV 5% hypertonic saline. b. Draw blood for arterial blood gases (ABGs). c. Send patient for computed tomography (CT). d. Administer acetaminophen (Tylenol) 650 mg orally.

a. The patients low sodium indicates that hyponatremia may be causing the cerebral edema. The nurses first action should be to correct the low sodium level. Acetaminophen (Tylenol) will have minimal effect on the headache because it is caused by cerebral edema and increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Drawing ABGs and obtaining a CT scan may provide some useful information, but the low sodium level may lead to seizures unless it is addressed quickly.

When caring for a patient with a left arm arteriovenous fistula, which action will the nurse include in the plan of care to maintain the patency of the fistula? a. Auscultate for a bruit at the fistula site. b. Assess the quality of the left radial pulse. c. Compare blood pressures in the left and right arms. d. Irrigate the fistula site with saline every 8 to 12 hours.

a. The presence of a thrill and bruit indicates adequate blood flow through the fistula. Pulse rate and quality are not good indicators of fistula patency. Blood pressures should never be obtained on the arm with a fistula. Irrigation of the fistula might damage the fistula, and typically only dialysis staff would access the fistula.

To assess the functioning of the trigeminal and facial nerves (CNs V and VII), the nurse should a. shine a light into the patients pupil. b. check for unilateral eyelid drooping. c. touch a cotton wisp strand to the cornea. d. have the patient read a magazine or book.

a. The trigeminal and facial nerves are responsible for the corneal reflex. The optic nerve is tested by having the patient read a Snellen chart or a newspaper. Assessment of pupil response to light and ptosis are used to check function of the oculomotor nerve.

When using the accompanying illustration to teach a patient about breast self-examination, the nurse will include the information that most breast cancers are located in which part of the breast? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 e. 5

a. The upper outer quadrant is the location of most of the glandular tissue of the breast.

When admitting a 42-year-old patient with a possible brain injury after a car accident to the emergency department (ED), the nurse obtains the following information. Which finding is most important to report to the health care provider? a. The patient takes warfarin (Coumadin) daily. b. The patients blood pressure is 162/94 mm Hg. c. The patient is unable to remember the accident. d. The patient complains of a severe dull headache.

a. The use of anticoagulants increases the risk for intracranial hemorrhage and should be immediately reported. The other information would not be unusual in a patient with a head injury who had just arrived in the ED.

A widowed mother of four school-age children is hospitalized with metastatic ovarian cancer. The patient is crying and tells the nurse that she does not know what will happen to her children when she dies. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate? a. Why dont we talk about the options you have for the care of your children? b. Im sure you have friends that will take the children when you cant care for them. c. For now you need to concentrate on getting well and not worrying about your children. d. Many patients with cancer live for a long time, so there is still time to plan for your children.

a. This response expresses the nurses willingness to listen and recognizes the patients concern. The responses beginning Many patients with cancer live for a long time and For now you need to concentrate on getting well close off discussion of the topic and indicate that the nurse is uncomfortable with the topic. In addition, the patient with metastatic ovarian cancer may not have a long time to plan. Although it is possible that the patients friends will take the children, more assessment information is needed before making plans.

A nurse is caring for a client who has increased ICP and a new prescription for mannitol. For which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor? a. hyperglycemia b. hyponatremia c. hypervolemia d. oliguria

b. Mannitol is a powerful osmotic diuretic. Adverse effects include electrolyte imbalance, such as hyponatremia and hypovolemia. Polyuria is an effect of mannitol and should be monitored.

When caring for a patient who is pancytopenic, which action by unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) indicates a need for the nurse to intervene? a. The UAP assists the patient to use dental floss after eating. b. The UAP adds baking soda to the patients saline oral rinses. c. The UAP puts fluoride toothpaste on the patients toothbrush. d. The UAP has the patient rinse after meals with a saline solution.

a. Use of dental floss is avoided in patients with pancytopenia because of the risk for infection and bleeding. The other actions are appropriate for oral care of a pancytopenic patient.

When admitting an acutely confused 20-year-old patient with a head injury, which action should the nurse take? a. Ask family members about the patients health history. b. Ask leading questions to assist in obtaining health data. c. Wait until the patient is better oriented to ask questions. d. Obtain only the physiologic neurologic assessment data.

a. When admitting a patient who is likely to be a poor historian, the nurse should obtain health history information from others who have knowledge about the patient's health. Waiting until the patient is oriented or obtaining only physiologic data will result in incomplete assessment data, which could adversely affect decision making about treatment. Asking leading questions may result in inaccurate or incomplete information.

An employee spills industrial acids on both arms and legs at work. What is thepriority action that the occupational health nurse at the facility should take? a. Remove nonadherent clothing and watch. b. Apply an alkaline solution to the affected area. c. Place cool compresses on the area of exposure. d. Cover the affected area with dry, sterile dressings.

a. With chemical burns, the initial action is to remove the chemical from contact with the skin as quickly as possible. Remove nonadherent clothing, shoes, watches, jewelry, glasses, or contact lenses (if face was exposed). Flush chemical from wound and surrounding area with copious amounts of saline solution or water. Covering the affected area or placing cool compresses on the area will leave the chemical in contact with the skin. Application of an alkaline solution is not recommended.

After receiving change-of-shift report on the following four patients, which patient should the nurse see first? a. A 60-year-old patient with right-sided weakness who has an infusion of tPA prescribed b. A 50-year-old patient who has atrial fibrillation and a new order for warfarin (Coumadin) c. A 40-year-old patient who experienced a transient ischemic attack yesterday who has a dose of aspirin due d. A 30-year-old patient with a subarachnoid hemorrhage 2 days ago who has nimodipine (Nimotop) scheduled

a. tPA needs to be infused within the first few hours after stroke symptoms start in order to be effective in minimizing brain injury. The other medications should also be given as quickly as possible, but timing of the medications is not as critical.

A nurse plans care for the patient with increased ICP with the knowledge that the best way to position the patient is to a. keep the head of the bed flat b. elevate HOB to 30 degrees c. maintain patient on the left side with the head supported on a pillow d. use a continuous-rotation bed to continuously change patient position

b

A patient has 25% TBSA burn from a car fire. His wounds have been debrided and covered with silver-impregnated dressing. The nurse's priority intervention for wound care would to be a. reapply a new dressing without disturbing the wound bed b. observe the wound for signs of infection during dressing changes c. apply cool compresses for pain relief in between dressing changes d. wash the wound aggressively with soap and water three times a day

b

A patient is seen in the emergency department after diving into the pool and hitting the bottom with a blow to the face that hyperextended the neck and scraped the skin off the nose. The patient describes "having double vision" when looking down. During neurological examination, the nurse finds the patient is unable to abduct either eye. The nurse recognizes this finding is related to a. a basal skull fracture b. an injury to CN VI on both sides c. a stiff neck from the hyperextension injury d. facial swelling from the scrape on the bottom of the pool

b

During the admitting neurologic examination, the nurse determines the patient has speech difficulties as well as weakness of the right arm and lower face. The nurse would expect a CT scan to show pathology in the distribution of the a. basilar artery. b. left middle cerebral artery. c. right anterior cerebral artery. d. left posterior communicating artery.

b

For a patient who is suspected of having a stroke, one of the most important pieces of information that the nurse can obtain is a. time of the patient's last meal. b. time at which stroke symptoms first appeared. c. patient's hypertension history and management. d. family history of stroke and other cardiovascular diseases.

b

How should the nurse assess cranial nerves III, IV, and VI? a. check the patient's gag reflex b. test the patient's eye movements c. ask the patient to smile and frown d. have the patient stick out their tongue

b

The nurse explains to the patient undergoing brachytherapy of the cervix that she a. must under simulation to locate treatment area b. requires the use of radioactive precautions during nursing care c. may have desquamation of the skin on the abdomen and upper legs d. requires shielding of the ovaries during treatment to prevent ovarian damage

b

The nurse is assessing the muscle strength of an older adult. The nurse knows the findings cannot be compared with those if a younger adult because a. nutritional status is better in young adults b. muscle tone and strength decrease in older adults c. muscle strength should be the same for all adults d. most young adults exercise more than older adults

b

To prevent fever and shivering during an infusion of rituximab (Rituxan), the nurse should premedicate the patient with a. aspirin. b. acetaminophen. c. sodium bicarbonate. d. meperidine (Demerol).

b

Vasogenic cerebral edema increases ICP by A. shifting fluid in the gray matter. B. altering the endothelial lining of cerebral capillaries. C. leaking molecules from the intracellular fluid to the capillaries. D. altering the osmotic gradient flow into the intravascular component.

b

Which patient has the highest risk for having a stroke? a. an obese 45-year-old Native American b. a 65-year-old black man with hypertension c. a 35-year-old Asian American woman who smokes d. a 32-year-old white woman taking oral contraceptives

b

Which assessments will the nurse make to monitor a patients cerebellar function (select all that apply)? a. Assess for graphesthesia. b. Observe arm swing with gait. c. Perform the finger-to-nose test. d. Check ability to push against resistance. e. Determine ability to sense heat and cold.

b, c The cerebellum is responsible for coordination and is assessed by looking at the patients gait and the finger-to-nose test. The other assessments will be used for other parts of the neurologic assessment.

A nurse is planning care for a client who is undering chemo and is on neutropenic precautions. Which of the following interventions should be inclided in the plan of care? (SATA) a. encourage high fiber dient b. eliminate standing water in the room c. have client wear a mask when leaving the room d. have client-specific equipment remain in the room e. eliminate raw foods from client's diet

b, c, d, e

a nurse is collecting info from a client in a provider's office. Which of the following findings should the nure identify as an indication of possible cancer? (SATA) a. Temp 102 degree F for more than 48 hours b. sore that does not heal c. difficulty swallowing d. unusual discharge e. weight gain 4lb in 2 weeks

b, c, d, e Findings of possible cancer include: unexplained night sweats, sore that does not heal, difficulty swallowing, unusual discharge, weight gain or weight loss.

A nurse is teaching a client who is scheduled for a nuclear imaging for suspected cancer. Which of the following statements should the nurse give? a. "Presence of a liver enzyme will be identified." b. "You will be given an injection of a radioactive substance." c. "An endoscope will be inserted through your mouth." d. "The tumor will be aspirated."

b.

A nurse is teaching a client who has breast cancer about tamoxifen. Which of the following adverse effects of tamoxifen should the nurse discuss with the client? a. irregular heartbeat b. abnormal uterine bleeding c. yellow sclera of dark-colored urine c. difficulty swallowing

b. Vaginal discharge and bleeding are adverse effects of tamoxifen. The client who takes this med is also at increased risk for endometrial cancer, so any abnormal bleeding should be carefully monitored and evaluated. The others are not adverse effects of tamoxifen.

A nurse is reviewing client laboratory data. Which of the following findings is expected for a client who has stage 4 CKD? a. BUN 15 mg/dL b. eGFR 20 mL/min c. Creatinine 1.1 mg/dL d. Blood potassium 5.0 mEq/L

b. A client in stage 4 CKD can have a creatinine level as high as 15-30 mg/dL and potassium >5.0 mEq/L

A nurse is caring for a client who has left homonymous hemianopsia. Which of the following is an appropriate nursing intervention? a. teach the client to scan to the right to see objects on the right side of the body b. place the bedside table on the right side of the bed c. orient the client to the food on the plate using the clock method d. place the wheelchair on the client's left side

b. A client with left homonymous hemianopsia has lost the left visual of both eyes and needs to be taught to turn the head to the left. The client is unable to visualize to the left midline of their body. Placing the bedside table on the right side of the client's bed will permit visualization on items on the table. The wheelchair should be placed to the client's right, or unaffected side.

Which patient requires the most rapid assessment and care by the emergency department nurse? a. The patient with hemochromatosis who reports abdominal pain b. The patient with neutropenia who has a temperature of 101.8 F c. The patient with sickle cell anemia who has had nausea and diarrhea for 24 hours d. The patient with thrombocytopenia who has oozing after having a tooth extracted

b. A neutropenic patient with a fever is assumed to have an infection and is at risk for rapidly developing sepsis. Rapid assessment, cultures, and initiation of antibiotic therapy are needed. The other patients also require rapid assessment and care but not as urgently as the neutropenic patient.

Which action will the emergency department nurse anticipate for a patient diagnosed with a concussion who did not lose consciousness? a. Coordinate the transfer of the patient to the operating room. b. Provide discharge instructions about monitoring neurologic status. c. Transport the patient to radiology for magnetic resonance imaging (MRI). d. Arrange to admit the patient to the neurologic unit for 24 hours of observation.

b. A patient with a minor head trauma is usually discharged with instructions about neurologic monitoring and the need to return if neurologic status deteriorates. MRI, hospital admission, or surgery are not usually indicated in a patient with a concussion.

Which nursing diagnosis is expected to be appropriate for a patient who has a positive Romberg test? a. Acute pain b. Risk for falls c. Acute confusion d. Ineffective thermoregulation

b. A positive Romberg test indicates that the patient has difficulty maintaining balance with the eyes closed. The Romberg does not test for orientation, thermoregulation, or discomfort.

An unconscious male patient has just arrived in the emergency department after a head injury caused by a motorcycle crash. Which order should the nurse question? a. Obtain x-rays of the skull and spine. b. Prepare the patient for lumbar puncture. c. Send for computed tomography (CT) scan. d. Perform neurologic checks every 15 minutes.

b. After a head injury, the patient may be experiencing intracranial bleeding and increased intracranial pressure, which could lead to herniation of the brain if a lumbar puncture is performed. The other orders are appropriate.

A 36-year-old who has a diagnosis of fibrocystic breast changes calls the nurse in the clinic with symptoms. Which is most important to report to the health care provider? a. There is yellow-green discharge from the patients right nipple. b. There is an area on the breast that is hot, pink, and tender to touch. c. The lumps are firm and most are in the upper outer breast quadrants. d. The lumps are larger and painful before the patients menstrual period.

b. An area that is hot or pink suggests an infectious process such as mastitis, which would require further assessment and treatment. The other information also will be reported, but these findings are typical in fibrocystic breasts.

Before administration of captopril (Capoten) to a patient with stage 2 chronic kidney disease (CKD), the nurse will check the patients a. glucose. b. potassium. c. creatinine. d. phosphate.

b. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are frequently used in patients with CKD because they delay the progression of the CKD, but they cause potassium retention. Therefore careful monitoring of potassium levels is needed in patients who are at risk for hyperkalemia. The other laboratory values would also be monitored in patients with CKD but would not affect whether the captopril was given or not.

After receiving change-of-shift report for several patients with neutropenia, which patient should the nurse assess first? a. 56-year-old with frequent explosive diarrhea b. 33-year-old with a fever of 100.8 F (38.2 C) c. 66-year-old who has white pharyngeal lesions d. 23-year old who is complaining of severe fatigue

b. Any fever in a neutropenic patient indicates infection and can quickly lead to sepsis and septic shock. Rapid assessment and (if prescribed) initiation of antibiotic therapy within 1 hour are needed. The other patients also need to be assessed but do not exhibit symptoms of potentially life-threatening problems.

Several patients have been hospitalized for diagnosis of neurologic problems. Which patient will the nurse assess first? a. Patient with a transient ischemic attack (TIA) returning from carotid duplex studies b. Patient with a brain tumor who has just arrived on the unit after a cerebral angiogram c. Patient with a seizure disorder who has just completed an electroencephalogram (EEG) d. Patient prepared for a lumbar puncture whose health care provider is waiting for assistance

b. Because cerebral angiograms require insertion of a catheter into the femoral artery, bleeding is a possible complication. The nurse will need to check the pulse, blood pressure, and the catheter insertion site in the groin as soon as the patient arrives. Carotid duplex studies and EEG are noninvasive. The nurse will need to assist with the lumbar puncture as soon as possible, but monitoring for hemorrhage after cerebral angiogram has a higher priority.

A 42-year-old patient admitted with acute kidney injury due to dehydration has oliguria, anemia, and hyperkalemia. Which prescribed actions should the nurse take first? a. Insert a urinary retention catheter. b. Place the patient on a cardiac monitor. c. Administer epoetin alfa (Epogen, Procrit). d. Give sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate).

b. Because hyperkalemia can cause fatal cardiac dysrhythmias, the initial action should be to monitor the cardiac rhythm. Kayexalate and Epogen will take time to correct the hyperkalemia and anemia. The catheter allows monitoring of the urine output but does not correct the cause of the renal failure.

The nurse supervises the care of a patient with a temporary radioactive cervical implant. Which action by unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP), if observed by the nurse, would require an intervention? a. The UAP flushes the toilet once after emptying the patients bedpan. b. The UAP stands by the patients bed for 30 minutes talking with the patient. c. The UAP places the patients bedding in the laundry container in the hallway. d. The UAP gives the patient an alcohol-containing mouthwash to use for oral care.

b. Because patients with temporary implants emit radioactivity while the implants are in place, exposure to the patient is limited. Laundry and urine/feces do not have any radioactivity and do not require special precautions. Cervical radiation will not affect the oral mucosa, and alcohol-based mouthwash is not contraindicated.

After endotracheal suctioning, the nurse notes that the intracranial pressure for a patient with a traumatic head injury has increased from 14 to 17 mm Hg. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Document the increase in intracranial pressure. b. Ensure that the patients neck is in neutral position. c. Notify the health care provider about the change in pressure. d. Increase the rate of the prescribed propofol (Diprivan) infusion.

b. Because suctioning will cause a transient increase in intracranial pressure, the nurse should initially check for other factors that might be contributing to the increase and observe the patient for a few minutes. Documentation is needed, but this is not the first action. There is no need to notify the health care provider about this expected reaction to suctioning. Propofol is used to control patient anxiety or agitation. There is no indication that anxiety has contributed to the increase in intracranial pressure.

Which finding would the nurse expect when assessing the legs of a patient who has a lower motor neuron lesion? a. Spasticity b. Flaccidity c. No sensation d. Hyperactive reflexes

b. Because the cell bodies of lower motor neurons are located in the spinal cord, damage to the neuron will decrease motor activity of the affected muscles. Spasticity and hyperactive reflexes are caused by upper motor neuron damage. Sensation is not impacted by motor neuron lesions.

To assess for functional deficits, which question will the nurse ask a patient who has been admitted for treatment of a benign occipital lobe tumor? a. Do you have difficulty in hearing? b. Are you experiencing visual problems? c. Are you having any trouble with your balance? d. Have you developed any weakness on one side?

b. Because the occipital lobe is responsible for visual reception, the patient with a tumor in this area is likely to have problems with vision. The other questions will be better for assessing function of the temporal lobe,

Which information will the nurse monitor in order to determine the effectiveness of prescribed calcium carbonate (Caltrate) for a patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD)? a. Blood pressure b. Phosphate level c. Neurologic status d. Creatinine clearance

b. Calcium carbonate is prescribed to bind phosphorus and prevent mineral and bone disease in patients with CKD. The other data will not be helpful in evaluating the effectiveness of calcium carbonate.

A patient admitted with a diffuse axonal injury has a systemic blood pressure (BP) of 106/52 mm Hg and an intracranial pressure (ICP) of 14 mm Hg. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Document the BP and ICP in the patients record. b. Report the BP and ICP to the health care provider. c. Elevate the head of the patients bed to 60 degrees. d. Continue to monitor the patients vital signs and ICP.

b. Calculate the cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP): (CPP = mean arterial pressure [MAP] ICP). MAP = DBP + 1/3 (systolic blood pressure [SBP] diastolic blood pressure [DBP]). Therefore the (MAP) is 70 and the CPP is 56 mm Hg, which is below the normal of 60 to 100 mm Hg and approaching the level of ischemia and neuronal death. Immediate changes in the patients therapy such as fluid infusion or vasopressor administration are needed to improve the cerebral perfusion pressure. Adjustments in the head elevation should only be done after consulting with the health care provider. Continued monitoring and documentation will also be done, but they are not the first actions that the nurse should take.

Which nursing action is a priority for a patient who has suffered a burn injury while working on an electrical power line? a. Obtain the blood pressure. b. Stabilize the cervical spine. c. Assess for the contact points. d. Check alertness and orientation.

b. Cervical spine injuries are commonly associated with electrical burns. Therefore, stabilization of the cervical spine takes precedence after airway management. The other actions are also included in the emergent care after electrical burns, but the most important action is to avoid spinal cord injury.

A 20-year-old male patient is admitted with a head injury after a collision while playing football. After noting that the patient has developed clear nasal drainage, which action should the nurse take? a. Have the patient gently blow the nose. b. Check the drainage for glucose content. c. Teach the patient that rhinorrhea is expected after a head injury. d. Obtain a specimen of the fluid to send for culture and sensitivity.

b. Clear nasal drainage in a patient with a head injury suggests a dural tear and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leakage. If the drainage is CSF, it will test positive for glucose. Fluid leaking from the nose will have normal nasal flora, so culture and sensitivity will not be useful. Blowing the nose is avoided to prevent CSF leakage.

A female patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is receiving peritoneal dialysis with 2 L inflows. Which information should the nurse report immediately to the health care provider? a. The patient has an outflow volume of 1800 mL. b. The patients peritoneal effluent appears cloudy. c. The patient has abdominal pain during the inflow phase. d. The patients abdomen appears bloated after the inflow.

b. Cloudy appearing peritoneal effluent is a sign of peritonitis and should be reported immediately so that treatment with antibiotics can be started. The other problems can be addressed through nursing interventions such as slowing the inflow and repositioning the patient.

Several weeks after a stroke, a 50-year-old male patient has impaired awareness of bladder fullness, resulting in urinary incontinence. Which nursing intervention will be best to include in the initial plan for an effective bladder training program? a. Limit fluid intake to 1200 mL daily to reduce urine volume. b. Assist the patient onto the bedside commode every 2 hours. c. Perform intermittent catheterization after each voiding to check for residual urine. d. Use an external condom catheter to protect the skin and prevent embarrassment.

b. Developing a regular voiding schedule will prevent incontinence and may increase patient awareness of a full bladder. A 1200 mL fluid restriction may lead to dehydration. Intermittent catheterization and use of a condom catheter are appropriate in the acute phase of stroke, but should not be considered solutions for long-term management because of the risks for urinary tract infection (UTI) and skin breakdown.

A patient has arrived for a scheduled hemodialysis session. Which nursing action ismost appropriate for the registered nurse (RN) to delegate to a dialysis technician? a. Teach the patient about fluid restrictions. b. Check blood pressure before starting dialysis. c. Assess for causes of an increase in predialysis weight. d. Determine the ultrafiltration rate for the hemodialysis.

b. Dialysis technicians are educated in monitoring for blood pressure. Assessment, adjustment of the appropriate ultrafiltration rate, and patient teaching require the education and scope of practice of an RN.

Which information obtained by the nurse caring for a patient with thrombocytopenia should be immediately communicated to the health care provider? a. The platelet count is 52,000/L. b. The patient is difficult to arouse. c. There are purpura on the oral mucosa. d. There are large bruises on the patients back.

b. Difficulty in arousing the patient may indicate a cerebral hemorrhage, which is life threatening and requires immediate action. The other information should be documented and reported but would not be unusual in a patient with thrombocytopenia.

A hospitalized patient who has received chemotherapy for leukemia develops neutropenia. Which observation by the nurse would indicate a need for further teaching? a. The patient ambulates several times a day in the room. b. The patients visitors bring in some fresh peaches from home. c. The patient cleans with a warm washcloth after having a stool. d. The patient uses soap and shampoo to shower every other day.

b. Fresh, thinned-skin fruits are not permitted in a neutropenic diet because of the risk of bacteria being present. The patient should ambulate in the room rather than the hospital hallway to avoid exposure to other patients or visitors. Because overuse of soap can dry the skin and increase infection risk, showering every other day is acceptable. Careful cleaning after having a bowel movement will help prevent skin breakdown and infection.

After evacuation of an epidural hematoma, a patients intracranial pressure (ICP) is being monitored with an intraventricular catheter. Which information obtained by the nurse is most important to communicate to the health care provider? a. Pulse 102 beats/min b. Temperature 101.6 F c. Intracranial pressure 15 mm Hg d. Mean arterial pressure 90 mm Hg

b. Infection is a serious consideration with ICP monitoring, especially with intraventricular catheters. The temperature indicates the need for antibiotics or removal of the monitor. The ICP, arterial pressure, and apical pulse are all borderline high but require only ongoing monitoring at this time.

Propranolol (Inderal), a b-adrenergic blocker that inhibits sympathetic nervous system activity, is prescribed for a patient who has extreme anxiety about public speaking. The nurse monitors the patient for a. dry mouth. b. bradycardia. c. constipation. d. urinary retention.

b. Inhibition of the fight or flight response leads to a decreased heart rate. Dry mouth, constipation, and urinary retention are associated with peripheral nervous system blockade.

A 58-year-old woman tells the nurse, I understand that I have stage II breast cancer and I need to decide on a surgery, but I feel overwhelmed. What do you think I should do? Which response by the nurse is best? a. I would have a lumpectomy, but you need to decide what is best for you. b. Tell me what you understand about the surgical options that are available. c. It would not be appropriate for me to make a decision about your health. d. There is no need to make a decision rapidly; you have time to think about this.

b. Inquiring about the patients understanding shows the nurses willingness to assist the patient with the decision- making process without imposing the nurses values or opinions. Treatment decisions for breast cancer do need to be made relatively quickly. Imposing the nurses opinions or showing an unwillingness to discuss the topic could cut off communication.

18. A 39-year-old patient with a suspected herniated intervertebral disc is scheduled for a myelogram. Which information is most important for the nurse to communicate to the health care provider before the procedure? a. The patient is anxious about the test. b. The patient has an allergy to shellfish. c. The patient has back pain when lying flat. d. The patient drank apple juice 4 hours earlier.

b. Iodine-containing contrast medium is injected into the subarachnoid space during a myelogram. The healthcare provider may need to modify the postmyelogram orders to prevent back pain, but this can be done after the procedure. Clear liquids are usually considered safe up to 4 hours before a diagnostic or surgical procedure. The patient's anxiety should be addressed, but this is not as important as the iodine allergy.

Which assessment finding in a 36-year-old patient is most indicative of a need for further evaluation? a. Bilateral breast nodules that are tender with palpation b. A breast nodule that is 1 cm in size, nontender, and fixed c. A breast lump that increases in size before the menstrual period d. A breast lump that is small, mobile, with a rubbery consistency

b. Painless and fixed lumps suggest breast cancer. The other findings are more suggestive of benign processes such as fibrocystic breasts and fibroadenoma.

When a patient with acute kidney injury (AKI) has an arterial blood pH of 7.30, the nurse will expect an assessment finding of a. persistent skin tenting b. rapid, deep respirations. c. bounding peripheral pulses. d. hot, flushed face and neck.

b. Patients with metabolic acidosis caused by AKI may have Kussmaul respirations as the lungs try to regulate carbon dioxide. Bounding pulses and vasodilation are not associated with metabolic acidosis. Because the patient is likely to have fluid retention, poor skin turgor would not be a finding in AKI.

Which patient statement indicates that the nurses teaching about tamoxifen (Nolvadex) has been effective? a. I can expect to have leg cramps. b. I will call if I have any eye problems. c. I should contact you if I have hot flashes. d. I will be taking the medication for 6 to 12 months.

b. Retinopathy, cataracts, and decreased visual acuity should be immediately reported because it is likely that the tamoxifen will be discontinued or decreased. Tamoxifen treatment generally lasts 5 years. Hot flashes are an expected side effect of tamoxifen. Leg cramps may be a sign of deep vein thrombosis, and the patient should immediately notify the health care provider if pain occurs.

The nurse is admitting a patient with a basal skull fracture. The nurse notes ecchymoses around both eyes and clear drainage from the patients nose. Which admission order should the nurse question? a. Keep the head of bed elevated. b. Insert nasogastric tube to low suction. c. Turn patient side to side every 2 hours d. Apply cold packs intermittently to face.

b. Rhinorrhea may indicate a dural tear with cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leakage. Insertion of a nasogastric tube will increase the risk for infections such as meningitis. Turning the patient, elevating the head, and applying cold packs are appropriate orders.

Family members of a patient who has a traumatic brain injury ask the nurse about the purpose of the ventriculostomy system being used for intracranial pressure monitoring. Which response by the nurse is best? a. This type of monitoring system is complex and it is managed by skilled staff. b. The monitoring system helps show whether blood flow to the brain is adequate. c. The ventriculostomy monitoring system helps check for alterations in cerebral perfusion pressure. d. This monitoring system has multiple benefits including facilitation of cerebrospinal fluid drainage.

b. Short and simple explanations should be given initially to patients and family members. The other explanations are either too complicated to be easily understood or may increase the family members anxiety.

Which information should the nurse include in teaching a patient who is scheduled for external beam radiation to the breast? a. The radiation therapy will take a week to complete. b. Careful skin care in the radiated area will be necessary. c. Visitors are restricted until the radiation therapy is completed. d. Wigs may be used until the hair regrows after radiation therapy.

b. Skin care will be needed because of the damage caused to the skin by the radiation. External beam radiation is done over a 5- to 6-week period. Scalp hair loss does not occur with breast radiation therapy. Because the patient does not have radioactive implants, no visitor restrictions are necessary.

The nurse is caring for a patient who has just returned after having left carotid artery angioplasty and stenting. Which assessment information is of most concern to the nurse? a. The pulse rate is 102 beats/min. b. The patient has difficulty speaking. c. The blood pressure is 144/86 mm Hg. d. There are fine crackles at the lung bases.

b. Small emboli can occur during carotid artery angioplasty and stenting, and the aphasia indicates a possible stroke during the procedure. Slightly elevated pulse rate and blood pressure are not unusual because of anxiety associated with the procedure. Fine crackles at the lung bases may indicate atelectasis caused by immobility during the procedure. The nurse should have the patient take some deep breaths.

A patient who is being treated for stage IV lung cancer tells the nurse about new-onset back pain. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Give the patient the prescribed PRN opioid. b. Assess for sensation and strength in the legs. c. Notify the health care provider about the symptoms. d. Teach the patient how to use relaxation to reduce pain.

b. Spinal cord compression, an oncologic emergency, can occur with invasion of tumor into the epidural space. The nurse will need to assess the patient further for symptoms such as decreased leg sensation and strength and then notify the health care provider. Administration of opioids or use of relaxation may be appropriate but only after the nurse has assessed for possible spinal cord compression.

The nurse administers an IV vesicant chemotherapeutic agent to a patient. Which action is most important for the nurse to take? a. Infuse the medication over a short period of time. b. Stop the infusion if swelling is observed at the site. c. Administer the chemotherapy through a small-bore catheter. d. Hold the medication unless a central venous line is available.

b. Swelling at the site may indicate extravasation, and the IV should be stopped immediately. The medication generally should be given slowly to avoid irritation of the vein. The size of the catheter is not as important as administration of vesicants into a running IV line to allow dilution of the chemotherapeutic drug. These medications can be given through peripheral lines, although central vascular access devices (CVADs) are preferred.

A 48-year-old patient with stage 2 chronic kidney disease (CKD) is scheduled for an intravenous pyelogram (IVP). Which order for the patient will the nurse question? a. NPO for 6 hours before procedure b. Ibuprofen (Advil) 400 mg PO PRN for pain c. Dulcolax suppository 4 hours before procedure d. Normal saline 500 mL IV infused before procedure

b. The contrast dye used in IVPs is potentially nephrotoxic, and concurrent use of other nephrotoxic medications such as the nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) should be avoided. The suppository and NPO status are necessary to ensure adequate visualization during the IVP. IV fluids are used to ensure adequate hydration, which helps reduce the risk for contrast-induced renal failure.

The nurse is assessing a patient 4 hours after a kidney transplant. Which information ismost important to communicate to the health care provider? a. The urine output is 900 to 1100 mL/hr. b. The patients central venous pressure (CVP) is decreased. c. The patient has a level 7 (0 to 10 point scale) incisional pain. d. The blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels are elevated.

b. The decrease in CVP suggests hypovolemia, which must be rapidly corrected to prevent renal hypoperfusion and acute tubular necrosis. The other information is not unusual in a patient after a transplant.

The nurse in the clinic notes elevated prostate specific antigen (PSA) levels in the laboratory results of these patients. Which patients PSA result is most important to report to the health care provider? a. A 38-year-old who is being treated for acute prostatitis b. A 48-year-old whose father died of metastatic prostate cancer c. A 52-year-old who goes on long bicycle rides every weekend d. A 75-year-old who uses saw palmetto to treat benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)

b. The family history of prostate cancer and elevation of PSA indicate that further evaluation of the patient for prostate cancer is needed. Elevations in PSA for the other patients are not unusual.

The nurse notes bilateral enlargement of the breasts during examination of a 62-year-old man. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Teach the patient how to palpate the breast tissue for lumps. b. Question the patient about medications being currently used. c. Refer the patient for mammography and biopsy of the breast tissue. d. Explain that this is a temporary condition due to hormonal changes.

b. The first action should be further assessment. Because gynecomastia is a possible side effect of drug therapy, asking about the current drug regimen is appropriate. The other actions may be needed, depending on the data that are obtained with further assessment.

The nurse admitting a patient who has a right frontal lobe tumor would expect the patient may have a. expressive aphasia. b. impaired judgment. c. right-sided weakness. d. difficulty swallowing.

b. The frontal lobe controls intellectual activities such as judgment. Speech is controlled in the parietal lobe. Weakness and hemiplegia occur on the contralateral side from the tumor. Swallowing is controlled by the brainstem.

A 62-year-old female patient has been hospitalized for 8 days with acute kidney injury (AKI) caused by dehydration. Which information will be most important for the nurse to report to the health care provider? a. The creatinine level is 3.0 mg/dL. b. Urine output over an 8-hour period is 2500 mL. c. The blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level is 67 mg/dL. d. The glomerular filtration rate is <30 mL/min/1.73m2 .

b. The high urine output indicates a need to increase fluid intake to prevent hypovolemia. The other information is typical of AKI and will not require a change in therapy.

Which finding for a patient who has a head injury should the nurse report immediately to the health care provider? a. Intracranial pressure is 16 mm Hg when patient is turned. b. Pale yellow urine output is 1200 mL over the last 2 hours. c. LICOX brain tissue oxygenation catheter shows PbtO2 of 38 mm Hg. d. Ventriculostomy drained 40 mL of cerebrospinal fluid in the last 2 hours.

b. The high urine output indicates that diabetes insipidus may be developing, and interventions to prevent dehydration need to be rapidly implemented. The other data do not indicate a need for any change in therapy.

A 25-year-old male patient has been admitted with a severe crushing injury after an industrial accident. Which laboratory result will be most important to report to the health care provider? a. Serum creatinine level 2.1 mg/dL b. Serum potassium level 6.5 mEq/L c. White blood cell count 11,500/L d. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 56 mg/dL

b. The hyperkalemia associated with crushing injuries may cause cardiac arrest and should be treated immediately. The nurse also will report the other laboratory values, but abnormalities in these are not immediately life threatening.

An unconscious 39-year-old male patient is admitted to the emergency department (ED) with a head injury. The patients spouse and teenage children stay at the patients side and ask many questions about the treatment being given. What action is best for the nurse to take? a. Ask the family to stay in the waiting room until the initial assessment is completed. b. Allow the family to stay with the patient and briefly explain all procedures to them. c. Refer the family members to the hospital counseling service to deal with their anxiety. d. Call the familys pastor or spiritual advisor to take them to the chapel while care is given.

b. The need for information about the diagnosis and care is very high in family members of acutely ill patients. The nurse should allow the family to observe care and explain the procedures unless they interfere with emergent care needs. A pastor or counseling service can offer some support, but research supports information as being more effective. Asking the family to stay in the waiting room will increase their anxiety.

A 74-year-old who is progressing to stage 5 chronic kidney disease asks the nurse, "Do you think I should go on dialysis?" Which initial response by the nurse is best? a. It depends on which type of dialysis you are considering. b. Tell me more about what you are thinking regarding dialysis. c. You are the only one who can make the decision about dialysis. d. Many people your age use dialysis and have a good quality of life.

b. The nurse should initially clarify the patients concerns and questions about dialysis. The patient is the one responsible for the decision and many people using dialysis do have good quality of life, but these responses block further assessment of the patients concerns. Referring to which type of dialysis the patient might use only indirectly responds to the patients question.

A 46-year-old patient with a head injury opens the eyes to verbal stimulation, curses when stimulated, and does not respond to a verbal command to move but attempts to push away a painful stimulus. The nurse records the patients Glasgow Coma Scale score as a. 9. b. 11. c. 13. d. 15.

b. The patient has a score of 3 for eye opening, 3 for best verbal response, and 5 for best motor response.

A chemotherapy drug that causes alopecia is prescribed for a patient. Which action should the nurse take to maintain the patient's self-esteem? a. Tell the patient to limit social contacts until regrowth of the hair occurs. b. Encourage the patient to purchase a wig or hat and wear it once hair loss begins. c. Teach the patient to gently wash hair with a mild shampoo to minimize hair loss. d. Inform the patient that hair usually grows back once the chemotherapy is complete.

b. The patient is taught to anticipate hair loss and to be prepared with wigs, scarves, or hats. Limiting social contacts is not appropriate at a time when the patient is likely to need a good social support system. The damage occurs at the hair follicle and will occur regardless of gentle washing or use of a mild shampoo. The information that the hair will grow back is not immediately helpful in maintaining the patients self-esteem.

A 30-year-old man with acute myelogenous leukemia develops an absolute neutrophil count of 850/L while receiving outpatient chemotherapy. Which action by the outpatient clinic nurse is most appropriate? a. Discuss the need for hospital admission to treat the neutropenia. b. Teach the patient to administer filgrastim (Neupogen) injections. c. Plan to discontinue the chemotherapy until the neutropenia resolves. d. Order a high-efficiency particulate air (HEPA) filter for the patients home.

b. The patient may be taught to self-administer filgrastim injections. Although chemotherapy may be stopped with severe neutropenia (neutrophil count less than 500/L), administration of filgrastim usually allows the chemotherapy to continue. Patients with neutropenia are at higher risk for infection when exposed to other patients in the hospital. HEPA filters are expensive and are used in the hospital, where the number of pathogens is much higher than in the patients home environment.

The nurse provides discharge teaching for a 61-year-old patient who has had a left modified radical mastectomy and lymph node dissection. Which statement by the patient indicates that teaching has been successful? a. I will need to use my right arm and to rest the left one. b. I will avoid reaching over the stove with my left hand. c. I will keep my left arm in a sling until the incision is healed. d. I will stop the left arm exercises if moving the arm is painful.

b. The patient should avoid any activity that might injure the left arm, such as reaching over a burner. If the left arm exercises are painful, analgesics should be used and the exercises continued in order to restore strength and range of motion. The left arm should be elevated at or above heart level and should be used to improve range of motion and function.

Which intervention will be included in the plan of care for a male patient with acute kidney injury (AKI) who has a temporary vascular access catheter in the left femoral vein? a. Start continuous pulse oximetry. b. Restrict physical activity to bed rest. c. Restrict the patients oral protein intake. d. Discontinue the urethral retention catheter.

b. The patient with a femoral vein catheter must be on bed rest to prevent trauma to the vein. Protein intake is likely to be increased when the patient is receiving dialysis. The retention catheter is likely to remain in place because accurate measurement of output will be needed. There is no indication that the patient needs continuous pulse oximetry.

A patient with possible viral meningitis is admitted to the nursing unit after lumbar puncture was performed in the emergency department. Which action prescribed by the health care provider should the nurse question? a. Elevate the head of the bed 20 degrees. b. Restrict oral fluids to 1000 mL daily. c. Administer ceftriaxone (Rocephin) 1 g IV every 12 hours. d. Give ibuprofen (Motrin) 400 mg every 6 hours as needed for headache.

b. The patient with meningitis has increased fluid needs, so oral fluids should be encouraged. The other actions are appropriate. Slight elevation of the head of the bed will decrease headache without causing leakage of cerebrospinal fluid from the lumbar puncture site. Antibiotics should be administered until bacterial meningitis is ruled out by the cerebrospinal fluid analysis.

Several patients call the outpatient clinic and ask to make an appointment as soon as possible. Which patient should the nurse schedule to be seen first? a. 44-year-old with sickle cell anemia who says my eyes always look sort of yellow b. 23-year-old with no previous health problems who has a nontender lump in the axilla c. 50-year-old with early-stage chronic lymphocytic leukemia who reports chronic fatigue d. 19-year-old with hemophilia who wants to learn to self-administer factor VII replacement

b. The patients age and presence of a nontender axillary lump suggest possible lymphoma, which needs rapid diagnosis and treatment. The other patients have questions about treatment or symptoms that are consistent with their diagnosis but do not need to be seen urgently.

During routine hemodialysis, the 68-year-old patient complains of nausea and dizziness. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Slow down the rate of dialysis. b. Check patients blood pressure (BP). c. Review the hematocrit (Hct) level. d. Give prescribed PRN antiemetic drugs.

b. The patients complaints of nausea and dizziness suggest hypotension, so the initial action should be to check the BP. The other actions may also be appropriate based on the blood pressure obtained.

The nurse is planning care for a patient with severe heart failure who has developed elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels. The primary collaborative treatment goal in the plan will be a. augmenting fluid volume. b. maintaining cardiac output. c. diluting nephrotoxic substances. d. preventing systemic hypertension.

b. The primary goal of treatment for acute kidney injury (AKI) is to eliminate the cause and provide supportive care while the kidneys recover. Because this patients heart failure is causing AKI, the care will be directed toward treatment of the heart failure. For renal failure caused by hypertension, hypovolemia, or nephrotoxins, the other responses would be correct.

A 23-year-old patient who is suspected of having an epidural hematoma is admitted to the emergency department. Which action will the nurse plan to take? a. Administer IV furosemide (Lasix). b. Prepare the patient for craniotomy. c. Initiate high-dose barbiturate therapy. d. Type and crossmatch for blood transfusion.

b. The principal treatment for epidural hematoma is rapid surgery to remove the hematoma and prevent herniation. If intracranial pressure (ICP) is elevated after surgery, furosemide or high-dose barbiturate therapy may be needed, but these will not be of benefit unless the hematoma is removed. Minimal blood loss occurs with head injuries, and transfusion is usually not necessary.

Which cerebrospinal fluid analysis result will be most important for the nurse to communicate to the healthcare provider? a. Specific gravity 1.007 b. Protein 65 mg/dL (0.65 g/L) c. Glucose 45 mg/dL (1.7 mmol/L) d. White blood cell (WBC) count 4 cells/mL

b. The protein level is high. The specific gravity, WBCs, and glucose values are normal.

A nurse is caring for a patient who has burns of the ears, head, neck, and right arm and hand. The nurse should place the patient in which position? a. Place the right arm and hand flexed in a position of comfort. b. Elevate the right arm and hand on pillows and extend the fingers. c. Assist the patient to a supine position with a small pillow under the head. d. Position the patient in a side-lying position with rolled towel under the neck.

b. The right hand and arm should be elevated to reduce swelling and the fingers extended to avoid flexion contractures (even though this position may not be comfortable for the patient). The patient with burns of the ears should not use a pillow for the head because this will put pressure on the ears, and the pillow may stick to the ears. Patients with neck burns should not use a pillow because the head should be maintained in an extended position in order to avoid contractures.

The home health nurse is caring for an 81-year-old who had a stroke 2 months ago. Based on information shown in the accompanying figure from the history, physical assessment, and physical therapy/occupational therapy, which nursing diagnosis is the highest priority for this patient? a. Impaired transfer ability b. Risk for caregiver role strain c. Ineffective health maintenance d. Risk for unstable blood glucose level

b. The spouses household and patient care responsibilities, in combination with chronic illnesses, indicate a high risk for caregiver role strain. The nurse should further assess the situation and take appropriate actions. The data about the control of the patients diabetes indicates that ineffective health maintenance and risk for unstable blood glucose are not priority concerns at this time. Because the patient is able to ambulate with a cane, the nursing diagnosis of impaired transfer ability is not supported.

A young adult patient who is in the rehabilitation phase 6 months after a severe face and neck burn tells the nurse, "I'm sorry that I'm still alive. My life will never be normal again." Which response by the nurse is best? a. "Most people recover after a burn and feel satisfied with their lives." b. "It's true that your life may be different. What concerns you the most?" c. "It is really too early to know how much your life will be changed by the burn." d. "Why do you feel that way? You will be able to adapt as your recovery progresses."

b. This response acknowledges the patients feelings and asks for more assessment data that will help in developing an appropriate plan of care to assist the patient with the emotional response to the burn injury. The other statements are accurate, but do not acknowledge the anxiety and depression that the patient is expressing.

The nurse should include which food choice when providing dietary teaching for a patient scheduled to receive external beam radiation for abdominal cancer? a. Fresh fruit salad b. Roasted chicken c. Whole wheat toast d. Cream of potato soup

b. To minimize the diarrhea that is commonly associated with bowel radiation, the patient should avoid foods high in roughage, such as fruits and whole grains. Lactose intolerance may develop secondary to radiation, so dairy products should also be avoided.

Which information about the patient who has had a subarachnoid hemorrhage is most important to communicate to the health care provider? a. The patient complains of having a stiff neck. b. The patients blood pressure (BP) is 90/50 mm Hg. c. The patient reports a severe and unrelenting headache. d. The cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) report shows red blood cells (RBCs).

b. To prevent cerebral vasospasm and maintain cerebral perfusion, blood pressure needs to be maintained at a level higher than 90 mm Hg systolic after a subarachnoid hemorrhage. A low BP or drop in BP indicates a need to administer fluids and/or vasopressors to increase the BP. An ongoing headache, RBCs in the CSF, and a stiff neck are all typical clinical manifestations of a subarachnoid hemorrhage and do not need to be rapidly communicated to the health care provider.

While the patients full-thickness burn wounds to the face are exposed, what is the best nursing action to prevent cross contamination? a. Use sterile gloves when removing old dressings. b. Wear gowns, caps, masks, and gloves during all care of the patient. c. Administer IV antibiotics to prevent bacterial colonization of wounds. d. Turn the room temperature up to at least 70 F (20 C) during dressing changes.

b. Use of gowns, caps, masks, and gloves during all patient care will decrease the possibility of wound contamination for a patient whose burns are not covered. When removing contaminated dressings and washing the dirty wound, use nonsterile, disposable gloves. The room temperature should be kept at approximately 85 F for patients with open burn wounds to prevent shivering. Systemic antibiotics are not well absorbed into deep burns because of the lack of circulation.

Which equipment will the nurse obtain to assess vibration sense in a diabetic patient who has peripheral nerve dysfunction? a. Sharp pin b. Tuning fork c. Reflex hammer d. Calibrated compass

b. Vibration sense is testing by touching the patient with a vibrating tuning fork. The other equipment is needed for testing of pain sensation, reflexes, and two-point discrimination.

A patient with Hodgkins lymphoma who is undergoing external radiation therapy tells the nurse, I am so tired I can hardly get out of bed in the morning. Which intervention should the nurse add to the plan of care? a. Minimize activity until the treatment is completed. b. Establish time to take a short walk almost every day. c. Consult with a psychiatrist for treatment of depression. d. Arrange for delivery of a hospital bed to the patients home.

b. Walking programs are used to keep the patient active without excessive fatigue. Having a hospital bed does not necessarily address the fatigue. The better option is to stay as active as possible while combating fatigue. Fatigue is expected during treatment and is not an indication of depression. Minimizing activity may lead to weakness and other complications of immobility.

When assessing a patient who spilled hot oil on the right leg and foot, the nurse notes that the skin is dry, pale, hard skin. The patient states that the burn is not painful. What term would the nurse use to document the burn depth? a. First-degree skin destruction b. Full-thickness skin destruction c. Deep partial-thickness skin destruction d. Superficial partial-thickness skin destruction

b. With full-thickness skin destruction, the appearance is pale and dry or leathery and the area is painless because of the associated nerve destruction. Erythema, swelling, and blisters point to a deep partial-thickness burn. With superficial partial-thickness burns, the area is red, but no blisters are present. First-degree burns exhibit erythema, blanching, and pain.

"The goals of cancer treatment are based on the principle that a. surgery is the single most effective treatment for cancer. b. initial treatment is always directed toward cure of the cancer. c. a combination of treatment modalities is effective for controlling many cancers. d. although cancer cure is rare, quality of life can be increased with treatment modalities. "

c

A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving chemo and has mucositis. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? a. use glycerin-soaked swab to clean the client's teeth b. encourage increase intake of citrus fruit juices c. obtain culture of the lesions d. provide an alcohol-based mouthwash for oral hygiene

c

A patient having TIAs is scheduled for a carotid endarterectomy. The nurse explains that this procedure is done to a. decrease cerebral edema b. reduce the brain damage that occurs during a stroke in evolution c. prevent a stroke by removing atherosclerotic plaque blocking cerebral blood flow d. provide a circulatory bypass around the thrombotic plaques obstructing cranial circulation

c

A patient is having word findings difficulty and weakness in his right arm. What area of the brain is most likely involved? a. brainstem b. vertebral artery c. left middle cerebral artery d. right middle cerebral artery

c

A patient is recovering from second and third degree burns over 30% of his body, and the burn care team is planning for discharge. The first action the nurse should take when meeting with the patient would be to a. arrange a return-to-clinic appointment and prescription for pain medications b. teach the patient and the caregiver proper wound care to be performed at home c. review the patient's current health care status and readiness for discharge to home d. give the patient written information and websites for information for burn survivors

c

A patient on chemotherapy and radiation for head and neck cancer has WBC count of 1.9 X 10/uL, hemoglobin of 10.8 g/dL, and a platelet count of 99 X 10/uL. Based on the CBC results, what is the most serious clinical findings? a. cough, rhinitis, and sore throat b. fatigue, nausea, and skin redness at site of radiation c. temperature of 101.9 degree, fatigue and SOB d. skin redness at site of radiation, headache, constipation

c

A patient with suspected meningitis is scheduled for a lumbar puncture. What action should the nurse take before the procedure? a. transfer the patient to radiology b. enforce NPO status for 4 hours c. help the patient to a lateral position d. administer a sedation medication

c

Bladder training in a male patient who has urinary incontinence after a stroke includes a. limiting fluid intake. b. keeping a urinal in place at all times. c. assisting the patient to stand to void. d. catheterizing the patient every 4 hours.

c

During neurological testing, the patient can perceive pain elicited by pinprick. Based on this finding, the nurse may omit testing for a. position sense b. patellar reflexes c. temperature perception d. heel-to-shin movements

c

Fluid and electrolyte shift that occur during the early emergent phase of a burn injury include a. adherence of albumin to vascular walls b. movement of potassium into the vascular space c. movement of sodium and water into interstitial space d. hemolysis of RBCs from large volumes of rapidly administered fluid

c

If a patient is in the diuretic phase of AKI, the nurse must monitor for which serum electrolyte imbalances? a. hyperkalemia and hyponatremia b. hyperkalemia and hypernatremia c. hypokalemia and hyponatremia d. hypokalemia and hypernatremia

c

Preoperatively, to meet the psychologic needs of a woman scheduled for a simple mastectomy, you would A. discuss the limitations of breast reconstruction. B. include her significant other in all conversations. C. promote an environment for expression of feelings. D. explain the importance of regular follow-up screening.

c

The factor related to cerebral blood flow that most often determines the extent of cerebral damage from a stroke is the a. amount of cardiac output. b. oxygen content of the blood. c. degree of collateral circulation. d. level of carbon dioxide in the blood.

c

The nurse explains to the patient with a stroke who is scheduled for angiography that this test is used to determine the a. presence of increased ICP. b. site and size of the infarction. c. patency of the cerebral blood vessels. d. presence of blood in the cerebrospinal fluid.

c

The nurse is alerted to a possible acute subdural hematoma in the patient who a. has a linear skull fracture crossing a major artery b. has focal symptoms of brain damage with no recollection of a head injury c. develops decreased level of consciousness and a headache within 48 hours of a head injury d. has an immediate loss of consciousness with a brief lucid interval followed by decreasing level of consciousness

c

The nurse on the clinical unit is assigned to four patients. Which patient should she assess first? a. patient with a skull fracture whose nose is bleeding b. elderly patient with a stroke who is confused and whose daughter is present c. patient with meningitis who is suddenly agitated and reporting a headache of 10 on a 0 to 10 scale d. patient who had a craniotomy for a brain tumor who is now 3 days postoperative and has had continued emesis

c

The patient is admitted with a headache, fever, and general malaise. The HCP has asked that the patient be prepared for a lumbar puncture. What is the priority nursing action to avoid complications? a. evaluate lab results for changes in WBC b. give acetaminophen for the headache and fever before the procedure c. notify HCP if signs of ICP are present d. administer antibiotics before the procedure to treat the potential meningitis.

c

Trends in the incidence and death rates of cancer include the fact that a. lung cancer is the most common type of cancer in men. b. a higher percentage of women than men have lung cancer. c. breast cancer is the leading cause of cancer deaths in women. d. African Americans have a higher death rate from cancer than whites.

c

What should the nurse include in a focused assessment of a patient's left posterior temporal lobe function? a. sensation on the left side of the body b. reasoning and problem solving ability c. ability to understand written and oral language d. voluntary movements on the right side of the body

c

Which prevention strategy would the nurse include when teaching about home fire safety? a. Set hot water temperature at 140 degree F b. Use only hardwired smoke detection c. Encourage regular home fire exit drills d. Do not allow older adults to cook unattended

c

A patient with metastatic cancer of the colon experiences severe vomiting following each administration of chemotherapy. Which action, if taken by the nurse, is most appropriate? a. Have the patient eat large meals when nausea is not present. b. Offer dry crackers and carbonated fluids during chemotherapy. c. Administer prescribed antiemetics 1 hour before the treatments. d. Give the patient two ounces of a citrus fruit beverage during treatments.

c Treatment with antiemetics before chemotherapy may help prevent nausea. The patient should eat small, frequent meals. Offering food and beverages during chemotherapy is likely to cause nausea. The acidity of citrus fruits may be further irritating to the stomach.

A nurse is assessing a client who has prerenal AKI. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect? (SATA) a. reduced BUN b. elevated cardiac enzymes c. reduced urine output d. elevated blood creatinine e. elevated blood calcium

c, d A manifestation of prerenal AKI is elevated BUN, reduced urine output, elevated blood creatinine and reduced calcium level.

To assess the patency of a newly places arteriovenous graft for dialysis, the nurse should: (SATA) A. irrigate the graft daily with low-dose heparin B. monitor the BP in the affected arm C. listen with a stethoscope over the graft to detect a bruit D. assess the pulses and neurovascular status distal to the graft E. Palpate the area of the graft to feel a normal thrill

c, d, e

Nursing management of a patient with a brain tumor includes (SATA) a. discussing with the patient methods to control inappropriate behavior b. using diversion techniques to keep the patient stimulated and motivated c. assisting and supporting the family in understanding any changes in behavior d. limiting self-care activities until the patient has regained maximum physical functioning e. planning seizure precautions and teaching the patient and the caregiver about antiseizure drugs

c, e

A nurse is caring for a client who is undergoing chemo and reports severe nausea. Which of the following statements should the nurse make? a. "Your nausea will lessen with each course of chemotherapy." b. "Hot food is better tolerated due to aroma." c. "Try eating several small meals throughout the day." d. "Increase your intake of red meat as tolerated."

c. Cold foods are better tolerated because odor from heated foods can induce nausea.

Client is diagnosed with a thrombotic stroke. Over the next 72 hours, you plan care with the knowledge that the client: a. is ready for aggressive rehabilitation b. will show gradual improvement of the initial neurological deficits c. may show signs of deteriorating neurological function as a cerebral edema increases d. should not be turned or exercised to prevent extension of the thrombus and increased neurological deficits.

c. Overtime, clot gets bigger, and more tissue brain damage happens

The nurse teaches a patient who is scheduled for a prostate needle biopsy about the procedure. Which statement, if made by the patient, indicates that teaching was effective? a. The biopsy will remove the cancer in my prostate gland. b. The biopsy will determine how much longer I have to live. c. The biopsy will help decide the treatment for my enlarged prostate. d. The biopsy will indicate whether the cancer has spread to other organs.

c. A biopsy is used to determine whether the prostate enlargement is benign or malignant, and determines the type of treatment that will be needed. A biopsy does not give information about metastasis, life expectancy, or the impact of cancer on the patient's life.

A patient with burns covering 40% total body surface area (TBSA) is in the acute phase of burn treatment. Which snack would be best for the nurse to offer to this patient? a. Bananas b. Orange gelatin c. Vanilla milkshake d. Whole grain bagel

c. A patient with a burn injury needs high protein and calorie food intake, and the milkshake is the highest in these nutrients. The other choices are not as nutrient-dense as the milkshake. Gelatin is likely high in sugar. The bagel is a good carbohydrate choice, but low in protein. Bananas are a good source of potassium, but are not high in protein and calories.

A 68-year-old patient is being admitted with a possible stroke. Which information from the assessment indicates that the nurse should consult with the health care provider before giving the prescribed aspirin? a. The patient has dysphasia. b. The patient has atrial fibrillation. c. The patient reports that symptoms began with a severe headache. d. The patient has a history of brief episodes of right-sided hemiplegia.

c. A sudden onset headache is typical of a subarachnoid hemorrhage, and aspirin is contraindicated. Atrial fibrillation, dysphasia, and transient ischemic attack (TIA) are not contraindications to aspirin use, so the nurse can administer the aspirin.

Which action for a patient with neutropenia is appropriate for the registered nurse (RN) to delegate to a licensed practical/vocational nurse (LPN/LVN)? a. Assessing the patient for signs and symptoms of infection b. Teaching the patient the purpose of neutropenic precautions c. Administering subcutaneous filgrastim (Neupogen) injection d. Developing a discharge teaching plan for the patient and family

c. Administration of subcutaneous medications is included in LPN/LVN education and scope of practice. Patient education, assessment, and developing the plan of care require RN level education and scope of practice.

The nurse is caring for a patient who has been experiencing stroke symptoms for 60 minutes. Which action can the nurse delegate to a licensed practical/vocational nurse (LPN/LVN)? a. Assess the patients gag and cough reflexes. b. Determine when the stroke symptoms began. c. Administer the prescribed short-acting insulin. d. Infuse the prescribed IV metoprolol (Lopressor).

c. Administration of subcutaneous medications is included in LPN/LVN education and scope of practice. The other actions require more education and scope of practice and should be done by the registered nurse (RN).

A patient with extensive electrical burn injuries is admitted to the emergency department. Which prescribed intervention should the nurse implement first? a. Assess oral temperature. b. Check a potassium level. c. Place on cardiac monitor. d. Assess for pain at contact points.

c. After an electrical burn, the patient is at risk for fatal dysrhythmias and should be placed on a cardiac monitor. Assessing the oral temperature is not as important as assessing for cardiac dysrhythmias. Checking the potassium level is important. However, it will take time before the laboratory results are back. The first intervention is to place the patient on a cardiac monitor and assess for dysrhythmias, so that they can be treated if occurring. A decreased or increased potassium level will alert the nurse to the possibility of dysrhythmias. The cardiac monitor will alert the nurse immediately of any dysrhythmias. Assessing for pain is important, but the patient can endure pain until the cardiac monitor is attached. Cardiac dysrhythmias can be lethal.

A patient has just arrived in the emergency department after an electrical burn from exposure to a high- voltage current. What is the priority nursing assessment? a. Oral temperature b. Peripheral pulses c. Extremity movement d. Pupil reaction to light

c. All patients with electrical burns should be considered at risk for cervical spine injury, and assessments of extremity movement will provide baseline data. The other assessment data are also necessary but not as essential as determining the cervical spine status.

A 53-year-old man is scheduled for an annual physical exam. The nurse will plan to teach the patient about the purpose of a. urinalysis collection. b. uroflowmetry studies. c. prostate specific antigen (PSA) testing. d. transrectal ultrasound scanning (TRUS).

c. An annual digital rectal exam (DRE) and PSA are usually recommended starting at age 50 for men who have an average risk for prostate cancer. Urinalysis and uroflowmetry studies are done if patients have symptoms of urinary tract infection or changes in the urinary stream. TRUS may be ordered if the DRE or PSA is abnormal.

A 72-year-old patient who has a history of a transient ischemic attack (TIA) has an order for aspirin 160 mg daily. When the nurse is administering medications, the patient says, I dont need the aspirin today. I dont have a fever. Which action should the nurse take? a. Document that the aspirin was refused by the patient. b. Tell the patient that the aspirin is used to prevent a fever. c. Explain that the aspirin is ordered to decrease stroke risk. d. Call the health care provider to clarify the medication order.

c. Aspirin is ordered to prevent stroke in patients who have experienced TIAs. Documentation of the patients refusal to take the medication is an inadequate response by the nurse. There is no need to clarify the order with the health care provider. The aspirin is not ordered to prevent aches and pains.

A 53-year-old woman at menopause is discussing the use of hormone therapy (HT) with the nurse. Which information about the risk of breast cancer will the nurse provide? a. HT is a safe therapy for menopausal symptoms if there is no family history ofBRCA genes. b. HT does not appear to increase the risk for breast cancer unless there are other risk factors. c. The patient and her health care provider must weigh the benefits of HT against the risks of breast cancer. d. Natural herbs are as effective as estrogen in relieving symptoms without increasing the risk of breast cancer.

c. Because HT has been linked to increased risk for breast cancer, the patient and provider must determine whether or not to use HT. Breast cancer incidence is increased in women using HT, independent of other risk factors. HT increases the risk for both nonBRCA-associated cancer and BRCA-related cancers. Alternative therapies can be used but are not consistent in relieving menopausal symptoms.

Which nursing action will be included in the care for a patient who has had cerebral angiography? a. Monitor for headache and photophobia. b. Keep patient NPO until gag reflex returns. c. Check pulse and blood pressure frequently. d. Assess orientation to person, place, and time.

c. Because a catheter is inserted into an artery (such as the femoral artery) during cerebral angiography, the nurse should assess for bleeding after this procedure. The other nursing assessments are not necessary after angiography.

The nurse receives change-of-shift report on the oncology unit. Which patient should the nurse assess first? a. 35-year-old patient who has wet desquamation associated with abdominal radiation b. 42-year-old patient who is sobbing after receiving a new diagnosis of ovarian cancer c. 24-year-old patient who received neck radiation and has blood oozing from the neck d. 56-year-old patient who developed a new pericardial friction rub after chest radiation

c. Because neck bleeding may indicate possible carotid artery rupture in a patient who is receiving radiation to the neck, this patient should be seen first. The diagnoses and clinical manifestations for the other patients are not immediately life threatening.

The nurse identifies the nursing diagnosis of imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements related to impaired self-feeding ability for a left-handed patient with left-sided hemiplegia. Which intervention should be included in the plan of care? a. Provide a wide variety of food choices. b. Provide oral care before and after meals. c. Assist the patient to eat with the right hand. d. Teach the patient the chin-tuck technique.

c. Because the nursing diagnosis indicates that the patients imbalanced nutrition is related to the left-sided hemiplegia, the appropriate interventions will focus on teaching the patient to use the right hand for self- feeding. The other interventions are appropriate for patients with other etiologies for the imbalanced nutrition.

The nurse is caring for a 52-year-old patient with breast cancer who is receiving chemotherapy with doxorubicin (Adriamycin) and cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan). Which assessment finding is most important to communicate to the health care provider? a. The patient complains of fatigue. b. The patient eats only 25% of meals. c. The patients apical pulse is irregular. d. The patients white blood cell (WBC) count is 5000/L.

c. Doxorubicin can cause cardiac toxicity. The dysrhythmia should be reported because it may indicate a need for a change in therapy. Anorexia, fatigue, and a low-normal WBC count are expected effects of chemotherapy.

When caring for a patient with a new right-sided homonymous hemianopsia resulting from a stroke, which intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care? a. Apply an eye patch to the right eye. b. Approach the patient from the right side. c. Place objects needed on the patients left side. d. Teach the patient that the left visual deficit will resolve.

c. During the acute period, the nurse should place objects on the patient's unaffected side. Because there is a visual defect in the right half of each eye, an eye patch is not appropriate. The patient should be approached from the left side. The visual deficit may not resolve, although the patient can learn to compensate for the defect.

A nurse is caring for a client who has increased ICP and is receiving mannitol. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider? a. blood glucose 150mg/dL b. urine output 40 mL/hr c. Dyspnea d. Bilateral equal pupil size

c. Dyspnea is a manifestation of HF, an adverse effect of mannitol. Stop the medication and notify provider. Bilateral equal pupil size is an expected finding and can indicate reduction in ICP.

You are caring for a young woman who has painful fibrocystic breast changes. Management of this patient would include a. scheduling a biopsy to rule out presence of breast cancer b. teaching that symptoms will subside if she stops using oral contraceptives c. preparing her for surgical removal of the lumps, since they will become larger and more painful d. explaining that restricting coffee and chocolate and supplementing with vitamin E may relieve some discomfort

d

Performing BSE at the end of the menstrual period will reduce the breast tenderness associated with the procedure. The evidence is not clear that BSE reduces mortality from breast cancer. BSE should be done monthly. Annual mammograms are not routinely scheduled for women under age 40, and newer guidelines suggest delaying them until age 50.

c. Early menarche and late menopause are risk factors for breast cancer because of the prolonged exposure to estrogen that occurs. Cigarette smoking, breast trauma, and fibrocystic breast changes are not associated with increased breast cancer risk.

A patient has increased intracranial pressure and a ventriculostomy after a head injury. Which action can the nurse delegate to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) who regularly work in the intensive care unit? a. Document intracranial pressure every hour. b. Turn and reposition the patient every 2 hours. c. Check capillary blood glucose level every 6 hours. d. Monitor cerebrospinal fluid color and volume hourly.

c. Experienced UAP can obtain capillary blood glucose levels when they have been trained and evaluated in the skill. Monitoring and documentation of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) color and intracranial pressure (ICP) require registered nurse (RN)level education and scope of practice. Although repositioning patients is frequently delegated to UAP, repositioning a patient with a ventriculostomy is complex and should be supervised by the RN.

During the neurologic assessment, the patient is unable to respond verbally to the nurse but cooperates with the nurse's directions to move his hands and feet. The nurse will suspect a. cerebellar injury. b. a brainstem lesion. c. frontal lobe damage. d. a temporal lobe lesion.

c. Expressive speech is controlled by Brocas area in the frontal lobe. The temporal lobe contains Wernickes area, which is responsible for receptive speech. The cerebellum and brainstem do not affect higher cognitive functions such as speech.

A patient who has severe pain associated with terminal pancreatic cancer is being cared for at home by family members. Which finding by the nurse indicates that teaching regarding pain management has been effective? a. The patient uses the ordered opioid pain medication whenever the pain is greater than 5 (0 to 10 scale). b. The patient agrees to take the medications by the IV route in order to improve analgesic effectiveness. c. The patient takes opioids around the clock on a regular schedule and uses additional doses when breakthrough pain occurs. d. The patient states that nonopioid analgesics may be used when the maximal dose of the opioid is reached without adequate pain relief.

c. For chronic cancer pain, analgesics should be taken on a scheduled basis, with additional doses as needed for breakthrough pain. Taking the medications only when pain reaches a certain level does not provide effective pain control. Although nonopioid analgesics also may be used, there is no maximum dose of opioid. Opioids are given until pain control is achieved. The IV route is not more effective than the oral route, and usually the oral route is preferred.

A 37-year-old female patient is hospitalized with acute kidney injury (AKI). Which information will be most useful to the nurse in evaluating improvement in kidney function? a. Urine volume b. Creatinine level c. Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) d. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level

c. GFR is the preferred method for evaluating kidney function. BUN levels can fluctuate based on factors such as fluid volume status and protein intake. Urine output can be normal or high in patients with AKI and does not accurately reflect kidney function. Creatinine alone is not an accurate reflection of renal function.

A patient with severe burns has crystalloid fluid replacement ordered using the Parkland formula. The initial volume of fluid to be administered in the first 24 hours is 30,000 mL. The initial rate of administration is 1875 mL/hr. After the first 8 hours, what rate should the nurse infuse the IV fluids? a. 350 mL/hour b. 523 mL/hour c. 938 mL/hour d. 1250 mL/hour

c. Half of the fluid replacement using the Parkland formula is administered in the first 8 hours and the other half over the next 16 hours. In this case, the patient should receive half of the initial rate, or 938 mL/hr.

A 55-year-old patient with end-stage kidney disease (ESKD) is scheduled to receive a prescribed dose of epoetin alfa (Procrit). Which information should the nurse report to the health care provider before giving the medication? a. Creatinine 1.6 mg/dL b. Oxygen saturation 89% c. Hemoglobin level 13 g/dL d. Blood pressure 98/56 mm Hg

c. High hemoglobin levels are associated with a higher rate of thromboembolic events and increased risk of death from serious cardiovascular events (heart attack, heart failure, stroke) when erythropoietin (EPO) is administered to a target hemoglobin of >12 g/dL. Hemoglobin levels higher than 12 g/dL indicate a need for a decrease in epoetin alfa dose. The other information also will be reported to the health care provider but will not affect whether the medication is administered.

The nurse is reviewing laboratory results on a patient who had a large burn 48 hours ago. Which result requires priority action by the nurse? a. Hematocrit 53% b. Serum sodium 147 mEq/L c. Serum potassium 6.1 mEq/L d. Blood urea nitrogen 37 mg/dL

c. Hyperkalemia can lead to fatal dysrhythmias and indicates that the patient requires cardiac monitoring and immediate treatment to lower the potassium level. The other laboratory values are also abnormal and require changes in treatment, but they are not as immediately life threatening as the elevated potassium level.

Which stroke risk factor for a 48-year-old male patient in the clinic is most important for the nurse to address? a. The patient is 25 pounds above the ideal weight. b. The patient drinks a glass of red wine with dinner daily. c. The patients usual blood pressure (BP) is 170/94 mm Hg. d. The patient works at a desk and relaxes by watching television.

c. Hypertension is the single most important modifiable risk factor. People who drink more than 1 (for women) or 2 (for men) alcoholic beverages a day may increase risk for hypertension. Physical inactivity and obesity contribute to stroke risk but not as much as hypertension.

Before administration of calcium carbonate (Caltrate) to a patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD), the nurse should check laboratory results for a. potassium level. b. total cholesterol. c. serum phosphate. d. serum creatinine.

c. If serum phosphate is elevated, the calcium and phosphate can cause soft tissue calcification. The calcium carbonate should not be given until the phosphate level is lowered. Total cholesterol, creatinine, and potassium values do not affect whether calcium carbonate should be administered.

29. The nurse is caring for a patient who has been diagnosed with stage I cancer of the colon. When assessing the need for psychologic support, which question by the nurse will provide the most information? a. How long ago were you diagnosed with this cancer? b. Do you have any concerns about body image changes? c. Can you tell me what has been helpful to you in the past when coping with stressful events? d. Are you familiar with the stages of emotional adjustment to a diagnosis like cancer of the colon?

c. Information about how the patient has coped with past stressful situations helps the nurse determine usual coping mechanisms and their effectiveness. The length of time since the diagnosis will not provide much information about the patients need for support. The patients knowledge of typical stages in adjustment to a critical diagnosis does not provide insight into patient needs for assistance. Because surgical interventions for stage I cancer of the colon may not cause any body image changes, this question is not appropriate at this time.

When a brain-injured patient responds to nail bed pressure with internal rotation, adduction, and flexion of the arms, the nurse reports the response as a. flexion withdrawal. b. localization of pain. c. decorticate posturing. d. decerebrate posturing.

c. Internal rotation, adduction, and flexion of the arms in an unconscious patient is documented as decorticate posturing. Extension of the arms and legs is decerebrate posturing. Because the flexion is generalized, it does not indicate localization of pain or flexion withdrawal.

The nurse has administered prescribed IV mannitol (Osmitrol) to an unconscious patient. Which parameter should the nurse monitor to determine the medications effectiveness? a. Blood pressure b. Oxygen saturation c. Intracranial pressure d. Hemoglobin and hematocrit

c. Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic and will reduce cerebral edema and intracranial pressure. It may initially reduce hematocrit and increase blood pressure, but these are not the best parameters for evaluation of the effectiveness of the drug. Oxygen saturation will not directly improve as a result of mannitol administration.

A 54-year-old woman with acute myelogenous leukemia (AML) is considering treatment with a hematopoietic stem cell transplant (HSCT). The best approach for the nurse to assist the patient with a treatment decision is to a. emphasize the positive outcomes of a bone marrow transplant. b. discuss the need for adequate insurance to cover post-HSCT care. c. ask the patient whether there are any questions or concerns about HSCT. d. explain that a cure is not possible with any other treatment except HSCT.

c. Offering the patient an opportunity to ask questions or discuss concerns about HSCT will encourage the patient to voice concerns about this treatment and also will allow the nurse to assess whether the patient needs more information about the procedure. Treatment of AML using chemotherapy is another option for the patient. It is not appropriate for the nurse to ask the patient to consider insurance needs in making this decision.

A 64-year-old male patient who has had progressive chronic kidney disease (CKD) for several years has just begun regular hemodialysis. Which information about diet will the nurse include in patient teaching? a. Increased calories are needed because glucose is lost during hemodialysis. b. Unlimited fluids are allowed because retained fluid is removed during dialysis. c. More protein is allowed because urea and creatinine are removed by dialysis. d. Dietary potassium is not restricted because the level is normalized by dialysis.

c. Once the patient is started on dialysis and nitrogenous wastes are removed, more protein in the diet is encouraged. Fluids are still restricted to avoid excessive weight gain and complications such as shortness of breath. Glucose is not lost during hemodialysis. Sodium and potassium intake continues to be restricted to avoid the complications associated with high levels of these electrolytes.

Which action by a 70-year-old patient who is using peritoneal dialysis (PD) indicates that the nurse should provide more teaching about PD? a. The patient leaves the catheter exit site without a dressing. b. The patient plans 30 to 60 minutes for a dialysate exchange. c. The patient cleans the catheter while taking a bath each day. d. The patient slows the inflow rate when experiencing abdominal pain.

c. Patients are encouraged to take showers rather than baths to avoid infections at the catheter insertion side. The other patient actions indicate good understanding of peritoneal dialysis.

A nurse is planning care for a client who has prerenal AKI following abdominal aortic aneurysm repair. Urinary output is 60 mL in the past 2 hrs, and the BP is 92/58 mmHg. The nurse should expect which of the following interventions? a. prepare client for CT scan with contrast dye b. plant to administer nitroprusside c. prepare to administer fluid challenge d. plan to position client in trendelenburg position

c. Plan to administer a fluid challenge for hypovolemia, which is indicated by the client's low urinary output and BP.

Which menu choice by the patient who is receiving hemodialysis indicates that the nurses teaching has been successful? a. Split-pea soup, English muffin, and nonfat milk b. Oatmeal with cream, half a banana, and herbal tea c. Poached eggs, whole-wheat toast, and apple juice d. Cheese sandwich, tomato soup, and cranberry juice

c. Poached eggs would provide high-quality protein, and apple juice is low in potassium. Cheese is high in salt and phosphate, and tomato soup would be high in potassium. Split-pea soup is high in potassium, and dairy products are high in phosphate. Bananas are high in potassium, and the cream would be high in phosphate.

External-beam radiation is planned for a patient with cervical cancer. What instructions should the nurse give to the patient to prevent complications from the effects of the radiation? a. Test all stools for the presence of blood. b. Maintain a high-residue, high-fiber diet. c. Clean the perianal area carefully after every bowel movement. d. Inspect the mouth and throat daily for the appearance of thrush.

c. Radiation to the abdomen will affect organs in the radiation path, such as the bowel, and cause frequent diarrhea. Careful cleaning of this area will help decrease the risk for skin breakdown and infection. Stools are likely to have occult blood from the inflammation associated with radiation, so routine testing of stools for blood is not indicated. Radiation to the abdomen will not cause stomatitis. A low-residue diet is recommended to avoid irritation of the bowel when patients receive abdominal radiation.

A nurse is caring for a client who receives rituximab to treat non-Hodgkin's leukemia and who asks the nurse how rituximab works. Which of the following should the nurse include? a. blocks hormone receptors b. increases immune response c. binds with specific antigens on tumor cells d. stops DNA replication during cell division

c. Rituximab is a monoclonal antibody that binds to antigens on B-lymphocytes and then destroying cancer cells

The charge nurse observes an inexperienced staff nurse caring for a patient who has had a craniotomy for resection of a brain tumor. Which action by the inexperienced nurse requires the charge nurse to intervene? a. The staff nurse assesses neurologic status every hour. b. The staff nurse elevates the head of the bed to 30 degrees. c. The staff nurse suctions the patient routinely every 2 hours. d. The staff nurse administers an analgesic before turning the patient.

c. Suctioning increases intracranial pressure, and should only be done when the patients respiratory condition indicates it is needed. The other actions by the staff nurse are appropriate.

The nurse is caring for a patient with left-sided lung cancer. Which finding would bemost important for the nurse to report to the health care provider? a. Hematocrit 32% b. Pain with deep inspiration c. Serum sodium 126 mEq/L d. Decreased breath sounds on left side

c. Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (and the resulting hyponatremia) is an oncologic metabolic emergency and will require rapid treatment in order to prevent complications such as seizures and coma. The other findings also require intervention, but are common in patients with lung cancer and not immediately life threatening.

After a 48-year-old patient has had a modified radical mastectomy, the pathology report identifies the tumor as an estrogen-receptor positive adenocarcinoma. The nurse will plan to teach the patient about a. estradiol (Estrace). b. raloxifene (Evista). c. tamoxifen (Nolvadex). d. trastuzumab (Herceptin).

c. Tamoxifen is used for estrogen-dependent breast tumors in premenopausal women. Raloxifene is used to prevent breast cancer, but it is not used postmastectomy to treat breast cancer. Estradiol will increase the growth of estrogen-dependent tumors. Trastuzumab is used to treat tumors that have the HER-2 receptor.

The nurse is caring for a patient who smokes 2 packs/day. To reduce the patient's risk of lung cancer, which action by the nurse is best? a. Teach the patient about the seven warning signs of cancer. b. Plan to monitor the patient's carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) level. c. Discuss the risks associated with cigarettes during every patient encounter. d. Teach the patient about the use of annual chest x-rays for lung cancer screening.

c. Teaching about the risks associated with cigarette smoking is recommended at every patient encounter because cigarette smoking is associated with multiple health problems. A tumor must be at least 0.5 cm large before it is detectable by current screening methods and may already have metastasized by that time. Oncofetal antigens such as CEA may be used to monitor therapy or detect tumor reoccurrence, but are not helpful in screening for cancer. The seven warning signs of cancer are actually associated with fairly advanced disease.

After change-of-shift report on the oncology unit, which patient should the nurse assessfirst? a. Patient who has a platelet count of 82,000/L after chemotherapy b. Patient who has xerostomia after receiving head and neck radiation c. Patient who is neutropenic and has a temperature of 100.5 F (38.1 C) d. Patient who is worried about getting the prescribed long-acting opioid on time

c. Temperature elevation is an emergency in neutropenic patients because of the risk for rapid progression to severe infections and sepsis. The other patients also require assessments or interventions, but do not need to be assessed as urgently. Patients with thrombocytopenia do not have spontaneous bleeding until the platelets are 20,000/L. Xerostomia does not require immediate intervention. Although breakthrough pain needs to be addressed rapidly, the patient does not appear to have breakthrough pain.

The public health nurse is planning a program to decrease the incidence of meningitis in adolescents and young adults. Which action is most important? a. Encourage adolescents and young adults to avoid crowds in the winter. b. Vaccinate 11- and 12-year-old children against Haemophilus influenzae. c. Immunize adolescents and college freshman against Neisseria meningitides. d. Emphasize the importance of hand washing to prevent the spread of infection.

c. The Neisseria meningitides vaccination is recommended for children ages 11 and 12, unvaccinated teens entering high school, and college freshmen. Hand washing may help decrease the spread of bacteria, but it is not as effective as immunization. Vaccination with Haemophilus influenzae is for infants and toddlers. Because adolescents and young adults are in school or the workplace, avoiding crowds is not realistic.

Which information about a 30-year-old patient who is hospitalized after a traumatic brain injury requires the most rapid action by the nurse? a. Intracranial pressure of 15 mm Hg b. Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) drainage of 25 mL/hour c. Pressure of oxygen in brain tissue (PbtO2) is 14 mm Hg d. Cardiac monitor shows sinus tachycardia at 128 beats/minute

c. The PbtO2 should be 20 to 40 mm Hg. Lower levels indicate brain ischemia. An intracranial pressure (ICP) of 15 mm Hg is at the upper limit of normal. CSF is produced at a rate of 20 to 30 mL/hour. The reason for the sinus tachycardia should be investigated, but the elevated heart rate is not as concerning as the decrease in PbtO2.

A patient who has acute glomerulonephritis is hospitalized with hyperkalemia. Which information will the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the prescribed calcium gluconate IV? a. Urine volume b. Calcium level c. Cardiac rhythm d. Neurologic status

c. The calcium gluconate helps prevent dysrhythmias that might be caused by the hyperkalemia. The nurse will monitor the other data as well, but these will not be helpful in determining the effectiveness of the calcium gluconate.

The nurse is caring for a patient who has a head injury and fractured right arm after being assaulted. Which assessment information requires the most rapid action by the nurse? a. The apical pulse is slightly irregular. b. The patient complains of a headache. c. The patient is more difficult to arouse. d. The blood pressure (BP) increases to 140/62 mm Hg.

c. The change in level of consciousness (LOC) is an indicator of increased intracranial pressure (ICP) and suggests that action by the nurse is needed to prevent complications. The change in BP should be monitored but is not an indicator of a need for immediate nursing action. Headache and a slightly irregular apical pulse are not unusual in a patient after a head injury.

A patient with intracranial pressure monitoring has a pressure of 12mmHg. The nurse understands that this pressure reflects a. a severe decrease in cerebral perfusion pressure b. an alteration in the production of CSF c. the loss of autoregulatory control of ICP d. a normal balance among brain tissue, blood, and CSF

d. Normal CPP: 5-15mmHg

A patient with acute kidney injury (AKI) has longer QRS intervals on the electrocardiogram (ECG) than were noted on the previous shift. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Notify the patients health care provider. b. Document the QRS interval measurement. c. Check the medical record for most recent potassium level. d. Check the chart for the patients current creatinine level.

c. The increasing QRS interval is suggestive of hyperkalemia, so the nurse should check the most recent potassium and then notify the patients health care provider. The BUN and creatinine will be elevated in a patient with AKI, but they would not directly affect the electrocardiogram (ECG). Documentation of the QRS interval is also appropriate, but interventions to decrease the potassium level are needed to prevent life- threatening dysrhythmias.

A male patient who has right-sided weakness after a stroke is making progress in learning to use the left hand for feeding and other activities. The nurse observes that when the patients wife is visiting, she feeds and dresses him. Which nursing diagnosis is most appropriate for the patient? a. Interrupted family processes related to effects of illness of a family member b. Situational low self-esteem related to increasing dependence on spouse for care c. Disabled family coping related to inadequate understanding by patients spouse d. Impaired nutrition: less than body requirements related to hemiplegia and aphasia

c. The information supports the diagnosis of disabled family coping because the wife does not understand the rehabilitation program. There are no data supporting low self-esteem, and the patient is attempting independence. The data do not support an interruption in family processes because this may be a typical pattern for the couple. There is no indication that the patient has impaired nutrition.

A 70-year-old female patient with left-sided hemiparesis arrives by ambulance to the emergency department. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Monitor the blood pressure. b. Send the patient for a computed tomography (CT) scan. c. Check the respiratory rate and effort. d. Assess the Glasgow Coma Scale score.

c. The initial nursing action should be to assess the airway and take any needed actions to ensure a patent airway. The other activities should take place quickly after the ABCs (airway, breathing, and circulation) are completed.

A patient who is scheduled for a right breast biopsy asks the nurse the difference between a benign tumor and a malignant tumor. Which answer by the nurse is correct? a. Benign tumors do not cause damage to other tissues. b. Benign tumors are likely to recur in the same location. c. Malignant tumors may spread to other tissues or organs. d. Malignant cells reproduce more rapidly than normal cells.

c. The major difference between benign and malignant tumors is that malignant tumors invade adjacent tissues and spread to distant tissues and benign tumors never metastasize. The other statements are inaccurate. Both types of tumors may cause damage to adjacent tissues. Malignant cells do not reproduce more rapidly than normal cells. Benign tumors do not usually recur.

1. After the insertion of an arteriovenous graft (AVG) in the right forearm, a 54-year-old patient complains of pain and coldness of the right fingers. Which action should the nurse take? a. Teach the patient about normal AVG function. b. Remind the patient to take a daily low-dose aspirin tablet. c. Report the patients symptoms to the health care provider. d. Elevate the patients arm on pillows to above the heart level.

c. The patient complaints suggest the development of distal ischemia (steal syndrome) and may require revision of the AVG. Elevation of the arm above the heart will further decrease perfusion. Pain and coolness are not normal after AVG insertion. Aspirin therapy is not used to maintain grafts.

Which nursing action should be included in the plan of care for a patient returning to the surgical unit following a left modified radical mastectomy with dissection of axillary lymph nodes? a. Obtain a permanent breast prosthesis before the patient is discharged from the hospital. b. Teach the patient to use the ordered patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) every 10 minutes. c. Post a sign at the bedside warning against venipunctures or blood pressures in the left arm. d. Insist that the patient examine the surgical incision when the initial dressings are removed.

c. The patient is at risk for lymphedema and infection if blood pressures or venipuncture are done on the right arm. The patient is taught to use the PCA as needed for pain control rather than at a set time. The nurse allows the patient to examine the incision and participate in care when the patient feels ready. Permanent breast prostheses are usually obtained about 6 weeks after surgery.

During a routine health examination, a 40-year-old patient tells the nurse about a family history of colon cancer. Which action should the nurse take next? a. Teach the patient about the need for a colonoscopy at age 50. b. Teach the patient how to do home testing for fecal occult blood. c. Obtain more information from the patient about the family history. d. Schedule a sigmoidoscopy to provide baseline data about the patient.

c. The patient may be at increased risk for colon cancer, but the nurses first action should be further assessment. The other actions may be appropriate, depending on the information that is obtained from the patient with further questioning.

A 47-year-old patient will attempt oral feedings for the first time since having a stroke. The nurse should assess the gag reflex and then a. order a varied pureed diet. b. assess the patients appetite. c. assist the patient into a chair. d. offer the patient a sip of juice.

c. The patient should be as upright as possible before attempting feeding to make swallowing easier and decrease aspiration risk. To assess swallowing ability, the nurse should initially offer water or ice to the patient. Pureed diets are not recommended because the texture is too smooth. The patient may have a poor appetite, but the oral feeding should be attempted regardless.

During the teaching session for a patient who has a new diagnosis of acute leukemia the patient is restless and is looking away, never making eye contact. After teaching about the complications associated with chemotherapy, the patient asks the nurse to repeat all of the information. Based on this assessment, which nursing diagnosis is most appropriate for the patient? a. Risk for ineffective adherence to treatment related to denial of need for chemotherapy b. Acute confusion related to infiltration of leukemia cells into the central nervous system c. Risk for ineffective health maintenance related to anxiety about new leukemia diagnosis d. Deficient knowledge: chemotherapy related to a lack of interest in learning about treatment

c. The patient who has a new cancer diagnosis is likely to have high anxiety, which may impact learning and require that the nurse repeat and reinforce information. The patients history of a recent diagnosis suggests that infiltration of the leukemia is not a likely cause of the confusion. The patient asks for the information to be repeated, indicating that lack of interest in learning and denial are not etiologic factors.

A patient with cancer has a nursing diagnosis of imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements related to altered taste sensation. Which nursing action is most appropriate? a. Add strained baby meats to foods such as casseroles. b. Teach the patient about foods that are high in nutrition. c. Avoid giving the patient foods that are strongly disliked. d. Add extra spice to enhance the flavor of foods that are served.

c. The patient will eat more if disliked foods are avoided and foods that the patient likes are included instead. Additional spice is not usually an effective way to enhance taste. Adding baby meats to foods will increase calorie and protein levels, but does not address the issue of taste. The patients poor intake is not caused by a lack of information about nutrition.

Which statement by a 62-year-old patient with stage 5 chronic kidney disease (CKD) indicates that the nurses teaching about management of CKD has been effective? a. I need to get most of my protein from low-fat dairy products. b. I will increase my intake of fruits and vegetables to 5 per day. c. I will measure my urinary output each day to help calculate the amount I can drink. d. I need to take erythropoietin to boost my immune system and help prevent infection.

c. The patient with end-stage kidney disease is taught to measure urine output as a means of determining an appropriate oral fluid intake. Erythropoietin is given to increase the red blood cell count and will not offer any benefit for immune function. Dairy products are restricted because of the high phosphate level. Many fruits and vegetables are high in potassium and should be restricted in the patient with CKD.

A 41-year-old patient who is unconscious has a nursing diagnosis of ineffective cerebral tissue perfusion related to cerebral tissue swelling. Which nursing intervention will be included in the plan of care? a. Encourage coughing and deep breathing. b. Position the patient with knees and hips flexed. c. Keep the head of the bed elevated to 30 degrees. d. Cluster nursing interventions to provide rest periods.

c. The patient with increased intracranial pressure (ICP) should be maintained in the head-up position to help reduce ICP. Extreme flexion of the hips and knees increases abdominal pressure, which increases ICP. Because the stimulation associated with nursing interventions increases ICP, clustering interventions will progressively elevate ICP. Coughing increases intrathoracic pressure and ICP.

On admission to the burn unit, a patient with an approximate 25% total body surface area (TBSA) burn has the following initial laboratory results: Hct 58%, Hgb 18.2 mg/dL (172 g/L), serum K+ 4.9 mEq/L (4.8 mmol/L), and serum Na+ 135 mEq/L (135 mmol/L). Which of the following prescribed actions should be the nurse's priority? a. Monitor urine output every 4 hours. b. Continue to monitor the laboratory results. c. Increase the rate of the ordered IV solution. d. Type and crossmatch for a blood transfusion.

c. The patient's laboratory data show hemoconcentration, which may lead to a decrease in blood flow to the microcirculation unless fluid intake is increased. Because the hematocrit and hemoglobin are elevated, a transfusion is inappropriate, although transfusions may be needed after the emergent phase once the patient's fluid balance has been restored. On admission to a burn unit, the urine output would be monitored more often than every 4 hours; likely every 1 hour.

After a patient experienced a brief episode of tinnitus, diplopia, and dysarthria with no residual effects, the nurse anticipates teaching the patient about a. cerebral aneurysm clipping. b. heparin intravenous infusion. c. oral low-dose aspirin therapy. d. tissue plasminogen activator (tPA).

c. The patient's symptoms are consistent with transient ischemic attack (TIA), and drugs that inhibit platelet aggregation is prescribed after a TIA to prevent stroke. Continuous heparin infusion is not routinely used after TIA or with acute ischemic stroke. The patient's symptoms are not consistent with a cerebral aneurysm. tPA is used only for acute ischemic stroke, not for TIA.

A patient returning from surgery for a perineal radical prostatectomy will have a nursing diagnosis of risk for infection related to a. urinary incontinence. b. prolonged urinary stasis. c. possible fecal wound contamination. d. placement of a suprapubic bladder catheter.

c. The perineal approach increases the risk for infection because the incision is located close to the anus and contamination with feces is possible. Urinary stasis and incontinence do not occur because the patient has a retention catheter in place for 1 to 2 weeks. A urethral catheter is used after the surgery.

A patient newly diagnosed with stage I breast cancer is discussing treatment options with the nurse. Which statement by the patient indicates that additional teaching may be needed? a. There are several options that I can consider for treating the cancer. b. I will probably need radiation to the breast after having the surgery. c. Mastectomy is the best choice to decrease the chance of cancer recurrence. d. I can probably have reconstructive surgery at the same time as a mastectomy.

c. The survival rates with lumpectomy and radiation or modified radical mastectomy are comparable. The other patient statements indicate a good understanding of stage I breast cancer treatment.

A nurse is caring for a client who has just been admitted following surgical evacuation of a subdural hematoma. Which of the following is the priority assessment? a. Glasgow Coma Scale b. Cranial nerve function c. Oxygen saturation d. pupillary response

c. Using ABC priority-setting framework, assessment of oxygen saturation is the priority action. Brain tissue can only survive for 3 min before permanent damage occurs.

During the change of shift report a nurse is told that a patient has an occluded left posterior cerebral artery. The nurse will anticipate that the patient may have a. dysphasia. b. confusion. c. visual deficits. d. poor judgment.

c. Visual disturbances are expected with posterior cerebral artery occlusion. Aphasia occurs with middle cerebral artery involvement. Cognitive deficits and changes in judgment are more typical of anterior cerebral artery occlusion.

A patient with diabetes who has bacterial pneumonia is being treated with IV gentamicin (Garamycin) 60 mg IV BID. The nurse will monitor for adverse effects of the medication by evaluating the patient's: a. blood glucose. b. urine osmolality. c. serum creatinine. d. serum potassium.

c. When a patient at risk for chronic kidney disease (CKD) receives a potentially nephrotoxic medication, it is important to monitor renal function with BUN and creatinine levels. The other laboratory values would not be useful in assessing for the adverse effects of the gentamicin.

A characteristic of the stage of progression in cancer development is a. oncogenic viral transformation of target cells b. a reversible steady growth facilitated by carcinogens c. a period of latency before clinical detection of cancer d. proliferation of cancer cells despite host control mechanism

d

A nurse counsels a patient receiving radiation therapy or chemotherapy that a. effective birth control methods should be used for the rest of the patient's life b. after successful treatments, patients can expect a return to their previous level of function c. the cycle of fatigue-depression-fatigue that may occur during treatment may be reduced by restricting activity d. nausea and vomiting can usually be managed with antiemetic drugs, diet modification, and other interventions

d

A nurse is reviewing the plan of care for a client who has leukemia and has developed thrombocytopenia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first? a. instruct client to take rest periods throughout the day b. encourage the client to reposition in bed every 2 hours c. check temperature every 4 hours d. monitor platelet counts

d

A patient on chemotherapy for 10 weeks started at a weight of 121 lbs. She is now 118 lb and has no sense of taste. Which nursing intervention would be a priority? a. discuss with the provider the need for parenteral nutrition b. teach the patient to eat foods that are fatty, fried, or high in calories c. tell the patient to drink a nutritional supplement beverage 3x/day d. have the patient try various spices and seasonings to enhance the flavor of food

d

Drugs or diseases that impair the function of the extrapyramidal system may cause loss of: A. sensations of pain and temperature B. regulation of the autonomic nervous system. C. integration of somatic and special sensory inputs. D. automatic movements associated with skeletal muscle activity.

d

During change of shift report, a nurse is told that a patient has an occluded left posterior cerebral artery. What finding should the nurse anticipate? a. confusion b. poor judgment c. dysphasia d. visual deficits

d

In a patient with a disease that affects the myelin sheath of nerves, such as multiple sclerosis, the glial cells affected are the a. microglia b. astrocytes c. ependymal cells d. oligodendrocytes

d

Information provided by the patient that would help distinguish a hemorrhagic stroke from a thrombotic stroke includes a. sensory changes b. history of hypertension c. presence of motor weakness d. sudden onset of severe headache

d

The most effective method of administering a chemotherapy agent that is a vesicant is to a. give it orally b. give it intraarterially c. use an Ommaya reservoir d. use a central venous access device

d

The nurse is caring for a 59-year-old woman who had surgery 1 day ago to remove an ovarian cancer mass. The patient is awaiting the pathology report. She is tearful and says that she is scared to die. The most effective nursing intervention at this point is to use this opportunity to a. motivate change in an unhealthy lifestyle b. teach her about the 7 warning signs of cancer c. discuss healthy stress relief and coping practices d. let her communicate about the meaning of this experience

d

The nurse is caring for a patient with peripheral neuropathy who is scheduled for EMG studies tomorrow morning. The nurse should a. ensure the patient has an empty bladder b. instruct the patient about the risk for electric shock c. ensure the patient has no metallic jewelry or metal fragments d. teach the patient that pain may be experienced during the study

d

You are caring for a patient with breast cancer following a simple mastectomy. Postoperatively, to restore arm function on the affected side, you would a. apply heating pads or blankets to increase circulation b. place daily ice packs to minimize the risk for lymphedema c. teach passive exercises with the affected arm in a dependent position d. emphasize regular exercises for the affected shoulder to increase range of motion

d

A patient who has burns on the arms, legs, and chest from a house fire has become agitated and restless 8 hours after being admitted to the hospital. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Stay at the bedside and reassure the patient. b. Administer the ordered morphine sulfate IV. c. Assess orientation and level of consciousness. d. Use pulse oximetry to check the oxygen saturation.

d. Agitation in a patient who may have suffered inhalation injury might indicate hypoxia, and this should be assessed by the nurse first. Administration of morphine may be indicated if the nurse determines that the agitation is caused by pain. Assessing level of consciousness and orientation is also appropriate but not as essential as determining whether the patient is hypoxemic. Reassurance is not helpful to reduce agitation in a hypoxemic patient.

The outpatient clinic receives telephone calls from four patients. Which patient should the nurse call back first? a. 57-year-old with ductal ectasia who has sticky multicolored nipple discharge and severe nipple itching b. 21-year-old with a family history of breast cancer who wants to discuss genetic testing for the BRCA gene c. 40-year-old who still has left side chest and arm pain 2 months after a left modified radical mastectomy d. 50-year-old with stage 2 breast cancer who is receiving doxorubicin (Adriamycin) and has ankle swelling and fatigue

d. Although all the patients have needs that the nurse should address, the patient who is receiving a cardiotoxic medication and has symptoms of heart failure should be assessed by the nurse first. BRCA testing may be appropriate for the 21-year-old, but it does not need to be done immediately. Chest and arm pain are normal up to 3 months after mastectomy. Nipple discharge and itching is a common finding with ductal ectasia.

The nurse obtains information about a hospitalized patient who is receiving chemotherapy for colorectal cancer. Which information about the patient alerts the nurse to discuss a possible change in therapy with the health care provider? a. Poor oral intake b. Frequent loose stools c. Complaints of nausea and vomiting d. Increase in carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)

d. An increase in CEA indicates that the chemotherapy is not effective for the patients cancer and may need to be modified. The other patient findings are common adverse effects of chemotherapy. The nurse may need to address these, but they would not necessarily indicate a need for a change in therapy.

A patient being admitted with bacterial meningitis has a temperature of 102.5 F (39.2 C) and a severe headache. Which order for collaborative intervention should the nurse implement first? a. Administer ceftizoxime (Cefizox) 1 g IV. b. Give acetaminophen (Tylenol) 650 mg PO. c. Use a cooling blanket to lower temperature. d. Swab the nasopharyngeal mucosa for cultures.

d. Antibiotic therapy should be instituted rapidly in bacterial meningitis, but cultures must be done before antibiotics are started. As soon as the cultures are done, the antibiotic should be started. Hypothermia therapy and acetaminophen administration are appropriate but can be started after the other actions are implemented.

Which action will the nurse include in the plan of care for a patient in the rehabilitation phase after a burn injury to the right arm and chest? a. Keep the right arm in a position of comfort. b. Avoid the use of sustained-release narcotics. c. Teach about the purpose of tetanus immunization. d. Apply water-based cream to burned areas frequently.

d. Application of water-based emollients will moisturize new skin and decrease flakiness and itching. To avoid contractures, the joints of the right arm should be positioned in an extended position, which is not the position of comfort. Patients may need to continue the use of opioids during rehabilitation. Tetanus immunization would have been given during the emergent phase of the burn injury.

A patient admitted with possible stroke has been aphasic for 3 hours and his current blood pressure (BP) is 174/94 mm Hg. Which order by the health care provider should the nurse question? a. Keep head of bed elevated at least 30 degrees. b. Infuse normal saline intravenously at 75 mL/hr. c. Administer tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) per protocol. d. Administer a labetalol (Normodyne) drip to keep BP less than 140/90 mm Hg.

d. Because elevated BP may be a protective response to maintain cerebral perfusion, antihypertensive therapy is recommended only if mean arterial pressure (MAP) is >130 mm Hg or systolic pressure is >220 mm Hg. Fluid intake should be 1500 to 2000 mL daily to maintain cerebral blood flow. The head of the bed should be elevated to at least 30 degrees, unless the patient has symptoms of poor tissue perfusion. tPA may be administered if the patient meets the other criteria for tPA use.

Which laboratory test will the nurse use to determine whether filgrastim (Neupogen) is effective for a patient with acute lymphocytic leukemia who is receiving chemotherapy? a. Platelet count b. Reticulocyte count c. Total lymphocyte count d. Absolute neutrophil count

d. Filgrastim increases the neutrophil count and function in neutropenic patients. Although total lymphocyte, platelet, and reticulocyte counts also are important to monitor in this patient, the absolute neutrophil count is used to evaluate the effects of filgrastim.

A patient with suspected meningitis is scheduled for a lumbar puncture. Before the procedure, the nurse will plan to a. enforce NPO status for 4 hours. b. transfer the patient to radiology. c. administer a sedative medication. d. help the patient to a lateral position.

d. For a lumbar puncture, the patient lies in the lateral recumbent position. The procedure does not usually require a sedative, is done in the patient room, and has no risk for aspiration.

Esomeprazole (Nexium) is prescribed for a patient who incurred extensive burn injuries 5 days ago. Which nursing assessment would best evaluate the effectiveness of the medication? a. Bowel sounds b. Stool frequency c. Abdominal distention d. Stools for occult blood

d. H2 blockers and proton pump inhibitors are given to prevent Curlings ulcer in the patient who has suffered burn injuries. Proton pump inhibitors usually do not affect bowel sounds, stool frequency, or appetite.

The nurse will anticipate that a 61-year-old patient who has an enlarged prostate detected by digital rectal examination (DRE) and an elevated prostate specific antigen (PSA) level will need teaching about a. cystourethroscopy. b. uroflowmetry studies. c. magnetic resonance imaging (MRI). d. transrectal ultrasonography (TRUS).

d. In a patient with an abnormal DRE and elevated PSA, transrectal ultrasound is used to visualize the prostate for biopsy. Uroflowmetry studies help determine the extent of urine blockage and treatment, but there is no indication that this is a problem for this patient. Cystoscopy may be used before prostatectomy but will not be done until after the TRUS and biopsy. MRI is used to determine whether prostatic cancer has metastasized but would not be ordered at this stage of the diagnostic process.

A patient has had left-sided lumpectomy (breast-conservation surgery) and an axillary lymph node dissection. Which nursing intervention is appropriate to delegate to a licensed practical/vocational nurse (LPN/LVN)? a. Teaching the patient how to avoid injury to the left arm b. Assessing the patients range of motion for the left arm c. Evaluating the patients understanding of instructions about drain care d. Administering an analgesic 30 minutes before scheduled arm exercises

d. LPN/LVN education and scope of practice include administration and evaluation of the effects of analgesics. Assessment, teaching, and evaluation of a patients understanding of instructions are more complex tasks that are more appropriate to RN level education and scope of practice.

A nurse is preparing to administer leucovorin to a client who has cancer and is receiving chemo with methotrexate. Which of the following responses should the nurse use when the client asks why leucovorin is being given? a. "Leucovorin reduces the risk of transfusion reaction from methotrexate." b. "Leucovorin increases platelet production and prevents bleeding.: c. "Leucovorin potentiates the cytotoxic effects of methotrexate." d. "Leucovorin protects healthy cells from methotrexate's toxic effects

d. Leucovorin, a folic acid derivative and an antagonist to methotrexate, is given within 12 hours of high doses of methotrexate to protect healthy cells from the toxic effects of methotrexate.

A patient who has non-Hodgkins lymphoma is receiving combination treatment with rituximab (Rituxan) and chemotherapy. Which patient assessment finding requires the most rapid action by the nurse? a. Anorexia b. Vomiting c. Oral ulcers d. Lip swelling

d. Lip swelling in angioedema may indicate a hypersensitivity reaction to the rituximab. The nurse should stop the infusion and further assess for anaphylaxis. The other findings may occur with chemotherapy, but are not immediately life threatening.

When the nurse is working in the womens health care clinic, which action is appropriate to take? a. Teach a healthy 30-year-old about the need for an annual mammogram. b. Discuss scheduling an annual clinical breast examination with a 22-year-old. c. Explain to a 60-year-old that mammography frequency can be reduced to every 3 years. d. Teach a 28-year-old with a BRCA-1 mutation about magnetic resonance imaging (MRI).

d. MRI (in addition to mammography) is recommended for women who are at high risk for breast cancer. A young woman should have a clinical breast exam every 3 years. Annual mammograms are recommended for women over 50.

A patient has been admitted with meningococcal meningitis. Which observation by the nurse requires action? a. The bedrails at the head and foot of the bed are both elevated. b. The patient receives a regular diet from the dietary department. c. The lights in the patients room are turned off and the blinds are shut. d. Unlicensed assistive personnel enter the patients room without a mask.

d. Meningococcal meningitis is spread by respiratory secretions, so it is important to maintain respiratory isolation as well as standard precautions. Because the patient may be confused and weak, bedrails should be elevated at both the foot and head of the bed. Low light levels in the room decrease pain caused by photophobia. Nutrition is an important aspect of care in a patient with meningitis.

A patient complains of leg cramps during hemodialysis. The nurse should first a. massage the patients legs. b. reposition the patient supine. c. give acetaminophen (Tylenol). d. infuse a bolus of normal saline.

d. Muscle cramps during dialysis are caused by rapid removal of sodium and water. Treatment includes infusion of normal saline. The other actions do not address the reason for the cramps.

The nurse is reviewing the medication administration record (MAR) on a patient with partial-thickness burns. Which medication is best for the nurse to administer before scheduled wound debridement? a. Ketorolac (Toradol) b. Lorazepam (Ativan) c. Gabapentin (Neurontin) d. Hydromorphone (Dilaudid)

d. Opioid pain medications are the best choice for pain control. The other medications are used as adjuvants to enhance the effects of opioids.

The nurse is caring for a patient who was admitted the previous day with a basilar skull fracture after a motor vehicle crash. Which assessment finding is most important to report to the health care provider? a. Complaint of severe headache b. Large contusion behind left ear c. Bilateral periorbital ecchymosis d. Temperature of 101.4 F (38.6 C)

d. Patients who have basilar skull fractures are at risk for meningitis, so the elevated temperature should be reported to the health care provider. The other findings are typical of a patient with a basilar skull fracture.

A 58-year-old patient with a left-brain stroke suddenly bursts into tears when family members visit. The nurse should a. use a calm voice to ask the patient to stop the crying behavior. b. explain to the family that depression is normal following a stroke. c. have the family members leave the patient alone for a few minutes. d. teach the family that emotional outbursts are common after strokes.

d. Patients who have left-sided brain stroke are prone to emotional outbursts that are not necessarily related to the emotional state of the patient. Depression after a stroke is common, but the suddenness of the patient's outburst suggests that depression is not the major cause of the behavior. The family should stay with the patient. The crying is not within the patients control and asking the patient to stop will lead to embarrassment.

A 76-year-old patient who has been diagnosed with stage 2 prostate cancer chooses the option of active surveillance. The nurse will plan to a. vaccinate the patient with sipuleucel-T ( Provenge). b. provide the patient with information about cryotherapy. c. teach the patient about placement of intraurethral stents. d. schedule the patient for annual prostate-specific antigen testing.

d. Patients who opt for active surveillance need to have annual digital rectal exams and prostate-specific antigen testing. Vaccination with sipuleucel-T, cryotherapy, and stent placement are options for patients who choose to have active treatment for prostate cancer.

The nurse teaching a young women's community service group about breast self-examination (BSE) will include that a. BSE will reduce the risk of dying from breast cancer. b. BSE should be done daily while taking a bath or shower. c. annual mammograms should be scheduled in addition to BSE. d. performing BSE after the menstrual period is more comfortable.

d. Performing BSE at the end of the menstrual period will reduce the breast tenderness associated with the procedure. The evidence is not clear that BSE reduces mortality from breast cancer. BSE should be done monthly. Annual mammograms are not routinely scheduled for women under age 40, and newer guidelines suggest delaying them until age 50.

Nurses in change-of-shift report are discussing the care of a patient with a stroke who has progressively increasing weakness and decreasing level of consciousness (LOC). Which nursing diagnosis do they determine has thehighest priority for the patient? a. Impaired physical mobility related to weakness b. Disturbed sensory perception related to brain injury c. Risk for impaired skin integrity related to immobility d. Risk for aspiration related to inability to protect airway

d. Protection of the airway is the priority of nursing care for a patient having an acute stroke. The other diagnoses are also appropriate, but interventions to prevent aspiration are the priority at this time.

15. After having a craniectomy and left anterior fossae incision, a 64-year-old patient has a nursing diagnosis of impaired physical mobility related to decreased level of consciousness and weakness. An appropriate nursing intervention is to a. cluster nursing activities to allow longer rest periods. b. turn and reposition the patient side to side every 2 hours. c. position the bed flat and log roll to reposition the patient. d. perform range-of-motion (ROM) exercises every 4 hours.

d. ROM exercises will help prevent the complications of immobility. Patients with anterior craniotomies are positioned with the head elevated. The patient with a craniectomy should not be turned to the operative side. When the patient is weak, clustering nursing activities may lead to more fatigue and weakness.

An older adult patient who has colorectal cancer is receiving IV fluids at 175 mL/hour in conjunction with the prescribed chemotherapy. Which finding by the nurse is most important to report to the health care provider? a. Patient complains of severe fatigue. b. Patient needs to void every hour during the day. c. Patient takes only 50% of meals and refuses snacks. d. Patient has audible crackles to the midline posterior chest.

d. Rapid fluid infusions may cause heart failure, especially in older patients. The other findings are common in patients who have cancer and/or are receiving chemotherapy.

A patient with left-sided weakness that started 60 minutes earlier is admitted to the emergency department and diagnostic tests are ordered. Which test should be done first? a. Complete blood count (CBC) b. Chest radiograph (Chest x-ray) c. 12-Lead electrocardiogram (ECG) d. Noncontrast computed tomography (CT) scan

d. Rapid screening with a noncontrast CT scan is needed before administration of tissue plasminogen activator (tPA), which must be given within 4.5 hours of the onset of clinical manifestations of the stroke. The sooner the tPA is given, the less brain injury. The other diagnostic tests give information about possible causes of the stroke and do not need to be completed as urgently as the CT scan.

A 73-year-old patient with a stroke experiences facial drooping on the right side and right-sided arm and leg paralysis. When admitting the patient, which clinical manifestation will the nurse expect to find? a. Impulsive behavior b. Right-sided neglect c. Hyperactive left-sided tendon reflexes d. Difficulty comprehending instructions

d. Right-sided paralysis indicates a left-brain stroke, which will lead to difficulty with comprehension and use of language. The left-side reflexes are likely to be intact. Impulsive behavior and neglect are more likely with a right-side stroke.

The nurse will anticipate teaching a patient with a possible seizure disorder about which test? a. Cerebral angiography b. Evoked potential studies c. Electromyography (EMG) d. Electroencephalography (EEG)

d. Seizure disorders are usually assessed using EEG testing. Evoked potential is used for diagnosing problems with the visual or auditory systems. Cerebral angiography is used to diagnose vascular problems. EMG is used to evaluate electrical innervation to skeletal muscle.

When assessing a 53-year-old patient with bacterial meningitis, the nurse obtains the following data. Which finding should be reported immediately to the health care provider? a. The patient exhibits nuchal rigidity. b. The patient has a positive Kernigs sign. c. The patients temperature is 101 F (38.3 C). d. The patients blood pressure is 88/42 mm Hg.

d. Shock is a serious complication of meningitis, and the patients low blood pressure indicates the need for interventions such as fluids or vasopressors. Nuchal rigidity and a positive Kernig's sign are expected with bacterial meningitis. The nurse should intervene to lower the temperature, but this is not as life threatening as the hypotension.

The nurse is caring for a patient receiving intravesical bladder chemotherapy. The nurse should monitor for which adverse effect? a. Nausea b. Alopecia c. Mucositis d. Hematuria

d. The adverse effects of intravesical chemotherapy are confined to the bladder. The other adverse effects are associated with systemic chemotherapy.

Following successful treatment of Hodgkins lymphoma for a 55-year-old woman, which topic will the nurse include in patient teaching? a. Potential impact of chemotherapy treatment on fertility b. Application of soothing lotions to treat residual pruritus c. Use of maintenance chemotherapy to maintain remission d. Need for follow-up appointments to screen for malignancy

d. The chemotherapy used in treating Hodgkins lymphoma results in a high incidence of secondary malignancies; follow-up screening is needed. The fertility of a 55-year-old woman will not be impacted by chemotherapy. Maintenance chemotherapy is not used for Hodgkins lymphoma. Pruritus is a clinical manifestation of lymphoma, but should not be a concern after treatment.

A patient who has ovarian cancer is crying and tells the nurse, My husband rarely visits. He just doesnt care. The husband indicates to the nurse that he never knows what to say to help his wife. Which nursing diagnosis is most appropriate for the nurse to add to the plan of care? a. Compromised family coping related to disruption in lifestyle b. Impaired home maintenance related to perceived role changes c. Risk for caregiver role strain related to burdens of caregiving responsibilities d. Dysfunctional family processes related to effect of illness on family members

d. The data indicate that this diagnosis is most appropriate because poor communication among the family members is affecting family processes. No data suggest a change in lifestyle or its role as an etiology. The data do not support impairment in home maintenance or a burden caused by caregiving responsibilities.

After the emergency department nurse has received a status report on the following patients who have been admitted with head injuries, which patient should the nurse assess first? a. A 20-year-old patient whose cranial x-ray shows a linear skull fracture b. A 30-year-old patient who has an initial Glasgow Coma Scale score of 13 c. A 40-year-old patient who lost consciousness for a few seconds after a fall d. A 50-year-old patient whose right pupil is 10 mm and unresponsive to light

d. The dilated and nonresponsive pupil may indicate an intracerebral hemorrhage and increased intracranial pressure. The other patients are not at immediate risk for complications such as herniation.

The nurse reviews the laboratory results of a patient who is receiving chemotherapy. Which laboratory result is most important to report to the health care provider? a. Hematocrit of 30% b. Platelets of 95,000/L c. Hemoglobin of 10 g/L d. White blood cell (WBC) count of 2700/L

d. The low WBC count places the patient at risk for severe infection and is an indication that the chemotherapy dose may need to be lower or that WBC growth factors such as filgrastim (Neupogen) are needed. Although the other laboratory data indicate decreased levels, they do not indicate any immediate life-threatening adverse effects of the chemotherapy.

A patient with leukemia is considering whether to have hematopoietic stem cell transplantation (HSCT). The nurse will include which information in the patients teaching plan? a. Transplant of the donated cells is painful because of the nerves in the tissue lining the bone. b. Donor bone marrow cells are transplanted through an incision into the sternum or hip bone. c. The transplant procedure takes place in a sterile operating room to minimize the risk for infection. d. Hospitalization will be required for several weeks after the stem cell transplant procedure is performed.

d. The patient requires strict protective isolation to prevent infection for 2 to 4 weeks after HSCT while waiting for the transplanted marrow to start producing cells. The transplanted cells are infused through an IV line, so the transplant is not painful, nor is an operating room or incision required.

A patient receiving head and neck radiation for larynx cancer has ulcerations over the oral mucosa and tongue and thick, ropey saliva. Which instructions should the nurse give to this patient? a. Remove food debris from the teeth and oral mucosa with a stiff toothbrush. b. Use cotton-tipped applicators dipped in hydrogen peroxide to clean the teeth. c. Gargle and rinse the mouth several times a day with an antiseptic mouthwash. d. Rinse the mouth before and after each meal and at bedtime with a saline solution.

d. The patient should rinse the mouth with a saline solution frequently. A soft toothbrush is used for oral care. Hydrogen peroxide may damage tissues. Antiseptic mouthwashes may irritate the oral mucosa and are not recommended.

After receiving change-of-shift report, which patient should the nurse assess first? a. Patient who is scheduled for the drain phase of a peritoneal dialysis exchange b. Patient with stage 4 chronic kidney disease who has an elevated phosphate level c. Patient with stage 5 chronic kidney disease who has a potassium level of 3.4 mEq/L d. Patient who has just returned from having hemodialysis and has a heart rate of 124/min

d. The patient who is tachycardic after hemodialysis may be bleeding or excessively hypovolemic and should be assessed immediately for these complications. The other patients also need assessments or interventions but are not at risk for life-threatening complications.

A patient is admitted to the burn unit with burns to the head, neck, and anterior and posterior chest after explosion in his garage. On assessment, the wheezes are gone, and the breath sounds are greatly decreased. Which action is the most appropriate for the nurse to take next? a. Encourage the patient to cough and auscultate the lungs again. b. Obtain vital signs, oxygen saturation, and a STAT arterial blood gas c. Document the findings and continue to monitor the patient's breathing. d. Anticipate the need for endotracheal intubation and notify the provider.

d. The patient's history and clinical manifestations suggest airway edema and the health care provider should be notified immediately, so that intubation can be done rapidly. Placing the patient in a more upright position or having the patient cough will not address the problem of airway edema. Continuing to monitor is inappropriate because immediate action should occur.

A 56-year-old patient arrives in the emergency department with hemiparesis and dysarthria that started 2 hours previously, and health records show a history of several transient ischemic attacks (TIAs). The nurse anticipates preparing the patient for a. surgical endarterectomy. b. transluminal angioplasty. c. intravenous heparin administration. d. tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) infusion.

d. The patient's history and clinical manifestations suggest an acute ischemic stroke and a patient who is seen within 4.5 hours of stroke onset is likely to receive tPA (after screening with a CT scan). Heparin administration in the emergency phase is not indicated. Emergent carotid transluminal angioplasty or endarterectomy is not indicated for the patient who is having an acute ischemic stroke.

A patient who was found unconscious in a burning house is brought to the emergency department by ambulance. The nurse notes that the patients skin color is bright red. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Insert two large-bore IV lines. b. Check the patient's orientation. c. Assess for singed nasal hair and dark oral mucous membranes. d. Place the patient on 100% oxygen using a non-rebreather mask.

d. The patient's history and skin color suggest carbon monoxide poisoning, which should be treated by rapidly starting oxygen at 100%. The other actions can be taken after the action to correct gas exchange.

A 62-year old man with chronic anemia is experiencing increased fatigue and occasional palpitations at rest. The nurse would expect the patients laboratory findings to include a. a hematocrit (Hct) of 38%. b. an RBC count of 4,500,000/mL. c. normal red blood cell (RBC) indices. d. a hemoglobin (Hgb) of 8.6 g/dL (86 g/L).

d. The patients clinical manifestations indicate moderate anemia, which is consistent with a Hgb of 6 to 10 g/dL. The other values are all within the range of normal.

The nurse performing a focused assessment of left posterior temporal lobe functions will assess the patient for a. sensation on the left side of the body. b. voluntary movements on the right side. c. reasoning and problem-solving abilities. d. understanding written and oral language.

d. The posterior temporal lobe integrates the visual and auditory input for language comprehension. Reasoning and problem solving are functions of the anterior frontal lobe. Sensation on the left side of the body is located in the right postcentral gyrus. Voluntary movement on the right side is controlled in the left precentral gyrus.

The nurse teaches a postmenopausal patient with stage III breast cancer about the expected outcomes of cancer treatment. Which patient statement indicates that the teaching has been effective? a. After cancer has not recurred for 5 years, it is considered cured. b. The cancer will be cured if the entire tumor is surgically removed. c. Cancer is never considered cured, but the tumor can be controlled with surgery, chemotherapy, and radiation. d. I will need to have follow-up examinations for many years after I have treatment before I can be considered cured.

d. The risk of recurrence varies by the type of cancer. Some cancers are considered cured after a shorter time span or after surgery, but stage III breast cancer will require additional therapies and ongoing follow-up.

A patient in the emergency department with sudden-onset right-sided weakness is diagnosed with an intracerebral hemorrhage. Which information about the patient is most important to communicate to the health care provider? a. The patients speech is difficult to understand. b. The patients blood pressure is 144/90 mm Hg. c. The patient takes a diuretic because of a history of hypertension. d. The patient has atrial fibrillation and takes warfarin (Coumadin).

d. The use of warfarin probably contributed to the intracerebral bleeding and remains a risk factor for further bleeding. Administration of vitamin K is needed to reverse the effects of the warfarin, especially if the patient is to have surgery to correct the bleeding. The history of hypertension is a risk factor for the patient but has no immediate effect on the patients care. The BP of 144/90 indicates the need for ongoing monitoring but not for any immediate change in therapy. Slurred speech is consistent with a left-sided stroke, and no change in therapy is indicated.

A young adult patient who is in the rehabilitation phase after having deep partial-thickness face and neck burns has a nursing diagnosis of disturbed body image. Which statement by the patient indicates that the problem is resolving? a. Im glad the scars are only temporary. b. I will avoid using a pillow, so my neck will be OK. c. I bet my boyfriend wont even want to look at me anymore. d. Do you think dark beige makeup foundation would cover this scar on my cheek?

d. The willingness to use strategies to enhance appearance is an indication that the disturbed body image is resolving. Expressing feelings about the scars indicates a willingness to discuss appearance, but not resolution of the problem. Because deep partial-thickness burns leave permanent scars, a statement that the scars are temporary indicates denial rather than resolution of the problem. Avoiding using a pillow will help prevent contractures, but it does not address the problem of disturbed body image.

The nurse will teach a patient with metastatic breast cancer who has a new prescription for trastuzumab (Herceptin) that a. hot flashes may occur with the medication. b. serum electrolyte levels will be drawn monthly. c. the patient will need frequent eye examinations. d. the patient should call if she notices ankle swelling.

d. Trastuzumab can lead to ventricular dysfunction, so the patient is taught to self-monitor for symptoms of heart failure. There is no need to monitor serum electrolyte levels. Hot flashes or changes in visual acuity may occur with tamoxifen, but not with trastuzumab.

Which action should the nurse take when caring for a patient who is receiving chemotherapy and complains of problems with concentration? a. Teach the patient to rest the brain by avoiding new activities. b. Teach that chemo-brain is a short-term effect of chemotherapy. c. Report patient symptoms immediately to the health care provider. d. Suggest use of a daily planner and encourage adequate rest and sleep.

d. Use of tools to enhance memory and concentration such as a daily planner and adequate rest are helpful for patients who develop chemo-brain while receiving chemotherapy. Patients should be encouraged to exercise the brain through new activities. Chemo-brain may be short- or long-term. There is no urgent need to report common chemotherapy side effects to the provider.

The priority nursing assessment for a 72-year-old patient being admitted with a brainstem infarction is a. reflex reaction time. b. pupil reaction to light. c. level of consciousness. d. respiratory rate and rhythm.

d. Vital centers that control respiration are located in the medulla, and these are the priority assessments because changes in respiratory function may be life threatening. The other information will also be collected by the nurse, but it is not as urgent.

During the emergent phase of burn care, which assessment will be most useful in determining whether the patient is receiving adequate fluid infusion? a. Check skin turgor. b. Monitor daily weight. c. Assess mucous membranes. d. Measure hourly urine output.

d. When fluid intake is adequate, the urine output will be at least 0.5 to 1 mL/kg/hour. The patients weight is not useful in this situation because of the effects of third spacing and evaporative fluid loss. Mucous membrane assessment and skin turgor also may be used, but they are not as adequate in determining that fluid infusions are maintaining adequate perfusion.

When monitoring initial fluid replacement for the patient with 40% TBSA deep partial-thickness and full-thickness burns, which findings is of most concern to the nurse? a. Serum potassium of 4.5 mEq/L b. Urine output of 35 mL/hr c. Decreased bowel sounds d. Blood pressure of 86/72 mmHG

d. maintain MAP > 65 mmHg, Sys BP > 90 mmHg, HR < 120