FINAL OB
A nurse is caring for a client with hyperemesis gravidarum. Which of the following should be the first choice for fluid replacement for this client?a) IV fluids and antiemeticsb) Total parenteral nutritionc) 5% dextrose in lactated Ringer solution with vitamins and electrolytesd) Percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy
5% dextrose in lactated Ringer solution with vitamins and electrolytes
A nursing student is assigned to care for a client in labor. The nursing instructor asks the student to describe fetal circulation, specifically the ductus venosus. Which statement is correct regarding the ductus venosus?1. Connects the pulmonary artery to the aorta2. Is an opening between the right and left atria3. Connects the umbilical vein to the inferior vena cava4. Connects the umbilical artery to the inferior vena cava
3The ductus venosus connects the umbilical vein to the inferior vena cava. The foramen ovale is a temporary opening between the right and left atria. The ductus arteriosus joins the aorta and the pulmonary artery
A pregnant patient has been administered terbutaline (Brethine) as prescribed. The nurse finds that the patient has a heart rate of 140 beats/min and complains of chest pain. What is the best nursing action in this situation?1Administer propranolol (Inderal).2Administer intravenous fluids.3Administer 1 g calcium gluconate.4Inform the primary health care provider (PHP).
4 A heart rate of 140 beats/min and chest pain indicates that the patient is having tachycardia, which is an adverse effect of terbutaline (Brethine). Therefore the nurse should report this to the PHP to obtain further instructions on the treatment. Propranolol (Inderal) is administered to reverse the cardiovascular adverse effects of terbutaline (Brethine).
The nurse is caring for a woman who is at 24 weeks of gestation with suspected severe preeclampsia. Which signs and symptoms would the nurse expect to observe? (Select all that apply.)A) Decreased urinary output and irritabilityB) Transient headache and +1 proteinuriaC) Ankle clonus and epigastric painD) Platelet count of less than 100,000/mm3 and visual problemsE) Seizure activity and hypotension
A) Decreased urinary output and irritabilityC) Ankle clonus and epigastric painD) Platelet count of less than 100,000/mm3 and visual problemsRationale:Decreased urinary output and irritability are signs of severe eclampsia. Ankle clonus and epigastric pain are signs of severe eclampsia. Platelet count of less than 100,000/mm3 and visual problems are signs of severe preeclampsia. A transient headache and +1 proteinuria are signs of preeclampsia and should be monitored. Seizure activity and hyperreflexia are signs of eclampsia.
The blood pressure of a client receiving continuous epidural anesthesia for labor has changed from 132/78 mmHg to 78/42 mmHg. What action should the nurse perform first? 1. Administer oxygen. 2. Administer ephedrine 5 to 10 mg intravenously. 3. Verify the client is positioned to promote left uterine displacement. 4. Increase the flow rate of infusion of intravenous crystalloid solution.
Answer: 1 Explanation: 1. If hypotension occurs secondary to epidural anesthesia, the nurse should apply oxygen via face mask first. 2. The nurse should notify the anesthesiologist for treatment orders before administering ephedrine. 3. Verification of body position is not identified as a step in the treatment of acute hypotension with an epidural infusion. 4. Administering a bolus of crystalloid fluid occurs after oxygen is applied to the client
Which nursing action can prevent or detect common side effects of epidural anesthesia? Select all that apply. 1. Preloading the client with a rapid infusion of IV fluids 2. Continuing the client on oral fluids only to prevent hypotension 3. Assisting the client to empty the bladder before the anesthesia is started 4. Use of intermittent fetal heart rate (FHR) monitoring so the client can use the birthing ball 5. Monitoring the fetal heart rate (FHR) for late deceleration and decrease in rate
Answer: 1, 3, 5 Explanation: 1. Hypotension can be prevented by preloading with rapid IV infusion followed by continuous IV infusion. 2. Hypotension can be prevented by preloading with rapid IV infusion followed by continuous IV infusion. The amount of oral fluids that would be required to prevent hypotension makes this approach inappropriate for the client in labor. 3. The epidural decreases the urge to urinate. The client's bladder should be assessed frequently for distention. 4. Hypotension can be prevented by preloading with rapid IV infusion followed by continuous IV infusion. Variability of FHR and late decelerations can occur if maternal hypotension occurs. Continuing FHR monitoring is essential. 5. Hypotension can be prevented by preloading with rapid IV infusion followed by continuous IV infusion. Variability of FHR and late decelerations can occur if maternal hypotension occurs. Continuing FHR monitoring is essential.
The nurse is providing nutritional counseling for a postpartum client with a hemoglobin of 8. Which statement indicates that additional teaching is necessary? 1. "I need to increase food sources that contain iron." 2. "If I drink lots of milk, I will increase my iron level faster." 3. "My iron is low, but it will increase as I take iron supplements." 4. "I might feel less energetic and tire more easily while my iron is low."
Answer: 2 Explanation: 1. Anemia requires additional iron. Many foods, such as red meat, will provide iron. Increasing iron-rich foods will improve anemia. 2. Milk does not contain iron; it contains calcium. Increased calcium intake will not increase hemoglobin levels. Further, iron should not be taken with milk, as the iron will not be absorbed. 3. Iron supplements are indicated with anemia. This client's hemoglobin level is 8; lower than 10 is considered anemia during pregnancy. Taking iron will increase hemoglobin. 4. Hemoglobin carries oxygen; when the hemoglobin level is low, the muscles are not adequately oxygenated, especially during activity, and fatigue results.
The nurse has completed a presentation for newly pregnant women about the changes of pregnancy. Which participant's statement reflects accurate comprehension of the information? 1. "Uterine souffle is a positive change of pregnancy." 2. "A positive Goodell sign is a probable change of pregnancy." 3. "Changes in the pelvic organs are presumptive signs of pregnancy." 4. "Three positive pregnancy tests in a 1-week period is considered to be a positive change of pregnancy."
Answer: 2 Explanation: 1. Because uterine souffle can be objectively identified but may be caused by conditions other than pregnancy, it is considered to be a probable change of pregnancy. 2. A positive Goodell sign can be objectively identified but may also be caused by conditions other than pregnancy; therefore, it is considered to be a probable change of pregnancy. 3. Changes in the pelvic organs can be objectively identified; however, because some pelvic organ changes may be associated with conditions other than pregnancy, they are considered to be probable changes of pregnancy. 4. Because other conditions may cause elevated hCG, pregnancy tests are considered probable changes of pregnancy.
The nurse has presented a teaching session on pain relief options to a prenatal class. Which client statement indicates that additional teaching is needed? 1. "An epidural can be continuous or one dose." 2. "General anesthesia is usually recommended for a cesarean section." 3. "Narcotics can be given through a client's epidural infusion catheter." 4. "A pudendal block usually works well to control pain during episiotomy repair."
Answer: 2 Explanation: 1. Epidural anesthesia can be administered in a single dose or via continuous infusion. 2. Compared to general anesthesia, spinal anesthesia is usually the anesthetic of choice indicated in the management of clients undergoing cesarean section. 3. To provide analgesia for approximately 24 hours after the birth, the analgesia provider may inject an opioid, such as morphine sulfate (Duramorph) or fentanyl (Sublimaze), into the epidural space immediately after the birth. 4. A pudendal block technique is used in the second stage of labor for the provision of perineal anesthesia for the latter part of the first stage of labor, the second stage, birth, and episiotomy repair.
A client who is experiencing her first pregnancy has just completed the initial prenatal examination with a certified nurse-midwife. Which statement indicates that the client has a correct understanding of her condition? 1. "The increased size of my uterus means that I am finally pregnant." 2. "Because we heard the baby's heartbeat, I am undoubtedly pregnant." 3. "Since I haven't felt the baby move yet, we don't know if I'm pregnant." 4. "My last period was 2 months ago, which means I'm 2 months along."
Answer: 2 Explanation: 1. Increased uterine size is a probable, or objective, change and does not conclusively verify pregnancy status. 2. Hearing the fetal heart rate is a positive, or diagnostic, change of pregnancy. 3. Fetal movement is a presumptive, or subjective, change of pregnancy. Absence or presence of the sensation of fetal movement is not a conclusive indicator of pregnancy status. 4. Amenorrhea is a presumptive, or subjective, change and does not conclusively verify pregnancy status.
The nurse is caring for a client at 30 weeks' gestation who is experiencing preterm premature rupture of membranes (PPROM). Which statement indicates that the client needs additional teaching? 1. "If I have bleeding in the third trimester of my next pregnancy, I might rupture membranes again." 2. "If I want to become pregnant again, I will have to plan on being on bed rest for the whole pregnancy." 3. "If I develop a urinary tract infection in my next pregnancy, I might rupture membranes early again." 4. "If I were having a singleton pregnancy instead of twins, my membranes would probably not have ruptured."
Answer: 2 Explanation: 1. Second- and third-trimester bleeding increases the risk for PPROM. 2. There is no evidence indicating that bed rest in a subsequent pregnancy decreases the risk for PPROM. 3. A urinary tract infection (UTI) increases the risk for PPROM. 4. Multifetal gestation increases the risk for PPROM
A newly admitted client at 32 weeks' gestation is experiencing a sudden onset of intense nausea and a frontal headache for the past 2 days. The client's initial blood pressure is 158/98, and she reports scant urination over the past 24 hours. Which intervention should the nurse anticipate implementing? 1. Ordering a low-protein diet for the client 2. Conducting a urine dipstick test to assess for proteinuria 3. Placing a wedge under the client's left hip so that she is in a right lateral tilt position 4. Administering diuretics and facilitating a dietary regimen of strict sodium restriction
Answer: 2 Explanation: 1. This client's signs and symptoms are consistent with preeclampsia. Dietary interventions include moderate to high protein intake (80 to 100 g/day, or 1.5 g/kg/day) to replace protein lost in the urine. 2. This client's signs and symptoms are consistent with preeclampsia. Treatment includes daily urine dipstick testing to assess for proteinuria. 3. This client's signs and symptoms are consistent with preeclampsia. Appropriate interventions include instituting bed rest with the client positioned primarily on her left side, to decrease pressure on the vena cava, thereby increasing venous return, circulatory volume, and placental and renal perfusion. 4. This client's signs and symptoms are consistent with preeclampsia. Treatment includes avoidance of excessively salty foods, but sodium restriction and diuretics are no longer used in treating preeclampsia.
A client in labor who is requesting an epidural asks if the baby will be harmed. How should the nurse respond? 1. "Epidural anesthesia is very safe and there are no potential side effects that can affect your baby." 2. "We'll monitor your baby continuously so we can recognize and treat any changes that may be related to the epidural." 3. "We'll assess your blood pressure every 15 minutes to make sure the epidural is not having any negative effects on your baby." 4. "Before your epidural is placed, we'll administer IV fluid to you in order to prevent the epidural from causing you problems."
Answer: 2 Explanation: 1. While proficient administration and monitoring of epidural anesthesia allow for a high degree of safety with this technique, maternal hypotension associated with epidural anesthesia may produce harmful fetal effects. 2. Continuous electronic fetal monitoring to assess fetal status is indicated in the care of pregnant clients who receive epidural anesthesia and allows for a more direct assessment of fetal status than does frequent monitoring of maternal blood pressure and pulse, which is also indicated in the care of this client.
The nurse is caring for the newborn of a client who received magnesium sulfate for preterm labor. Which fetal effects should the nurse attribute to the client's medication treatment? Select all that apply. 1. Flushing 2. Lethargy 3. Hypotonia 4. Poor sucking reflex 5. Respiratory depression
Answer: 2, 3, 5 Explanation:1. Flushing is a maternal adverse effect of magnesium sulfate. 2. Fetal side effects of magnesium sulfate may include lethargy that persists for 1 or 2 days following birth. 3. Fetal side effects of magnesium sulfate may include hypotonia that persists for 1 or 2 days following birth. 4. Poor sucking reflex is not an adverse effect of magnesium sulfate. 5. Respiratory depression in the newborn can also occur after maternal magnesium sulfate.
A client in the prenatal clinic believes she is pregnant because she has not menstruated for 3 months, and her breasts are getting bigger. What response by the nurse is best? 1. "Lack of menses and breast enlargement are presumptive signs of pregnancy." 2. "The changes you are describing are definitely indicators that you are pregnant." 3. "Lack of menses can be caused by many things. We need to do a pregnancy test." 4. "Breast and menstrual changes are positive signs of pregnancy. Congratulations."
Answer: 3 Explanation: 1. Although this is true, amenorrhea and breast enlargement also can be caused by weight gain and other conditions. A pregnancy test is needed to determine whether the client is pregnant. 2. This statement is false because amenorrhea and breast enlargement are presumptive signs of pregnancy because they can be caused by other conditions. 3. This is a true statement and addresses that these changes could be caused by things other than pregnancy. 4. This statement is false because amenorrhea and breast enlargement are presumptive signs of pregnancy. It is too early to determine if congratulations are in order.
A client who is at 10 weeks' gestation is concerned about the amount of saliva that is in her mouth since she seems to be spitting when she talks. How should the nurse respond? 1. "You should avoid astringent mouthwashes and chewing gum." 2. "That's called ptyalism, and it's usually caused by increased salt intake during the second trimester." 3. "Excess salivation commonly occurs during the first trimester, although the cause is unknown." 4. "Let's schedule you for a doctor's appointment, because excessive salivation can signal a complication of pregnancy."
Answer: 3 Explanation: 1. Astringent mouthwashes, chewing gum, and sucking hard candy may help relieve the bitter taste that often accompanies ptyalism. 2. Ptyalism, which is excess production of saliva, usually occurs during the first trimester and the cause is unknown. 3. Ptyalism, which is excess production of saliva, commonly occurs during the first trimester and the cause is unknown. 4. Excess salivation, also called ptyalism, is a normal occurrence in women during the first trimester.
The nurse receives the following report on a client who delivered 36 hours ago: para 1, rubella immune, A-negative, antibody screen negative, newborn B-positive, Coombs negative, discharge orders are written for both mother and newborn. What should be the priority action by the nurse? 1. Administer rubella vaccine. 2. Ask if she is breast- or bottlefeeding. 3. Determine if RhoGAM has been given. 4. Discuss the discharge education with the client.
Answer: 3 Explanation: 1. The client is rubella immune and does not need the rubella vaccine. 2. This is important but is not the top priority. 3. The client is A-negative and the newborn B-positive. The client needs RhoGAM prior to discharge. Without RhoGAM, the client will make antibodies against Rh-positive blood, and future pregnancies would be in jeopardy. 4. Discharge education is always important, but in this case it is not the most important action.
A client with preeclampsia is assessed with the following: blood pressure 158/100; urinary output 50 mL/hour; lungs clear to auscultation; urine protein 1+ on dipstick; and edema of the hands, ankles, and feet. Which new assessment finding indicates the client's condition is getting worse? 1. Reflexes 2+ 2. Platelet count 150,000 3. Blood pressure 158/104 4. Urinary output 20 mL/hour
Answer: 4 Explanation: 1. The reflexes are normal at 2+. 2. The platelet count is normal, though it is at the lower end. 3. The blood pressure has not had a significant rise. 4. The decrease in urine output is an indication of decrease in glomerular filtration, which indicates a loss of renal perfusion. The assessment finding most abnormal and life threatening is the urine output change.
A pregnant client at 14 weeks' gestation is diagnosed with hyperemesis gravidarum. The most recent vital signs are: blood pressure 95/48, pulse 114, respirations 24. Which order should the nurse implement first? 1. Weigh the client. 2. Encourage clear liquids orally. 3. Give 1 L of lactated Ringer solution IV. 4. Administer 30 mL Maalox (magnesium hydroxide) orally.
Answer: 3 Explanation: 1. Weighing the client provides information on weight gain or loss, but it is not the top priority in a client with excessive vomiting during pregnancy. The vital signs indicate hypovolemia. The client needs IV fluids. 2. The client needs IV fluids because of the vital signs indicating hypovolemia. Oral fluids are not likely to be tolerated well by a client with hyperemesis. Lack of tolerance of oral fluids through excessive vomiting is what has led to the hypovolemia. 3. The vital signs indicate hypovolemia. Giving this client a liter of lactated Ringer solution intravenously will reestablish vascular volume and bring the blood pressure up, and the pulse and respiratory rate down. 4. The vital signs indicate hypovolemia. There is no indication that the client has dyspepsia. The client needs IV fluids.
A client in labor is being prepared for epidural anesthesia. What should the nurse expect to perform in order to prevent the most common complication associated with this anesthesia? 1. Observe fetal heart rate variability. 2. Place the client in the semi-Fowler position. 3. Teach the client appropriate breathing techniques. 4. Rapidly infuse 500 to 1000 mL of intravenous fluids.
Answer: 4
An adolescent client reports that her period is late but that her home pregnancy test is negative. Which response is most appropriate? 1. "This means you are not pregnant." 2. "We do not trust home tests. Come to the clinic for a blood test." 3. "Most people do not use the tests correctly. Did you read the instructions?" 4. "You might be pregnant, but it might be too early for your home test to be accurate."
Answer: 4 Explanation: 1. Although this might be true, this is not the best response because the pregnancy may not yet be detectable through use of a urine pregnancy test. 2. This statement is not therapeutically worded. Additionally, this statement is not true because home pregnancy tests are quite simple to use and quite accurate. A clinic pregnancy test is usually a urine test. Blood tests are more invasive and more expensive. 3. This response does not address the issues presented in the client's statement. 4. This is an accurate and appropriate response. Most home pregnancy tests have low false- positive rates, but the false-negative rate is slightly higher. Repeating the test in 1 week is recommended
A postpartum client with blood type A, Rh-negative delivered a newborn with blood type AB, Rh-positive. Which statement indicates that teaching about this blood type inconsistency has been effective? 1. "Because my baby is Rh-positive, I do not need RhoGAM." 2. "Before my next pregnancy, I will need to have a RhoGAM shot." 3. "If my baby had the same blood type I do, it might cause complications." 4. "I need to get RhoGAM so I do not have problems with my next pregnancy."
Answer: 4 Explanation: 1. Rh-negative mothers who give birth to Rh-positive infants should receive Rh immune globulin (RhoGAM) to prevent alloimmunization. 2. Rh-negative mothers who give birth to Rh-positive infants should receive Rh immune globulin (RhoGAM). The injection must be given within 72 hours after delivery to prevent alloimmunization. 3. It is specifically the Rh factor that causes complications; ABO grouping does not cause alloimmunization. 4. Rh-negative mothers who give birth to Rh-positive infants should receive Rh immune globulin (RhoGAM) to prevent alloimmunization, which could cause fetal anemia and other complications during the next pregnancy.
A client in labor who is receiving a continuous infusion of a local anesthetic through an epidural catheter asks if ear ringing is supposed to occur. What is the most likely cause of the client's complaint? 1. Dehydration 2. Hypotension 3. Allergic reaction 4. Local anesthetic toxicity
Answer: 4 Explanation: 1. Sensation of ringing in the ears is not an allergic reaction. 2. Although maternal hypotension is associated with epidural anesthesia, a sensation of ringing in the ears is associated with local anesthetic toxicity. 3. Sensation of ringing in the ears is not associated with hydration status. 4. Sensation of ringing in the ears is associated with local anesthetic toxicity.
The charge nurse is reviewing the plans of care for four clients in labor. Which care plan requires additional information before implementing? 1. Administration of a spinal anesthetic to a client who is scheduled for a vaginal delivery 2. Administration of a spinal anesthetic to a client with a history of irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) 3. Administration of epidural anesthesia to a client who is in the first stage of labor and has a shellfish allergy 4. Administration of epidural anesthesia to a client with a history of vomiting secondary to hyperemesis gravidarum
Answer: 4 Explanation: 1. Spinal anesthetics may be used to provide anesthesia for cesarean birth and occasionally for vaginal birth. 2. Spinal anesthesia is not contraindicated for irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). 3. A lumbar epidural relieves pain associated with the first and second stages of labor. An allergy to shellfish is not a contraindication to epidural anesthesia. 4. Contraindications to epidural anesthesia include severe hypovolemia of any etiology. The client with hyperemesis gravidarum should be evaluated for severity of dehydration prior to administration of epidural anesthesia.
A client in labor who rates pain as 9 on a scale from 1 to 10 requests pain medication after refusing epidural anesthesia. What action should the nurse take prior to administering butorphanol tartrate (Stadol) as prescribed? 1. Offer epidural anesthesia again. 2. Administer oxygen via face mask at 6 to 10 L per minute. 3. Obtain maternal vital signs and assess the fetal heart rate (FHR). 4. Instruct on the actions and contraindications associated with the medication.
Answer: 4 Explanation: 1. The client has refused epidural anesthesia but is authorized to receive butorphanol tartrate. 2. Routine oxygen administration is not indicated for administration of butorphanol tartrate to an asymptomatic client in labor. 3. Prior to obtaining maternal vital signs and assessing FHR, the nurse should advise the client as to the actions and contraindications associated with butorphanol tartrate. 4. Prior to administering the medication, the nurse must explain the pharmacologic effects of the medication.
Prior to receiving lumbar epidural anesthesia, in which position should the nurse place the client in labor? 1. Lying prone with a pillow under the chest 2. On the right side in the center of the bed with the back curved 3. On the left side with the bottom leg straight and the top leg slightly flexed 4. Sitting on the edge of the bed with the back slightly curved and feet on a stool
Answer: 4 Explanation: 1. This position is not consistent with access to the epidural spaces. 2. Especially in pregnant women, this position is not ideal for facilitating access to the epidural space. 3. This position is not consistent with access to the epidural spaces. 4. Sitting on the edge of the bed with the back slightly curved and the feet on a stool allows the epidural spaces to be accessed more easily.
When caring for a client with premature rupture of membranes (PROM), the nurse observes an increase in the client's pulse. What should the nurse do next?
Assess the client's temperature
A woman with severe preeclampsia is being treated with an IV infusion of magnesium sulfate. This treatment is considered successful if:A) blood pressure is reduced to prepregnant baseline.B) seizures do not occur.C) deep tendon reflexes become hypotonic.D) diuresis reduces fluid retention.
B) seizures do not occur.Rationale:A temporary decrease in blood pressure can occur; however, this is not the purpose of administering this medication. Magnesium sulfate is a central nervous system (CNS) depressant given primarily to prevent seizures. Hypotonia is a sign of an excessive serum level of magnesium. It is critical that calcium gluconate be on hand to counteract the depressant effects of magnesium toxicity. Diuresis is not an expected outcome of magnesium sulfate administration.
A woman at 39 weeks of gestation with a history of preeclampsia is admitted to the labor and birth unit. She suddenly experiences increased contraction frequency of every 1 to 2 minutes; dark red vaginal bleeding; and a tense, painful abdomen. The nurse suspects the onset of:A) eclamptic seizure.B) rupture of the uterus.C) placenta previa.D) placental abruption
D) placental abruption.Rationale:Eclamptic seizures are evidenced by the presence of generalized tonic-clonic convulsions. Uterine rupture presents as hypotonic uterine activity, signs of hypovolemia, and in many cases the absence of pain. Placenta previa presents with bright red, painless vaginal bleeding. Uterine tenderness in the presence of increasing tone may be the earliest finding of premature separation of the placenta (abruptio placentae or placental abruption). Women with hypertension are at increased risk for an abruption.
A pregnant client with hyperemesis gravidarum needs advice on how to minimize nausea and vomiting. Which of the following instructions should a nurse give this client?a) Avoid dry crackers, toast, and soda.b) Lie down or recline for at least 2 hours after eating.c) Decrease intake of carbonated beverages.d) Eat small, frequent meals throughout the day.
Eat small, frequent meals throughout the day.
A woman is 9 weeks gestation and admitted to the obstetrical unit for hyperemesis gravidarum. The highest priority intervention the nurse should anticipate is which of the following?a) IV rehydrationb) Administration of antiemeticsc) Bed rest with bathroom privilegesd) NPO for 24 hours
NPO for 24 hours
The nurse is teaching a patient with anemia when and how to take the prescribed iron supplements. The nurse provides a list of beverages for the patient to stay away from while taking the iron supplement. What is the rationale for this?They can affect the process of hematopoiesis.They increase red blood cell (RBC) destruction.They can decrease iron supplement absorption.They can increase the plasma levels of caffeine
They can decrease iron supplement absorption Anemia is caused by decreased hemoglobin levels in the blood, which, in turn, is caused by decreased iron intake. Iron supplements are usually given to treat iron deficiency anemia. Tea, coffee, and milk decrease iron absorption, which reduces the efficiency of iron supplements. Therefore the nurse teaches the anemic patient to stop drinking tea, coffee, and milk with the iron supplement. Tea, coffee, and milk do not affect the plasma levels of caffeine, the hematopoiesis process, or cause RBC destruction.
A client whose membranes have prematurely ruptured is admitted to the hospital. Which nursing intervention is a priority?
Vital signs every shift
When counseling a woman about getting enough iron in her diet, the maternity nurse should tell her that:milk, coffee, and tea aid iron absorption if consumed at the same time as iron.iron absorption is inhibited by a diet rich in vitamin C.iron supplements are permissible for children in small doses.
constipation is common with iron supplements Constipation is common with iron supplements . Milk, coffee, and tea inhibit iron absorption when consumed at the same time as iron. Vitamin C promotes iron absorption. Children who ingest iron can get very sick and even die.
The nurse is preparing the plan of care for a woman hospitalized for hyperemesis gravidarum. Which interventions interventions should the nurse prioritze? Select all that apply.
maintaining NPO status for the first day administering antiemetic agents obtaining baseline blood electrolyte levels monitoring intake and output
A client visits a health care facility with complaints of amenorrhea for 10 weeks, fatigue, and breast tenderness. Which of the following additional signs and symptoms suggest the presence of molar pregnancy? Select all that apply.a) Dyspareuniab) Whitish discharge from the vaginac) Elevated hCG levelsd) Absence of fetal heart sounde) Hyperemesis gravidarum
• Elevated hCG levels• Absence of fetal heart sound• Hyperemesis gravidarum
A nurse is explaining to a group of nursing students that eclampsia or seizures in pregnant women are preceded by an acute increase in maternal blood pressure. Which of the following are features of an acute increase in blood pressure? Select all that apply.a) Proteinuriab) Blurring of visionc) Auditory hallucinationsd) Hypereflexiae) Hyperglycemia
• Proteinuria• Hypereflexia• Blurring of vision
