Immunology
Which of the following types of molecules is most likely to be antigenic/immunogenic
Protein
Which one of thee following are normal genes that induce DNA synthesis, promote cell division and inhibit cell death
Proto-oncogenes
The primary purpose of neutrophil granules is to
Provide microbicial action
What has happened in an antibody titer if tubes #5-7 show a stronger reaction that tubes #1-4
Prozone reaction
Which of the following abnormal white blood cells is most commonly found in a peripheral smear of a pt with infectious mononucleosis
Reactive lymphocytes
Which one of the following statements of FALSE
Secretory cells of the innate system are antigen specific
VCA, EBNA, VCA/IgM, EA
correct sequence
What part of an immunoglobulin molecule exists as kappa or lambda chains
Light chains
Nephelometry and turbidimetry measure different properties of
Light transmission and scatter by particles in suspension
Which of the following is responsible for causing transfusion associated g vs h disease
Lymphocytes
Antigen processing is primarily accomplished by what type of cells
Macrophages
Examples of cytokines originating from activated T-cells include
IL-2,IL-3
In an autoimmune disorder, conditions influencing the development of a disorder include the following factors with the exception of
Increased discrimination of self from non-self antigens
A cause of FALSE-POSITIVE result in the rapid plasma reagin RPR test for syphilis
Infectious mononucleosis
Which branch of the immune system has an immediate response on first exposure to a foreign antigenic stimulus
Innate
Skin and mucous membranes are important components of what part of the immune system
Innate immunity
The vast majority of would-be invaders are killed or inactivated primarily by which part of the immune system
Innate immunity
All of the following are true about hybridization in PCR procedures EXCEPT:
Hybribization cannot happen between a strand of DNA and a strand of RNA
Which of the following is correct regarding CRP
Is usually elevated in pediatric bacterial infections
T lymph are characterized by all of the following functions EXCEPT which
synthesize antibody
The VDRL and RPR are used to provide presumptive ID of which infection
syphilis
The characteristics of an acute phase protein include the following EXCEPT
Acute phase proteins are synthesized slowly in response to tissue injury
Components of the second line of defense in the human body are
Phagocytic cells; complement
What is another name used to designate a fully committed B-lymphocyte
Plasma Cell
When should acute and convalescent blood specimens be collected from a patient for the detection of antibody concentration related to a specific infectious disease
2 weeks apart
Which of the following kappa/ lambda ratios are found in normal B cells?
2:1
W/in what period of time after performance of the TST should the result be read
48-72 hours
Which of the following statements is true regarding anti-nuclear antibodies
95% of pt with SLE will test positive for ANAs
Which two of the following tests are helpful for documenting previous strep. throat and skin infections
ASO titer & anti-DNase B
In an standard electrophoretic separation what zone appears first on the densitometric pattern
Albumin
Which of the following is used to determine if a person has had a recent infection with Strep. pyogenes
Antistrptolysin O
Which of the following leukocytes is most directly associated with antibody production?
B cells
Which of the following is responsible for the humoral immune response
B lymphocytes
Which complement component is found in both the classical and alternative pathways?
C3
Which of the following is the "activation unit" in the classical complement pathway?
C4 C2 C3
The tumor marker associated with ovarian cancer is
CA-125
Which tumor marker is used for colorectal cancer?
CEA
Which of the following lab tests is used as an indicator of inflammation
CRP
Which one of the following statements concerning phagocytosis is FALSE?
Cells are only capable of phagocytizing bacteria
Avidity is best described by which of the following statements
the strength with which multivalent antigens and antibodies bind
Which of the following microscopic technique is best suited for direct examination of the infectious agent of syphilis
Dark-field microscopy
Which of the following is associated with an increased susceptibility to infection in AIDS patients
Decreased CD4+ cells
What condition would be suspected in a asymptomatic pt with greater than 20% atypical lymphocytes on their peripheral blood smear?
EBV
Which of the following serological tests would be used for the diagnosis of Q-fever
EIA or indirect immunoflourescence
corneal tissue transplantation has an extremely high success rate for a variety of reasons, including all of the following with the exception of
Eccentrically place grafts
Which of the following is a confirmatory test for syphilis
FTA-ABS
Concerning antigen-antibody reactions, the prozone effect causes which of the following results
False negative
The properties of an antibody class are defined by the
Fc end of the molecule
Diseases associated with a dysfunction of polymorphonuclear neutrophils include all of the following with the exception of
Gaucher's disease
Which method remains the gold standard for ANA detection
IFA Slide-based immunofluorescent
Rocky Mountain spotted fever is most reliably diagnosed by which lab technique
IFA testing
The antigen marker most closely associated with transmission of HBV infections is
HBeAg
What sero-marker is the first marker to become positive in Hep B and is associated with infective stage
HBs antigen
A kidney graft would have the BEST chance of survival post-transplantation if it were
HLA identical, mixed lymphocyte culture (-), ABO identical
All of the listed disorders are organ non-specific autoimmune diseases EXCEPT
Hashimoto's disease
What section of an immunoglobulin molecule is responsible for the differences b/w immunoglobulin classes?
Heavy chains
All of the following diseases are associated with autoantibodies EXCEPT
Hemolytic disease of the newborn
Which antibody is best described with that characteristic that it is the only one capable of residing in mucosal linings
IgA
The antibody mediator associated with a Type I Hypersensitivity Reaction is
IgE
Which immunoglobulin is associated with anaphylactic shock
IgE
Which of the following immunoglobulin classes is chiefly responsible for the degranulation of mast cells and basophils
IgE
Which of the following antibody types is the predominant serum antibody seen in the secondary immune response
IgG
Which of the following immunoglobulins are capable of fixing complement by the classical pathway?
IgG and IgM
Which of the following antibody types is chiefly seen in the primary immune response
IgM
All of the following conditions are associated with poly increase in gamma globulins except?
Immunodeficiency
CD5 antigen is normally found on which of the following lymphocyte populations
Mature T cells
Tumor markers are especially valuable when used to
Monitor response to cancer therapy
Which of the following types of lymphocytes express CD4
Only T-helper cells
Phagoctosis by cells of the monounuclear phagocytic system is greatly enhanced by which of the following?
Opsonins chemical substance that binds to antigens and increases the rate and quality of action by phagocytes
Two biologically functional characteristics of immunoglobulin G are
Opsonization of antigens for phagocytosis by macrophages and neutrophils; neonatal immunity by transfer of maternal antibodies across the placenta and gut of the fetus
How does the lab immunologic assessment of Waldenstroms Primary Macroglobulinemia differ from other monoclonal gammopathies
Overproduction of IgM antibodies
Patients with antibody to the following antigen are immune to Hep. B
Surface antigen
Which T lymph expresses the CD8+ expresses the CD8+ marker and acts specifically to kill tumor or virally-infected cells
T cytotoxic
Contact dermatitis is mediated by
T lymphocytes
Koch's postulates include all of the following EXCEPT for which statement
The isolated organism when injected into a human host will produce the disease
All of the following are associated with immediate hypersensitivity EXCEPT
Tuberculin reaction
Following the treatment of an IgG molecule with papain, which of the following will remain?
Two Fab fragments each with a light chain and a partial heavy chain attached with a disulfide bond
Flow cytometry is a useful tool in the study all of the following disorders EXCEPT
Viral hepatitis
A hapten can best be described as
a nonimmunogenic material capable of stimulating an immune response only when bound to a carrier protein
A cytokines can be describe as
a soluble protein that regulates the immune response
What can be done to make a hapten behave like an antigen
bind to protein
Which of the following choices best describes the primary functions of antibodies
binds with antigen
Estrogen and progesterone receptors used as tumor markers are most commonly employed to provide prognostic information about
breast cancer
Which of the following conditions is associated with the EBV
burkitts lymphoma
Which of the following statements about hep C virus is true?
develop antibodies and develop chronic infection and active liver disease
Which of the following statements about endocytosis is incorrect
endocytosis is the process by which phagosomes expel the macromolecules inside
In what trimester is there the greatest risk for the manifestation of complications in maternal rubella infection
first trimester
The classic TORCH panel of tests includes the following diseases with the excpetion of
infectious monoucleosis
Which is best describes the relation of nephelometry to turbidimetry
nep-light scattered by particles in solution turb- decrease in incidnet-light intensity
according to the HIV testing algorithm from the CDC, all are true EXCEPT
nonreactive screening test to either HIV-1 or @ confirmation that a pt does not have HIV
spleen
produces macrophages whose Fc receptors recognize and destroy these antibody- coated platelets