Lab Animal Exam 2 Review

48. Which order of nonhuman primates (NHPs) is the most primitive, small to medium sized, and has a squirrel-like appearance? a. Simians b. Prosimians c. Anthropoideans d. Haplorrhini

B

49. A marmoset is an example of a: a. Simian b. Platyrrhini c. Catarrhine d. Haplorrhini

B

51. Which feature of most OWPs is a hard, keratinized pad on the buttocks? a. Cheek pouches b. Ischial callosities c. Prehensile tail d. Brachiation

B

55. What was established in 1974 in an effort to control the use of NWPs in biomedical research? a. Animal Welfare Act (AWA) b. Interagency Primate Steering Committee c. Guide for the Care and Use of Laboratory Animals d. Institutional Animal Care and Use Committee (IACUC)

B

58. Which behavior serves as a method of communication and may also serve to strengthen the social organization of primates? a. Foraging for food b. Allogrooming c. Beating on chest d. Manipulating objects

B

61. Which term is used to describe the act of moving using only the arms? a. Locomotion b. Brachiation c. Swinging d. Prehensile

B

63. Which of these is a significant concern when handling and restraining primates? a. Always use chemical restraint b. Safety of the handler c. Use of a squeeze mechanism d. Level the canines to the height of the incisors

B

66. Which vessel can be used to collect large amounts of blood from primates but the procedure requires the animal be anesthetized? a. Cephalic b. Femoral c. Saphenous d. Vena Cava

B

68. Which bacterial infection can cause an animal to become severely ill, dehydrated, and emaciated? The animal will have diarrhea containing blood and necrotic colonic mucosa with possible rectal prolapsed and death. a. Campylobacteriosis b. Shigellosis c. Salmonellosis d. Helicobacteriosis

B

7. Birds have a lighter skeletal system than mammals due to: a. Medullary bones b. Pneumatized bones c. Air sacs d. a large sternum

B

70. The clinical signs of which infection are lockjaw, seizures, and respiratory paralysis? a. Melioidosis b. Tetanus c. Pseudotuberculosis d. Helicobacteriosis

B

71. The most significant herpesvirus of concern in NHPs is: a. Herpes simplex 1 b. Herpes simiae c. Herpes saimiri d. Herpes tamarinus

B

73. The clinical signs of which disease include exanthematous rash on the chest and lower body, nasal and ocular discharge, and blepharitis? This disease can be fatal in some NWPs. a. Hepatitis B b. Measles c. Pox virus d. Simian hemorrhagic fever

B

78. What are the most commonly used reptiles in research? a. Bearded dragons b. Snakes c. Red-eared sliders d. Box turtles

B

83. Which species has complete cartilaginous tracheal rings? BOOK a. Python b. Tortoise c. Monitor d. Gecko

B

85. The forked tongue of snakes and lizards assists in delivering scent particles to the vomeronasal organ called the: a. Tomia b. Jacobson's organ c. Chromatophores d. Hemipenes

B

87. Which of these species is a strict carnivore? BOOK a. Box turtle b. Corn snake c. Bearded dragon d. Tortoise

B

92. Which is a unique feature of the reptilian heart? a. It has two chambers b. It has three chambers c. It is located in the caudal third of the body d. Each chamber has three subchambers

B

94. Which is a unique feature of some species of reptiles that is associated with thermoregulation? BOOK a. Salt spraying b. Color changes c. Coiling d. Blood squirting

B

95. Reptiles require ultraviolet light to produce: a. Vitamin C b. Vitamin D c. Vitamin E d. Vitamin B

B

96. Which of the following is only an appropriate substrate for a reptile cage if appropriate ventilation is available to prevent the absorption of moisture? a. Newspaper b. Wood chips c. Artificial turf d. Shredded coconut shells

B

98. If a large snake needs to be restrained, a general guide of one person every _____ feet is recommended. a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5

B

99. When performing a physical examination on a reptile, the first step should be: a. Examining the eyes b. Observing the animal c. Examining the oral cavity d. Palpating the coelomic cavity

B

56. In many facilities, an incoming primate must have five negative tests for which disease before it can leave quarantine? a. Shigellosis b. Salmonellosis c. Tuberculosis d. Herpesvirus

C

60. What one feature must all caging for primates include? a. Squeeze mechanism b. Slotted floors c. Secure locks d. Automatic waters

C

62. Diets for primates must contain which vitamin? a. A b. B c. C d. D

C

64. When large volumes of medication are needed or if the animal needs continual infusion of medications or fluids, which is the best option for delivery? a. Intravenous (IV) catheter placement b. Subcutaneous (SQ) injections c. Vascular access port d. Intramuscular injections

C

67. Prior to working with primates, humans must be tested for: a. Diabetes b. Shigellosis c. Tuberculosis d. Hepatitis

C

75. Which disease is caused by obligate intracellular parasites that are transmitted by a mosquito vector? a. Measles b. Pox virus c. Malaria d. Giardia

C

79. Snakes are commonly used in research because: a. Snake husbandry is easy to maintain b. They don't require a lot of food c. Their skin is similar to humans and are therefore used for transdermal research d. Their metabolism is very similar to humans

C

82. The ventral part of a chelonian shell is called the: a. Carapace b. Scutes c. Plastron d. Coelom

C

84. Which feature allows snakes to breathe while ingesting prey? a. The lack of vocal cords b. The glottis located behind the tongue c. The mobile glottis that is located caudal to the tongue d. The presence of a simple, sac-like lung

C

9. The pectoral muscle comprises approximately what percentage of the body weight of birds? a. 5% b. 10% c. 20% d. 35%

C

90. A technician has given a bearded dragon an injection of a nephrotoxic medication caudal to the kidneys. What can be the result of injection? a. The medication will work without complications b. The medication will be excreted before it is distributed throughout the body c. The medication could result in kidney damage d. The animal will expire immediately

C

97. Chameleons should have access to water by: a. Placing a water bowl on the floor of the cage b. Water sprayed directly on rocks in the cage c. Placing a water bowl in the tree limbs d. Using a water bottle

C

77. An NHP that is deficient in vitamin D will develop: a. Rickets b. Diabetes c. Scurvy d. Periodontitis

A

81. A red-eared slider would have which skull type? a. Anapsid b. Carapace c. Brachiocephalic d. Diapsid

A

88. A reptile that has a thin and distensible esophagus and stomach would likely be: a. Carnivorous b. Omnivorous c. Debilitated d. Herbivorous

A

93. Which defense mechanism of reptiles involves distracting the pursuer with a contracting or wiggling object while the lizard makes its escape? a. Tail autonomy b. Playing dead c. Coiling d. Skin sloughing

A

20. Perches should never be placed higher or equal to eye level to prevent which behavior issue in birds? a. Chewing b. Biting c. Vocalization d. Dominance

D

27. The recommended ratio for pellets versus fresh fruits and vegetables for most species of birds is: a. 40% pellets : 60% fresh fruits and vegetables. b. 50% pellets : 50% fresh fruits and vegetables. c. 60% pellets : 40% fresh fruits and vegetables. d. 70% pellets : 30% fresh fruits and vegetables.

D

28. The best method of feeding an African grey is: a. Offer food from the dinner table to encourage variety. b. Feed a diet high in seeds. c. Ensure that grit is available. d. Feed 70% good quality pellets and 30% fresh fruits and vegetables.

D

36. If you have been asked to administer an intramuscular (IM) injection to a bird, what muscle group would you use? a. Biceps b. Triceps c. Quadriceps d. Pectoral

D

40. Which premedication will result in reduced anxiety but have no analgesic effect? a. Atropine b. Glycopyrrolate c. Butorphanol d. Midazolam

D

45. Which avian disease can cause psittacosis in humans? a. Polyomavirus b. Pacheco's disease c. Poxvirus d. Avian chlamydiosis

D

50. Which species of primates is most commonly used in biomedical research? a. Squirrel monkey b. Marmosets c. Capuchins d. Rhesus monkey

D

53. How many permanent teeth will be found in all Old World monkeys? a. 36 b. 42 c. 30 d. 32

D

54. What percentage of animals used in biomedical research are primates? a. 10% b. 20% c. <0.01% d. <0.025%

D

6. Cockatoos and African grey parrots have which unique feather feature? a. Remiges b. Coverts c. Down d. Powder down

D

65. Which medication can be administered prior to anesthesia to help reduce the amount of saliva produced? a. Ketamine b. Propofol c. Acepromazine d. Atropine

D

69. Which zoonotic disease is caused by several different strains of Mycobacterium? a. Shigellosis b. Helicobacteriosis c. Pseudotuberculosis d. Tuberculosis

D

74. Which of the following is related to the Ebola virus? a. Hepatitis B b. Measles c. Pox Virus d. Simian hemorrhagic fever

D

8. Which muscle group is used to determine the body condition of the bird? a. Biceps b. Triceps c. Quadriceps d. Pectoral

D

80. Reptiles shed the outmost layer of skin on a regular basis. This process is referred to as: a. Desiccation b. Diapsid c. Blepharedema d. Ecdysis

D

86. Chelonians use which structure to acquire and tear their food? BOOK a. Jacobson's organ b. Hemipenes c. Fangs d. Tomia

D

89. The principle end product of protein metabolism in reptiles is: a. Urates b. Urine c. Feces d. Uric acid

D

91. If a reptile is viviparous, that means it: a. Lays eggs b. Only eats live prey c. Only eats vegetation d. Gives birth to live offspring

D

12. The respiratory system of birds is different from in mammals in which way? a. The lungs do not inflate b. They breathe through the feathers c. They have cartilaginous bands on the trachea d. They breathe through their nares

A

14. The major excretion product in birds is: a. Urates b. Urine c. Feces d. Bile

A

19. Unlike puppies, birds may not outgrow which destructive behavior? a. Chewing b. Biting c. Vocalization d. Dominance

A

21. An underlying medical condition or stress can lead to which behavior problem? a. Self-mutilation b. Biting c. Vocalization d. Dominance

A

29. Which method of identification is the most permanent, positive form of identification available for birds? a. Microchips b. Leg bands c. Trimmed wing feathers d. Colored dyes

A

34. The best location to auscultate the lungs on a bird is: a. Dorsal midline between the shoulder blades. b. Ventral midline along the keel. c. Left lateral midway between keel and spine. d. Right lateral midway between keel and spine.

A

39. Due to the high metabolic rate of birds it is recommended that they only be fasted prior to anesthesia for: a. 2-3 hours b. 4-5 hours c. 30 minutes d. 8 hours

A

4. Feathers cover the bird's body in specific tracts called a. Pterylae b. Uropygial c. Aptera d. Remiges

A

44. An avian heterophil is functionally equivalent to which mammalian white blood cell? a. Neutrophil b. Eosinophil c. Basophil d. Lymphocyte

A

5. The large feathers found on the outer wing of a bird are called: a. Remiges b. Coverts c. Down d. Pterylae

A

57. Which mating system should be used if the exact gestational age must be known? a. Timed mating b. Paired mating c. Harem mating d. Free- range mating

A

59. Which of the following requires that research facilities develop and implement plans to promote the well-being of the NWPs species in their care? a. AWA b. Interagency Primate Steering Committee c. Guide for the Care and Use of Laboratory Animals d. IACUC

A

72. Caretakers are often given a vaccine to prevent which infection? a. Hepatitis B b. Hepatitis C c. Hepatitis D d. Hepatitis E

A

76. A dietary insufficiency of iodine can lead to the formation of: a. A goiter b. Diabetes mellitus c. Obesity d. Helicobacteriosis arthritis

A

42. The veterinarian has asked you to determine that a bird's feces has gram-negative bacteria. What type of test would you perform? a. Direct smear b. Gram stain c. Fecal flotation d. Occult blood test

B

16. Which sense in birds is the most highly developed? a. Taste b. Sight c. Touch d. Smell

B

18. Which behavior issue is not an instinctual behavior but rather one developed by captive birds as a means of protecting themselves? a. Chewing b. Biting c. Vocalization d. Dominance

B

23. Chronic masturbation can be a result of which behavior problem in birds? a. Dominance b. Inappropriate bonding c. Self-mutilation d. Chewing

B

26. One method of preventing pododermatitis in birds is to: a. Keep the floor of the cage clean. b. Offer perches with varying sizes, textures, and shapes. c. Allow the bird to only eat off of the floor of the cage. d. Provide many toys for enrichment.

B

3. Which gland that secretes lipoid sebaceous material is absent in the emu, ostrich, and Amazon parrots? a. Pterylae b. Uropygial c. Aptera d. Remiges

B

31. Which restraint method is a great way to restrain large parrots with fragile facial skin to prevent them from biting? a. A restraint board b. An Elizabethan hold c. Gently holding each side of the face below the eye d. A towel wrapped around the wings

B

32. The first step in a thorough physical examination in a bird is: a. Capture the bird b. Obtain a detailed history c. Observe the bird from a distance d.

B

33. Observing the droppings in the cage is a vital part of the physical examination. If the bird is eating too many seeds the droppings will: a. Be fewer in number b. Be drier than normal c. Contain blood d. Be more than normal with high urine content.

B

35. A bird is in need of subcutaneous (SQ) fluids. What is the best location to administer the fluids? a. Axillary b. Inguinal c. Dorsal d. Ventral

B

37. The best site for blood collection in a large bird would be: a. A nail trim b. The metatarsal vein. c. The jugular vein d. The ulnar vein

B

38. If a bird is alert and active, the best method for administering medications is: a. Gastric gavage b. Orally c. Mixed in the water d. Mixed in the feed

B

41. What should not be performed because birds have cartilaginous rings in the trachea? a. Intubation b. Intubation with a cuffed endotracheal tube c. Masked induction d. Air sac cannulation

B

47. Which is the best type of bandage to use for pododermatitis? a. Schroeder-Thomas splint b. Robert Jones bandage c. Ball bandage d. No bandage needed

C

52. Which feature is always absent in OWPs? a. Cheek pouches b. Ischial callosities c. Prehensile tails d. Brachiation

C

1. Psittacines have unique physical characteristics such as: a. Pointed beaks and are zygodactyl b. Pointed beaks and are anisodactyl c. Hookbills and are zygodactyl d. hook bills and are anisodactyl

C

13. In many species of birds, the esophagus expands in the interclavicular space to create the: a. Proventriculus b. Ventriculus c. Crop d. Cloaca

C

15. Which feature of red blood cells (RBCs) in birds makes them unique? a. Round-shaped and concave b. Oval and concave c. Oval and nucleated d. Round and nucleated

C

22. Which type of bird is more likely to have problems with self-mutilation? a. Parakeet b. Canaries c. African Grey d. Finches

C

24. Which type of caging material should be avoided as it contains substances that are toxic to birds? a. Stainless steel b. Polycarbonate c. Galvanized metal d. Polypropylene

C

25. It is important to consider where a bird cage should be located in a house. Which is an ideal location? a. Near a window for direct sunlight b. In the kitchen c. In the family room d. Near a window for ventilation

C

30. What device is recommended when capturing a bird to help prevent the fear of hands? a. Leather gloves b. Net c. Towel d. Leg hook

C

43. To confirm the diagnosis of a lower respiratory infection in a bird, the best diagnostic test would be: a. Choanal swab b. Nasal flush c. Tracheal lavage d. Cloacal swab

C

46. Which avian disease requires an injury or a bite of a vector to enter the body? a. Polyomavirus b. Pacheco's disease c. Poxvirus d. Avian chlamydiosis

C

10. What V-shaped slit on the roof of the mouth in birds directs air from the mouth and nasal cavities to the glottis? a. Proventriculus b. Cloaca c. Nares d. Choana

D

100. The heart rate of reptiles should be obtained using which instrument and location? a. Pediatric stethoscope and directly over the heart b. Stethoscope and directly over the pelvic girdle c. Doppler® and over the pelvic girdle d. Doppler® and over the heart

D

11. What is known as the voice box of birds? a. Choana b. Nares c. Cloaca d. Syrinx

D

17. Why is the use of the pupillary light response not a good diagnostic tool for birds? a. Birds have round eyes b. Birds have tubular eyes c. The presence of pectin oculi in the fluid of the eye d. The iris contains striated muscles that allow for voluntary control of the size of the pupils

D

2. If the second and third digits point anteriorly and the first and fourth digits point posteriorly, the bird is referred to as: a. Anisodactyl b. Uropygial. c. Pterylae d. Zygodactyl

D