Life Insurance Exam Questions
D has just paid off his mortgage and has decided that he no longer needs his life insurance policy which he originally purchased to cover the house payments should he die. If D explores the possibly of selling his policy while he is still alive, it is known as: A: a life settlement B: an annuity C: a Viatical settlement D: STOLI
A: a life settlement
The best definition of a "fiduciary" is A: any licensed person who collects money in the course of their employment. B: a person who works in a bank. C: a limited lines producer. D: any person who is entrusted temporarily with the property of others.
A: any licensed person who collects money in the course of their employment.
All of the following statements pertaining to a temporary license are true, EXCEPT: A: they survive the transfer of ownership of an insurance company who sponsored the licensee. B: the fee is $50. C: the Director may limit them in any manner in order to protect the public. D: a licensed sponsor may be required.
A: they survive the transfer of ownership of an insurance company who sponsored the licensee.
An annuitant has funded a annuity with a single premium payment but wants to wait a number of years before they annuitize. Which of the following best describes this scenario? A: SPIA B: SPDA C: FPDA D: Lump Sum
B: SPDA
If a group is non-contributory, what percentage of members must be insured by the policy? A: 75% B: 50% C: 100% D: 0%
C: 100%
How many different forms of temporary producer licensing authority exist in Illinois? A: 4 B: 3 C: 2 D: 1
C: 2
All Viatical Settlement Providers must report on or before _______ of every year. A: January 1st B: Depends on License Issuance C: March 1st D: Birth month of the Licensee
C: March 1st
All Viatical Settlement Providers must report on or before _______ of every year. A: January 1st B: Depends on License Issuance C: March 1st D: Birth month of the Licensee
C: March 1st
All of the following are guaranteed components of a whole life policy EXCEPT: A: Premium B: Cash Value C: Death Benefit D: The policy will expire
D: The policy will expire
Which of the following is subject to the Individual and Group Life Insurance Policy Illustrations Rule? A: Variable life insurance B: Group life and Individual Annuities. C: Credit life insurance D: Universal Life insurance
D: Universal Life insurance
The subject of a market conduct examination for non-financial matters may request a hearing within how many days after receiving the examination report? A: 10 days B: 15 days C: 20 days D: 30 days
A: 10 days
Company A has just filed for bankruptcy and notified the Director. When must the Director notify the board of directors for the Guaranty Association of insolvency of Company A A: 3 days B: 5 days C: 20 days D: 30 days
A: 3 days
Which of the following dividend options can a policy holder select to completely pay their policy off before endowment? A: Acceleration of Endowment B: Reduce Premiums C: Accumulation at Interest D: Paid-Up Option
D: Paid-Up Option
How long does an insurance agency with a business entity license have to notify the Director pertaining to a change of business address? A: 30 days B: 15 day C: 90 days D: There is no requirement in this regard that applies to a business entity.
A: 30 days
What is the maximum length of time a producer license can be suspended by the Director? A: A producer license suspension is for a period of time deemed appropriate by the Director. B: 6 months C: 12 months D: 3 years.
A: A producer license suspension is for a period of time deemed appropriate by the Director.
If a producer receives a hearing notice from the director relating to a license revocation and the notice is mailed by the Director on July 1, when will the hearing actually take place? A: Between July 21 and July 31 B: Anytime after July 11 C: On July 21 D: On July 31
A: Between July 21 and July 31
What percentage of interest may an insurer charge during a grace period? A: 3% B: 6% C: 9% D: 10%
B: 6%
The total number of continuing education hours a producer must complete within the two year license renewal period is which of the following? A: 12 hours B: 20 hours C: 24 hours D: 30 hours
C: 24 hours
Under advertising regulations, ads regarding successive enrollment must be at least: A: 2 months apart B: 12 months apart C: 6 months apart D: 1 week apart
C: 6 months apart
Which of the following is a violation Under Life Solicitation Rule? A: An agent uses a coffee shop gift card as inducement to buy a policy. B: An agent gives an applicant a buyer's guide before initial premium payment. C: A financial advisor writes a life policy for an applicant without disclosing their role as the agent in the process. D: An agent guarantees a dividend payment.
C: A financial advisor writes a life policy for an applicant without disclosing their role as the agent in the process.
The Waiver of Premium with Disability Income rider can be added at extra cost to a policy. What will determine how much disability income is paid with a qualifying loss? A: The amount of premium B: The total amount of death benefit C: A percentage of the Face Value D: A predetermined amount in the rider.
C: A percentage of the Face Value
The annual license fee for a certified provider is A: $500 per year plus $50 for each course certified B: $2,000 C: $1,000 D: $1,000 plus $20 for each certified course renewal
D: $1,000 plus $20 for each certified course renewal
What is the largest dollar civil penalty that will be assessed for a single act of defamation? A: $1,000 B: $2,500 C: $5,000 D: $10,000
D: $10,000
At his license revocation hearing, producer Q is found to have violated fifteen separate causes of conduct each of each is sufficient cause for license revocation. What is the maximum civil penalty that could be imposed on Q for these actions? A: $1,000 B: $5,000 C: $10,000 D: $100,000
D: $100,000
In 2013 a producer is notified that the calendar year records of their Premium Fund Trust Account will be audited. The producer may have to supply records for each calendar year going back to what year? A: 2009 B: 2008 C: 2007 D: 2006
D: 2006
Whole Life insurance where premiums are due for a specified number of years that is shorter than one's entire life is called A: Single Premium Whole Life B: Straight Whole Life C: Ordinary Pay D: Limited Pay
D: Limited Pay
G has a credit life policy and is replacing that with a whole life policy. The agent must: A: formally replace coverage and include all forms to the insured B: notify the existing insurer with a notice regarding replacement form C: sign the application and forward all signed documents to the replacing insurer to send to the existing insurer D: None of the Above
D: None of the Above
Each of the following is true regarding a Joint Life policy EXCEPT: A: It insures two or more lives at the same time. B: It insures two or more lives under one policy. C: It pays the death benefit when the first insured dies. D: Only one insured must be healthy for the policy to be issued.
D: Only one insured must be healthy for the policy to be issued.
J has just purchased a whole life policy on her 5 year old daughter to protect her insurability and to start building cash value while she is young. Unfortunately, J has become permanently disabled but the policy's premiums are waived until her daughter attains age 21. Which rider would allow this to happen? A: Waiver of Premium with Disability Income Rider B: Guaranteed Insurability Rider C: Waiver of Premium D: Payor Benefit Rider
D: Payor Benefit Rider
R and D are a wealthy married couple and are planning for how their estate will be handled once they die. A concern for R and D is estate tax. Which policy would be a great option to help pay estate taxes when the last spouse dies? A: Joint Life B: Whole Life C: Annuity D: Survivorship Life
D: Survivorship Life
All of the following statements are true regarding Accelerated Benefits EXCEPT: A: The department of insurance must review all policy forms. B: The insurer can require medical evidence proof of a qualifying condition. C: Accelerated Benefits can be paid in lump sum. D: The remaining death benefit can be reduced by 75% after the accelerated benefits are deducted.
D: The remaining death benefit can be reduced by 75% after the accelerated benefits are deducted.
Variable Whole Life requires a: A: Flexible Premium B: Fixed and Level Premium C: A guaranteed interest rate D: All of the Above
B: Fixed and Level Premium
If a client is turned down for a life policy and one of the factors for being declined was credit, who must send the insured a copy of their credit report? A: The insurer B: The FTC C: The original credit reporting agency D: The Department of Insurance
C: The original credit reporting agency
The party who is responsible for assuring that a producer surety bond is effect as required and for the correct amount is A: The agency the producer works for. B: The producer's insurance company. C: The producer. D: The Director of Insurance.
C: The producer.
In a 3-year-old policy that is being reinstated, the Incontestable clause pertains to statements made on which of the following documents? A: The application for the original policy B: The application for reinstatement C: The original policy's riders and endorsements D: The original policy's insuring agreement
B: The application for reinstatement
K has a life insurance policy that allows him to skip premium payments but still keeps the policy in force. What type of policy does K have? A: Term Life B: Straight Whole Life C: Universal Life D: All of the Above
C: Universal Life
If an insurer has a right to renew a contract along with the insured this is known as a: A: contract of adhesion B: unilateral contract C: bilateral contract D: voluntary contract
C: bilateral contract
If a producer is found guilty of defamation, their producer license may be suspended, revoked or denied and additionally they may be assessed a civil penalty of A: up to $5,000 for a business offense. B: up to $1,000 for violating a cease and desist order of the Director. C: from $200 to $10,000. D: a minimum of $1,000 to a maximum of $10,000.
C: from $200 to $10,000.
Combination/Variation Plans insure: A: Groups B: Two or More lives under one contract C: Two or more people under separate contracts D: are a form of variable life insurance
B: Two or More lives under one contract
An insured has recently joined the Marine Corp and their insurance company has indicated to the insured that an increase in premium will result from this action. The insurance company A: is well within their rights to raise premium based on induction to military service as this represents a greater risk to the insurer. B: is allowed to increase rates based on military service in certain policy types. C: may face action by the Director because this is an example of an unfair claims practice. D: may face action by the Director because this is an example of unfair discrimination.
D: may face action by the Director because this is an example of unfair discrimination.
A producer must be licensed in securities to sell any of the following policies EXCEPT: A: Equity Index B: Variable Life C: Variable Whole Life D: Variable Universal Life
A: Equity Index
If a producer charges a service fee in addition to being paid a commission for a sale of insurance, what is required of the producer in such an instance? A: If the total compensation will exceed 10% of the annual premium amount there must be a written disclosure document signed by the producer and the applicant for insurance. B: If the total compensation will exceed 10% of the monthly premium amount there must be a written disclosure document signed by the producer and the applicant for insurance. C: The producer must provide written disclosure to the insurance applicant. D: To report the producer's illegal activity to the Director because such a fee is illegal to collect from a prospective insured.
A: If the total compensation will exceed 10% of the annual premium amount there must be a written disclosure document signed by the producer and the applicant for insurance.
For open accounts receivable upon which a balance is due to the insurer, what is the maximum service charge a producer may assess to encourage timely payment within specified periods of 90 days of less? A: $20 B: 1.5% per month on the balance due. C: 1% per month on the balance due. D: 1.5% per year on he balance due.
B: 1.5% per month on the balance due.
When a producer is examined for non-financial market conduct, how many days from the filing of a duplicate copy of a written examination report does the producer have in which to request, in writing, a hearing on the matter? A: 10 days B: 14 days C: 20 days D: 30 days
B: 14 days
A Viator has decided to rescind a deal after payment has been made. How many days does a Viator in this situation have? A: 30 days B: 15 days C: 10 days D: It is too late
B: 15 days
A policy is purchased by direct response when must the policy summary be supplied? A: Before paying a premium B: At policy delivery C: At policy delivery if payment was not made with application D: At the policy's first anniversary
B: At policy delivery
All of the following is an example of an unfair practice EXCEPT: A: An applicant being denied based on military experience B: An applicant being denied based off partial blindness C: An applicant being denied for being a sky dive instructor D: An applicant being denied solely for being disabled.
C: An applicant being denied for being a sky dive instructor
Each of the following is a requirement for a Life, Health, Property and Casualty prelicensing course, EXCEPT: A: The licensing candidate must spend 7.5 hours in class per line. B: The licensing candidate must complete a 20 hour course per line. C: An exam proctored by a course provider must be successfully passed before a prelicensing course is successfully completed. D: An exam that is graded by a course provider must be passed before a prelicensing course is successfully completed.
C: An exam proctored by a course provider must be successfully passed before a prelicensing course is
Except for direct response insurance, an insurance company MUST give all prospective insureds a Buyer's Guide at which of the following times? A: When the policy application is signed B: At the time of the medical examination C: Before the initial premium or premium deposit D: On delivery of the policy
C: Before the initial premium or premium deposit
Company A has a partnership with Company Z. There is an agreement in place that if the CEO of either company were to die, the other company would receive money to buy out the partnership. This is an example of: A: Buy/Sell Agreement B: Crosse Purchase plan C: Business Entity Plan D: Key Person
C: Business Entity Plan
Which of the following is considered to be part of the Entire Contract? A: Declarations Page B: Buyers Guide C: Copy of the Application D: All of the Above
C: Copy of the Application
Renewal commissions are also called A: Residual income B: Referral income C: Deferred compensation D: Repeat revenue
C: Deferred compensation
In a life insurance policy, which of the following parts of the policy indicates that the insurance company promises to pay the Death Benefit as long as the insured pays their premiums on time? A: Beneficiary provision B: Incontestability provision C: Insuring Clause D: Premium Payment clause
C: Insuring Clause
J has a life policy with the Guaranteed Insurability rider. J has just celebrated their 42nd birthday and realizes that she wants to use her rider and buy more death benefit. Which of the following will apply to J's request? A: The insurer will allow J to add more insurance without proving insurability. B: The insurer will allow J to add more insurance pending a paramedical exam. C: The insurer will deny J's request to add more insurance. D: The insurer will allow J to add more coverage pending proof of insurability and extra premium.
C: The insurer will deny J's request to add more insurance.
K has a universal life policy and has a $200,000 death benefit. K has fallen on hard economic times and decided to take out $50,000 of the policy while still keeping $150,000 of death benefit. K has no intention of paying it back and therefore has: A: taken a loan B: surrendered the policy C: taken a partial surrender D: taken their long term care rider
C: taken a partial surrender
How many days does the Director have to issue a final written order once a hearing has been held pertaining to a market conduct examination? A: Within 20 to 30 days B: 30 days C: 60 days D: 90 days
D: 90 days
Which of the following is not true regarding a renewable option on a term policy? A: The policy must be renewed regardless of insurability. B: The rates cannot be more than standard rates at renewal. C: Premiums are based off of attained age rates. D: A policy can be renewed, however, the insured must convert to a different policy.
D: A policy can be renewed, however, the insured must convert to a different policy.
Which of the following is required to be listed in an illustration? A: Age and sex of proposed insured B: Initial death benefit C: Dividend option of non-guaranteed elements D: All of the Above
D: All of the Above
If a policy is being replaced, when must the agent forward the notice regarding replacement form to the replacing insurer? A: Once the replacement policy is approved. B: The agent only sends the notice in if initial consideration takes place. C: The agent only has to send it in if the insured asks the agent. D: At the time of replacement application.
D: At the time of replacement application.
What is the smallest dollar civil penalty that will be assessed for a single act of misrepresentation? A: $200 B: $500 C: $1,000 D: $10,000
A: $200
The resident licensing fee for a Limited Lines Car Rental license is A: $50 every year B: $180 every two years C: $50 every two years D: $250 every year.
B: $180 every two years
What action must the Director take toward the subject of a completed market conduct examination? A: Allow the subject at least 30 days to request a hearing. B: Notify the person examined of the contents of a verified report before it is made public. C: Issue a final written order immediately if any code violation is found during the examination. D: Any violation will result in a civil fine ranging from $1,000 to $50,000.
B: Notify the person examined of the contents of a verified report before it is made public.
The purpose of the MEC 7 pay test is to: A: Prevent insureds from buying life policies. B: Prevent insureds from building cash values quickly to gain tax deferred interest while limiting taxes on withdrawals. C: Kill the Single Premium life market because it was too expensive for policyholder. D: Prevent insurance companies to write policies as they see fit.
B: Prevent insureds from building cash values quickly to gain tax deferred interest while limiting taxes on withdrawals.
Each of the following is an unfair claims practice by an insurance company, EXCEPT: A: Failing to acknowledging important communications regarding claims filed in a timely manner. B: Supplying brochures to claimants that indicate a competitor is in a precarious financial position. C: Purposefully misrepresenting important policy coverage and provisions to all claimants. D: Not supplying claims forms with proper instructions regarding their completion.
B: Supplying brochures to claimants that indicate a competitor is in a precarious financial position.
Which entity listed below has the authority to issue a limited lines producer license? A: The Illinois Insurance Board B: The Director C: Fire D: An insurance company
B: The Director
All of the following statements pertaining to a surety bond and an association are true, EXCEPT: A: Producers can meet the bond requirement with a bond in the name of an association. B: The association must be in existence for at least 7 years C: The association must have common membership. D: The association must have been formed for a purpose other than obtaining a bond.
B: The association must be in existence for at least 7 years
What is the tax consideration for taking a cash dividend option? A: The dividend is fully taxable as income B: The dividend is paid tax free C: Depending on income bracket of the insured, the dividend may be taxable D: If the company gets to keep half of the dividend it is take free
B: The dividend is paid tax free
F, a producer in Illinois for twenty years failed to finish his entire continuing education requirement by his license renewal date. Which of the following will likely happen to F's producer license. A: Nothing, there is an automatic 30 day grace period. B: The producer license will lapse automatically. C: A producer holding a license in Illinois for 20 years or longer automatically is licensed for the remainder of his or her lifetime without a renewal requirement. D: Nothing there is an automatic 12 month grace period since F has been licensed for such a long time.
B: The producer license will lapse automatically.
A Survivorship life policy insures two or more lives and the same time and pays death benefit: A: When the first insured dies B: When the last insured dies C: When the owner of the policy dies D: When the beneficiary dies
B: When the last insured dies
All of the following disbursements from a Premium Fund Trust Account are legally allowed, EXCEPT: A: returned premiums due to an insured. B: the payment of rent for the insurance agency. C: commissions to producers. D: bank fees.
B: the payment of rent for the insurance agency.
The civil fine amount that may be imposed for not complying with a lawful subpoena of the Director is A: 500 B: 1000 C: 2000 D: 5000
C: 2000
Which of the following statements about producer license termination is NOT accurate? A: Revocation can also lead to imposing a civil penalty of up to $10,000 per cause. B: A denial of license precludes the producer from reapplying for a producer license for a minimum of three years. C: A person who has their producer license terminated would still be able to work for an insurance company in a non-sales position. D: Upon license termination, the producer is entitled to a hearing, upon written request, on the matter before the order of the Director is final.
C: A person who has their producer license terminated would still be able to work for an insurance company in a non-sales position.
An insured has a policy with a Waiver of Premium rider. The insured has suffered an illness that will prevent them for working for two years. When will their premiums be waived? A: Immediately B: After the first nine months of disability C: After the first six months of disability D: Never, premiums cannot be waived because illness is not a disability.
C: After the first six months of disability
Under Social Security, when do dependent parent survivor benefits begin? A: age 59 1/2 B: whenever the insured dies, regardless of age C: Age 62 or older D: age 25
C: Age 62 or older
The Slez E insurance agency has their Premium Fund Trust Account audited by the Department of Insurance and $3,000 is missing and unaccounted for. Which of the following is the legal presumption in this scenario? A: It is deemed an accounting error which is allowed to be corrected within 3 business days of the audit. B: Restitution within 7 business days is required. C: It is presumed the licensee responsible for the money has misappropriated it. D: The account holder has 30 days to replace the money without penalty.
C: It is presumed the licensee responsible for the money has misappropriated it.
All of the following are true regarding the Guaranty Association EXCEPT: A: A claimant may receive less benefits than what they had from a policy. B: The Association is comprised of All member insurers C: The Association is comprised of All member insurers and have a right to end membership while still transacting business in IL D: There is a $250,000 limit on the present value of annuity benefits.
C: The Association is comprised of All member insurers and have a right to end membership while still transacting business in IL
The regulation that requires a producer to reveal their name and the name of the insurer or firm that they are representing when soliciting the sale of an insurance policy is called A: The Replacement Rule B: The Unfair Trade Practice Act C: The Disclosure Rule D: The Insurance Fraud Prevention Act
C: The Disclosure Rule
Under Regulation 919, what is the length of time an insurance company is required to keep detailed claims records? A: The current and previous year. B: The past 12 month period C: The current and past two years. D: The previous five years.
C: The current and past two years.
When K applied for a policy, he misstated his age. A few years after the policy has been issued, K is still alive and the company has found the misrepresentation. Which of the following is most likely to occur? A: The insurer will cancel the policy and refund all premiums. B: The death benefit will be adjusted. C: The insurer has the option what action to take. D: The premiums are adjusted.
C: The insurer has the option what action to take.
If an insured leaves a group they are allowed to convert their group coverage to an individual policy within ______ days. A: 30 B: 15 C: 40 D: 31
D: 31
IRA's are: A: Available to anyone B: Available to anyone that has a 401K C: Available to anyone with earned income D: Available to anyone with earned income who has not attained age 70 1/2
D: Available to anyone with earned income who has not attained age 70 1/2
Which of the following statements are CORRECT regarding a grace period in a life policy. A: The grace period depends on the mode of premium. B: The grace period is unlimited and the insured can pay back a policy whenever they are ready. C: The grace period is a rider and must be added to a policy for extra cost. D: If the insured dies during the grace period the proceeds are still paid but the unpaid premium is deducted from the face value.
D: If the insured dies during the grace period the proceeds are still paid but the unpaid premium is deducted from the face value.
Which of the following is true about a long term care rider? A: It will decrease premiums B: It will pay nursing benefits in addition to the death benefit. C: The agent must write the Long Term Care Rider as a separate policy. D: If the insured uses the LTC rider benefit, it will be deducted from the proceeds when the insured dies.
D: If the insured uses the LTC rider benefit, it will be deducted from the proceeds when the insured dies.
Which of the following sales is classified as controlled business? A: A producer places a one million dollar life policy on the life of his employer B: A producer places a one million dollar life policy on the life of his son C: A producer places a one million dollar life policy on the life of his niece D: A producer places a one million dollar life policy on the life of his neighbor
A: A producer places a one million dollar life policy on the life of his employer
Selling insurance without a license without misappropriating premium funds is a A: Class A misdemeanor B: Class C misdemeanor C: Class 4 felony D: not a crime
A: Class A misdemeanor
The clause that defines and describes the scope of coverage and the limits of indemnification is known as the: A: Insuring Agreement B: Incontestable Clause C: Payor Clause D: Entire Contract Clause
A: Insuring Agreement
Under Life Solicitation Rule, the definition that applies to a consumer that is most concerned about death benefit proceeds to be paid upon death is referred to as: A: Life Insurance Net Payment Cost Index B: Life Insurance Surrender Cost Index C: Policy Summary D: Cash Dividends
A: Life Insurance Net Payment Cost Index
If a man or woman explains the difference of one type of life insurance compared with another to a person interested in purchasing insurance, this activity is known as A: Negotiation B: Selling C: Procuring D: Soliciting
A: Negotiation
Which of the following parties have the right to select death benefit Settlement Options? A: Policy owner B: Beneficiary C: The insurer D: None of the Above
A: Policy owner
D has a policy from a participating insurer and receives a dividend. D would really like to increase her coverage without adding premium to the policy. The dividend option D should select is: A: Cash B: Paid-Up Addition C: One-Year Term Option D: Accumulation at Interest
B: Paid-Up Addition
Which of the following Settlement Options in a life insurance policy gives a beneficiary the most flexibility? A: Interest Only B: Fixed Period C: Fixed Amount D: Life Income
A: Interest Only
C has a life insurance policy with an Accidental Death and Dismemberment rider. C dies of an accident. What type of benefit is paid to the named beneficiary? A: Principal Sum B: Capital Sum C: Double Indemnity D: Triple Indemnity
A: Principal Sum
An insured has a term policy that allows them to renew coverage before it expires. The insured purchased the policy when they were healthy but since have developed many serious health conditions. Which of the following will take place? A: The insured will be able to renew regardless of insurability. B: The insured will be denied renewal. C: The insured will renew however, the policy will then be rated. D: The policy will have to be converted to a permanent policy.
A: The insured will be able to renew regardless of insurability.
If a producer is charged with breach of fiduciary duty, in which of the following actions did the producer most likely engage? A: The producer misappropriated premium funds. B: The producer offered to share commission with the insured. C: The producer deliberately misled the insured about the difference in coverage between policies. D: The producer said things to injure the reputation of another producer.
A: The producer misappropriated premium funds.
An employee of an insurance company is instructed by her superior to enter false information in the official company records pertaining to financial matters of the firm. Which of the following statements is true concerning this action? A: This is the unfair trade practice of falsifying records and it is a felony action. B: This is an example of restraint of trade between two insurance companies punishable by loss of certificate of authority. C: This is an example of twisting which is a felony. D: This is the unfair trade practice of falsifying records and it is a misdemeanor action.
A: This is the unfair trade practice of falsifying records and it is a felony action.
Of the following statements regarding a producer hearing to determine whether or not rebating was occurring, which is FALSE? A: Self-incrimination CAN NOT be used as a defense. B: A participant in such a hearing is immune from perjury charges even if perjury is committed in the hearing. C: A participant in such a hearing is immune from prosecution. D: A producer found guilty of rebating can be fined.
B: A participant in such a hearing is immune from perjury charges even if perjury is committed in the hearing.
J has a policy that requires that he meet certain conditions in order for the contract to be enforceable. J has a(an): A: Conditional Contract B: Unilateral Contract C: Contract of Adhesion D: Aleatory Contract
B: Unilateral Contract
A Temporary License (180 days) allows the holder to engage in all of the following activities, EXCEPT: A: a surviving spouse of a producer can use the authority to help effect the sale of the insurance business. B: make certain that insureds are paying renewal premiums in a timely manner. C: ask the Director to extend the authority if an anticipated agency sale is taking longer than 180 days. D: sell a new policy to an existing client.
D: sell a new policy to an existing client.