MATERNAL AND NEWBORN SUCCESS chap 11 high risk postpartum

69. 18 mL/hour

69. A client who has been diagnosed with deep vein thrombosis has been ordered to receive 12 units heparin/min. The nurse receives a 500-mL bag of D5W with 20,000 units of heparin added from the pharmacy. At what rate in mL/hr should the nurse set the infusion pump? __________mL/hr.

58. 800 units/hour

58. A client is receiving an IV heparin drip at 16 mL/hr via an infusion pump for a diagnosis of deep vein thrombosis. The label on the liter bag of D5W indicates 50,000 units of heparin have been added. How many units of heparin is the client receiving per hour? __________ units per hour.

10. 1. Puerperal infection is defined as a temperature of 100.4˚F or higher after 24 hours' postpartum. 2. Although clients who develop endometritis will have significantly elevated white cell counts, a WBC count of 14,500 is normal for a postpartum client. 3. Clients who develop infections may perspire profusely. However, diaphoresis is normally seen in postpartum clients, and is not in itself indicative of postpartum infection. ////4. A malodorous lochial flow is a common sign of a puerperal infection.

10. The nurse should suspect puerperal infection when a client exhibits which of the following? 1. Temperature of 100.2ºF. 2. White blood cell count of 14,500 cells/mm3. 3. Diaphoresis during the night. 4. Malodorous lochial discharge.

13. /////1. The client would be expected to complain of pain. 2. The nurse would not expect to see bleeding. 3. The nurse would not expect to note warmth. 4. The nurse would not expect to see redness.

13. Which symptom would the nurse expect to observe in a postpartum client with a vaginal hematoma? 1. Pain. 2. Bleeding. 3. Warmth. 4. Redness.

18. 1. This temperature elevation does not indicate infection. 2. A low pulse rate is expected in the early postpartum period. ,,,, 3. The respiratory rate of 12 is well below normal. Peripartum clients' respiratory rates average 20 rpm. 4. Although the systolic pressure is slightly elevated, a BP of 130/80 is within normal limits.

18. The nurse notes the following vital signs of a postoperative cesarean client during the immediate postpartum period: 100.0ºF, P 68, R 12, BP 130/80. Which of the following is a correct interpretation of the findings? 1. Temperature is elevated, a sign of infection. 2. Pulse is too low, a sign of vagal pathology. 3. Respirations are too low, a sign of medication toxicity. 4. Blood pressure is elevated, a sign of preeclampsia.

19. 1. The client should receive a RhoGAM injection after a spontaneous abortion. 2. The client should receive a RhoGAM injection after a fetal demise. ,,,, 3. The client does not need a RhoGAM injection after the delivery of Rhnegative twins. 4. The client should receive a RhoGAM injection after birth of an Rh-positive baby.

19. The nurse is discharging four Rh-negative clients from the maternity unit. The nurse knows that further teaching is needed when the client who had which of the following deliveries asks why she has not received her RhoGAM? 1. Abortion at 10 weeks' gestation. 2. Fetal demise at 24 weeks' gestation. 3. Birth of Rh-negative twins at 35 weeks' gestation. 4. Delivery of a 40-week-gestation Rh-positive baby.

24.,,,,,, 1. Foul-smelling lochia is a sign of endometritis. 2. The nurse can assist the client with actions to relieve breast engorgement. 3. The nurse can assist the client with actions to relieve cracked nipples. 4. The nurse can assist the client with actions to relieve hemorrhoid pain.

24. A client is postpartum 24 hours from a spontaneous vaginal delivery with rupture of membranes for 42 hours. Which of the following signs/symptoms should the nurse report to the client's health care practitioner? 1. Foul-smelling lochia. 2. Engorged breasts. 3. Cracked nipples. 4. Cluster of hemorrhoids.

28. 1. This blood pressure shows that no adverse side effects have resulted from the administration of the medication. One side effect of the medication is an elevation in blood pressure. 2. Pulse rate is unrelated to the administration of the medication. ,,,, 3. The fundal response indicates that the medication was effective in contracting the uterus. 4. The prothrombin time is unrelated to the administration of the medication.

28. A nurse has administered Methergine (methylergonovine) 0.2 mg po to a grand multipara who delivered vaginally 30 minutes earlier. Which of the following outcomes indicates that the medication is effective? 1. Blood pressure 120/80. 2. Pulse rate 80 bpm and regular. 3. Fundus firm at umbilicus. 4. Increase in prothrombin time.

29. 1. Both the spinal anesthesia and the epidural anesthesia client are at high risk for developing pruritus. 2. Both the spinal anesthesia and the epidural anesthesia client are at high risk for developing nausea. ,,,, 3. The client who has had the spinal anesthesia is much more likely to develop a postural headache than a client who had epidural anesthesia. 4. Both the spinal anesthesia and the epidural anesthesia client are at high risk for developing respiratory depression.

29. A nurse on the postpartum unit is caring for two postoperative cesarean clients. One client had spinal anesthesia for the delivery while the other client had an epidural. Which of the following complications will the nurse monitor the spinal client for that the epidural client is much less high risk for? 1. Pruritus. 2. Nausea. 3. Postural headache. 4. Respiratory depression.

36.,,,,, 1. The client with a placenta accreta is high risk for a large blood loss. 2. Placenta accreta is not related to a hypertensive state. 3. Placenta accreta is not related to the development of jaundice. 4. The nurse would not expect to detect a shortened prothrombin time when a client has a placenta accreta.

36. The nurse is circulating on a cesarean delivery of a G5P4004. All of the client's previous children were delivered via cesarean section. The physician declares after delivering the placenta that it appears that the client has a placenta accreta. Which of the following maternal complications would be consistent with this diagnosis? 1. Blood loss of 2000 mL. 2. Blood pressure of 160/110. 3. Jaundice skin color. 4. Shortened prothrombin time.

38. 1. A magnesium level of 7 mg/dL is therapeutic. This is an expected level. 2. The serum sodium level is normal. ////3. The serum potassium is below normal. The nurse should report the finding to the physician. 4. The serum calcium is normal.

38. A client is 1-day post-cesarean delivery for eclampsia. The client is receiving 5% dextrose in 1⁄2 normal saline IV at 125 cc/hr and magnesium sulfate IV via infusion pump. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse report to the surgeon? 1. Serum magnesium 7 mg/dL. 2. Serum sodium 136 mg/dL. 3. Serum potassium 3.0 mg/dL. 4. Serum calcium 9 mg/dL.

39. 1. Breastfeeding is contraindicated when a mother is HIV positive. 2. It is recommended that HIV-positive clients use condoms for family planning. 3. It is unnecessary to take her temperature every morning. If she should develop a fever, she should seek medical assistance as soon as possible, however. /////4. The client should seek care for a recent weight loss. This may be a symptom of full-blown AIDS.

39. The home health nurse is visiting a client with HIV who is 6 weeks postdelivery. Which of the following findings would indicate that patient teaching in the hospital was successful? 1. The client is breastfeeding her baby every two hours. 2. The client is using a diaphragm for family planning. 3. The client is taking her temperature every morning. 4. The client is seeking care for a recent weight loss.

47.///// 1. The goal of the injection of RhoGAM is to inhibit the mother's immune response. 2. Immune globulin is composed of anti bodies. When a client receives RhoGAM, she receives passive antibodies to inhibit her immune response. 3. Passive antibodies cannot prevent the mi gration of fetal cells throughout the mother's bloodstream. 4. A client's blood type is determined by her DNA. RhoGAM cannot change a client's DNA.

47. The nurse administers RhoGAM to a postpartum client. Which of the following is the goal of the medication? 1. Inhibit the mother's active immune response. 2. Aggressively destroy the Rh antibodies produced by the mother. 3. Prevent fetal cells from migrating throughout the mother's circulation. 4. Change the maternal blood type to Rh positive.

14. 1. This response is inappropriate. The client should not be advised to switch to formula. 2. This response is inappropriate. The client should not be advised to switch to formula. ////3. This response by the nurse is appropriate. 4. This response is inappropriate. The client should not be advised to switch to formula.

14. A breastfeeding woman calls the pediatric nurse with the following complaint: "I woke up this morning with a terrible cold. I don't want my baby to get sick. Which kind of formula should I give the baby until I get better?" Which of the following replies by the nurse is appropriate at this time? 1. "Any formula brand is satisfactory, but it is essential that it be mixed with water that has been boiled for at least 5 minutes." 2. "Don't forget to pump your breasts every 3 hours while you are feeding the baby the prescribed formula." 3. "The best way to keep your baby from getting sick is for you to keep breastfeeding him rather than switching him to formula." 4. "In addition to feeding the baby formula, you should wear a surgical face mask when you are around him."

15. 1. This may be true, but the mother may also be a successful breastfeeder. 2. This action can be helpful, but the placement of the incision will not necessarily determine the client's ability to breastfeed. ,,,, 3. This action is very important. 4. This information is not accurate. Breast reduction surgery often does affect a woman's ability to breastfeed.

15. A woman, who wishes to breastfeed, advises the nurse that she had a breast reduction one year earlier. Which of the following responses by the nurse is appropriate? 1. Advise the woman that unfortunately she will be unable to breastfeed. 2. Examine the woman's breasts to see where the incision was placed. 3. Monitor the baby's daily weights for excessive weight loss. 4. Inform the woman that reduction surgery rarely affects milk transfer

16. 1. There is nothing in this client's history that would indicate that she could not produce breast milk. 2. There is nothing in this client's history that would indicate that she is at high risk for dysfunctional parenting. ,,,,, 3. This client is at high risk for wound dehiscence. Her wound healing may be impaired because of her diabetes and because of her obesity. 4. There is nothing in this client's history that would indicate that she is at high risk for projectile vomiting.

16. The nurse is caring for a postoperative cesarean client. The woman is obese and is an insulin-dependent diabetic. For which of the following complications should the nurse carefully monitor this client? 1. Ineffective lactogenesis. 2. Dysfunctional parenting. 3. Wound dehiscence. 4. Projectile vomiting.

17. 1. After the surgeon is notified, the nurse should stay with the patient while another staff member gathers supplies, including a suture removal kit and personal protective equipment as well as sterile saline solution and a large syringe. ,,,, 2. The highest priority action is to notify the surgeon. 3. The nurse should elevate the client's bed slightly. 4. The nurse should flex the client's knees slightly.

17. A nurse who is called to a client's room notes that the client's cesarean incision has separated. Which of the following actions is the highest priority for the nurse to perform? 1. Cover the wound with sterile wet dressings. 2. Notify the surgeon. 3. Elevate the head of the client's bed slightly. 4. Flex the client's knees.

27. 1. This client must be assessed—she likely has a urinary tract infection (UTI)—but another client should be checked first. 2. This client must be assessed—although her blood loss is within normal limits— but another client should be checked first. ,,,,, 3. This client should be assessed first. The hemoglobin level is well below normal. 4. This client must be assessed—she is likely engorged—but another client should be checked first.

27. A nurse is working on the postpartum unit. Which of the following patients should the nurse assess first? 1. PP1 from vaginal delivery complains of burning on urination. 2. PP1 from forceps delivery with blood loss of 500 mL at time of delivery. 3. PP3 from vacuum delivery with hemoglobin of 7.2 g/dL. 4. PO3 from cesarean delivery complains of firm and painful breasts.

3. ////1. Hemabate can cause nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and hyperthermia. 2. Hypotension and respiratory collapse are not associated with Hemabate. 3. Anasarca and fluid volume overload are not associated with Hemabate. 4. Palpitations, anxiety, and insomnia are not associated with Hemabate.

3. A client has just received Hemabate (carboprost) because of uterine atony not controlled by IV oxytocin. For which of the following side effects of the medication will the nurse monitor this patient? 1. Hyperthermia, vomiting, and diarrhea. 2. Hypotension and respiratory collapse. 3. Anasarca and fluid volume overload. 4. Palpitations, anxiety, and insomnia.

30.,,,,, 1. The client with postpartum psychosis will experience hallucinations. 2. Clients with diabetes mellitus, not postpartum psychosis, are polyphagic. 3. Clients with bulimia induce vomiting. 4. Clients with postpartum blues and/or postpartum depression are weepy and sad.

30. A postpartum woman has been diagnosed with postpartum psychosis. Which of the following signs/symptoms would the client exhibit? 1. Hallucinations. 2. Polyphagia. 3. Induced vomiting. 4. Weepy sadness.

4. 1. This response is not appropriate. It is unlikely that this client is menstruating at 2 weeks postpartum. 2. This response is not appropriate. This client needs to be evaluated. 3. This response is not appropriate. This is an unlikely explanation for the bleeding. ////4. This is the correct response. This client needs to be evaluated.

4. A client, who is 2 weeks postpartum, calls her obstetrician's nurse and states that she has had a whitish discharge for 1 week but today she is, "Bleeding and saturating a pad about every 1⁄2 hour." Which of the following is an appropriate response by the nurse? 1. "That is normal. You are starting to menstruate again." 2. "You should stay on complete bed rest until the bleeding subsides." 3. "Pushing during a bowel movement may have loosened your stitches." 4. "The physician should see you. Please come in whenever you are ready."

48. 1. This client is voicing anger at herself. /////2. This client is exhibiting the bargaining stage of grief. 3. This client is exhibiting signs of depression. 4. This client is exhibiting denial.

48. Which of the following comments suggest that a client, whose baby was born with a congenital defect, is in the bargaining phase of grief? 1. "I hate myself. I caused my baby to be sick." 2. "I'll take him to a specialist. Then he will get better." 3. "I can't seem to stop crying." 4. "This can't be happening."

62. 1. The nurse should monitor the client for signs of infection after the first 24 hours have past. 2. The client is not at high risk for bloody urine. /////3. The client should be monitored carefully for heavy lochia. 4. The client is not at high risk for rectal

62. A woman has just had a low forceps delivery. For which of the following should the nurse assess the woman during the immediate postpartum period? 1. Infection. 2. Bloody urine. 3. Heavy lochia. 4. Rectal abrasions.

77. 1. This client is high risk for uterine atony. 2. The client is not at high risk for hypoprolactinemia. 3. The client is not at high risk for infection. 4. The client is not at high risk for mastitis.

77. A woman has just had a macrosomic baby after a 12-hour labor. For which of the following complications should the woman be carefully monitored? 1. Uterine atony. 2. Hypoprolactinemia. 3. Infection. 4. Mastitis.

82. 1. This response is incorrect. The implants usually do not leach toxins into the surrounding tissue. 2. The glandular tissue of most women who choose to have breast augmentation surgery is normal. 3. This information is incorrect. Implants usually do not affect a baby's ability to latch. 4. This information is true. Women who have had augmentation surgery usually are able to breastfeed exclusively.

82. A woman, who wishes to breastfeed, advises the nurse that she has had breast augmentation surgery. Which of the following responses by the nurse is appropriate? 1. Breast implants often contaminate the milk with toxins. 2. The glandular tissue of women who need implants is often deficient. 3. Babies often have difficulty latching to the nipples of women with breast implants. 4. Women who have implants are often able exclusively to breastfeed.

83. 1. Staphylococcus aureus is the most common bacteria to cause mastitis. 2. Streptococcus pneumoniae is a major cause of pneumonia. 3. Certain strains of Escherichia coli cause severe gastritis. 4. The baby and mother are infected

83. A breastfeeding client calls her obstetrician stating that her baby was diagnosed with thrush and that her breasts have become infected as well. Which of the following organisms has caused the baby's and mother's infection? 1. Staphylococcus aureus. 2. Streptococcus pneumonia. 3. Escherichia coli. 4. Candida albicans.

84. 0.1 mL

84. A client on the postpartum unit has been diagnosed with deep vein thrombosis. The following titration schedule is included in the client's orders: If INR is 1: administer 7500 units heparin subcutaneously (sc) If INR is 1.1 to 2: administer 5000 units heparin sc If INR is 2.1 to 3: administer 2500 units heparin sc If INR is 3: administer 0 units heparin sc The client's INR is 2.6. How many mL of heparin will the nurse administer if the available concentration of heparin is 5000 units per 0.2 mL? __________ mL.

85. 1. Serial grip strengths can be performed to monitor a client for magnesium sulfate toxicity. 2. Kernig's assessment is performed when checking for nuchal rigidity in a client with meningitis. 3. Pupillary responses are performed when a client has had a head injury or is not responsive. 4. Apical heart rate checks are performed when a client has a cardiac disease or is receiving digoxin.

85. A client is on magnesium sulfate via IV pump for severe preeclampsia. Other than patellar reflex assessments, which of the following noninvasive assessments should the nurse perform to monitor the client for early signs of magnesium sulfate toxicity? 1. Serial grip strengths. 2. Kernig assessments. 3. Pupillary responses. 4. Apical heart rate checks.

9. 1. It is unnecessary to monitor the client's hourly urinary output. ////2. This is an appropriate action. 3. It is unnecessary for the client to be placed in this position. 4. It is unnecessary for visitors to leave the client's room.

9. The nurse has administered Benadryl (diphenhydramine) to a post-cesarean client who is experiencing side effects from the parenteral morphine sulfate that was administered 30 minutes earlier. Which of the following actions should the nurse perform following the administration of the drug? 1. Monitor the urinary output hourly. 2. Supervise while the woman holds her newborn. 3. Position the woman slightly elevated on her left side. 4. Ask any visitors to leave the room.

1. 1. This is unnecessary. Gestational diabetic clients need not assess their blood glucose levels during the postpartum. 2. This is unnecessary. Gestational diabetic clients need not inject insulin during the postpartum. ////3. This is an appropriate statement to make. 4. This is not appropriate. Babies rarely develop diabetes before age 2. Plus, juvenile diabetes is now called type 1 diabetes.

1. A gestational diabetic client, who delivered yesterday, is currently on the postpartum unit. Which of the following statements is appropriate for the nurse to make at this time? 1. "Monitor your blood glucose five times a day until your 6-week check-up." 2. "I will teach you how to inject insulin before you are discharged." 3. "Daily exercise will help to prevent you from becoming diabetic in the future." 4. "Your baby should be assessed every 6 months for signs of juvenile diabetes."

11. 1. The mother, not the baby, may develop a macular rash a week after the shot. The baby will be unaffected. 2. There is no evidence to suggest that babies whose mothers have received the rubella vaccine reject their mother's breast milk. 3. There is no evidence to suggest that the mother's breast milk supply will drop. /////4. One out of 4 women complains of painful and stiff joints after receiving the injection.

11. A rubella nonimmune, breastfeeding client has just received the rubella vaccine. Which of the following side effects should the nurse warn the client about? 1. The baby may develop a rash a week after the shot. 2. The baby may temporarily reject the breast milk. 3. The mother's milk supply may decrease precipitously. 4. The mother's joints may become painful and stiff.

12. 1. Feelings of infanticide are not consistent with the diagnosis of postpartum depression. 2. Difficulty latching babies to the breast is an independent problem from postpartum depression. Some mothers with depression are successful breast feeders, while some mothers who do not experience depression have difficulty latching their babies to the breast. /////3. Mothers who experience postpartum depression often do feel like failures. 4. Concerns about sibling rivalry are not related to postpartum depression.

12. The nurse should expect to observe which behavior in a 3-week multigravid postpartum client with postpartum depression? 1. Feelings of infanticide. 2. Difficulty with breastfeeding latch. 3. Feelings of failure as a mother. 4. Concerns about sibling jealousy.

2. ////1. Sudden lower back pain is a sign of a transfusion reaction. 2. This is not a sign of a transfusion reaction. The client may be nervous about receiving the blood. 3. This is not a sign of a transfusion reaction. The client may be nervous about receiving the blood. 4. This is not a sign of a transfusion reaction. The client is likely having a normal bowel movement.

2. A client is receiving a blood transfusion after the delivery of a placenta acreta and hysterectomy. Which of the following complaints by the client would warrant immediately discontinuing the infusion? 1. "My lower back hurts all of a sudden." 2. "My hands feel so cold." 3. "I feel like my heart is beating fast." 4. "I feel like I need to have a bowel movement."

26.,,,,,, 1. This output is below the accepted minimum for 8 hours. 2. This weight decrease following delivery is within normal limits. 3. A 2% drop in hematocrit is within normal limits. 4. This pulse rate is within normal limits.

26. A client, 1 day postpartum (PP), is being monitored carefully after a significant postpartum hemorrhage. Which of the following should the nurse report to the obstetrician? 1. Urine output 200 mL for last 8 hours. 2. Weight decrease of 2 pounds since delivery. 3. Drop in hematocrit of 2% since admission. 4. Pulse rate of 68 beats per minute.

35. 1. This is inappropriate. Naming the baby is a means of acknowledging both the existence and the death of the baby. 2. This is inappropriate. Client's imaginations of what the baby looks like are often much worse than the reality. 3. This is inappropriate. The couple should be provided time to be with their baby before transporting the baby to the morgue. ,,,,, 4. This is appropriate. The small mementos will provide the couple with something tangible to remember the pregnancy and baby by.

35. The nurse is caring for a couple who are in the labor/delivery room immediately after the delivery of a dead baby with visible defects. Which of the following actions by the nurse is appropriate? 1. Discourage the parents from naming the baby. 2. Advise the parents that the baby's defects would be too upsetting for them to see. 3. Transport the baby to the morgue as soon as possible. 4. Give the parents a lock of the baby's hair and a copy of the footprint sheet.

37. 20 mL per dose Formula:

37. Cloxacillin 500 mg by mouth four times per day for 10 days has been ordered for a client with a breast abscess. The client states that she is unable to swallow pills. The oral solution is available as 125 mg/5 mL. How many mL of medicine should the woman take per dose? ______ mL per dose.

45. 1. The woman should not wash with soap. Soaps destroy the natural lanolins produced by the body. /////2. A small amount of lanolin should be applied to the nipple after each feeding. 3. The baby will not become sick from the blood. The woman should be warned that he may spit up digested and/or undigested blood after the feeding, however. 4. Topical anesthetics are not used on the breasts. The woman could receive an oral analgesic, however.

45. The nurse assesses a 2-day postpartum, breastfeeding client. The nurse notes blood on the mother's breast pad and a crack on the mother's nipple. Which of the following actions should the nurse perform at this time? 1. Advise the woman to wash the area with soap to prevent mastitis. 2. Provide the woman with a tube of topical lanolin. 3. Remind the woman that the baby can become sick if he drinks the blood. 4. Get the woman an order for a topical anesthetic.

46. 1. A circumvallate placenta is a placenta with an inner ring created by a fold in the chorion and amnion. Clients with this type of placenta are at high risk for antepartal complications like preterm labor. 2. A succenturiate placenta is characterized by one primary placenta that is attached via blood vessels to satellite lobe(s). Clients with this type of placenta are at high risk for postpartum hemorrhage. 3. A placenta with a vellamentous insertion has an umbilical cord that is formed a distance from the placenta. Since the vessels are unsupported between the placenta and the cord, hemorrhage may result if one or more of the vessels tears. /////4. The battledore placenta is characterized by an umbilical cord that is inserted on the periphery of the placenta. Clients with this type of placenta are at high risk for preterm problems like preterm labor and hemorrhage.

46. A client just delivered the placenta pictured below. The nurse will document that the woman delivered which of following placentas? 1. Circumvallate placenta. 2. Succenturiate placenta. 3. Placenta with velamentous insertion. 4. Battledore placenta.

71. 1. The drop in estrogen is not related to the glucose level. 2. The drop in progesterone is not related to the glucose level. 3. The drop in human placental lactogen (hPL) is related to the glucose level. 4. The drop in human chorionic gonadotropin is not related to the glucose level.

71. The blood glucose of a client with type 1 diabetes 12 hours after delivery is 96 mg/dL. The client has received no insulin since delivery. The drop in serum levels of which of the following hormones of pregnancy is responsible for the glucose level? 1. Estrogen. 2. Progesterone. 3. Human placental lactogen (hPL). 4. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG).

8. 1. Postoperative C/section clients should turn every 2 hours to prevent stasis of their lung fields. 2. Sitz baths are rarely ordered for C/section clients. /////3. Active range of motion exercises will help to prevent thrombus formation in C/section patients. 4. Central venous pressure is rarely assessed in C/section clients.

8. The nurse is developing a standard care plan for the post-cesarean client. Which of the following should the nurse plan to implement? 1. Maintain client in left lateral recumbent position. 2. Teach sitz bath use on second postoperative day. 3. Perform active range of motion exercises until ambulating. 4. Assess central venous pressure during first postoperative day.

20. 1. These findings are not consistent with a diagnosis of DVT. They may be due to a resolving epidural anesthesia. 2. These findings are normal. Many women complain of leg cramping. ,,,,, 3. Even with a negative Homan's sign, these findings—swelling, redness, and warmth—indicate presence of a DVT. 4. These findings are normal. Many women develop spider veins during their pregnancies.

20. In which of the following situations should a nurse report a possible deep vein thrombosis (DVT) even when the woman has a negative Homan's sign? 1. The woman complains of numbness in the toes and heel of one foot. 2. The woman has cramping pain in a calf that is relieved when the foot is dorsiflexed. 3. One of the woman's calves is swollen, red, and warm to the touch. 4. The veins in the ankle of one of the woman's legs are spider-like and purple.

21. 1. This response is inappropriate. The client is not thinking about a future pregnancy at this time. ,,,, 2. This response is correct. 3. This response is not appropriate. The nurse should ask the client if she would like to see or hold the baby. 4. This response is not appropriate. The nurse should ask the client if she would like to see or hold the baby.

21. A woman, 26 weeks' gestation, has just delivered a fetal demise. Which of the following nursing actions is appropriate at this time? 1. Remind the mother that she will be able to have another baby in the future. 2. Dress the baby in a tee shirt and swaddle the baby in a receiving blanket. 3. Ask the woman if she would like the doctor to prescribe a sedative for her. 4. Remove the baby from the delivery room as soon as possible.

22. 1. This action is inappropriate. Breastfeeding is contraindicated when the mother uses illicit drugs. 2. This action is unnecessary. There is nothing in the scenario that implies that the client is having respiratory difficulties. 3. This action is inappropriate. Rather the nurse should encourage mother/baby interaction and provide the mother with parenting education. ,,,,,,4. Providing instruction on baby care skills is a very important action for the nurse to perform.

22. A client, G1P0000, is PP1 from a normal spontaneous delivery of a baby boy, Apgar 5/6. Because the client exhibited addictive behaviors, a toxicology assessment was performed; the results were positive for alcohol and cocaine. Which of the following interventions is appropriate for this postpartum client? 1. Strongly advise the client to breastfeed her baby. 2. Perform hourly incentive spirometer respiratory assessments. 3. Suggest that the nursery nurse feed the baby in the nursery. 4. Provide the client with supervised instruction on baby care skills.

23. 1. Because the baby has Down syndrome, this is an appropriate nursing diagnosis, but it is not the highest priority diagnosis. ,,,, 2. This is the priority nursing diagnosis. Because the baby is macrosomic, the client is high risk for uterine atony that could lead to heavy vaginal bleeding possibly resulting in fluid volume deficit. 3. Although the client is at high risk for infection, it is not highest priority. Infections take time to develop and this client is only 10 minutes postdelivery. 4. Although the client is at high risk for pain, especially from the episiotomy, this is not the highest priority nursing diagnosis.

23. A client is 10 minutes postpartum from a forceps delivery of a 4500-gram Down syndrome neonate over a right mediolateral episiotomy. The client is at risk for each of the following nursing diagnoses. Which of the diagnoses is highest priority at this time? 1. Ineffective breastfeeding. 2. Fluid volume deficit. 3. Infection. 4. Pain.

25. 1. Abdominal striae are stretch marks. They are a normal side effect of pregnancy. 2. Oliguria is a complication that may develop after surgery, but it is not a symptom of paralytic ileus. 3. An omphalocele is a herniation of the intestines into the umbilical cord. It is sometimes seen in newborns. ,,, 4. An absence of bowel sounds may indicate that a client has a paralytic ileus.

25. A client is 36 hours post-cesarean section. Which of the following assessments would indicate that the client may have a paralytic ileus? 1. Abdominal striae. 2. Oliguria. 3. Omphalocele. 4. Absent bowel sounds.

31.,,,, 1. This answer is correct. She should gently massage the area toward the nipple. 2. The woman should apply warm soaks, not ice. 3. The woman should be advised to feed her baby frequently at the breast. She should not be advised to bottlefeed. 4. The woman should apply lanolin (Lansinoh) to sore or cracked nipples, not for a problem of tender hard nodules.

31. The nurse is providing discharge counseling to a woman who is breastfeeding her baby. What should the nurse advise the woman to do if she should palpate tender, hard nodules in her breasts? 1. Gently massage the areas toward the nipple especially during feedings. 2. Apply ice to the areas between feedings. 3. Bottlefeed for the next twenty-four hours. 4. Apply lanolin ointment to the areas after each and every breastfeeding.

32.,,,,, 1. If the woman has manually removed milk from her breasts, her nipples will soften to the touch. 2. If the baby is latched well, he should swallow after every suck. 3. The nurse would expect the baby to transfer 60 mL or more at the feeding. 4. The mother should not squeeze her nipple. The area behind the areola should be gently compressed

32. A woman states that all of a sudden her 4-day-old baby is having trouble feeding. On assessment, the nurse notes that the mother's breasts are firm, red, and warm to the touch. The nurse teaches the mother manually to express a small amount of breast milk from each breast. Which observation indicates that the nurse's intervention has been successful? 1. The mother's nipples are soft to the touch. 2. The baby swallows after every 5th suck. 3. The baby's pre- and postfeed weight change is 20 milliliters. 4. The mother squeezes her nipples during manual expression.

34. 1. This response is incorrect. RhoGAM must be administered within 72 hours of delivery. ,,,, 2. This response is correct. The nurse should not finalize an Rh (negative) client's discharge until the client has received her RhoGAM injection. 3. This response is incorrect. A negative direct Coombs' test means that no maternal antibodies were detected in the baby's circulatory system. The nurse would expect to detect a negative direct Coombs' test. 4. This response is unacceptable. Rh- (negative) clients should receive their RhoGAM injection before 72 hours' postpartum or by discharge, whichever is earlier.

34. A nurse is caring for a client, PP2, who is preparing to go home with her infant. The nurse notes that the client's blood type is O (negative), the baby's type is A (positive), and the direct Coombs' test is negative. Which of the following actions by the nurse is appropriate? 1. Advise the client to keep her physician appointment at the end of the week in order to receive her RhoGAM injection. 2. Carefully check the record to make sure that the RhoGAM injection was administered. 3. Notify the client that because her baby's Coombs' test was negative she will not receive an injection of RhoGAM. 4. Inform the client's physician that because the woman is being discharged on the second day, the RhoGAM could not be given.

40. 1. When a client has DVT she is clotting excessively. She is not at high risk for hemorrhage. /////2. The client is at high risk for stroke if a clot should travel to the brain through the vascular tree. 3. The client is not at high risk for endometritis if she has DVT. 4. The client is not at high risk for

40. A postpartum client has been diagnosed with deep vein thrombosis. For which of the following additional complications is this client high risk? 1. Hemorrhage. 2. Stroke. 3. Endometritis. 4. Hematoma.

81. 1. This action is inappropriate. The woman should apply warm soaks to the breast. 2. The action is appropriate. The woman should breastfeed frequently. 3. The woman should be discouraged from weaning. 4. It is unnecessary for the client to notify the pediatrician. The baby's health is not in jeopardy.

81. A breastfeeding mother calls the obstetrician's office with a complaint of pain in one breast. Upon inspection, a diagnosis of mastitis is made. Which of the following nursing interventions is appropriate? 1. Advise the woman to apply ice packs to her breasts. 2. Encourage the woman to breastfeed frequently. 3. Inform the woman that she should wean immediately. 4. Direct the woman to notify her pediatrician as soon as possible.

33. 1. The results are not normal. This client's blood pressure is markedly elevated and the client is hyperreflexic. ,,,,, 2. The nurse should notify the physician of the signs of preeclampsia. 3. There is no need to discontinue the intravenous infusion. 4. The findings are consistent with signs of preeclampsia. It would be inappropriate to wait fifteen minutes to verify the results.

33. A client's vital signs and reflexes were normal throughout pregnancy, labor, and delivery. Four hours after delivery the client's vitals are 98.6˚F, P 72, R 20, BP 150/100, and her reflexes are 4. She has an intravenous infusion running with 20 units of Pitocin (oxytocin) added. Which of the following actions by the nurse is appropriate? 1. Nothing because the results are normal. 2. Notify the obstetrician of the findings. 3. Discontinue the intravenous immediately. 4. Reassess the client after fifteen minutes.

41. 1. This client is not especially at high risk for seizures. ////2. The client should be monitored carefully for signs of postpartum hemorrhage. 3. This client is not especially at high risk for infection. 4. This client is not especially at high risk for thrombosis.

41. A mother, G4P4004, is 15 minutes postpartum. Her baby weighed 4595 grams at birth. For which of the following complications should the nurse monitor this client? 1. Seizures. 2. Hemorrhage. 3. Infection. 4. Thrombosis.

42. 1. Reglan is an antiemetic. It is not the appropriate medication for this client. 2. Zofran is an antiemetic. It is not the appropriate medication for this client. 3. Compazine is an antiemetic. It is not the appropriate medication for this client. ////4. Benadryl is an antihistamine. It is the drug of choice for this client who has pruritus and a rash.

42. A client who received a spinal for her cesarean delivery is complaining of pruritus and has a macular rash on her face and arms. Which of the following medications ordered by the anesthesiologist should the nurse administer at this time? 1. Reglan (metoclopramide). 2. Zofran (ondansetron). 3. Compazine (prochlorperazine). 4. Benadryl (diphenydramine).

43. 1. Chamomile tea has not been shown to potentiate the affect of Zoloft, but St. John's wart has. //////2. The therapeutic effect of selective serotonin receptor inhibitors (SSRIs) like Zoloft is delayed about 1 to 2 weeks from the time the medication is initiated. 3. This response is incorrect. The medication can be crushed. 4. A 10-lb weight gain is not associated with the medication.

43. A woman with postpartum depression has been prescribed Zoloft (sertraline) 50 mg daily. Which of the following should the client be taught about the medication? 1. Chamomile tea can potentiate the affect of the drug. 2. Therapeutic effect may be delayed a week or more. 3. The medication should only be taken whole. 4. A weight gain of up to ten pounds is commonly seen.

44. 1. The nurse would not expect to see engorgement. 2. The nurse would not expect to see mastitis. 3. The nurse would not expect to see a blocked milk duct. /////4. The nurse would expect that the woman would have a low milk supply. administered to raise the level in the client's blood stream. The medication, which is an anticonvulsant, is being administered to prevent further seizures. The potassium level, however, is well below normal.

44. A breastfeeding woman has been diagnosed with retained placental fragments 4 days postdelivery. Which of the following breastfeeding complications would the nurse expect to see? 1. Engorgement. 2. Mastitis. 3. Blocked milk duct. 4. Low milk supply.

49. 1. This client in high-Fowler's position is no more at high risk for postpartum hemorrhage than a spinal anesthesia client who has been kept flat after surgery. /////2. The nurse would expect the client to complain of a severe postural headache. 3. This client is no more at high risk for a pruritic rash than a spinal anesthesia client who has been kept flat after surgery. 4. This client is no more at high risk for paralytic ileus than a spinal anesthesia client who has been kept flat after surgery.

49. A client is 1 day post-cesarean section with spinal anesthesia. Even though the nurse advised against it, the client has had the head of her bed in high Fowler's position since delivery. Which of the following complications would the nurse expect to see in relation to the client's action? 1. Postpartum hemorrhage. 2. Severe postural headache. 3. Pruritic skin rash. 4. Paralytic ileus.

5. 1. The uterus is contracted. Massaging the uterus will not remedy the problem of heavy lochial flow. ////2. It is important for the nurse to notify the physician. The client is bleeding more than she should after the delivery. 3. An oxytocic promotes contraction of the uterine muscle. The muscle is already contracted. 4. The uterus is at the umbilicus. It is unlikely that it is displaced from a full bladder.

5. The nurse is performing a postpartum assessment on a client who delivered 4 hours ago. The nurse notes a firm uterus at the umbilicus with heavy lochial flow. Which of the following nursing actions is appropriate? 1. Massage the uterus. 2. Notify the obstetrician. 3. Administer an oxytocic as ordered. 4. Assist the client to the bathroom.

50. 1. Vitamin K is the antidote for Coumadin (warfarin) overdose, not for heparin overdose. /////2. Protamine is the antidote for heparin overdose. 3. Vitamin E is not correct. 4. Mannitol is not correct.

50. A client is receiving IV heparin for deep vein thrombosis. Which of the following medications should the nurse obtain from the pharmacy to have on hand in case of heparin overdose? 1. Vitamin K. 2. Protamine. 3. Vitamin E. 4. Mannitol.

51. 1. The client should have a glucose tolerance test done at about 6 weeks' postpartum. Women who give birth to hypoglycemic and/or macrosomic babies are at increased risk of developing type 2 diabetes. 2. There is no indication in the scenario of Rh incompatibility that would require that an indirect Coombs' test be done. 3. There is no indication in the scenario that this client has impaired kidney function and should have a BUN done. 4. There is no indication in the scenario that this client should have a CBC done. There is no indication of anemia or infection.

51. A client, who had no prenatal care, delivers a 10 lb 10 oz-baby boy whose serum glucose result 1 hour after delivery was 20 mg/dL. Based on these data, which of the following tests should the mother have at her 6-week postpartum check up? 1. Glucose tolerance test. 2. Indirect Coombs' test. 3. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN). 4. Complete blood count (CBC).

52. 1, 2, 3, and 5 are correct. /////1. The nurse must check the client's blood type. /////2. The nurse must check the client's name by checking the bracelet and asking the client her name. /////3. The nurse must compare the client's blood type with the blood type on the infusion bag. 4. The nurse must obtain an infusion of normal saline, not dextrose and water. /////5. The time the infusion begins and ends must be documented

52. A client is to receive a blood transfusion after significant blood loss following a placenta previa delivery. Which of the following actions by the nurse is critical prior to starting the infusion? Select all that apply. 1. Look up the client's blood type in the chart. 2. Check the client's arm bracelet. 3. Check the blood type on the infusion bag. 4. Obtain an infusion bag of dextrose and water. 5. Document the time the infusion begins.

53. 1. Preterm labor clients are not especially at high risk for postpartum hemorrhage. /////2. Clients who have had a prolonged first stage of labor are at high risk for postpartum hemorrhage (PPH). 3. Cesarean section clients are not especially at high risk for PPH. 4. Clients who deliver small babies are not especially at high risk for PPH.

53. A nurse is caring for the following four laboring patients. Which client should the nurse be prepared to monitor closely for signs of postpartum hemorrhage (PPH)? 1. G1P0000, delivery at 29 weeks' gestation. 2. G2P1001, prolonged first stage of labor. 3. G2P0010, delivery by cesarean section. 4. G3P0200, delivery of 2200-gram neonate.

54. 1. Hydralazine is administered as an antihypertensive, not specifically as an antiseizure medication. Magnesium sulfate is the drug administered as an anticonvulsant to women with eclampsia. /////2. Hydralazine is an antihypertensive. The change in blood pressure indicates that the medication is effective. 3. The weight loss is secondary to fluid loss. 4. The hydralazine is not administered to treat a headache.

54. A client is 3-days post-cesarean delivery for eclampsia. The client is receiving hydralazine (Apresoline) 10 mg 4 times a day by mouth. Which of the following findings would indicate that the medication is effective? 1. The client has had no seizures since delivery. 2. The client's blood pressure has dropped from 160/120 to 130/90. 3. The client's postoperative weight has dropped from 154 to 144 lb. 4. The client states that her headache is gone.

55. 1. Lochia serosa at 2 weeks' postpartum is unusual, but it does not put the client or her baby in imminent danger. 2. This client is exhibiting signs of postpartum depression. This is a problem that must be remedied, but it does not put the client or her baby in imminent danger. 3. The client's cracked nipples do need intervention, but they do not put the client or her baby in imminent danger. /////4. The client is exhibiting inappropriate behavior when she yells at the baby for crying. The nurse must make additional assessments to determine whether there is any other evidence of abuse or neglect.

55. A home care nurse is visiting a breastfeeding client who is 2 weeks postdelivery of a 7-lb baby girl over a midline episiotomy. Which of the following findings should take priority? 1. Lochia is serosa. 2. Client cries throughout the visit. 3. Nipples are cracked. 4. Client yells at the baby for crying.

56. 1. The nurse should call a code before beginning rescue breathing. 2. The nurse should call a code first and then discontinue the medication. /////3. The nurse should call a code first. 4. The nurse should call a code before checking the carotid pulse.

56. A client who is post-cesarean section for severe preeclampsia is receiving magnesium sulfate via IV pump and morphine sulfate via patient-controlled anesthesia (PCA) pump. The nurse enters the room on rounds and notes that the client is not breathing. Which of the following actions should the nurse perform first? 1. Give two breaths. 2. Discontinue medications. 3. Call a code. 4. Check carotid pulse.

57. 1. Infection, not ineffective breastfeeding, is the priority nursing diagnosis. /////2. Infection is the priority nursing diagnosis. A temperature of 104.6ºF, as well as the client's other signs/ symptoms, should immediately suggest the presence of infection. 3. Infection, not ineffective individual coping, is the priority nursing diagnosis. 4. Infection, not pain, is the priority nursing diagnosis.

57. A breastfeeding client is being seen in the emergency department with a hard, red, warm nodule in the upper outer quadrant of her left breast. Her vital signs are: T 104.6ºF, P 100, R 20, and BP 110/60. She has a recent history of mastitis and is crying in pain. Which of the following nursing diagnoses is highest priority? 1. Ineffective breastfeeding. 2. Infection. 3. Ineffective individual coping. 4. Pain.

59. /////1. A moderate lochia flow would indicate that the action was successful. 2. Decreased pain is not an expected outcome of uterine massage for uterine atony. 3. A stable postpartum blood pressure is not directly related to the action of uterine massage. 4. The expected outcome would be that the uterus is contracted at or below the umbilicus

59. A nurse massages the atonic uterus of a woman who delivered 1 hour earlier. The nurse identifies the nursing diagnosis: Risk for injury related to uterine atony. Which of the following outcomes indicates that the client's condition has improved? 1. Moderate lochia flow. 2. Decreased pain level. 3. Stable blood pressure. 4. Fundus above the umbilicus.

6. 1. It is unlikely that an apical heart rate of 104 is responsible for the client's changes. ////2. The urinary output is the likely cause of the client's changes. 3. It is unlikely that a blood pressure of 160/120 is responsible for the client's changes. 4. It is unlikely that a temperature of 100ºF is responsible of the client's changes.

6. A client has been receiving magnesium sulfate for severe preeclampsia for 12 hours. Her reflexes are 0 and her respiratory rate is 10. Which of the following situations could be a precipitating factor in these findings? 1. Apical heart rate 104. 2. Urinary output 240 cc/12 hr. 3. Blood pressure 160/120. 4. Temperature 100ºF.

60.///// 1. This rationale is correct. Because of an elevation in clotting factors, all postpartum clients are at high risk for thrombus formation. 2. The positive pressure boots improve blood return to the heart by preventing pooling of blood in the extremities. They are not applied to treat hypovolemia. 3. The rationale for the use of positive pressure boots is not related to varicose vein development. Varicose veins would, however, increase a client's potential for developing deep vein thrombosis. 4. The rationale for the use of positive pressure boots has nothing to do with a client's milk ejection reflex.

60. Intermittent positive pressure boots have been ordered for a client who had an emergency cesarean section. Which of the following is the rationale for that order? 1. Postpartum clients are high risk for thrombus formation. 2. Post-cesarean clients are high risk for fluid volume deficit. 3. Postpartum clients are high risk for varicose vein development. 4. Post-cesarean clients are high risk for poor milk ejection reflex.

61.///// 1. Reglan is an antiemetic. It is the drug of choice for a client who is vomiting after surgery. 2. Demerol is a narcotic analgesic. It is not the appropriate medication for this client. 3. Seconal is a sedative. It is not the appropriate medication for this client. 4. Benadryl is an antihistamine. It is not the appropriate medication for this client.

61. A client who received an epidural for her operative delivery has vomited twice since the surgery. Which of the following PRN medications ordered by the anesthesiologist should the nurse administer at this time? 1. Reglan (metoclopramide). 2. Demerol (meperidine). 3. Seconal (secobarbital). 4. Benadryl (diphenhydramine).

63. 1. It is essential that the client never be left alone with her baby. 2. The statement is untrue. There is no set time frame for the resolution of the symptoms of postpartum psychosis. 3. Clinical response to medications is usually quite good. 4. The client's vital signs need not be assessed frequently

63. A postpartum woman has been diagnosed with postpartum psychosis. Which of the following is essential to be included in the family teaching for this client? 1. The woman should never be left alone with her infant. 2. Symptoms rarely last more than one week. 3. Clinical response to medications is usually poor. 4. The woman must have her vitals assessed every two days.

64. 1. Methergine is contraindicated for this client. 2. Magnesium sulfate is the drug of choice for the treatment of severe preeclampsia. 3. Ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug (NSAID). It is an appropriate medication for the treatment of postpartum cramping. It is not contraindicated for this client. 4. Morphine sulfate is a narcotic analgesic. It is an appropriate medication for the treatment of postsurgical pain. It is not contraindicated for this client.

64. A postoperative cesarean client, who was diagnosed with severe preeclampsia in labor and delivery, is transferred to the postpartum unit. The nurse is reviewing the client's doctor's orders. Which of the following medications that were ordered by the doctor should the nurse question? 1. Methergine (methylergonovine). 2. Magnesium sulfate. 3. Advil (ibuprofen). 4. Morphine sulfate.

65. 1. The nurse would expect to see fever, flank pain, and elevated bilirubin levels. 2. If the client were Rh (negative), the nurse would expect to see induration and redness at the injection site. 3. If the client were Rh (negative), the nurse would expect to see mild pain and swelling at the injection site. 4. The nurse would expect to see a hemolytic response, not polycythemia.

65. A nurse administered RhoGAM to a client whose blood type is A (positive). Which of the following responses would the nurse expect to see? 1. Fever, flank pain, elevated bilirubin. 2. Induration and redness at the injection site. 3. Mild pain and swelling at the injection site. 4. Polycythemia, headache, hives.

66. 1. This father is grieving. His anger is appropriate at this time. 2. This action is appropriate. The nurse is acknowledging that every member of the family is grieving the loss. 3. Five-year-old children do not understand death. They do respond to their parents' unusual behaviors. 4. Even though it is very difficult for the parents to deal with their own grief while caring for their daughter, the young girl may feel abandoned if sent unexpectedly to her grandparents.

66. A couple, accompanied by their 5-year-old daughter, have been notified that their 32-week-gestation fetus is dead. The father is yelling at the staff. The mother is crying uncontrollably. The 5-year-old is banging the head of her doll on the floor. Which of the following nursing actions is appropriate at this time? 1. Tell the father that his behavior is inappropriate. 2. Sit with the family and quietly communicate sorrow at their loss. 3. Help the couple to understand that their daughter is acting inappropriately. 4. Encourage the couple to send their daughter to her grandparents.

67. 1. This statement is inappropriate. Any defect is devastating for the parents to accept. 2. This statement is inappropriate. This child is affected. That is all that matters. 3. This statement is inappropriate. The nurse must not impose his or her beliefs on the couple. 4. This statement is appropriate. Clients may need help or permission to express their grief.

67. The nurse is caring for a client, G3P2002, whose infant has been diagnosed with a treatable birth defect. Which of the following is an appropriate statement for the nurse to make? 1. "Thank goodness. It could have been untreatable." 2. "I'm so happy that you have other children who are healthy." 3. "These things happen. They are the will of God." 4. "It is appropriate for you to cry at a time like this."

68. 1. This statement by the mother may be a true statement, but it may communicate the mother's difficulty with accepting her baby. 2. This statement is an example of positive maternal bonding. 3. This statement is an example of positive maternal bonding. 4. This statement is an example of positive maternal bonding.

68. A client has given birth to a baby girl with a visible birth defect. Which of the following maternal responses would lead the nurse to suspect poor mother-infant bonding? 1. The mother states, "I'm so tired. Please feed the baby in the nursery for me." 2. The mother states, "Her eyes look like mine, but her chin is her Dad's." 3. The mother says, "We have decided to name her Sarah after my mother." 4. The mother says, "I breastfed her. I still need help swaddling her, though."

7. 1. The client should not be placed flat in bed. Her bed should be placed in the Sims position to enable her to aerate well. 2. There is nothing in the scenario that suggests that this client is high risk for dependent edema. /////3. It is important for the nurse to auscultate the client's lung fields every 4 hours to assess for rales. 4. There is nothing in the scenario that suggests that this client is high risk for an alteration in reflex response.

7. A client received general anesthesia during her cesarean section 4 hours ago. Which of the following postpartum nursing interventions is important for the nurse to make? 1. Place the client flat in bed. 2. Assess for dependent edema. 3. Auscultate lung fields. 4. Check patellar reflexes.

70. 1. The PT is normal. For someone taking warfarin, the PT time should be prolonged 1.5 to 2.0 times normal. 2. The INR should be between 2 and 3. 3. The hematocrit is elevated. It should be within normal limits.

70. A client is being discharged on Coumadin (warfarin) post-pulmonary embolism after a cesarean delivery. Which of the following laboratory values indicates that the medication is effective? 1. PT (prothrombin time): 12 sec (normal is 10-13 seconds). 2. INR (international normalized ratio): 2.5 (normal is 1.0-1.4). 3. Hematocrit 55%. 4. Hemoglobin 10 g/dL.

72. 1. It is unnecessary to wean the baby to formula. 2. Optimally, the baby should stay in the hospital room with the mother. 3. It is unnecessary for the mother to pump and dump for 2 weeks. 4. Although the baby could drink milk stored by the mother, this is not the best solution.

72. A breastfeeding woman, 6 weeks postdelivery, must go into the hospital for a hemorrhoidectomy. Which of the following is the best intervention regarding infant feeding? 1. Have the woman wean the baby to formula. 2. Have the baby stay in the hospital room with the mother. 3. Have the woman pump and dump her milk for two weeks. 4. Have the baby bottlefed milk that the mother has stored.

73. 1, 2, and 4 are correct. 1. This is an appropriate action. The baby should be handled with respect. 2. This is an appropriate action. Funerals help clients to achieve closure and to provide others with a means of acknowledging the baby's death. 3. This is inappropriate. The couple must grieve the loss of this child. 4. This is an appropriate action. Although there are some clients who will decline to hold their babies, the action is very important for those who accept the opportunity. 5. This action is inappropriate. Stating that the loss of a baby is for the best is very demeaning and unfeeling.

73. A couple has delivered a 28-week fetal demise. Which of the following nursing actions are appropriate to take? Select all that apply. 1. Swaddle the baby in a baby blanket. 2. Discuss funeral options for the baby. 3. Encourage the couple to try to get pregnant again soon. 4. Ask the couple whether or not they would like to hold the baby. 5. Advise the couple that the baby's death was probably for the best.

74. 1. Ibuprofen is an NSAID. It can exacerbate the action of Coumadin. The client should be encouraged to take acetaminophen, if needed, for pain. 2. This action is correct. Dark green leafy vegetables contain vitamin K. The vitamin would decrease the anticoagulant affect of Coumadin. 3. The client should be advised to avoid drinking grapefruit juice. It may increase the action of Coumadin. 4. The client should be advised to report signs of internal bleeding, such as hematuria. Decreased urinary output would not be expected in a client taking Coumadin.

74. A client is being discharged on Coumadin (warfarin) post-pulmonary embolism after a cesarean delivery. Which of the following should be included in the patient teaching? 1. Only take ibuprofen for pain. 2. Avoid eating dark green leafy vegetables. 3. Drink grapefruit juice daily. 4. Report any decrease in urinary output.

75. 1. Endometrial ischemia is not a complication of a succenturiate placenta. 2. The nurse should carefully monitor this client for signs of postpartum hemorrhage. 4. The hemoglobin is below normal. It should be within normal limits.

75. A client just delivered the placenta pictured below. For which of the following complications should the nurse carefully observe the woman? CHAPTER 11 HIGH-RISK POSTPARTUM 377 1. Endometrial ischemia. 2. Postpartum hemorrhage. 3. Prolapsed uterus. 4. Vaginal hematoma.

76. 1. This is an important nursing diagnosis, but it is not the priority diagnosis. 2. This is an important nursing diagnosis, but it is not the priority diagnosis. 3. Fluid volume deficit related to blood loss is the priority nursing diagnosis. 4. This is an important nursing diagnosis, but it is not the priority diagnosis

76. Which of the following is a priority nursing diagnosis for a woman, G10P6226, who is PP1 from a spontaneous vaginal delivery with a significant postpartum hemorrhage? 1. Alteration is comfort related to afterbirth pains. 2. Risk for altered parenting related to grand multiparity. 3. Fluid volume deficit related to blood loss. 4. Risk for sleep deprivation related to mothering role.

78. 1. This is an important question to ask the client but it is unrelated to her discharge needs. 2. This is an important question to ask the client but it is unrelated to her discharge needs. 3. This is an important question to ask the client but it is unrelated to her discharge needs. 4. The client has had major surgery. The client will need some assistance when she returns home, especially if she has a number of stairs to climb.

78. On admission to the labor and delivery suite, the nurse assesses the discharge needs of a primipara who will be discharged home 4 days after a cesarean delivery. Which of the following questions should the nurse ask the client? 1. "Have you ever had anesthesia before?" 2. "Do you have any allergies?" 3. "Do you scar easily?" 4. "Are there many stairs in your home?"

79. 1. Clients should be warned about consuming alcohol when taking Paxil. 2. Grapefruit is not contraindicated for clients who have been prescribed Paxil. 3. Milk is not contraindicated for clients who have been prescribed Paxil. 4. Cabbage is not contraindicated for clients who have been prescribed Paxil.

79. A woman is receiving Paxil (paroxetine) for postpartum depression. In order to prevent a drug/food interaction, the client must be advised to refrain from consuming which of the following? 1. Alcohol. 2. Grapefruit. 3. Milk. 4. Cabbage.

80. 1. The client should be assessed by her health care practitioner. 2. The client may need a sitz bath, but should be assessed first. 3. It is unlikely that this client has a hidden laceration since her lochial flow is normal. 4. The client may benefit from a narcotic, but should be assessed first.

80. A nurse is assessing a 1 day-postpartum client who had a spontaneous vaginal delivery over an intact perineum. The fundus is firm at the umbilicus, lochia moderate, and perineum edematous. One hour after receiving ibuprofen 600 mg po, the client is complaining of perineal pain at level 9 on a 10 point scale. Based on this information, which of the following is an appropriate conclusion for the nurse to make about the client? 1. She should be assessed by her doctor. 2. She should have a sitz bath. 3. She may have a hidden laceration. 4. She needs a narcotic analgesic.