MCAT Course Test 1 - section 4

Which of the following Gestalt principles helps to explain why we tend to perceive Figure 2 as a black circle with a striped rectangle partially covering it, instead of two black semi-circles with a striped rectangle in between? A. Law of continuity Correct Answer (Blank)

A. According to the Gestalt principle of continuity, we tend to see smooth continuous patterns rather than discontinuous ones; therefore, this law would predict that we will perceive a continuous black circle partially covered by the rectangle, rather than two semi-circles (choice A is correct). The Gestalt principle of proximity states that we tend to group nearby things together; this does not apply to our perception of Figure 2 (choice B is wrong). The Gestalt principle of similarity states that we tend to group similar things together; this also does not apply to our perception of Figure 2 (choice D is wrong). There is no Gestalt law of solids (choice C is wrong).

Which of the following physiological responses is NOT associated with the psychological stress of lying? A. Pupil constriction Correct Answer (Blank)

A. According to the information provided in the passage, the physiological response to the stress of lying appears to parallel the fight-or-flight response; accordingly, an increased heart rate (choice B can be eliminated), increased sweating (choice C can be eliminated), and an inhibition of salivation (choice D can be eliminated) are all physiological responses associated with the fight-or-flight response that would also likely occur under the stress of lying. During the fight-or-flight response the pupils dilate, not constrict; therefore, pupil constriction is not associated with the psychological stress of lying (choice A is correct).

In split-brain studies such as those mentioned in the passage, researchers presented sensory information to both hemispheres at the same time and the patients did not have difficulty responding to questions about this sensory information. This was because: A. unless the sensory information was blocked from one hemisphere both hemispheres could engage in processing, thus mitigating the effects of lateralization. Correct Answer (Blank)

A. If sensory information was presented to both hemispheres then both hemispheres could engage in sensory processing, and thus lateralization effects would not be observed (choice A is correct). The experimental conditions were not, in fact, such that both hemispheres were required for processing; information was presented to one hemisphere at a time (choice B is wrong). The use of epileptic patients and non-native speakers is not related to the lateralization effects demonstrated in the split-brain studies (choice C and choice D are wrong).

If a grocery store clerk diagnosed with schizophrenia were to adamantly believe that she was a celebrity, and that the paparazzi had installed cameras in her home to watch her every move, she would most likely be diagnosed with what type of schizophrenia? A. Paranoid schizophrenia Correct Answer (Blank)

A. Paranoid schizophrenia is primarily marked by delusions of grandeur (in this case thinking she is a celebrity) and/or persecution (in this case thinking that she is being watched in her home; choice A is correct). Disorganized schizophrenia is associated with such symptoms as inappropriate affect, extreme social withdrawal, grotesque mannerisms, and bizarre behavior; it does not explain the scenario described in the question stem (choice B is wrong). Catatonic schizophrenia is frequently associated with either complete stillness and stupor, or a high level of agitation and great excitement; this type of schizophrenia also does not explain the beliefs and behaviors of the woman in the question stem (choice C is wrong). Undifferentiated schizophrenia describes types of schizophrenia that do not fall neatly into the other three categories; it does not best explain the clerk's behavior, which more clearly suggests paranoid schizophrenia (choice D is wrong).

In an experimental setting, an infant is consistently able to locate a toy underneath a red box when she observes a researcher placing the toy underneath this red box. When the researcher, in full view of the infant, places the toy underneath an adjacent blue box, the infant incorrectly looks for the toy underneath the original red box. An adherent to Piaget's theory of cognitive development might state that the infant has made: A. an A-not-B error. Correct Answer (Blank)

A. In an A-not-B error, the individual perseveres in looking for an object in a location in which it was previously placed, even with the knowledge that it has been placed elsewhere. This is most common in infants under 12 months of age (choice A is correct). Ambivalent attachment is part of Mary Ainsworth's Stranger Paradigm. Infants with ambivalent attachment show stress when their parents leave, but do not want to be comforted when their parents return (choice B is wrong). Trust-versus-mistrust is the first stage of Erik Erikson's theory of psychosocial development, and does not explain why an infant might incorrectly look under the original red box even after observing the toy being hidden beneath the blue box (choice C is wrong). Conservation, which is a logical thinking ability attained during Piaget's concrete operational stage of development (around roughly ages 7-11), refers to a child's capacity to determine that a certain quantity remains the same despite adjustment of the container, shape, or apparent size; this does not explain why an infant might persist in looking in the first hiding place after a toy has been placed in a new hiding place (choice D is wrong).

Which of the following statements about groupthink is/are true? It can stifle individuality. It is always harmful. It can only occur within small groups of people. A. I only Correct Answer (Blank

A. Item I is true: When it comes to groupthink, individuals often avoid thinking independently because they do not want to upset the status quo. In succumbing to groupthink, group members frequently stifle their individuality as they try to appease others (choice B can be eliminated). Item II is false: Despite its bad reputation, groupthink can sometimes be beneficial; for instance, it can lead to job security for those who choose to conform, as well as productivity within the workplace. Regardless, it is not accurate to state that it is always harmful (choices C and D can be eliminated). Item III is false: Groupthink is often associated with small cohesive groups of individuals; however, it may occur within larger groups as well (choice A is correct).

Many health disparities exist among social groups in the United States based on sociodemographic characteristics, including gender. For example, men have a shorter lifespan and higher rates of death by all leading causes. This can be explained by which of the following? Men experience greater occupational demands and stress as a result of persistent patriarchal patterns of authority in families. The traditional approach to medical research recruited more female than male participants, thus leading to a dangerous misunderstanding of male health. Gender biases present in health care structures cause differences in treatment for the same disease for men and women, and tend to offer more aggressive treatments to save the lives of women. A. I only Correct Answer

A. Item I is true: patriarchal social structures are those in which men, rather than women, are the authoritative members in families. According to the traditional patriarchal structure, men are responsible for providing for their families. Despite the increasing presence of dual-income families, patriarchal attitudes persist and place a disproportionate amount of economic pressure on men (choice B can be eliminated). Item II is false: historically, more medical research studies have been conducted on men than women, thus leading to misconceptions about women's health (choice C can be eliminated). Item III is false: gender biases in health care tend to offer more aggressive treatment to men than women (choice D can be eliminated and choice A is the correct answer). In fact, these biases contribute to the fact that women experience higher rates of both chronic and acute illnesses that are not leading causes of death.

All of the following are true of learned helplessness, EXCEPT that: A. it is often linked to an internal locus of control. Correct Answer (Blank)

A. Learned helplessness occurs when an organism is repeatedly subjected to a negative or aversive stimulus that cannot be escaped or avoided; eventually, the organism will give up trying to avoid or escape the stimulus and behave as though it were utterly helpless to change the situation. Even when opportunities to escape are presented, learned helplessness will prevent any action. Individuals with an internal locus of control tend to believe that they are capable of controlling events in their lives; in contrast, those with an external locus of control tend to feel as though life events are out of their control. Learned helplessness is associated with an external (not internal) locus of control (choice A is false and is therefore correct). Learned helplessness does often result in a cognitive expectation that nothing the individual does will prevent or eliminate a negative or aversive outcome (choice B is true and can therefore be eliminated). It is also true that while learned helplessness is strongly tied to animal psychology and behavior (it was first discovered and demonstrated through extensive experiments with dogs), psychologists believe that learned helplessness also applies to many situations involving human beings (choice C is true and can therefore be eliminated). Psychologists have also theorized that learned helplessness is associated with several psychological disorders, including depression and anxiety (choice D is true and can therefore be eliminated).

Each of the following is a personality trait included in McCrae and Costa's five-factor model of personality (the "Big Five"), EXCEPT: A. optimism. Correct Answer (Blank)

A. Optimism is not one of the "Big Five" personality traits (choice A is correct). The five-factor model of personality traits (the "Big Five") includes: openness to experience, conscientiousness, agreeableness (choice B can be eliminated), extraversion (choice C can be eliminated), and neuroticism (choice D can be eliminated).

While completing a ritual, such as repeated locking and unlocking of the front door, an individual with obsessive-compulsive disorder would most likely feel: A. distressed. Correct Answer (Blank)

A. People with obsessive-compulsive disorder often feel the need to perform certain rituals or routines repeatedly. These individuals are often compelled by intrusive thoughts. An individual compelled to perform behavior repeatedly, such as continually locking and unlocking a door, will often feel distressed by these intrusive thoughts and the need to perform these behaviors (choice A is correct). While performing these rituals can sometimes cause a temporary sense of relief, there is no profound relief for the rest of the day, only a transient sense of relief that may come from temporarily satisfying the intrusive thoughts (choice B is wrong). An individual compelled to perform repeated behavior would have no particular reason to feel content or happy (choices C and D are wrong).

Gender studies have been of interest to scholars of various academic disciplines, including sociologists. Those sociologists who adhere to the functionalist perspective would note that gender stratification and gender roles: A. exist to maximize social coherence; for example, men have instrumental social roles and women have expressive social roles. Correct Answer (Blank)

A. The functionalist perspective, also called functionalism, is concerned with structural processes that maintain social order. Based on this theoretical perspective, social functioning is possible through the independent contributions of individual social structures. Thus, it is expected that sociological theorists interested in functionalism would research the contributions of gender stratification to overall social cohesion (choice A is correct). Functionalists might propose that men and women have separate social roles, which together have social benefits. For example, it might be expected that men are represented in the workplace and that women are represented in the household, both of which contribute to social coherence. In contrast, the remaining arguments are more closely associated with scholars with opposing theoretical perspectives. Discussion of traditions preventing the advancement of women, and capitalism in particular, as well as discussion of power inequalities, is expected from conflict theorists (choices B and C are wrong). This perspective is concerned with structural processes that maintain social inequalities. Discussion of communication, a micro-sociological concern, is expected from interactionists (choice D is wrong). This perspective is concerned with processes of interaction that create social meaning.

Which of the following best theorizes how verbal insight problems most likely activate the wrong set of internal representations? A. Spreading activation model Correct Answer (Blank)

A. The passage describes verbal insight problems as those containing words that tend to activate the wrong set of internal representations. The spreading activation model posits that the mind maintains networks of words that are associated with each other to varying degrees. When one word is activated, those words with the strongest associations to the activated word are also activated. The way verbal insight problems use words that lead to incorrect activations is best explained by the spreading activation model (choice A is correct). Feature-detection theory is a theory of visual perception that proposes that different neurons fire in response to detecting different features; in other words, some neurons fire only in response to vertical lines or motion or contrast. Feature-detection theory cannot explain how verbal insight problems most likely activate the wrong set of internal representations because these problems are word-based and not image-based. While feature-detection theory may help explain how we learn to read, it does not help explain how word problems would trick us the way the verbal insight problems do (choice B is wrong). Weber's Law states that two sensory stimuli must differ by a minimum constant proportion (not a constant amount) in order for us to notice the difference; this law does not explain how verbal insight problems activate the wrong set of internal representations (choice C is wrong). Bottom-up processing suggests that we start with the information gathered by sensory receptors and build up to a final representation in our brain; this type of processing tends to be used more with novel stimuli. It is the opposite of bottom-up processing, top-down processing, that helps to, in part, explain whyverbal insight problems (like the example with Mark Antony and Cleopatra) are so tricky (choice D is wrong).

Studies have shown that the right hemisphere is often critical for the processing of pitch and melody. Based on the passage, which of the following offers a possible evolutionary explanation for right hemispheric processing of music? A. Prosody (or rhythm, stress, and intonation in speech) is also processed in the right hemisphere. Correct Answer (Blank)

A. The passage states that the right hemisphere is "critical for comprehending tone, inflection, and the emotional content of spoken language"; therefore, it makes logical sense that it would similarly process prosody, or rhythm, stress, and intonation in speech. Rhythm, stress, and intonation are also crucial elements of music, thus providing an explanation for music processing in the right hemisphere (choice A is correct). Spatial awareness, though processed in the right parietal lobe and important for playing many musical instruments, is not related to the auditory processing of music in the brain (choice B is wrong). The passage, although it discusses self-recognition, does not give an exact locus in the right hemisphere for this process. In addition, this would not provide an evolutionary link to music development (choice C is wrong). Even though auditory processing takes place in both hemispheres, this does not offer a possible evolutionary explanation for right hemispheric processing of music (choice D is wrong).

The rules that govern appropriate emotional responses vary from culture to culture. These social mores are called: display rules. Correct Answer (Blank)

A. The rules governing emotional displays within a particular culture are called display rules (choice A is correct). Emotional expression is what is being regulated by the display rules (choice B is wrong). Rituals are a series of set activities, which can include gestures or words, that occur in a set place and in a set order; the social rules governing the expression of emotions do not (generally) address the order or place of the emotional display (choice C is wrong). Emotional responses refers to the experience of feeling emotions, which is thought to be innate; there is no such thing as "cultural emotions," per se (choice D is wrong).

Security personnel trained a dog to growl whenever a person appeared on the other side of a car lot fence by using a live cat as the unconditioned stimulus. After several trials, the dog growled every time that a person approached the fence, even without the cat. At that point, use of the live cat was discontinued. After several weeks, the dog ceased to growl at the sight of a person nearing the fence. The owner took the dog to his home as a house pet for several weeks and then brought the dog back to the lot. Which of the following behaviors should the owner now expect from the dog? A. The dog will growl at the next person who approaches the fence. Correct Answer (Blank)

A. This question addresses the classical conditioning theory of spontaneous recovery, which becomes relevant after the process of extinction has occurred. In extinction, the conditioned stimulus is presented consistently without the unconditioned stimulus, and, eventually, the conditioned stimulus loses its excitatory power. However, if, after a delay wherein the conditioned stimulus is not presented either, the conditioned stimulus is presented again, it will elicit the conditioned response. In the case described in the question stem, the live cat is the unconditioned stimulus, the sight of a person approaching the fence is the conditioned stimulus, and growling at the approaching person is the conditioned response. The passage indicates that extinction has occurred when it states that use of the live cat was discontinued and the dog ceased to produce the conditioned response of growling. A delay is implied by the owner's taking the dog to his home. After the dog is brought back to the lot, according to the principle of spontaneous recovery, the dog should produce the conditioned response (growling) when next presented with the conditioned stimulus (a person approaching the fence; choice A is correct). There is no principle of classical conditioning that posits that, given the scenario in the question stem, the unconditioned stimulus (cat) will lose its excitatory value (choice B is wrong) or that the conditioned stimulus will produce a new response (choice D is wrong). The use of an electric shock to stop growling behavior would constitute a positive punishment, which is an operant (not classical) conditioning principle (choice C is wrong).

Complete understanding of object permanence occurs during which of Freud's psychosexual stages? B. Anal stage Correct Answer (Blank)

B. According to the first paragraph, object permanence is attained by roughly 18-24 months. This most closely aligns with Freud's anal stage of psychosexual development, which he postulated to span from roughly 1-3 years of age, when young children are learning how to control bowel elimination (choice B is correct). Freud's oral stage occurs from birth to roughly age 1, which means that this stage would occur before object permanence is attained at roughly 18-24 months (choice A is wrong). Freud's phallic stage (from about 3-6 years) and latency stage (from about 6-12 years) both occur long after the attainment of object permanence (choices C and D are wrong).

Attribution is a concept that addresses how individuals view behavior, both our own behavior and that of others. In the process of reasoning about behavior, there are often errors. The findings discussed in the passage suggest a(n): B. optimism bias. Correct Answer (Blank)

B. According to the passage (paragraph 4), the participants who had more positive predictions for the future of their relationship also reported higher levels of physical aggression. The fact that these participants maintain positive expectations for their relationship despite the presence of problematic behaviors suggests the presence of an attribution bias. The optimism bias describes the belief that bad things will not happen to oneself in the future. This can be applied to the finding that people continue to predict positive changes in their relationship, as opposed to divorce, even in the presence of, for example, aggression (choice B is correct). The self-serving bias describes the attribution of positive experiences to one's own character and actions but negative experiences to factors external to one's own character and actions (choice A is wrong). The just-world phenomenon describes the belief that the world is fair; success or failure is the result of positive or negative behavior, respectively (choice C is wrong). The actor-observer bias describes the belief that one's actions are situational while the actions of others are the direct result of their personalities (choice D is wrong).

Which concept describes a situation in which a pedestrian is required to successfully send a text message while also successfully crossing the street without incident? B. Divided attention Correct Answer (Blank)

B. Divided attention is required when a person must perform two or more tasks simultaneously and attention is needed for the successful performance of each task. Crossing the street and texting are tasks that each require attention to be paid (choice B is correct). Selective attention involves the ability to pick one detail out of many on which to focus, which is irrelevant to a question about performing two tasks (choice A is wrong). Bottom-up processing only indirectly relates to multi-tasking. It occurs when small pieces of information are combined in order to understand more complex phenomena, which might have been relevant to performing the tasks in the question had more information been provided. However, the question does not involve breaking down the two pedestrian tasks into simpler chunks of information (choice C is wrong). Top-down processing only indirectly relates to multitasking as well; it occurs when complex phenomena are broken down into smaller parts in order to understand the parts. Since the question did not include a more complex version of the two behaviors that the pedestrian wanted to perform, top-down processing does not apply (choice D is incorrect).

How could the James-Lange theory of emotion best be explained by the dynamical systems theory concept of emergence? B. Different collections of physiological markers combine to represent distinct emotions. Correct Answer (Blank)

B. Emergence, according to the passage, describes the way that a system composed of many separate elements combines these elements in such a way that the system itself is more complex than the constituent elements themselves. Since the James-Lange theory deals with the way different physiological states represent emotions, this theory of emotion could be explained by the dynamic systems concept of emergence if different collections of physiological markers combine to represent distinct emotions (choice B is correct). Perception of the emotional stimulus being determinative does not bring together different constituent elements, as in the definition of emergence, but is more similar to sensitivity to initial conditions (choice A is wrong). Convergence onto thalamic and hypothalamic structures is prominent in the Cannon-Bard theory, not the James-Lange theory (choice C is wrong). The way that cognition and physiology combine during emotion is a central component of the Schachter-Singer, or two-factor, theory of emotion (choice D is wrong).

All of the following conclusions can be drawn from the data in Figure 1 EXCEPT: B. training interfered with participants' ability to solve problems other than ANPs. Correct Answer (Blank)

B. Figure 1 shows solution rates and correct hypothesis rates for ANPs and OPs for both groups. For ANPs, the training group outperformed the control group in terms of both the solution rate (~70% vs. ~30%) and the correct hypothesis rate (~85% vs. ~45%). In other words, training enabled participants to correctly solve a greater percentage of ANPs than they would have solved without the training (choice A is true and therefore wrong). Additionally, since the control group produced a smaller percentage of correct hypotheses, by definition, it produced a greater percentage of incorrect hypotheses than did the training group (choice D is true and therefore wrong). The OP sections of the chart indicate that the training group performed similarly to the control group, both in terms of solution rate and correct hypothesis rate, which suggests that training did not help participants to break constraints other than ambiguous names (choice C is true and therefore wrong). Nevertheless, since the training group produced the same percentage of correct solutions as the control group on OPs, it would be inaccurate to conclude that training interfered with participants' ability to solve problems other than ANPs (choice B is false and therefore correct).

A bicultural participant in the study above scored a 4.9 on the Extraversion scale in the Asian priming condition. Based on information in the passage, a reasonable conclusion would be that the person is: B. likely to have low BII. Correct Answer (Blank)

B. Figure 2 shows that a bicultural person with a 4.9 on the Extraversion scale in the Asian priming condition would have to have a low BII, not a high BII (choice B is correct, choice A is wrong). Bicultural identity integration is a valid construct across racial groups, but the only group likely to react to an Asian/American prompt set would be Asian Americans (choice C is wrong). The passage states that BII scores were higher for the second-generation participants, presumably due to acculturation. Therefore, the third-generation immigrant is likely to have a cultural identity that is comparatively well integrated and to have high BII. In that case, his or her reaction to an Asian prime would be to evoke the Asian aspects of his/her identity, rather than the American aspects such as extraversion (choice D is wrong).

As they embarked upon deliberations during a trial nine jurors were leaning towards finding the defendant guilty, while three jurors thought the defendant was not guilty. During deliberations the nine who believed that the defendant was guilty tended to confer with one another, while the three who believed he was not guilty also conferred more with one another than with the other nine jurors. This tendency resulted in the jury members all becoming more entrenched in their initial positions than they had been before. This exemplifies what concept in social psychology? B. Group polarization Correct Answer (Blank)

B. Group polarization is the phenomenon whereby groups make more extreme decisions acting together as a group than the individual members would if acting alone. Accordingly, as individuals these jurors believed in their points of view from the beginning, but after they formed oppositional groups they became even more entrenched in their respective positions (choice B is correct). Cognitive appraisal is a process whereby a physiological arousal is assessed in the brain and processed for the appropriate physiological and psychological coping strategies; this concept has nothing to do with the situation described above (choice A is wrong). Informational influence is a group effect whereby individuals look to other members in order to know how to behave in a given situation; it arises from a desire to be correct and to understand how best to act. While this phenomenon may play a role here, as the jury may be trying to be correct and act in the interests of justice, the jury has split into two opposing camps and thus both groups cannot "act correctly" (choice C is wrong). Social categorization is the process by which people sort themselves into categories. While this may be happening here in some small measure as the jury breaks into two camps—those who believe the defendant is guilty and those who believe the defendant is not guilty—it is, again, not the primary effect (choice D is wrong).

Which of the following methods of treatment would likely be more resistant to extinction than the training regime described in the study? Participants are rewarded after each and every situational attribution they make. Participants are rewarded only after making a certain number of situational attributions. The number of situational attributions required before a reward is given is variable. Participants are rewarded after their first situational attribution and for their first situational attribution after each interval is over. After a reward is given, there is a five-minute interval during which no reward is given. II only Correct Answer (Blank)

B. Item I is false: A continuous reinforcement schedule is less resistant to extinction than an intermittent reinforcement schedule (choice A can be eliminated). Item II is true: A variable-ratio reinforcement schedule is more resistant to extinction than a fixed-ratio reinforcement schedule (choice C can be eliminated). Item III is false: A fixed-interval reinforcement schedule is less resistant to extinction than a variable-ratio reinforcement schedule (choice D can be eliminated).

The situational attribution training described in the study is most consistent with which of the following methods of learning? B. Positive reinforcement Correct Answer (Blank)

B. Paragraph 3 states that "participants were trained to make situational attributions by rewarding participants after every third situational attribution they made"; therefore, the encouragement given in the study affects learning through positive reinforcement, as it strengthens a response by rewarding it with a positive stimulus (choice B is correct). Classical conditioning refers to learning as a result of pairing an unconditioned stimulus with a conditioned stimulus; there is no information provided in the third paragraph to suggest that an unconditioned stimulus is being paired with another stimulus (choice A is wrong). Modeling refers to learning based on observing and imitating the behavior of another; again, there is no indication that modeling is occurring in this study (choice C is wrong). Negative reinforcement is the strengthening of a response by removal of an aversive stimulus; the third paragraph states that study participants were given a reward, not that they had an aversive stimulus removed (choice D is wrong).

The Cannon-Bard theory of emotion: B. suggests that our physiological arousal and experience of emotion happen simultaneously and independently. Correct Answer (Blank)

B. The Cannon-Bard theory does propose that the experience of the emotion and the physiological arousal that accompanies that emotion are experienced simultaneously and independently of each other; this was supported by Cannon and Bard's research using cats with severed vagus nerves--the cats still experienced both physiological arousal and fear, even though physiological information from their bodies was no longer being conveyed to their brains (choice B is correct). The Schachter-Singer theory of emotion emphasizes the role that cognitive interpretation plays in our experience of emotion, not the Cannon-Bard theory (choice A is wrong). While the amygdala is largely involved in our experiences of fear and anger, that is not what the Cannon-Bard theory of emotion suggests (choice C is wrong). Nor does the Cannon-Bard theory state that physiological arousal is the most important facet of the emotional experience, since this theory suggests that the cognitive aspect of emotion can still occur without physiological input (choice D is wrong).

A researcher attempts to explain the phenomenon, as described in the passage, that couples who reported greater relationship satisfaction had greater physiological co-regulation. The researcher concludes that the cognitive interpretation of the physiological state of both partners led to their reported feelings of satisfaction. This is most similar to which of the following? B. Schachter-Singer theory Correct Answer (Blank)

B. The Schachter-Singer theory posits that emotional experience is determined by one's physiological state and the cognitive interpretation of that state. This is most similar to the description in the question stem in which couples experience physiological co-regulation and cognitive interpretation (choice B is correct). Emotional intelligence is the ability to control, interpret, and understand one's own emotions and the emotions of others. This is not as specific as choice B in capturing the information in the question stem (choice A is wrong). The Cannon-Bard theory focuses on the central role of the hypothalamus in regulating emotions and is less specifically concerned with physiological activation and cognition (choice C is wrong). The James-Lange theory asserts that emotional experience is primarily based on physiological arousal, and that each different physiological state is associated with an emotion (choice D is wrong).

According to functionalist theorists, which of the following are manifest functions of the health care system in the United States? To maintain and improve the health of people so that all citizens are able to fulfill their normal social responsibilities, thus contributing to social continuity To educate patients about the health risks associated with harmful behaviors, such as the use of carcinogenic substances, thus helping to define normal and deviant behaviors To create medical institutions such as hospital systems, which stand as centers of community values and identity, thus serving to maintain social stability B. I and II only Correct Answer (Blank)

B. The structural functionalist perspective focuses on the contributions of different structures to overall social functions; theorists are concerned with how social structures interact to sustain social functioning. Manifest functions, in particular, are the intended contributions of social structures. Thus, this question is concerned with the purposeful functions of medical institutions, those objectives which the health care system is most concerned with accomplishing and those which are expected to be included in the public statements of all providers. Thus, according to the functionalist perspective, the manifest functions are expected to include the foundational questions of health care, addressing health maintenance and disease treatment. Item I is true: the most fundamental purpose of medicine, as a social institution, is to address the health of individuals (choice C can be eliminated). Furthermore, this item addresses concerns of structural functionalism, such as social norms and continuity. Item II is true: the education of patients, rather than the population in general, is also a core value in medicine (choice A can be eliminated). The physician-patient relationship serves to address health issues, including exposure to harmful substances. Furthermore, the item addresses concerns of structural functionalism, such as social norms, and the definition of deviance as those behaviors that do not fit the social norm. Item III is false: the primary purpose of medical institutions is to address concerns of health and illness (choice D can be eliminated and choice B is the correct answer). However, it is possible that the establishment of hospitals, and the subsequent values integrated into their environments, reflect the norms of the community. This result is better described as a latent function; latent functions are the unintended contributions of social structures. In the case of medicine, latent functions are those contributions that the social institution was not officially designed to offer. Furthermore, the item also addresses concerns of symbolic interactions, such as the hospital serving as a symbol of the community's values and identity.

If the children in the experiment had been offered no material incentive (i.e., no reward chips), how might this have affected the results? B. The experimental results may have been confounded by motivational variables. Correct Answer (Blank)

B. The students were given chips that could be redeemed for toys, presumably to ensure that the children put effort into the pattern-matching tasks. Had no incentive been provided to the children, the experimental results may well have been confounded by motivational variables; the students may have been far less motivated and have exerted less effort, especially on the unsolvable pattern tasks (choice B is correct). Without a reward, the children would likely give up on the harder (unsolvable pattern) tasks more readily (choices A and C are wrong). There is nothing in the passage to indicate that children with an internal locus of control would be less likely to find the matching patterns intrinsically rewarding if no reward of a material nature was provided (choice D is wrong).

Which of the following represents the best way that researchers could have improved their ability to draw conclusions about observed differences in behavior at marked vs. unmarked crosswalks? C. Measuring pedestrian behavior at unmarked crosswalks at specific times of day, on specific days of the week, over time, and then adding signs at these same crosswalks, and measuring pedestrian behavior again at the same specific times of day and specific days of the week, over time Correct Answer (Blank)

C. A within-subjects design would have allowed the researchers to make broader inferences about their results. Even though the current results are significant, it can be argued that the difference between crosswalks was largely due to the differences between pedestrians who used each type of crosswalk. A within-subjects design would allow researchers to examine how the same sample of pedestrians responds to marked vs. unmarked crosswalks (choice C is correct). Informing the public about the study prior to conducting it might make pedestrians behave unnaturally, which would be a limitation since researchers would be unable to predict how pedestrians would behave if crosswalk laws were implemented in other states (choice A is wrong). Measuring pedestrian behavior at different times of the day for each crosswalk would be adding another difference to the study, thereby limiting the ability to claim that the signs are what impacted behavior (choice B is wrong). Increasing the number of crosswalks studied might help strengthen inferences, but nothing in the passage suggests that this was an issue; the passage already stated that the study included a representative sample of crosswalks (choice D is wrong).

Which Eriksonian stage have those bicultural individuals who are able to successfully integrate both cultures into their personality successfully navigated? Fidelity Correct Answer (Blank)

C. As seen in Figure 1, the bicultural individuals who are able to successfully integrate both aspects of their identity probably do so because they have successfully resolved the crisis in the Fidelity stage, which involves the crisis of Identity vs. Identity Confusion (choice C is correct). The primary crisis in the Hope stage is between trust and mistrust, determining whether other people are safe and reliable caregivers, not identity issues (choice A is wrong). The Purpose stage centers on the Initiative vs. Guilt crisis in which children must learn to feel empowered by taking initiative, or guilty for doing so. This is not related to identity (choice B is wrong). The crisis which must be resolved in the Care stage is between generativity, or continuing to grow as a person, and stagnation, rather than identity (choice D is wrong).

The Building Strong Families (BSF) program is a part of a national initiative funded by the United States Department of Health and Human Services. BSF was developed to better understand the effect of well-designed interventions targeted at improving the relationships between romantic partners. Premarital interventions focused on measures associated with marital stability and satisfaction. Free services were provided to unmarried low-income couples. The program also offered financial incentives and additional supports (e.g., childcare, transportation, and meals). However, only 55% of enrolled participants attended at least one session. Models of health behavior might offer which potential explanation for this result? C. Premarital counseling is pursued in the specific context of perceived risk; it is often seen as a method of correction rather than an opportunity to strengthen successful relationships. Correct Answer (Blank)

C. Based on the information provided in the question stem, the program offered many services to help couples overcome barriers to receiving professional counseling, as well financial incentives. For this reason, it appears that participant behavior (e.g., the low attendance rate) was the result of factors internal to the relationship rather than issues with the program. For example, it is possible that some enrolled participants considered their relationship strong and therefore did not pursue the services offered (choice C is correct). Models of health behavior suggest that people often pursue professional interventions as the result of a perceived threat, as opposed to being a preventative step. Furthermore, this conclusion is supported in the final paragraph of the passage, which discusses the role of cognitive biases in pursuing professional services such as premarital counseling. It is possible that the decision to pursue professional services could cause stress; however, this explanation is less applicable to the BSF program, which offered many services to support participants (choice A is wrong). The results of the BSF program do not support the claim that people pursue services when the public is believed to be at risk for a certain problem; for example, the fact that divorce rates are often cited does not appear to have had an effect on the utilization of professional services (choice B is wrong). Finally, while it is possible that the decision of BSF to target low-income couples contributed to the low attendance rates, this conclusion is not supported in the passage (choice D is wrong).

Based on the information in Figure 1, which of the following would most likely cause a deficit in self-recognition, assuming that the subject of the case study exhibits a typical pattern of response? C. A stroke in the right hemisphere, because the patient had a self-identification bias in the right hemisphere. Correct Answer (Blank)

C. Figure 1 shows that the patient was more likely to identify an image as being one of himself when it was presented to his right hemisphere. Accordingly, one can reasonably infer that the right hemisphere was more active in the process of self-identification. Answer choices that include the left hemisphere as the location of the bias can therefore be eliminated (choices B and D are wrong). In order to produce a deficit in self-recognition, which is related to self-identification, the stroke must occur in the same hemisphere wherein the patient exhibited the self-identification bias (choice C is correct and choice A is wrong).

Suppose that a 25-year-old human resources manager at a large company unfairly refuses to provide health care for an elderly janitor. This scenario is an example of: C. individual discrimination against the out-group. Correct Answer (Blank)

C. Individual discrimination is the unfair treatment of a member or members of a particular group, as in the denial of rights or opportunities, by an individual based upon prejudice. Structural discrimination, in contrast, occurs when the established policies or practices of an institution have the effect of denying such rights or opportunities to members of a particular group. The scenario implies that the human resources manager discriminates against the janitor; there is nothing to suggest that the practices or policies of the company are discriminatory (choices B and D can be eliminated). The manager in the scenario engages in individual discrimination against the out-group because he or she does not psychologically identify with the janitor's age group or with his or her rank or position within the company (choice A can be eliminated and choice C is therefore the correct answer).

Based on the information provided in the passage and in Figure 1 and Figure 2, which of the following conclusions are supported by the study results? Compared to pedestrians at unmarked crosswalks, pedestrians at marked crosswalks checked for vehicles less often and stayed farther away from vehicles when crossing the street. Compared to pedestrians at marked crosswalks, pedestrians at unmarked crosswalks stayed farther away from vehicles when crossing the street and checked for vehicles more often. More than half of pedestrians at unmarked crosswalks checked for vehicles before crossing the street. C. II and III only Correct Answer (Blank)

C. Item I is false: While it is true that, compared to pedestrians at unmarked crosswalks, pedestrians at marked crosswalks did check for vehicles less often (based on the information in Figure 1), the pedestrians in marked crosswalks did not stay farther away from vehicles when crossing the street, but rather let the vehicles get closer (based on the information in Figure 2); therefore, this conclusion is not supported by the study results (choices A and D can be eliminated). Item II is true: Pedestrians at unmarked crosswalks did stay farther from vehicles when crossing the street (Figure 2) and did check for vehicles more often than did pedestrians at marked crosswalks (Figure 1); therefore, this conclusion is supported by the study results. Item III is true: According to Figure 1, 61.2% of pedestrians at unmarked crosswalks checked for vehicles before crossing the street, which is greater than half; therefore, this conclusion is also supported by the study results (choice B can be eliminated; choice C is correct).

Suppose it were shown that when the students were given solvable puzzles by the experimenter who had previously given them unsolvable ones, both experimenters were noticeably paying more attention to the students' responses. Under these circumstances, which of the following might confound the results? The bystander effect Social loafing Social facilitation C. III only Correct Answer (Blank)

C. Item I is false: the bystander effect occurs when people fail to help strangers in apparent distress because they assume that another onlooker will do so. This effect does not apply to enhancing or hindering an individual's performance by observing him or her (choices A and D can be eliminated). Item II is false: social loafing occurs when individuals work in a group and put forth less effort than they would have had they been working alone. Since the children are not solving the problems in a group, this concept would not apply (choice B can be eliminated). Item III is true: social facilitation occurs when an individual's performance on a simple task is enhanced by the presence of others. If the researchers are noticeably paying more attention to the children while the latter are trying to complete solvable puzzles, it is possible that this added attention could improve performance through social facilitation. This effect could confound the results of the experiment (choice C is correct).

If researchers wanted to include a participant with severe damage to her lateral geniculate nucleus, they would need to revise the procedure by: C. reading the problems aloud rather than providing the participants with the text. Correct Answer (Blank)

C. The lateral geniculate nucleus (LGN) is the area behind the retina that serves as an intermediate way station for electrochemical signals passed from the retina to the visual cortex of the brain. Accordingly, the vision of a participant with damage to the LGN would be impaired, requiring that the problems be read aloud rather than presented in text form (choice C is correct). Using a visuospatial problem or having participants write their responses would not address the basic deficit in vision caused by a damaged LGN (choices B and D are wrong). Even in its original form, the experiment entailed a verbal problem, not an auditory problem (choice A is wrong).

Based on the design of the study above, what is the most probable reason why parents were blindfolded during testing? C. To prevent the infant from modeling the parent's reaction to the red ball Correct Answer (Blank)

C. The most plausible reason for blindfolding the parents would be to prevent any reaction from the parents that might affect the infant. It is logical to assume that the researchers blindfolded the parents so that no parent would be able to react to the red ball in a way that the infant would notice and imitate (choice C is correct). The researchers were not studying attachment styles; they studied the various reactions of the infants to the red ball (choice A is wrong). The researchers were testing object permanence, not stranger anxiety (choice B is wrong). The infants' reactions to the red ball were what the researchers were studying, not something the researchers were trying to prevent (choice D is wrong).

The current research measured exposure to stress through a questionnaire focused on significant life changes. However, other forms of stress can also have an impact on marital outcomes. Which of the following correctly pairs the type of stressor with a scenario describing that stressor? C. Daily hassles; mortgage deadlines Correct Answer (Blank)

C. There are three main forms of stressors: catastrophes, significant life changes, and daily hassles. Catastrophes are unpredictable large-scale stressors, such as natural disasters, that impact many people to a significant extent. A sudden divorce filing is an example of a significant life change, not a catastrophe (choice A is wrong). Significant life changes are high stress events that occur with greater frequency than catastrophes, such as marriage, divorce, or loss of a loved one. Wartime displacement is an example of a catastrophe, not a significant life change (choice B is wrong). Daily hassles are common irritations in life, such as scheduling errors. A mortgage deadline is an example of a daily hassle, as it impacts individuals regularly (choice C is correct). Ambient stressors are common irritations that are present in one's environment, such as noise or traffic, and can be related to daily hassles. However, moving to another residence is an example of a significant life change, not an ambient stressor (choice D is wrong).

The Implicit Association Test (IAT) was developed at Harvard University to measure unconscious biases that people may have. The subject is presented with words or photos, one at a time, and asked to categorize the stimuli as either "good" or "bad" via the computer keyboard. The associations between the stimulus and the categories of good and bad are measured via the response time; when the requested categorization (e.g., a particular face with distinctive racial features to be categorized as "good") is congruent with the subject's pre-existing bias (if any), the subject responds faster than when the associations do not match. The discrepancies in response time indicate the bias a person has; longer response times indicate more difficulty in matching the pairings. What might the IAT of a bicultural Asian American with a low BII show if she were asked to pair the word "self" with either "American" or "Asian"? C. It would depend on the context that was primed prior to her beginning the IAT. Correct Answer (Blank)

C. Without knowing what priming condition the respondent had been exposed to prior to taking the IAT, it is impossible to assess what the subject's performance would likely be. Had the person been exposed to an American priming condition prior to the IAT, she would likely be faster with pairing the self with the Asian prime, and vice versa, as those with low BII tend to have the opposite cultural identity primed when presented with a cultural prime (choice C is correct). Since we do not know what the priming condition was, we cannot tell if she would have a bias during the American/self or Asian/self pairings (choices A and D are wrong). Since she has a low BII we know that she would show a bias, but that the bias would differ depending on which cultural identity was primed before the IAT (choice B is wrong).

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of major depressive disorder? D. Racing thoughts and "flight of ideas" Correct Answer (Blank)

D. "Flight of ideas", which involves a continuous change in thought content, and racing thoughts are commonly associated with bipolar disorder (a mood disorder characterized by alternating periods of depression and mania), as well as with certain other conditions. They are not associated with major depressive disorder (choice D is not a symptom of major depressive disorder and is therefore correct). A decreased interest in previously-enjoyed activities, a significant increase or decrease in weight or appetite, and impaired concentration or decision-making abilities are all symptoms of major depressive disorder (choices A, B, and C can be eliminated).

In this context a verbal insight problem about a woman described as a "muscular figure with a deep voice and a motorcycle" would likely: D. cause an impasse due to a gender stereotype. Correct Answer (Blank)

D. As explained in the passage, verbal insight problems include constraints that trigger a misinterpretation of words or phrases, which in turn activates an incorrect knowledge set. This erroneous activation is called an impasse. When people associate certain features with a man or woman, they are using what social psychologists call a gender stereotype. Thus, features commonly believed to be pertinent to men rather than women would cause an impasse due to gender stereotyping (choice D is correct). Incidental feelings are positive or negative feelings that coincidentally manifest just prior to a person's exposure to a particular social group. Depending on the positive or negative valence of those emotions, the person's attitude toward that social group may be affected positively or negatively. Since the question stem does not discuss any emotionally provocative situation or exposure to a social group, the concept of incidental feelings does not apply (choice A is wrong). In the question stem, describing a woman in stereotypically male terms is deliberately designed to elicit a gender stereotype, so it does not reflect sexism (choice B is wrong). Additionally, since the description in the question stem is used to create a verbal insight problem, it is consistent with the type of independent variable used in the experiment and is not a confounding variable (choice C is wrong).

The association of language production with the left hemisphere suggests that damage to this half of the brain would most likely cause: D. expressive aphasia, the loss of the ability to produce spoken or written language. Correct Answer (Blank)

D. Expressive aphasia is the loss of the ability to produce spoken or written language. This ability would be directly affected by damage to Broca's area, the corresponding language production region in the left hemisphere (choice D is correct). Amusia, a defect in recognizing pitch or other aspects of music, is not localized in the left hemisphere (choice C is wrong). While the remaining two answer choices concern language and are associated with the left hemisphere of the brain, they do not involve language production as specified in the question stem. Dyslexia is characterized by difficulty in learning to comprehend written language, which is a receptive rather than productive skill (choice B is wrong); auditory verbal agnosia, the inability to comprehend speech, also concerns receptive language skills (choice A is wrong).

Figure 1 best supports which of the following conclusions about the participants in the study? D. Participants showed no greater automatic association between people and trait words that are not stereotypic of that group than between people and non-trait words. Correct Answer (Blank)

D. Figure 1 shows that when participants were categorizing white photos, there was no difference in speed whether they were given a stereotypic AA trait prime or a non-trait prime (choice D is correct). Participants given situational attribution training were slower at categorizing photos of AAs when they were primed with stereotypic AA trait words compared to those in the control group (choice A and choice C are wrong). Trained participants were equally fast in categorizing photos of AAs whether they were given a stereotypic AA trait prime or a non-trait prime (choice B is wrong).

Suppose that the researchers who conducted the experiment described in the final paragraph concluded, based on the results, that while experienced detectives are only moderately better at lie detection than are untrained laypeople, the polygraph is in fact a highly effective tool for this purpose. Which one of the following, if true, would cast the most doubt on this conclusion? D. The laypeople demonstrated an extremely low level of success at lie detection. Correct Answer (Blank)

D. If the experimenters concluded that the polygraph is a highly effective instrument for detecting lies based upon the fact that it was 21% better than the detectives (who were 17% better than the laypeople), it would be necessary to know what the results were for the laypeople. If the laypeople did an extremely poor job at lie detection (let's say they were less than 10% accurate at lie detection), then the polygraph results would still be no better than chance. The experimenters should have offered data indicating an overall success rate, not simply a relative one (choice D would cast doubt upon the experimenters' conclusion and is thus correct). If the interviewees who took the polygraph were less likely to experience the physiological effects of stress, whether because they knew there would be no adverse consequences or because they believed they really weren't "lying" per se, this would actually strengthen the experimenters' conclusion. If the polygraph could still be that much more effective at lie detection than trained professionals are, even when physiological indicators of stress (which is what the test purports to measure), are low, then it would be all the more useful and valuable (choices A and C would not cast doubt upon the experimenters' conclusion and can be eliminated). Similarly, if the detectives who participated were uncommonly skilled at lie detection and the polygraph was still substantially better, this would strengthen the claim that the polygraph is very effective (choice B would not cast doubt upon the experimenters' conclusion and can be eliminated).

Milgram's experiment was designed to test the conditions under which a person's morality could be overridden by an authority figure who asked the person to carry out an action contradictory to his or her moral beliefs. A person's morality develops through: D. socialization. Correct Answer (Blank)

D. Morality is a set of standards of conduct that are specific to the social group in which one is embedded. Socialization is the process by which a person becomes a member of a group, and learning the moral standards of the group is important to retaining group membership (choice D is correct). This means that morality cannot develop in isolation, since it is a group-level concept (choice A is wrong). Morality also does not develop through genetics; although genetics may play a role in a person's ability to behave morally, the particular moral standards a person holds are learned from the social group to which he or she belongs (choice B is wrong). Compliance involves going along with what others in a group think is right, but it does not imply that the person who is compliant actually agrees with the actions of the group (choice C is wrong).

Suppose that when a student is caught lying about completing his homework, he is not allowed to participate in afternoon recess (his favorite school activity) for the rest of the week. What is this an example of? D. Negative punishment Correct Answer (Blank)

D. Operant conditioning involves changing the probability that a given behavior will occur by manipulating its consequences. Positive reinforcement provides a rewarding stimulus (like a treat) in order to encourage a desired behavior, while negative reinforcement removes a painful or unwanted stimulus (like an electric shock) in order to similarly encourage the desired behavior. Since lying about completing one's homework is not desired behavior, this is neither an example of positive reinforcement nor of negative reinforcement (choices A and B are wrong). Punishment is used to discourage an undesirable or unwanted behavior (such as lying) from happening again. Positive punishment involves following the unwanted behavior with an unfavorable outcome or negative stimulus (such as a spanking; choice C is wrong). Negative punishment involves taking something good or pleasant away (such as recess for the rest of the week) in order to reduce the reoccurrence of the undesirable behavior (choice D is correct).

Which of the following concepts is most closely related to the rationale behind the study's method of measuring automatic association? D. Social schemas Correct Answer (Blank)

D. Social schemas are cognitive structures that guide the information processing of ideas about categories of social events and people. When a social schema is made more accessible through priming, it can be activated and used more quickly in a particular situation. In this study, subjects' social schemas regarding African Americans were made accessible by priming them with stereotypic African American trait words. This is evident by the control group subjects' significantly faster categorization of African American photos after being primed with stereotypic trait words (choice D is correct). According to Festinger's cognitive dissonance theory, inconsistency among attitudes (cognitive dissonance) propels people in the direction of attitude change. Cognitive dissonance does not play a role in affecting the speed at which a subject categorizes photos after being primed with certain trait words (choice A is wrong). Illusory correlation refers to people's overestimation of instances that support their beliefs about the association between two things. The study does not involve having subjects estimate the number of times they have seen a person act in a way that is consistent with the stereotypes of that person (choice B is wrong). Social cognitive theory refers to Albert Bandura's theory that learning occurs in a social context with a dynamic and reciprocal interaction among the person, environment, and behavior. The study did not involve having participants learn behaviors through observing others' behavior (choice C is wrong).

The phenomenon whereby individuals tend to favor internal attributions in explaining others' behavior is known as: D. the fundamental attribution error. Correct Answer (Blank)

D. The fundamental attribution error is the phenomenon whereby individuals tend to favor internal attributions in explaining others' behavior (choice D is correct). In-group/out-group bias refers to a pattern of favoring members of one's group over out-group members (choice A is wrong). The ultimate attribution error is the tendency for people to explain an out-group's negative behavior as being due to personality flaws (as described in the second paragraph), and to explain an out-group's positive behavior as the result of chance or circumstance (choice B is wrong). Stereotyping refers to the attribution of certain characteristics to an individual on the basis of his or her membership in a particular group (choice C is wrong).

For children who exhibit an avoidant attachment style while growing up, parents do not make themselves available emotionally and the child responds by withdrawing. Research shows that children who demonstrate an avoidant style did not connect with a parent emotionally. According to the third paragraph, what could account for this deficit? D. Lack of physiological co-regulation in the mother-child dyad Correct Answer (Blank)

D. The parents in the question stem fail to connect with the child emotionally, leading to the avoidant attachment style. In the passage, physiological co-regulation of emotion is the mechanism through which the mother and child connect emotionally (choice D is correct). Relationship satisfaction and being "in sync" is discussed in the passage regarding romantic relationships, not parent-child interactions (choice A is wrong). In Marxist theory, the superstructure is the collection of social organizations and groups that form the society's structures of power (choice B is wrong). A support network, though important for a child's upbringing, does not specifically deal with emotional interaction between a parent and child as described in the question stem (choice C is wrong).

Suppose that a fifty-year-old man takes a polygraph as part of an insurance investigation. No deception is detected in response to any question, even when his answers are obviously and objectively false (e.g., he asserts that he was present at an event that took place before he was born). Assuming that the polygraph is in fact highly accurate at measuring the physiological indicators of stress associated with lying, which one of the following conditions, if established, would help to explain the results of this man's polygraph? Schizophrenia Antisocial personality disorder Alzheimer's disease I, II, and III Correct Answer (Blank)

D. The polygraph purports to measure the physiological effects of stress (presumably due to guilt) that are associated with lying. Accordingly, the individual being tested must actually be intending to deceive, not simply stating an untruth. Item I is true: schizophrenics often suffer from delusions that they firmly believe, no matter how bizarre or implausible; therefore, if this man were suffering from schizophrenia it is highly likely that his untruths would not cause any physiological stress that could be detected by a polygraph (choice C can be eliminated). Item II is true: those with antisocial personality disorder clearly know full well that they are lying. However, since they experience little or no guilt about the lies, they may not show physiological signs of stress when they lie (choice A can be eliminated). Item III is true: individuals afflicted with brain damage or a dementia, such as Alzheimer's disease, often engage in confabulation in order to fill in the gaps left by lost memories. As with delusions, these false memories are honestly believed, no matter how strange or unlikely (choice B can be eliminated; choice D is correct).

Recently a married couple experienced mortgage foreclosure, which has resulted in negative thoughts and behaviors on the part of the husband who feels responsible, thus creating significant strain in the relationship. The pair decided to pursue professional counseling to address this strain. The therapist approached sessions with the intention of helping the husband relearn these undesired thoughts and behaviors through reconditioning and other general methods of practice. This technique is described as a(n): D. cognitive behavioral approach. Correct Answer (Blank)

D. The problematic behavior described includes negative self-defeating thoughts. This problem is best addressed through cognitive behavioral therapy, or CBT (choice D is correct). Through techniques such as those described in the question stem, CBT can help individuals learn healthier methods of thinking. Psychoanalytic therapy addresses problems that are often unconscious and/or stem from childhood experiences, with the goal of reducing anxiety through self-insight; this is accomplished by the therapist's analyzing the patient's past (choice A is wrong). Exposure and response prevention, a specific method of CBT, addresses problematic behaviors, such as obsessive-compulsive behaviors, with the goal of helping individuals discontinue them; this is accomplished by exposing clients to their fears and preventing stressful responses (choice B is wrong). Humanistic therapy addresses problems that prevent self-understanding with the goal of personal growth through self-insight; this is accomplished by establishing a relationship between the therapist and the client that is based on trust (choice C is wrong).

Socialized medicine is a term used to describe governmental regulation of health care, with this public administration of health services being funded through taxation. This is also often referred to as universal health care. In the United States, there are some socialized insurance programs, such as military medicine. However, despite the implementation of the Affordable Care Act, private companies continue to provide most of the nation's health care. Public opinion has been slow to accept the notion of universal health care, as evidenced by the opposition to presidential reform efforts during the Truman, Clinton, and Obama administrations. This hesitation could be attributed to several factors, such as the public's agreement with conservative critics. and best matches the approach to inequalities described in the theories of: D. Max Weber. Correct Answer (Blank)

D. The theoretical perspective most concerned with social inequalities is conflict theory. Classical sociologists associated with this theory include Karl Marx, Ludwig Gumplowicz, and Max Weber. In contrast, Emile Durkheim is more associated with structural functionalism, which is focused on contributions to social stability (choice A is wrong). The persistent opposition to forms of socialized medicine best reflects the theories of Max Weber. Unlike the other theorists, Weber argued that the presence of inequalities would not necessitate the collapse of capitalism. He suggested that responses to inequalities are moderated through additional social factors, such as agreement with authority figures (e.g., public political figures; choice D is correct). The public's persistent opposition challenges the theories of Karl Marx. Marx argued that social inequalities, and subsequent conflict and internal tensions as a result of power differentials, would lead to the rise of socialism. The Marxist perspective then suggests the rise of socialized medicine, as opposed to the continuation of capitalistic private systems (choice B is wrong). Finally, the theories of Ludwig Gumplowicz focus on cultural and ethnic conflicts that are not relevant to the question (choice C is wrong).

The theoretical paradigm LEAST suited to microsociological studies is the: D. conflict theory perspective. Correct Answer (Blank)

D. Theories with a micro level orientation are concerned with the nature of social interactions on the scale of the individual; theories with macro level orientation, in contrast, are concerned with the broader social structure. The main microsociological perspective is symbolic interactionism, which includes the dramaturgical approach (choices B and C are suited to microsociological studies and can be eliminated). Social constructionism has both macro and micro versions, which reflects the fact that social realities are constructed both through greater social structures and through face-to-face social interactions (choice A is suited to microsociological studies and can be eliminated). Conflict theory, however, is a macrosociological perspective concerned with social inequalities as a result of the greater social structure, which is of particular concern in capitalistic societies (choice D is not suited to microsociological studies and is the correct answer).

When a person belonging to a minority group is primed to recall his or her minority status while engaged in a task that is traditionally thought of as not typical for that group, the individual tends to perform worse than if he or she had not been reminded of the prejudice associated with that status. What is this phenomenon called? D. Stereotype threat Correct Answer (Blank)

D. When people are primed with a negative stereotype about their group's expected performance in a particular subject, they tend to do worse than if there had been no priming (a phenomenon known as stereotype threat). For example, when female participants are led to believe that the difficult math test they are taking is one on which women do worse than men, they tend to perform in line with the stereotype that "women are bad at math." However, when the second half of the test is presented to the same group without the gender priming, there are no gender differences in outcome. The priming can be as simple as having men outnumber women in a room (choice D is correct). Racism includes the actions, beliefs, or social systems that place different races in a hierarchy based on stereotyped expectations of people based on their racial characteristics; the concept does not deal directly with performance (choice A is wrong). The concept of self-esteem is not used to refer to group stereotypes, but is the worth a person places on him or her self (choice B is wrong). Self-verification posits that people wish others to perceive them as they perceive themselves; a positive view of a person that is not in line with his or her self-concept is likely to be rejected (choice C is wrong).

Men and women display different characteristics with respect to their aggressive behavior. Women are more likely to engage in: D. verbal aggression. Correct Answer (Blank)

D. Women are more likely to engage in verbal aggression (e.g., hurling insults, spreading rumors, or disparaging someone), whereas men are more likely to be physically aggressive (choice D is correct; choice B is wrong). Differences in the average size and strength of males and females, along with a strong societal bias against female physical aggression, may account in part for this gender disparity. There is no evidence to suggest that women are more likely than men to commit aggressive acts associated with a social ritual (e.g., heckling a comedian; choice A is wrong). Women rarely commit sexually aggressive acts, which are much more commonly associated with males (choice C is wrong).