MODULE 3, Clinical Pharmacy (GREEN), Hospital Pharmacy (GREEN), Dispensing (GREEN)

How many milliliters of a 2% (w/v) solution of lidocaine hydrochloride should be used in preparing 500 mL of a solution containing 4 mg of lidocaine hydrochloride per milliliter of solution? a. 100 mL b. 150 mL c. 250 mL d. 120 mL

A

Syrup NF is: a. self-preserving d. highly unstable b. a supersaturated solution e. flavored and preserved c. a dilute solution

A

How many mEq of KCl are represented in 15 mL of a 10% (w/v) potassium chloride elixir? a. 20.1 mEq b. 60 mEq c. 0.06 mEq d. 167 mEq

A

How many mL of a 0.5% gentian violet stock solution are needed to prepare one gallon of a 1:500 solution? a. 151.4 b. 15.14 c. 9.46 d. 94.6

A

How many mL of a 3% solution can be made from 27g of ephedrine sulfate? a. 900 mL b. 930 mL c. 850 mL d. 880 mL

A

How many mL of a 5% (w/v) solution of lidocaine hydrochloride should be used in preparing 500 mL of a solution containing 25 mg of lidocaine hydrochloride per mL of solution? a. 250 mL b. 260 mL c. 240 mL d. 270 mL

A

How many mg of magnesium sulfate (MW 120) should be added to an IV solution to provide 5 mEq of Mg+2 per liter? a. 300 mg b. 210 mg c. 307 mg d. 200 mg

A

How many milligrams of gentian violet should be used in preparing the following solution? Rx Gentian violet (1:10,000) 50mL Signa: Instill as directed. a. 50 b. 0.05 c. 0.50 d. 500

A

Term for migration of the drug into the container: a. sorption c. permeation b. leaching d. vaporization

A

The number of mL of a liquid that would provide a patient with 2 teaspoonfuls twice a day for 7 days is: a. 140 b. 70 c. 35

A

The objective of the Generic Law is to a. provide the patient the choice of drugs at the lowest cost b. provide regulated drugs c. provide prohibited drugs d. use habit forming drugs

A

The part of the prescription which directs the patient what to do is: a. signa c. subscription b. inscription d. superscription

A

The principal use of magnesium stearate in pharmaceutics an as a (an): a. lubricant d. disintegrator b. antacid e. binder c. source of magnesium ion

A

The purpose of patient-focused services is to improve patient's quality of life. The outcome include the following, except: a. provide drug information b. cure of the disease c. prevention of disease d. elimination or reduction of symptoms

A

The purpose of sorbitol is formulation of soft gelatin capsules is as a/an: a. plasticizer d. thickener b. disintegrating agent e. emulsifier c. lubricant

A

The purpose of the Pharmacy and Therapeutic Committee are the ff: a. advisory & educational d. dispensing & inventory b. advisory & planning e. both a & d c. educational & planning

A

The purpose of the prescription number is: a. to identify the prescription for future reference b. as a substitute for the name of the drug c. to guide the pharmacist in costing d. to provide professional fee to the medicine

A

The ratio expressed decimally of the weights of a substance chosen as a standard. a. specific gravity b. percentage c. ratio d. density e. percent

A

The responsible provision of drug therapy for the purpose of achieving definite outcomes that improve the quality of life of a patient is: a. pharmaceutical care d. all of the above b. clinical pharmacy e. none of the above c. traditional hospital pharmacy

A

The unusual result of triturating camphor and menthol is a. liquefaction c. solidification b. synergistic effect d. lowering of melting point

A

Theophylline is used for: a. asthmatic c. hypertensive patients b. diabetic d. all of these answers

A

This ensures that drug orders are not inappropriately continued: a. automatic stop order d. professional care service b. P & TC e. group purchasing c. formulary system

A

This is not a necessary information in drug evaluation for inclusion in the hospital formulary: a. available sizes of drugs d. therapeutic indication b. adverse reactions e. bioavailability c. source of supply

A

This parchment scroll found in Egypt mentioned 700 drugs with formulas for more than 800 remedies a. Papyrus Ebers c. Remington b. De Materia Medica d. USP NF

A

This reaction isclassifiedunder Bizzare reactions (type B): a. anaphylactic shock c. adverse effect b. teratogenesis d. drug dependence

A

This section is the heart of the formulary and consists of one or more descriptive entries for each formulary item plus one or more indexes facilitate use of formulary: a. drug product listing c. inventory control b. formulary system d. drug management & supply

A

This service is responsible for the procurement, planning and preparation of food for the patient and hospital staff: a. dietary service c. record service b. nursing service d. laboratory service

A

This should be performed if the patient died while in the hospital: a. autopsy c. biopsy b. surgery d. physical examination

A

This type of hospital provides care to patients with various types of illnesses: a. general hospital d. not-for-profit hospital b. special hospital e. hospital with 50-99 beds c. short-term hospital

A

Thrombolytic agents such as streptokinase are useful for patients with: a. myocardial infarction d. angina pectoris b. hypertension e. arrhythmia c. congestive heart fail

A

Through a _______, the policies of the hospitals are implemented on a day-to-day basics: a. chief executive officer d. doctors b. corporation e. pharmacist c. board of trustees

A

Total parenteral nutrition is administered, through: a. subclavian vein c. none of the above b. femoral artery d. both a & bd.

A

Tour of a specific area with visits to the patient's bedside together with the various members of the health care team: a. rounds c. KARDEX b. training d. patient

A

Tradionally called nursing homes a. long term care facilities c. hospices service b. rehabilitation centers d. day care centers

A

Transdermal scopolamine is a drug used to prevent: a. motion sickness d. coronary insufficiency b. hypertension e. rabies c. diabetes

A

Under the administrative organization chart, the central sterile supply fall under the: a. clinical services d. all of the above b. ambulatory service e. none of the above c. administrative services

A

Unit of weight of metric system: a. gram b. scruple c. dram d. grain e. liter

A

What is the most important storage condition for narcotic drugs? a. security d. light b. sanitation e. moisture c. temperature

A

What is the percentage of alcohol in a mixture of 4000 mL of 60% and 3000 mL of 30% alcohol? a. 47% b. 3666% c. 82.5% d. 110%

A

What is the ratio strength (w/v) of a solution made by dissolving 5 tablets, each containing 2.25 g of sodium chloride in enough water to make 1800mL? a. 1:160 b. 1:360 c. 1:1000 d. 1:300

A

When Blood Urea Nitrogen is above the normal values, it indicates the following conditions, except: a. Liver disease c. Gastrointestinal bleeding b. Renal disease d. Dehydration

A

Drugs that can be dispensed only through a yellow prescription pad: a. essential drugs c. OTC products b. dangerous drugs d. prescription drugs

B

Drugs that should not be given to children with chicken pox of flu symptoms: a. acetaminophen c. ibuprofen b. aspirin d. all of these answers

B

Drugs to be avoided by a Parkinson patient include all of the following except: a. reserpine d. chlorpromazine b. trihexyphenidyl e. pyridoxine c. physostigmine

B

During chickenpox, measles or smallpox outbreak, this department would be very busy: a. dermatology c. pediatric b. infectious disease d. neurology

B

Emergency drugs are considered as: a. OR drug order d. automatic stop order b. STAT order e. none of the above c. follow up order

B

Enzyme inhibition of coumarins can lead to: a. hypoglycemia c. blood clotting b. profuse bleeding d. convulsion

B

Equivalent to 1:2500: a. 0.4% b. 0.04% c. 0.01%

B

Exempt prohibited drugs, except a. Lomotil c. Robitussin AC syrup b. Benzodiazepines d. Phenergon Expectorant with Codeine

B

Express in percentage the fluoride concentration in drinking water given in 0.6 ppm. a. 0.06% b. 0.00006% c. 0.0006% d. 0.006%

B

Failure to mix or dissolve when two or more ingredients are combined may be termed as: a. adverse reactions c. drug precipitation b. physical incompatability d. complexation

B

Ferritin is a (a) a. vitamin d. amino acid b. micelle e. protein c. emulsion

B

Five pints of HCl weigh 2.79 kg. Calculate its specific gravity. a. 0.810 b. 1.180 c. 2.180 d. 3.180

B

For dispensing thick viscous liquids, the container should be: a. standard prescription c. collapsible tubes b. wide-mouthed bottles d. dropper bottles

B

Freeze drying is based on: a. pressure filtration d. pasteurization b. sublimation e. densification c. polymerization

B

This anti-ulcer drug competitively inhibit the action of histamine, reducing the volume and hydrogen ion concentration of gastric acid secretions a. antacid c. anticholinergic b. H2-receptor antagonist d. none

B

How many milligrams of a drug will be needed to prepare 74 dosage forms if each is to contain 1/10 grain? a. 58 mg b. 480 mg c. 4800 mg d. 4.8mg

B

How many milliliters of a 3% (w/v) solution of ammonium chloride (mol wt 53.5) should be administered intravenously to provide 50 mEq? a. 99.2 b. 89.2 c. 69.2 d. 79.2

B

How many proof gallons are contained in 500 wine gallons of Diluted Alcohol NF that contain 49% (v/v) of pure alcohol? a. 480 b. 490 c. 470 d. 489

B

It is an altered response that is caused in a cell by the drug: a. drug action c. drug safety b. drug effect d. drug interaction

B

It is ideal and proper condition for aseptic handling of hyperalimentation and intravenous fluids: a. HEPA filters c. TPN b. LAFH d. ventilator

B

The risk of aspirin in children with fever due to viral infection: a. Gray baby syndrome c. bone fraction b. Reye's syndrome d. all of the above

B

The starting dose of TPN per day is: a. 6 L/day c. 5L/day b. 2.5 L/day d. 2L/day

B

The term expresses the number of milligrams of a substance in 100 mL of liquid: a. milligram percent c. both b. mg %

B

The transport of a substance from one part of the body to another by means of blood: a. absorption c. metabolism b. distribution d. excretion

B

The type of ambulatory care sought for by most outpatients: a. tertiary care c. emergency case b. primary care d. secondary care

B

These are drugs in chronic bronchitis, except: a. sympathomimetic agents c. anticholinergic b. beta-adrenergic blocking agent d. none

B

These are functions of a pharmacist except: a. rug information c. counseling on medications b. diagnosis d. monitor drug response

B

This drug is contraindicated in patient with gastric ulcers because they prolong gastric emptying: a. antacid c. sulcralfate b. anticholinergic d. none

B

This drug is to be used with caution for diabetics with hypertension because of its side effect which inhibit the liver to convert glycogen to glucose: a. alpha-adrenergic blockers c. both b. noncardioselective beta blockers d. none

B

Which of the following may be a feature of acromegaly? a. crowded teeth d. micrognathia b. large tongue e. echma c. hypoglycemia

B

Which of the following may be used as plasma expanders? a. sodium salts d. calcium salts b. dextrans e. prostaglandins c. starches

B

If a pharmacist dissolves the contents of 8 capsules, each containing 250mg of clindamycin hydrochloride, into a sufficient amount of Ionex Astringent to prepare 120 mL of solution, what is the percentage strength (w/v) of clindamycin hydrochloride in the prescription? a. 1% b. 1.5% c. 1.67% d. 2%

C

If a patient's blood urea nitrogen is determined to be 15 mg/ dL, what is the equivalent percent concentration? a. 0.015 b. 1.5 c. 15 d. 0.15

C

Which drug is used for the treatment of diarrhea and its resultant body fluid loss? a. Meclizine d. Cyclizine b. Diphenhydramine e. Terfenadine c. Paragoric

C

Which is not a clinical pharmacy service? a. monitor patient response b. conduct drug utilization review c. prepare patient bed d. obtain & document medication histories

C

Which may not lead to an adverse drug reaction? a. error in compounding b. use of the wrong drug c. rashes due to sudden change in temperature d. overdose e. underdose

C

Having a professional obligation to disseminate drug information appropriately a. teacher c. sales clerk b. medical practitioner d. pharmacist

D

Hospital Pharmacy a. patient, physician, nurse, pharmacist relationship b. practice of pharmacy in hospital setting c. stepping stone to clinical pharmacy d. all of the above

D

How many 8-fluidounce bottles can be packed from a 2-gallon bottle of cough syrup? a. 15 b. 20 c. 28 d. 32

D

How many fluidounce-bottles can be packed from a 3-gallon bottle of antipyretic syrup? a. 90 b. 70 c. 85 d. 96

D

How many g of isoflurophate are contained in 15 g of a 1:10,000 ophthalmic solution of isoflurophate in peanut oil? a. 1.8 mg b. 1.9 mg c. 1.7 mg d. 1.5 mg

D

How many grams of silver nitrate should be used in preparing 500 mL of a solution such that 10 mL diluted to a liter will yield 1:5000 solution? a. 5 b. 10 c. 15 d. 20

D

How many grams of sodium chloride (mol wt 58.5) should be used to prepare 1 gallon of an isotonic solution? a. 24 b. 28 c. 32 d. 34.1

D

How many mL of 1:5000 (w/v) solution of phenyl mercuric nitrate can be made from 125 mL of a 0.5% solution? a. 1050 b. 5 c. 80 d. 3125 e. none

D

This department enables the physician to assume the care of the patient at any time: a. pharmacy d. nursing b. medical social service e. medical records c. central sterile supply

E

Total parenteral nutrition is administered through: a. jugular artery d. carotid artery b. antecubital vein e. subclavian vein c. femoral artery

E

In metabolizing a standard dose of INH, Filipinos are considered: as what type of acetylators? Fast acetylators Slow acetylators Neither slow nor fast Same as the Caucasians

Fast acetylators

Type of endocarditis which involves a more virulent organism and resists the body's natural defense mechanism a. acute endocarditis c. right sided endocarditis b. subacute endocarditis d. none of the above

A

UV light-sensitive substances are best protected using: a. amber bottle c. flint glass b. plastic container d. carton box

A

Used to treat infections associated with COPD a. erythromycin 500 mg qid d. sulfamethoxasole 400 mg/day b. ampicillin 100 mg bid e both b and

A

Violation on the part of the pharmacist in generic dispensing, except a. adequately inform the buyer about available products that meet the prescription b. failure to record and file the prescription filed c. imposing a particular brand or product to the buyer d. failure to report to the nearest office cases of incorrect prescriptions within 3 months after receipt of such prescriptions

A

Well known side effects of salicylate therapy: a. tinnitus c. headache b. vomiting d. nausea

A

What is the concentration, in milligrams per milliliter, of a solution containing 5 mEq of potassium chloride (KCl) per milliliter? a. 372.5 mg b. 375 mg c. 370 mg d. 368.5 mg

A

What is the single dose for a child weighing 53 lbs if the usual pediatric dose of cefazolin sodium is 25 mg/kg/day divided equally into 3 doses? a. 200 mg b. 210 mg c. 200 g d. 220 mg

A

When the generic name is preceded by the brand name, the prescription is: a. erroneous prescription c. impossible prescription b. violative prescription d. none of the above

A

The pharmacy department should have floor space for the ff., except: a. office d. compounding & dispensing area b. store room e. circulation c. rest room

C

The primary goal of a hospital formulary is to: a. strictly control prescribing in a hospital b. save hospital money c. insure that the patients receive the best drug therapy possible d. influence medical staff to use approved drugs only

C

The service generally under the supervision of a licensed physician who has a basic interest in hematology: a. pathology d. dietetic service b. anesthesia e. morgue c. blood bank

C

These are personnel utilized whenever possible but never in activities requiring knowledge of the pharmacist: a. nurse c. pharmacy helper b. dietician d. all of the above

C

These are primary centers for clinical investigation on new drugs. a. school d. a & b b. manufacturing firm e. all of the above c. hospital

C

This container is impervious to air and other gases under ordinary conditions of handling storage and transport: a. airtight container c. hermitically sealed b. security closed d. child-resistant container

C

This is a metabolic disease caused by insufficiency on the levels of the enzyme phenylalanine hydroxylase: a. ketoacidocis c. phenylketonuria b. idiosyncrasy d. none of the above

C

A formula for a mouth rinse contains 1/10% (w/v) of zinc chloride. How many grams of zinc chloride should be used in preparing 25 liters of the mouth rinse? a. 35 g b. 30 g c. 20 g d. 25 g

D

A hospital pharmacist must develop physical assessment skills to: a. be able to decipher and interpret common findings in the physical examination b. have at least a basic understanding of such skills c. have a background for more direct patient-care responsibilities d. all of these

D

A modern pharmaceutical library shall have the following reference material, except: a. United States Pharmacopeia b. National Formulary c. Pharmacology, toxicology & therapeutics d. almanac e. bacteriology

D

A patient is determined to have 0.8 mg of glucose in each mL of blood. Express the concentration of glucose in the blood as mg%. a. 800 mg% b. 0.8 mg% c. 8 mg% d. 80 mg%

D

A patient is t receive 260 mcg of a drug 4 times a day for 14 days. How many 1/250 grain tablets must be dispensed? a. 66 b. 58 c. 46 d. 56

D

A pharmacist attempts to weigh 80 mg of sodium carbonate on a balance having a sensitivity requirement of 4 mg. Calculate the maximum potential error in terms of percentage. a. 2% b. 3% c. 4% d. 5%

D

A physician orders meprobamate 0.2 g. How much is to be administered if the dose on hand is 400 mg in each tablet? a. Do not dispense c. give 1 tablet b. Give 2 tablets d. give 1/2 tablet

D

A prescription item costs P13.50. Using a markup of 50% on the cost, what would be the selling price for the prescription? a. P20.50 b. P20.35 c. P20.35 d. P20.25

D

A prescription item costs a pharmacist P122.00. Using a markup of 25% on the cost plus a professional fee of P50.00, calculate the prescription price. a. P200.00 b. P250.00 c. P215.00 d. P202.50

D

A reversible cholestetic hepatitis with fever and jaundice that may be specific hypersensitivity to the drug has been observe as an adverse drug reaction in patients taking erythromycin a. stearate d. estolate b. ethylsuccinate e. gluceptate c. free base

D

Displacement of a plasma-protein bound drug such as in Warfarin-phenylbutazone interaction, results in: a. hemorrhage b. increase concentration of warfarin c. decreased activity of warfarin d. both A & B

D

In what proportion should alcohol of 95% and 50% strengths be mixed to make 70% alcohol? a. 3 parts and 5 parts c. 5 parts and 4 parts b. 5 parts and 5 parts d. 4 parts and 5 parts

D

Pharmacokinetically, enzyme induction will result to the following, except: a. peak level decreases b. accelerated metabolism c. increased overall elimination rate d. pharmacological responses are decreased

D

90% of alcohol is how many proof? a. 180 proof b. 45 proof c. 135 proof d. none

A

An extension of the main hospital pharmacy a. satellite pharmacy c. both a & b b. clinic d. none of the above

A

True statements about D5W include all of the ff. except: a. pH of 8 to 10 b. isotonic c. often used in IV admixture d. should be used with caution among diabetic patients e. none

A

The dose of a drug for children based on body surface are based on: a. weight and age b. weight and height c. age and height d. width and height

B

The dose of a drug is 5 mg/kg of body weight. What dose should be a given to a 100-lb female patient? a. 2500 mg d. 44 mg b. 250mg e. 440 mg c. 25 mg

B

The drug atropine sulfate is used as: a. antiasthmatic c. anti anginal b. anticholinergic d. anthelmintinc

B

The drug of choice for congestive heart failure is: a. tetracycline c. quinidine b. digitalis glycosides d. done

B

The drug of choice in the treatment of arrhythmia caused by digitalis intoxication a. phenylephrine d. methyldopa b. phenytoin e. clonidine c. diuretics

B

The drug used to paralyze the patient during surgical procedure: a. penthotal sodium c. nubain b. vecuronium d. Phenobarbital

B

Which of the following solutions should be sterile when dispensed? a. tinctures d. sprays b. ophthalmic solution e. none of the above c. spirit

B

A drug proven to demonstrate fetal risk in humans but can still be used if the benefits outweigh the risks will fall under which pregnancy risk category? X D C B

D

Convert 6:1000 (w/v) to mg/mL: a. 60 mg/ 10 mL b. 6 mg/ mL c. 600 mg/ 100 mL d. all of the above

D

Cyanocobalamin is a (an): a. steroid d. vitamin b. choline esterase inhibitor e. enzyme c. hallucinogen

D

Derived from the bone marrow, it provides humoral immunity and produce antibodies a. Leucocytes c. T lymphocytes b. Monocytes d. B lymphocytes

D

The extent of protein binding is determined in vitro by: a. dialysis c. molecular filtration b. electrophoresis d. all of the above

D

Ung means: a. cream b. cataplasm c. cerate d. ointment

D

Which of the following is considered to be the drug of choice for treatingtrigeminal neuralgia: a. niacin d. carbamazepine b. pentazocine e. hydroxyzine c. INH.

D

These are possible laboratory evaluation for hypertension, except: a. electrocardiogram d. chest x-ray b. BUN level e. microscopic enamination c. cholesterol level

E

True types of incompatibilities a. Unintentional or Unexpected Incompatibilities b. Intentional or Unexpected Incompatibilities c. Immediate Incompatibilities d. Delayed Incompatibilities

A

Drug-drug interactions that occur when one drug alters the absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion of the other drug. a. pharmacokinetic interactions b. pharmacologic interactions c. pharmacodynamic interaction d. all of the above

A

Drugs capable of inducing hemolysis, except: a. arsenicals c. chlorampenicol b. aspirin d. peobenecid

A

How many milliliters of resorcinol monoacetate should be used to prepare 1 pint of a 15% (v/v) lotion? a. 71 mL b. 65 mL c. 76 mL d. 69 mL

A

Occurs when one drug increases the action of another drug: a. potentiation c. summation b. antagonism d. cummation/potentiation

A

TPN therapy is most frequently complicated by septicemia due to: a. Candida c. Pseudomonas b. Enterobacter d. E coli

A

A physiological or a psychological state resulting from drug administration a. drug dependence c. drug addiction b. drug habituation d. drug tolerance

A

A sample of white petrolatum contains 10 mg of tocopherol per kilogram as a preservative. Express the amount of tocopherol as a ratio strength. a. 1:100,000 b. 1:1,000 c. 1:1,000,000 d. 1:10,000

A

Terpin hydrate and codeine elixir contains 60 mg of codeine per 30 mL. How much additional codeine should be added to 180 mL of the elixir so that each teaspoonful will contain 15 mg of codeine? a. 180 mg b. 200 mg c. 170 mg d. 190 mg

A

All of the following untoward effects are commonly associated with cancer chemotherapy EXCEPT: a. exfoliative dermatitis b. teratogenesis c. nausea d. alocepia & leukemia

A

Allergic reactions that are due to a person's immune response: a. hypersensitivity c. adverse drug effects b. idiosyncrasy d. potentiation

A

Allopurinol inhibits xanthine oxidase and thus increases the plasma levels of: a. mercaptopurine c. disulfiram b. chloral hydrate d. aspirin

A

1.5 mg/ 5 mL of echothipate acetonide ointment is also equivalent to: a. 0.3% b. 30% c. 0.003% d. 0.03% e. none

A

160 proof strength alcohol is equivalent to: a. 80% b. 320% c. 100% d. all of the above

A

Convert -12°C to °K. a. 261 K b. 285 K c. 500 K d. 48 K

A

Identify the odd-man-out: a. complete formation c. liquefaction of solid ingredients b. insolubility d. polymorphism

A

The most clinically significant adverse drug reaction affecting the upper gastrointestinal tract results from the use of: a. NSAIDS c. phenobarbital b. antabuse d. aspirin

A

Which expression is the largest number? a. 2/4 b. 1/150 c. 1/50 d. 1/300

A

Any drug that has not yet been released for general use and has not been cleared for marketing by the BFAD. a. prototype drug c. prodrug b. investigational drug d. controlled drug

B

system of measurement used only in compounding of prescriptions a. metric system b. apothecary system c. avoirdupois system d. all

A/B

Aqueous solution containing 50% (v/v) of absolute alcohol. a. proof solution b. proof spirit c. % proof d. %solution e. none

B

A method of administering IV fluids & medications that provides a slow, primary line infusion to maintain therapeutic drug level or provide electrolyte replacement a. IV push d. heparin lock b. drip infusion e. none c. piggyback

B

A method of administering IV fluids and medication using a volume control device designed to administer small amount of fluid over a specified time. a. heparin lock d. IV push b. additive set e. none c. IV piggyback

B

A patient had an appendectomy 40 years ago. This information belongs in which section of the patient case? a. HPI d. FH b. PMH e. ROS c. SH

B

A patient is admitted to the ER with marked hypotension and appears to be in shock. The drug of choice to treat the condition is probably: a. dobutamine HCL d. nitroglycerine b. dopamine HCL e. nitroprusside c. epinephrine HCL

B

A patient wearing shoes with toes and other areas cut out may suggest a history of what disease: a. photosensitivity c. recent weight loss b. gout d. none of the above

B

Area which offer the hospital great financial savings and pharmacist's pride and prestige: a. dispensing d. all of the above b. extemporaneous compounding e. none of the above c. drug consultant

B

A pharmacist adds 120 mL of aluminum acetate solution USP containing 5% aluminum acetate to one liter of sterile water for irrigation. What is the % w/v concentration of aluminum acetate present? a. 0.5% b. 0.54% c. 0.6% d. 1.07% e. 1.20%

B

Attending staff is also known as: a. associated medical staff d. honorary medical staff b. reactive medical staff e. none c. combination of a and b

B

B.i.d. means: a. once a day b. twice a day c. three times a day d. four times a day

B

A pharmacist receives a bill of goods amounting to P35,400 less a 5% discount for quantity buying and a 2% cash discount for paying the bill within 10 days. What is the net amount of the bill? a. P32,950.40 b. P32,957.40 c. P32,930.40 d. P32,951.60

B

Basic function of hospital except: a. education c. patient care b. delivery of drugs to various outlets d. research

B

A physician has decided upon a course of tetracycline therapy for a patient with renal impairment. Which of the following drugs is least likely to accumulate in the patient's blood? a. demeclocycline d. oxytetracycline b. doxycycline e. tetracycline c. minocycline

B

A physician prescribes Tetracycline Oral Suspension (125 mg/5mL) for Mr. Dela Cruz to be taken in doses of 2 teaspoons four times a day for four days, and then 1 teaspoonful four times a day for 2 days. How many mL of the suspension should be dispensed to provide the quantity for the prescribed dosage form? a. 250 mL b. 200 mL c. 210 mL d. 150 mL

B

A prescription is to be taken as follows: 1 tablet q.i.d. the first day; 1 tablet t.i.d. the second day; 1 tablet b.i.d. x 5 d; and 1 tablet q.d. thereafter. How many tablets should be dispensed to equal a 3-day supply? a. 18 tablets b. 40 tablets c. 22 tablets d. 47 tablets

B

How many teaspoonfuls are there in 3 tablespoonfuls? a. 6 b. 9 c. 12 d. none of the above

B

The meaning of the abbreviation p.c. in the signa of a prescription: At bedtime Before meals After meals As necessary

After meals

How much cod liver oil is necessary to make 2500 capsules, each containing 0.33 mL? a. 7.57 mL b. 825 mL c. 757 mL d. 0.0012 mL

B

A formula for a cough syrup contains 1/8 grain f codeine phosphate per teaspoonful. How many grams of codeine phosphate should be used to prepare a quart of the cough syrup? a. 1.75 g b. 1.54 g c. 1.84 g d. 2.54 g

B

It is a genetically determined abnormal response to ordinary doses of a drug a. Anaphylaxis c. Drug allergy b. Idiosyncrasy d. none of the above

B

An order calls for 500mL of a solution of potassium sulfate to be made so that it contains 10 mEq of potassium sulfate. How many grams of potassium sulfate is required to prepare the solution? a. 0.495 b. 0.870 c. 4.44 d. 0.440

B

Anaphylaxis is a: a. Type A ADR c. Type E ADR b. Type B ADR d. Type F ADR

B

The following are remedies for oxidative degradation, EXCEPT: Acid pH Protection from light Addition of antioxidant Change in dosage form

Acid pH

Which of the following is a function of the Pharmacy & Therapeutics Committee? Ensures constant supply of drugs by facilitating regular inventory and stocks review Chooses the drugs to be included in the PNDF Advises medical staff on matter pertaining to the choice of drugs available of patient care. Provides the S-2 licenses of physicians

Advises medical staff on matter pertaining to the choice of drugs available of patient care.

UV light-sensitive substances are best protected using what type of container? Plastic container Flint glass Carton box Amber bottle

Amber bottle

A formula for a dermatologic cream calls for a 15 g of an emulsifier blend consisting of Tween 20 and Span 40. If the required HLB is 11.70, how many grams of each emulsifier should be used in emulsifying the cream? (HLB of Tween 20 is 16.7 and Span 40 is 6.7) a. 5 g Tween 20 and 10 g Span 40 b. 7.5 g Tween 20 and 7.5 g Span 40 c. 2.5 g Tween 20 and 12.5 g of Span 40 d. none of the above

B

A formula for a dermatological cream calls for 15 g of an emulsive blend consisting of Tween 20 and Span 40. If the required HLB is 11.70 how many grams of each emulsifier should be used in emulsifying the cream? a. 5 g Tween 20 and 10 g Span 40 b. 7.5 g Tween 20 and 7.5 g Span 40 c. 2.5 g Tween 20 and 12.5 g Span 40 d. none of the above

B

A gallon of a certain lotion contains 946 mL of benzyl benzoate. Calculate the % v/v of benzyl benzoate in the lotion. a. 20% b. 25% c. 18% d. 28% e. 15%

B

This NSAID should NOT be given to a patient who just underwent a minor surgery? Paracetamol Tramadol Aspirin Ibuprofen

Aspirin

A solution contains 10mg% Mg+2 (at. Wt. 24). How many mEq are there in a liter? a. 4.33 b. 8.33 c. 6.21 d. 8.55

B

Idiosyncratic reactions are considered: a. Type A ADR c. Type C ADR b. Type B ADR d. Type E ADR

B

Pharmacy technician performs the following responsibilities except: a. receives deliveries of medicine b. compounds prescription and fill requisition c. responsible for cleanliness of the pharmacy d. do the lifting of heavy drugs

B

Place or critically and seriously ill patients: a. intermediates care unit d. all of the above b. intensive care unit e. none of the above c. long term care unit

B

The ff. are the clinical functions of the pharmacist except: a. participation in the education of health care practitioners b. diagnosis c. preparation of medical history for patients medical record d. participation in drug use review and other quality assurance program e. patient education and counseling

B

The ophylline when taken with high fat breakfast will result to the ff: a. combination reduces the amount of theophylline b. action of theophylline is enhanced by the fat present c. combination increases the metabolism of theophylline d. both have synergistic effects

B

The otosccope is used to: a. measure the angle of bone and muscle movement b. inspect the internal ear and tympanic membrane c. assess the cardiovascular function d. elicit reflexes

B

The pharmacist has been asked to educate the patient about signs of Digoxin toxicity that require immediate notification of the physician. Which require immediate notification of the physician? Which of the ff. is not a sign of toxicity? a. dyspnea d. drowsiness b. bradycardia e. confusion c. visual disturbance

B

The purpose of laboratory examination and radiological services is for: a. therapeutic c. treatment b. diagnostic d. exercise

B

Ticarcillin may be preferred to carbenicillin for patients with congestive heart failure and hypertension because it: a. contains less sodium than does carbenicillin b. is usually given in smaller doses than is carbenicillin c. does not include hypokalemia d. stimulates renal blood flow e. has broad spectrum than does carbenicillin

B

Total parenteral nutrition contains the following compounds a. carbohydrates, lipids and antibiotics b. lipids, vitamins, electrolytes and amino acid c. water and carbohydrates only d. none of the above

B

Which of the following statement is true? a. the probability of a drug interaction decrease with the number of drugs received by a patient b. the probability of a drug interaction increase with the number of drugs received by a patient c. both d. none of these

B

Which one is not useful to the pharmacist in evaluating the quality of care provided to patient with a certain disease state? a. proper choice of dosage form b. proper price of medication d. proper route of administration c. proper choice of therapeutic agent e. proper strength of medication

B

Which will not help in ensuring the safety of a pharmacy department in the hospital a. segregation of poisonous materials from non-poisonous materials b. employment of a sufficient number of nonqualified personnel c. policy with regards to the use of investigational drugs d. availability of adequate and safe working space

B

White ointment has a label claim of 5 g/ 1000g. When expressed in % w/w, this is equal to: a. 5% b. 0.5% c. 0.05% d. 50% e. 0.005%

B

Who is not qualified to be a member of the Pharmacy and Therapeutics Committee? a. cardiologist d. hospital administrator b. pharmacy intern e. nurse c. gastroenterologist

B

You are directed to weigh 10 grams of a substance so as to limit the error to 0.2%. Calculate the maximum potential error, in terms of grams, that you would not be permitted to exceed. a. 0.05 g b. 0.02 g c. 0.002 g d. 0.2 g

B

__________ is the fundamental unit for volume of the metric system: a. grain b. liter c. meter d. gram

B

he prophylactic dose of riboflavin is 2 mg. How many micrograms of riboflavin are in a multiple vitamin capsule containing 1/5 the prophylactic dose? a. 500 mcg b. 300 mcg c. 5000 mcg d. 200 mcg

B

pH is: a. not termperature d. high for acids b. a measure of acidity e. none of the above c. the same as pOH

B

prescription label must contain all of the ff. except: a. patient name c. patient age b. patient address d. name of drug

B

A sunscreen lotion contains 5 g of methyl salicylate (sp gr 1.045) per 1000 mL. How many milliliters of methyl salicylate should be used in preparing 1 gallon of the lotion? a. 189.25 mL b. 197.77 mL c. 181.10 mL d. 190 mL

C

A synonym for vitamin C is a. riboflavin d. cyanocobalamin b. tocopherol e. thiamine c.ascorbic acid

C

A type of drug distribution system wherein all drugs are retained in the main pharmacy until receipt of the physician's initial order: a. floor stock system b. decentralization unit dose system c. individual prescription system d. both a & c

C

Acidic group of amino acids responsible for binding basic drugs, expect a. glutamic c. lysine b. aspartic d. tyrosine

C

A test for kidney function: EKG CBC BUN KFT

BUN

Gasping syndrome is an untoward effect experienced by neonates when this preservative is added in parenteral preparations: Benzyl alcohol Methyl paraben Boric acid Sodium benzoate

Benzyl alcohol

A chart based on the identified problem list, present or potential, with patient: a. patient-oriented chart b. source-oriented system chart c. problem-oriented medical chart d. computer assisted chart

C

A child shows evidence of poor growth, night blindness, dryness of the conjunctive kerationization of the cornea and a dry scaly skin. Which preparation is indicated for therapy? a. calciferol d. thiamine b. dried yeast e. pantothenic acid c. vitamin A

C

A common adverse effect related to the use of aluminum antacids a. nausea c. constipations b. vomiting d. all of the above

C

Convert 100°C to °F. a. 221°F b. 312°F c. 212°F d. 215°F

C

A condition that may happen if beta blockers are suddenly stopped: a. bronchodilation c. reflex tachycardia b. vasodilation d. none

C

A mathematical model for a potentiating drug effect: a. 1 + 1 = 2 c. 0 + 1 = 2 b. 1 + 1 = 3 d. 1 + 1 = 0

C

Which type of stock is regularly added on top of the usual quantity when ordering goods, regardless? Speculative stock Safety stock Cycle stock Buffer stock

Buffer stock

The following are pharmacist's responsibilities, except: a. review patient's drug administration form to insure that all doses are being administered and charted correctly b. assist the physician in selecting dosage regimen schedules c. transcribe accurately new drug administration forms d. provide drug information to physicians, nurses and other health care personnel

C

The following are symptoms of diabetes mellitus except: a. polyphagia c. polyneuritis b. polyuria d. none

C

The following condition/s will amplify the activity of cardiac glycosides: a. hypercalcemia c. both a & b b. hypokalemia d. none of the above

C

The following response belong to Type B adverse drug reactions, except: a. allergy of Cefotaxime b. aplastic anemia in patients taking chloramphenicol c. facial abnormalities in babies born to alcoholic mothers d. peripheral neuritis in a british missionary ill with tuberculosis

C

The following statements are correct, except: a. the interviewer should become familiar with what questions to ask b. the interviewer should know the patient's background c. the interviewer should be persistent and should insist in getting the answer from the patient d. the physical state of the patient should be considered before the start of interview

C

The ganglionic blocking agents are not extensively used as antihypertensive agents because a. a. they cannot be administered PO b. of their long duration of action c. they do not selectively block sympathetic ganglia d. they hypotensive effect is unpredictable and slow in onset e. both A and D are correct

C

The hospital department which is responsible for the safe and proper distribution of drugs to all patients a. purchasing c. pharmacy b. medicine d. nursing

C

Which of the ff. is a disadvantage of reviewing all available information about a patient before interviewing the patient? a. the pharmacists feels more comfortable b. the pharmacist is prepared to address specific issues c. the pharmacist may be too focused and overlook important issues d. the pharmacist is completely unbiased about all aspects of the history e. this can be a very intimidating process

C

Which of the ff. sulfonylureas has the longest duration of action? a. acetazolamide d. tolazamide b. glyburide e. acetohexamide c. chlorpropamide

C

Which of the following best describes the condition known as hypoprothrombinemia? a. a diminished blood supply to the brain b. blood clot formation in a peripheral blood vessel c. a reduced capability for blood to clot d. a low level of iron in the blood e. a decrease in the production of red blood cells by the bone marrow

C

Which of the following has no therapeutic use for the prophylaxis of classis migraine headache? a. Methysergide c. Lithium b. tolerance d. all of the above

C

Which of the following insulins would be expected to exert the longest duration of action a. semilente d. lente b. NPH e. regular lente c. Protamin zinc

C

Which of the following iron preparations is not available in an oral dosage form? a. ferrous fumarate c. iron dextran b. ferrous sulfate d. ferrous gluconate

C

Which of the following is NOT used as a vehicle for injections? a. peanut oil c. theobroma oil b. cotton seed oil d. sesame oil

C

Which of the following is not a subjective parameter? a. Anxiety d. Insomnia b. Indigestion e. Pain c. Respiratory rate

C

Which of the following is the first step in the monitoring process? a. Monitor the response therapy b. Assess the response theraphy c. Set therapeutic goals d. Integrate the monitoring plan

C

What information is NOT needed when documenting a suspected medication allergy? Name and description of the causative agent Current dietary preferences of the patient Date and time the reaction occurred Initial interventions performed to manage the reaction

Current dietary preferences of the patient

Which ion is especially required in blood clotting process? Mg Na K Ca

Ca

.A prescription calls for 10 units of a drug to be taken 3 ties a day. How much will the patient have taken after 7 days? a. 21.0 units b. 0.21 units c. 2.10 units d. 210 units

D

A colleague asks if ipratropium bromide (A) is FDA approved for the treatment of asthma. What type of drug information question is this? a. Adverse reaction d. indication & therapeutic b. Dosing e. poisoning & toxicology c. Drug administration

D

A common result of "slow metabolic acetylation" of isoniazid is a. enhanced sensitivity to theraphy and toxicity b. peripheral neuropathy that is resistance to pyridoxine therapy c. slow metabolism and enhance therapeutic response d. slow acetylation but normal therapeutic response

D

Probenecid and Penicillin exhibits this type of interaction: Enzyme inhibition Enzyme induction Competition for tubular secretion Alteration in gastric emptying

Competition for tubular secretion

Consists of the hemoglobin, hematocrit, red blood cell count, WBC count, mean cell volume, mean cell hemoglobin and mean cell hemoglobin count: Reticulocyte count Complete blood count RBC inclusions Blood smear

Complete blood count

The phrase "Lithium should not be taken by patients experiencing acute renal failure or women in their first trimester of pregnancy." is an example of which of the following? Indication Contraindication Medication error Precaution

Contraindication

Cockroft & Gault equation is used to estimate: Creatinine clearance Glomerular filtration rate Creatine kinase levels Serum creatinine

Creatinine clearance

Automated drug delivery system: a. carboys c. pneumatic tubes b. dumbwaiters d. all of the above

D

Primary source of income for private hospitals: a. gift shop c. pharmacy dept. b. canteen d. patient's bill

D

The ff. are the qualities of the introduction in the interview process, except: a. make positive identification of the patient b. some respect to the patient c. demonstrate confidence and strength of the interview d. none of the above

D

The following are abnormal heart sounds, except a. S3 and S4 c. murmurs and hums b. rubs and gallops d. S1 and S2

D

Drugs approved by the Pharmacy & Therapeutics Committee may be classified into the following categories, except: a. specialized formulary b. investigational drug c. drug approved on a conditional trial period d. formulary drug e. nonformulary drug

E

Each entry to the drug products listing of the hospital formulary must include, except: a. cost information d. all of the above b. size/s stocked by the pharmacy e. none of the above

E

Before entering the patient's room, the pharmacist should NOT: a. note the patient's social and occupational history b. know the physical condition of the patient c. make a mental preparation d. learn the ID of the patient e. none

E

Best method of providing service when pharmacy if closed a. provide an emergency cart for all unit b. allow access of a nurse or doctor into the pharmacy c. have a pharmacist on call d. a & b only e. a & c only

E

Betadine is used as: a. antifungal d. both a & b b. antibacterial e. all of the above c. antiinfective

E

Demographic patient information includes all of the ff. except: a. age d. ethnic origin b. height e. dietary restrictions c. weight

E

When albumin level is ABOVE normal, it indicates: Dehydration Liver failure Malnutrition Neoplasms

Dehydration

Glucosuria usually indicates the presence of what underlying condition? Diabetes mellitus G6PD deficiency Acute hepatitis Diabetes insipidus

Diabetes mellitus

Which type of questions should be avoided while interviewing a patient? Probing questions Excessive yes/no questions Open-ended questions Questions that test comprehension

Excessive yes/no questions

Which of the following is an objective parameter? Anxiety Gastric ulceration Chronic pain Indigestion

Gastric ulceration

A DM patient is likely to have the following abnormal lab results, EXCEPT: High urine specific gravity Hematuria Ketonuria Glucosuria

Hematuria

Which of the following drugs is associated with the development of an SLE-like syndrome? Phenytoin Hydralazine Probenecid Cyclosporine

Hydralazine

Substances which absorb moisture rom the air are called: Effervescent powders Hygroscopic powders Anhydrous powders Efflorescent powders

Hygroscopic powders

Accidental overdose resulting to patient death is classified under which category of medication error? F I G H

I

A stat order means the drug has to be administered: As needed by the patient Before surgery Immediately At the hour of sleep

Immediately

Which of the following TPN components provide 9 kcal of macronutrient per gram? Carbohydrates Lipids Fluids Proteins

Lipids

The following are manifestations of incompatibilities, EXCEPT: Photolysis Precipitation Evolution of gas Potentiation of effects

Potentiation of effects

ompounding is concerned with: Order of medicine Supply of a medicine Preparation of medicine Preparation & distribution of drugs

Preparation of medicine

Non-compliance to therapeutic regimens may result in the following, EXCEPT: Additional diagnostic evaluation Hpspitalization Unnecessary multiple regimens Prevention of disease/symptoms

Prevention of disease/symptoms

Which division of hospital pharmacy is responsible for supply chain management? Intravenous admixture Purchasing & inventory control Radiopharmaceutical services Pharmaceutical research

Purchasing & inventory control

This result is NOT a normal finding on a routine urinalysis: RBCs: 5 per HPF pH: 6.5 Glucose: absent Ketones: absent

RBCs: 5 per HPF

Providing the correct medicines at the right time at the right dose and using the right route of administration to the right patient is: Pharmaceutical care Homeopathy Rational drug therapy Primary care

Rational drug therapy

What type of medical staff consists of physicians who are still undergoing training for specialization? Resident medical staff Courtesy medical staff Associate medical staff Consulting medical staff

Resident medical staff

Thrombolytic agents such as streptokinase are useful for which type of condition? CHF STEMI V-tach HTN

STEMI

Anaphylaxis belongs to which category of ADR? Type B Type A Type F Type E

Type B

Teratogenicity belongs to which category of ADR? Type C Type B Type D Type A

Type D

Which one is a non-invasive test or procedure? Endoscopy Paracentesis Ultrasonography Venipuncture

Ultrasonography

Pale RBCs resulting from decreased Hgb content will NOT occur in which condition? Iron-deficiency anemia Vitamin B12 deficiency Thalassemia Microcytic anemia

Vitamin B12 deficiency

What is considered as the most superior powder paper for hygroscopic drugs? Vegetable parchment Waxed paper White bond paper Glassine

Waxed paper

Automated inpatient dispensing: I. Brewer system II. Charge plate III. E-cart IV. Baxter ATC 212 a. I and IV only b. II and III only c. III and IV only d. II and IV only

a. I and IV only

IV fluids for caloric supplementation: I. D5LRS II. NSS III. LRS IV. D5NSS a. I and IV only b. II and IV only c. III and IV only d. I, and II only

a. I and IV only

Vital signs: I. Respiratory rate II. Cardiac output III. Body temperature IV. Age a. I and IV only b. I and III only c. III and IV only d. I and II only

b. I and III only

Alteration of the absorption of one of the drugs due to complex formation of two interacting drugs: I. Pharmacodynamic interaction II. Physicochemical interaction III. Pharmacokinetic interaction IV. Pharmacotherapeutic interaction a. I and II only b. II and III only c. III and IV only d. II and IV only

b. II and III only

Demographic patient information: I. Weight II. Marital status III. Dietary restrictions IV. Past medications a. I and IV only b. II and IV only c. III and IV only d. I and II only

d. I and II only

Skills required for patient-centered pharmacy practice: I. Communication skills II. Therapeutic planning and monitoring skills III. Differential diagnosis skills IV. Psychological assessment skills a. I and IV only b. I and III only c. III and IV only d. I and II only

d. I and II only

OTC medications: I. Aspilet® 80mg tablet II. Ponstan® 250mg capsule III. Dormicum® 10mg ampule IV. Diatabs® 2mg capsule a. I and II only b. II and III only c. III and IV only d. II and IV only

d. II and IV only

Special prescription form for dangerous drugs:* I. Refillable. II. Second copy goes to the patient. III. Requires special S-3 license to prescribe. IV. Accomplished in triplicate copies. a. I and II only b. II and III only c. III and IV only d. II and IV only

d. II and IV only

6. How much of a substance is needed to prepare 1000 mL of a 1:10,000 solution? 10 grams 0.1 grams 0.01 grams 1 grams

0.1 grams

17. What is the percentage strength (v/v) of alcohol in a mixture of 3,000 mL of 40% v/v alcohol, 1,000 mL of 60% v/v and 1,000 mL of 70% v/v alcohol? 50% v/v 0.5% v/v 0.25% v/v 5% v/v

0.25% v/v

8. How much codeine do you give a patient who weighs 144 kg if the order reads 0.3 mg for every 100 lbs? 83 mg 0.95 mg 8.3 mg 9.5 mg

0.95 mg

The mathematical model for synergism may be represented as: 1 + 1 = 0 1 + 1 = 5 0 + 1 = 2 1 + 1 = 2

1 + 1 = 5

25. If an antibiotic preparation contains 15 grams of PCN V potassium in 200 mL of solution, how many mg of the antibiotic would be contained in each teaspoonful dose? 255 mg/tsp 37.5 mg/tsp 375 mg/tsp 150 mg/tsp

375 mg/tsp

29. A pharmacist mixed 100 mL of 38% w/v sulfuric acid with enough distilled water to make 350 mL. If the specific gravity of sulfuric acid is 1.20, calculate the percentage strength (w/v) of the resulting dilution. 10.857% w/v 10.785% w/v 15.807% w/v 10.578% w/v

10.785% w/v

10. A penicillin V potassium preparation provides 400,000 units of activity in each 250-mg tablet. How many total units of activity would Patient C receive if the dosing regimen reads "1 tablet QID x 10 days"? 8,000,000 units 16,000 units 16,000,000 units 8,000 units

16,000,000 units

15. What is the ratio strength (w/v) of a solution if five tablets, each containing 2.250 grams of magnesium chloride, are dissolved in enough water to make 1800 mL? 1:80 1:160 1:90 1:180

1:160

1. If twelve tablets contain 4800 mg of potassium chloride, how many tablets should contain 800 milligrams of the said active ingredient? 1 tablet 3 tablets 4 tablets 2 tablets

2 tablets

2. How many 0.000065-gram doses can be made by a compounding pharmacist from 0.13-gram of a drug? 2,000 doses 1,000 doses 2,200 doses 1,100 doses

2,000 doses

7. A medication order is received by a pharmacist which reads that a dose of 10 mg is prescribed for Patient M. You have the medication with a dose strength of 4 mg/mL. How much medication should you give to the patient? 0.00025 2500 2.5 mL 25 mL

2.5 mL

14. How many grams of dextrose are required to prepare 4000 mL of a 5% solution? 250 grams 450 grams 400 grams 200 grams

200 grams

4. Dr. Q calls for a medication order of 1000-mL dextrose IV infusion to be administered to Patient X for 8 hours. The nurse is assigned to use an IV administration set that delivers 10 drops per mL. How many drops per minute should be delivered to the patient? 22 gtt/min 20 gtt/min 23 gtt/min 21 gtt/min

21 gtt/min

9. A metered dose inhaler contains 225 mg of metaproterenol sulfate, which is sufficient for 100 inhalations. How many micrograms of the drug will be administered to a 7-year old patient with each inhalation if there are 1000 micrograms in each milligram? 1520 mcg 2250 mcg 1250 mcg 2520 mcg

2250 mcg

22. One gallon of a certain lotion contains 946 mL of benzyl benzoate. Calculate the % strength (v/v) of benzyl benzoate in the lotion. 24.99% v/v 49.24% v/v 20.49% w/v 20.49% v/v

24.99% v/v

30. How many mL of water should be added to 2000 grams of 45% w/w alcohol to make 40% alcohol? 100 mL 200 mL 250 mL 150 mL

250 mL

27. The usual adult dose of Cefalexin is 150 mg/kg. What will be the appropriate dose for a 3-year old child by using the Young's Rule? 30 mg 32 mg 36 mg 34 mg

30 mg

3. Ms. C, a newly registered pharmacist, wants to compound 5 grams of morphine sulfate. She used it in the preparation of the following orders: (1) 8 capsules each containing 0.0325 grams; (2) 12 capsules each containing 0.015 grams and; (3) 18 capsules of 0.008 grams. How many grams of morphine sulfate are left after the compounding of the preparation? 4.641 grams 4.461 grams 4.416 grams 4.146 grams

4.416 grams

28. Tracy, is a 9-year old patient who weighs 55 kg. She is given an antibiotic with a normal adult dose of 500 mg/kg. Calculate the appropriate child dose by using Clark's Rule. 203.533 mg 403.333 mg 430.334 mg 230.335 mg

403.333 mg

16. If 500 mL of a 15% v/v solution is diluted in 1,500 mL, what is the resultant percentage strength? 5% v/v 0.5% w/v 50% v/v 0.5 v/v

5% v/v

21. What is the % strength of an injection that contains 50 mg of pentobarbital sodium in each mL of solution? 50% w/v 5% w/v 5% v/v 0.5% w/v

5% w/v

What is the meaning of the IV fluid "D50W"? 50% Dextrose in Water 0.50% Dextrose in Water 5% Dextrose in Water 0.05% Dextrose in Water

50% Dextrose in Water

18. The usual initial dose of Irbesartan is 150 mg daily. What would be the dose for a seven-year old child? Use Young's Rule for computation. 55.26 g/day 25.65 mg/day 55.26 mg/day 26.55 mg/day

55.26 mg/day

Use the prescription below. How many milliliters of liquefied phenol should be used by the compounding pharmacist? Liquefied Phenol (2.5%) Calamine lotion ad. 240 mL Sig. for external use 6 mL 5 mL 4 mL 7 mL

6 mL

11. A manufacturing pharmacist is assigned to weigh 800 mg of substance X. After weighing this amount on a balance, the quality control pharmacist decides to check by weighing it again on carefully calibrated balance which now reads 750 mg. Looking at differences from each weight, what is the percentage error? 6.555% 6.250% 6.520% 6.222%

6.250%

24. A pharmacist weighed 475 mg of substance on a balance. When checked on a balance of greater accuracy, the weight was found to be 445 mg. Calculate the percentage error in the first weighing. 3.6% 63% 6.3% 36%

6.3%

12. A compounding pharmacist measures 30 mL of a diluent using a graduated cylinder. On subsequent examination, using a narrow-gauge burette, it was determined that the compounding pharmacist measured 32 mL. What is the percentage error in the original measurement? 6.845& 6.725% 6.667% 6.556%

6.667%

23. How many mg of procaine HCl should be used in preparing 120 suppositories each weighing 2 grams and containing 1/4% of procaine HCl? 600 mg 60 mg 0.6 mg 6 mg

600 mg

26. Using the Cowling's Rule, what is the child dose for a 5-year old girl who weighs 60 pounds, for an antibiotic preparation having a usual dose of 250 mg/kg? 62.500 mg 65.200 mg 65.250 mg 62.520 mg

62.500 mg

19. The usual adult dose for Celecoxib is 100 mg BID, for a total dose of 200 mg/day. How much should a child weighing 52 pounds receive per dose? 69.34 mg/day 36.94 mg/day 46.93 mg/day 63.94 mg/day

69.34 mg/day

Under ordinary circumstances, a prescription for an antibiotic for minor infections is valid for how many days? 1 7 14 30

7

20. The usual adult dose of a drug is 150 mg. How much should be given to a child who weighs 55 lbs and is 3'5'' tall? (BSA = 0.82 m2) 10,7 mg 17 mg 70.1 mg 71.10 mg

71.10 mg

"A pattern of effects associated with drug allergy" best describes the term: a. hypersensitivity c. hyporeactivity b. tolerance

A

1 milliliter is 1,000x greater than: a. microliter b. picoliter c. nanoliter d. liter

A

10 pints of a 5% solution are diluted with 30 pints of diluent, what is the percentage strength of the dilution? a. 1.25% b. 1.67% c. 60% d. 15%

A

Tetracyclines tend to form complexes with: a. iron salts c. calcium salts b. magnesium salts d. all of the above

D

2 gr of a drug is equivalent to: a. 129.6 mg b. 127.4 mg c. 132.1 mg d. 200 mg

A

Additives of TPN are: a. electrolytes and vitamins c. amino acids and anesthetics b. antibiotics and fats d. none of the above

A

How many grams of petrolatum should be added to 250 g of a 25% sulfur ointment to make a 5% ointment? a. 1000 g b. 1250 g c. 500 g d. 100 g

A

A 20-year old asthmatic patient has been treated with Theodur 500 mg.twice daily. Despite a good therapeutic steady state serum concentration of 60 ug/ml, the patient has brief episodes of bronchospasm several times a week. The physician would like to give the patient additional bronchodilator therapy with an oral beta-adrenergic agent. Which of the ff. drugs would be least desirable? a. ephedrine d. albuterol b. metaproterenol e. isoetherine c. terbutaline

A

A 32-year-old man presents with repetitive generalized motor convulsions that continue for 35 minutes until 10 mg of diazepam are administered intravenously. The next course of action should be to administer: a. phenytoin intravenously d. thiopental intravelously b. carbamazepine orally e. propranolol intravenously c. ethosuximide orally

A

A 35-mL aliquot was obtained from a mixture of 98% unknown solution. If half the sample is diluted to 100 mL, what is its final concentration? a. 17.15% b. 2.94% c. 280.0% d. 34.3%

A

A 48 year old man with a history of major depressive disorder has had a recurrence. His doctor treated him with a standard dose of nortriptyline for 4 weeks without response. His blood level of nortriptyline is reported to be 30 mg/mL. His doctor may do which of the following? a. continue the same treatment, as the clinical response is often delayed b. switch to lithium c. decrease the dose of nortriptyline d. increase the dose of nortriptyline

A

A Ferrous Sulfate syrup contains 220 mg of FeSO4.7H2O per teaspoon dose. How many milligrams of elemental iron are present in the dose? (mol wt FeSO4.7H2O = 278; at. Wt. of Fe = 55.9, s = 32.1, O = 16, H = 1.0) a. 44 mg b. 50 mg c. 88 mg d. 100 mg

A

A book ready for inspection by the BFAD anytime during business hours and should be kept for two years: a. poison book d. prescription book b. salesbook e. purchase book c. additional opium book

A

A bulk supply of each drug product is stored on the nursing station a. floor stock d. all of the above b. individual prescription order e. none of the above c. emergency cart

A

A commercial package contains thirty-six 200-mg tablets of ibuprofen. How many kilograms of ibuprofen were used in the manufacture of 1000 packages of product? a. 7.2 Kg b. 5 Kg c. 7.8 Kg d. 6.9 Kg

A

A consumer asks whether her new prescription drug is the cause of her insomia. What type of the drug information question is this? a. Adverse reaction d. indication & therapeutic use b. Dosing e. poisoning and toxicology c. Drug administration

A

Advantage/s of the floor stock system of drug distribution a. minimized return of medication b. increased nursing time in medication activities c. decreased potential for drug misadventuring d. all of the above e. none of the above

A

A cupric chloride injection (0.4 mg/mL) is used as an additive to IV solutions for TPN. What is the final ratio strength of copper in the TPN solution if 2.5 mL of the injection is added to enough of the IV solution to prepare 500mL? a. 1:500 b. 1:5000 c. 1:500000 d. 1:50000

A

A decrease in the hemoglobin content of the RBC's a. hypochromia c. macronomia b. normochromia d. target cells

A

A fever response to antibiotic therapy caused by the sudden release of endotoxins from various killed microorganisms is called: a. Herxheimer reaction c. skin reaction b. Lyell's syndrome d. anaphylactic reaction

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A formulation of FeSO4 Suspension cannot use Acacia as a suspending agent, because the final product may exhibit: a. gelatinization c. cementation b. prescipitation d. oxidation

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A glucose meter shows that a patient's blood contains 125mg% of glucose. Express this value as mg/mL. a. 1.25 mg/mL b. 12.5 mg/mL c. 125 mg/mL d. 0.125 mg/mL

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A health care supply described as a portable toilet. a. commode d. rectal tube b. truss e. none c. bedpan

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A manufacturing pharmacist received a drawback of P1500 on the alcohol that was used during a certain period. If the drawback on alcohol is P12.50 per proof gallon, how many wine gallons of95% alcohol were used during the period? a. 63.2 b. 60 c. 58 d. 65

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A metal catalyzed oxidation reaction pathway can be prevented by: a. chelating agents c. surface active agents b. antioxidant d. none of these answes

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A modern and reliable means of controlling the volume of purchases a. computation o inventory turn-over c. all of the above b. non-purchase d. none of the above

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A nondrug theraphy for angine pectoris is: a. avoiding strenuous exercise c. both b. taking nitrates d. none

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A patient complains that his urine has become bright orange-red. Which of his current prescription medications maybe responsible? a. rifampicin d. INH b. acyclovir e. Ethembutol c. erythromycin

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A patient weighing 8 lbs is prescribed 2mEq/kg/day of potassium chloride (mol wt 74.5). How many mg of potassium chloride will be administered to the patient per day? a. 541.8 b. 538 c. 436.4 d. 648

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A patient who has recently suffered a myocardial infarction will most likely have elevated serum levels of: a. createnine phosphokinase d. alkaline phosphatase b. amylase e. cholinesterase c. acid phosphatase

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A patient with a dry hacking cough asks the pharmacist to recommend a cough medication. The pharmacist, who does not know the patient, recommends a popular nonprescription cough suppressant without checking the patient's medication profile. What error did the pharmacist commit? a. The pharmacist should have considered other patient problems b. The pharmacist should have recommended an expectorant c. The pharmacist should have advised the patient to see a physician d. The pharmacist should have recommended a decongestant e. The pharmacist should have obtained a prescription for a cough suppressant from the patient's doctor

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A perfume oil has a specific gravity of 0.960 and costs P776.25 per kg. How much would 5 fluidounces cost? a. P110.15 b. P111.15 c. P109.15 d. P 180.15

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A person who is engaged in managing, directing, and performing both professional and administrative services associated with the operation of the hospital pharmacy department: a. chief pharmacist b. staff pharmacist d. pharmacy and therapeutics committee c. pharmacy supervisor e. medical director

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A pharmacist aide adds 76 mL of strong iodine solution USP (5.0%) to 1 L of sterile water for irrigation. What is the % w/v iodine present? a. 0.35% b. 0.53% c. 0.60% d. 0.375%

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A pharmacist buys 20,000 tablets for P4000.00 with discounts of16% and 2%. At what price per 10 must the tablets be sold to yield a gross profit of 40% on the selling price? a. P27.50 b. P25.50 c. P27.00 d. P28.00

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A pharmacist had, on the first month, 54 gallons of 95% alcohol. During the month, 35 gallons were used in the manufacture of pharmaceutical products. How many proof gallons of alcohol were on hand at the end of the month? a. 36.1 b. 36.5 c. 36.4 d. 36.3

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A pharmacy aide adds 75 mL of strong iodine solution USP (t.o%w/v) to 1 L of sterile water for irrigation. What is the %w/v of iodine present? a. 0.35% b. 0.375% c. 0.53% d. 0.60%

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A physician places a patient on a daily dose of 60 units of u-80 units' insulin. How many ml should the patient inject each day? a. 0.75 b. 1.33 c. 0.6 d. 0.5

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A prescription where the generic name is not written a. violative Rx c. impossible Rx b. erroneous Rx d. yellow DDB Rx

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A primary disadvantage of ethylene glycol as a solvent in oral preparation is its: a. potential toxicity d. high cost b. lack of solvent action e. high viscosity c. very limited miscibility

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A solution contains 3 gr of a drug per fluid ounce. What is the percentage w/v of the solution? a. 0.66% d. 1.0% b. 0.59% e. 6.5% c. 10.0%

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A sterile solution of potassium chloride ( mol wt 74.5) contains 2 mEq/ mL. If a 20-ml ampoule of the solution is diluted to 1 liter, what is the percentage strength of the resulting solution? a. 0.298 b. 0.124 c. 1.298 d. .3241

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A type of radiologic procedure wherein a substance is instilled into the rectum for the purpose of examining the large intestines and the rectum: a. Barium enema d. all of the above b. barium meal e. none of the choices c. barium chloride test

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Abnormal reactivity of the skin to sunlight, a. photosensitivity c. multiforme eruptions b. photosynthesis d. none of the these

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Acetazolamide sodium is available in 500-mg vials to be reconstituted to 5 mL with sterile water for injection prior to use. The dose of the drug for children is 5mg/ kg of body weight. How many mL of the injection should be administered to a child weighing 25 lbs? a. 0.57 mL b. 0.52 mL c. 0.50 mL d. 0.54 mL

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Ammonium chloride (NH4Cl, mol wt 53.5) is to be used as a urinary acidifier with a dose of 150 mEq. How many 500 mg tablets should be administered? a. 16 tablets b. 20 tablets c. 15 tablets d. 13 tablets

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An antacid tablet contains 80 mg off dried aluminum hydroxide gel and 20 g of magnesium trisilicate. How many kilograms of aluminum hydroxide gel are required to manufacture 250000 bottles of the product, each containing 100 tablets? a. 2000 Kg b. 20,000 Kg c. 200 Kg d. 8000 Kg

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An antihypertensive drug lists as P180.00 per dozen tablets, less a discount of 33 1/3 % for a purchase of 100 dozens, plus an additional promotional discount of 10%. Calculate the net cost per unit. a. P9.00 b. P9.15 c. P9.25 d. P9.50

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An auxiliary label except: a. do not repeat c. shake well before using b. for external use d. ophthalmic use

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An example of a subscription: a. M. ft. sol. c. shake well before using b. 1 tab q 6 hrs d. 250 mg capsule

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An initial dose of not less than 150 units/kg of body weight has been recommended for open heart surgery. How many mL of an injection containing 5000 heparin units per mL should be administered to a 300-lb patient? a. 4.1 mL b. 4.1 microliter c. 5.1 mL d. 5.1 microliter

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Another name of cost-plus rate method of pricing of goods in the hospital pharmacy. a. Zugish system c. a and b b. Storage system d. none of the above

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Any drug reaction which does not necessarily have a casual relationahip with the treatment is called an: a. adverse drug reaction c. adverse drug event b. therapeutic incompatibility d. none of the above

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Are unwanted pharmacological effects associated with medication a. adverse drug reaction c. toxidrome b. side effects d. all of the above

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As a health care team, the pharmacist provide drug information to physicians and other health professionals aimed at a. selecting the most appropriate therapeutic agents for drug therapy b. providing needed drugs and supplies c. providing drug information to the physician d. provide in-service education informally on rounds

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Aspirin hydrolizes in water giving acetic acid and a. salicylic acid c. formic acid b. oxalic acid d. tricarboxylic acid

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Aspirin with antacids will cause: a. alteration of pH c. alteration of GIT flora b. complexation and adsorption d. alteration of motility

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Benzalkonium chloride is incompatible with: a. soap c. a & b b. cationic agent d. none of the above

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Biological and other thermolabile medications should be kept in: a. separate compartment in a refrigerator b. locked cabinet c. the display cabinet together with other drugs d. none of the above

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Biological half life of many drugs is often prolonged in newborn infants because of: a. incompletely developed enzyme system b. microsomal enzyme inhibition c. higher protein binding d. well developed renal function

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Calculate the number of kg of a 20% (w/w) solution which can e made from a kg of solute. a. 5.0 b. 5000 c. 0.5 d. 50.0

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Calculate the volume, in wine gallons, represented by 175 proof gallons of 75% (v/v) alcohol. a. 125 b. 135 c. 115 d. 145

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Camphor, menthol, acetophenetidine, phenol will form: a. eutectic combination c. explosive combination b. liquefaction d. both A & B

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Cerebellar function is assessed using this test: a. Romberg's test d. Weber's test b. Doll's test e. Srellen's chart c. Rinnes test

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Certified dyes may NOT be used in the area of: a. the eye d. the nose b. the scalp e. all of the above c. the lips

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Characteristic/s of a TPN preparation a. complete source of nutrition d. contains great amount lipids b. hypoosmolar e. all of the above c. can be infused together with blood products

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Characterizes the first exposure of the fraction of the drug metabolized in the liver: a. first pass effect c. biotransformation b. drug-receptorinteraction d. pharmacokinetics

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Combination of salt substitute and potassium sparing drugs will result to a. hyperkalemia c. alkalosis b. tachycardia d. calcemia

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Commercially available amino acids include a. Amynosyn c. Lyposin b. Intralipid d. all of the above

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Complimentary list is a list of ________ drug used when there in no response to the core essential list a. alternative c. additional b. substitute d. supplementary

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Continuous I.V. infusion means: a. administration of a large volume of drug at a constant rate usually 100-150 mL/hr for 8-24 hrs. b. rapid IV pushing less than 30 seconds c. administration at a rate not to exceed 1 mL/min d. none of the above

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Control substance which is non-refillable: a. schedule II c. schedule IV b. schedule III d. schedule V

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Conversation regarding specific patient information and general health care issues, discussions, and debates must not take place in the following areas, except: a. counseling area c. hallways b. public areas d. elevators

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Convert 5% to mg/mL: a. 50 mg/mL b. 500 mg/mL c. 5000 mg/mL d. 5 mg/mL

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Counsels clients and support persons about social problems such as finances, marital difficulties and adoption of children a. social worker c. physician b. chaplains d. physchologist

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Cretinism is the result of a metabolic disturbance related to a. hypothyroidism d. hyperparathyroidism b. hyperthyroidism e. hyperfuncation of anterior pituitary c. hypoparathyroidism

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Daily administration of aspirin can impair: a. hearing c. both a and b b. seeing

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The most serious drug-induced blood disorder: a. aplastic anemia c.agranulocytosis b. leukemia d. thrombocytopenia

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Diabetes mellitus should be considered in which of the following conditions, except: a. shortness of breath d. frequent urination b. blurred vision e. unexplained weight loss c. monilial vaginitis

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Dilutions of potent medicinal substances: a. triturations b. diluents c. extracts d. extractives e. none

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Drinking beer after taking disulfiram causes flushing, nausea, and tachycardia. This occurs because disulfiram inhibits the: a. metabolism of acetaldehyde b. excretion of acetaldehyde c. accumulation of acetaldehyde

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Drug recalls may emanate from the following agencies, except: a. nursing department d. manufacturer b. BFAD e. pharmacy department c. Pharmacy & Therapeutic Committee

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Drug that should not be given to patients who have undergone surgery including dental surgery a. aspirin c. ibuprofen b. acetaminophen d. all of these answers

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Epinephrine is a useful drug for lowering intraocular pressure in open angle glaucoma because it: a. increase outflow of aqueous humor and inhibits the formation aqueous humor b. causes miosis c. causes mydriasis d. inhibits carbonic anhydrase e. dilates blood vessels in the eye

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Expression of concentrations of weak solutions or liquid preparations: a. ratio strength d. concentration gradient b. concentrations per se e. all of the given c. strength volume

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Find the difference in the net cost of a bill of goods amounting to P100,000 if the bill is discounted at 45% and if it is discounted at 33% and 12%. a. P3960 b. P3860 c. P3550 d. P3750

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First President of PSHP: a. Rosario Capistrano Tan d. Marcelia Itturalde b. Lourdes Echauz e. Siopin Co c. Violeta Alvarez

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Focuses on preventing complications of disease conditions a. secondary care c. tertiary care b. primary care d. quaternary care

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For the guidance of the patient, the prescription needs: a. signa c. superscription b. subscription d. inscription

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Foundation of clinical pharmacy, except: a. compounding d. patient counseling b. drug information e. patient education c. drug monitoring

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From the ff. formula: Benzyl benzoate 250 mL Triethanolamine 5 mL Purified water, to make 1000 mL Calculate the quantity of benzyl benzoate required to make 6 fl. Oz. of benzyl benzoate lotion. a. 45 mL b. 40 mL c. 4.5 mL d. 25 mL

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From the following formula, calculate the quantity of sodium carbonate required to make 1500 g of powder. Rx Calcium carbonate 5 parts Magnesium oxide 1 part Sodium carbonate 4 parts Bismuth subcarbonate 3 parts a. 576.9 g b. 461.5 g c. 346.2 g d. 115.4 g

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Functional disorder of the nervous system a. neurosis c. meningitis b. tachycardia d. phlebotomy

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Give anti-diphtheria serum 6000 U by intramuscular 2injections to a patient. The patient stock is 10000 U/ 5mL vial. How many mL are you going to inject? a. 3 mL b. 5 mL c. 2 mL d. 1 mL

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Glass is a traditional packaging material which has been widely used for both liquid and solid dose forms. All of the following are types of glass containers, except: a. closures c. ear and nasal dropper bottles b. bottles d. containers for semi-solid preparation

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Glucosuria usually indicates the presence of: a. Diabetes mellitus c. Multiple myeloma b. Diabetes myeloma d. Acute hepatitis

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Group of drugs commonly abused by athletes: a. anabolic steroids c. antibiotics b. dexamethasone d. vitamins

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HLB is a system used to distinguish between: a. surfactants d. excipients b. glidants e. disintegrators c. suspending agents

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Hair is important to assess since a. it is useful indicator of a patient's health/emotional status b. hair coloring gives the approximate age of the patient c. length of hair implies the presence or absence of lice d. amount of hair implies proper grooming

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Hemolytic anemia due to erythrocyte deficiency of glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase would most likely be precipitated by: a. primaqune d. phenytoin b. ascorbic acid e. gentamicin c. isoniazid

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Hospital maybe classified in different ways, except: a. location d. type of service b. ownership e. length of service c. bed capacity

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How many capsules of an antibiotic are needed to provide 25 mg/kg/day for 6 days for a man weighing 180 lbs if one capsule contains 250 mg of the antibiotic? a. 49 b. 59 c. 58 d. 39 e. 45

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How many chloramphenicol capsules, each containing 250 mg of chloramphenicol, are needed to provide 25 mg/kg of body weight per day for 1 week for a person weighing 132 lb? a. 42 b. 24 c. 6 d. 10

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How many colchicines tablets, each containing 600 mcg, may be prepared from 30 g of colchicines? a. 50,000 tablets b. 20,000 tablets c. 20 tablets d. 50 tablets

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How many drops would be prescribed in each dose of a liquid medicine if 20 mL contained 60 doses? The dispensing dropper calibrates 35 gtts per mL. a. 12 gtts b. 15 gtts c. 8 gtts d. 23 gtts

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How many gallons of 20% alcohol (v/v) would be equivalent to 20 proof gallons? a. 50 b. 60 c. 75 d. 100

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How many grains of a drug is needed to make 4 fluid ounces of a 5% w/v solution? a. 91 grains d. 100 grains b. 96 grains e. 24 grains c. 48 grains

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How many grams of opium containing 15% (w/w) of morphine and how many grams of lactose should be used to prepare 150 g of opium containing 10% of morphine? a. 50 g b. 5 g c. 0.5 g d. 500 g e. none

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How many grams of petrolatum (diluent) should be added to 925 g of zinc oxide paste to prepare an ointment containing 6% of coal tar? a. 59 g b. 60 g c. 50 g d. 55 g

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How many milliliters of two liquids with specific gravities of 0.950 and 0.875 should be used to prepare 1500 mL of a liquid having a specific gravity of 0.925? a. 1000 mL (sp gr 0.950) c. 500 mL (sp gr 0.950) 500 mL (sp gr 0.875) 1000 mL (sp gr 0.875) b. 2250 mL (sp gr 0.950) d. 1125 mL (sp gr 0.950) 1125 mL (sp gr 0.875) 2250 mL (spgr 0.875)

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How many proof gallons are represented y 54 wine gallons of alcoholic beverage with a proof strength of 50? a. 54 b. 27 c. 108 d. 100

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How much water should be added to 2500mL of 83% (v/v) alcohol to prepare 50% (v/v) alcohol? a. 1650 b. 1660 c. 1550 d. 1560

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How much water should be mixed with 250 grams of 93% solution to make a 10% solution? a. 2 L b. 20 mL c. 9.2 mL d. 200 mL

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IV administration of a large amount of fluid over a prolonged period of time: a. infusion c. IV push b. IV bolus d. piggyback

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If 10 mg of a drug are added to a 500 mL large-volume parenteral fluid, what should be the rate of flow, in mL/hour, to deliver 1 mg of drug per hour? a. 50 mL/hour b. 20 mL/hour c. 500 mL/hour d. 5 mL/hour

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If 500 mL of mineral oil which has a specific gravity of 0.87, is used to prepare 2 pints of mineral oil emulsion, how many g of the oil would be used to prepare 1 gallon of the emulsion? a. 1740.4 b. 1430.4 c. 1750.4 d. 1741.4

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If 75 pounds of chemical costs P250, what will be the cost of 95 pounds? a. P316.67 b. P197.37 c. P28.50 d. P400

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If 800 g of a 5% coal tar ointment is mixed with 1200 g of a 10% coal tar ointment, what is the concentration of coal tar in the finished product? a. 8% b. 8.5% c. 9% d. 9.5%

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If one tablespoonful is prescribed as the dose, approximately how many doses will be contained in one pint of the medicine? a. 32 b. 16 c. 22 d. 10

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If the adult dose of a drug is 90 mg, what should be the dose for a child with a body surface area of 0.60 sq. m.? a. 31.21 mg b. 54 mg c. 150 mg d. 540 mg

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If the cost of human growth hormone is P40/mg q 4 h six times daily. How many will a 180-lb patient receive daily? a. 12 mg b. 164 mg c. 650 mg d. 980 mg

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Immediate remedy for anaphylaxis: a. epinephrine injection c. antihistamine b. aspirin d. antibiotic

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In acidic urine, acidic drugs are more un-ionized, hence a. reabsorbed, increase in half life b. not reabsorbed, increase in half life c. reabsorbed, decrease in half life d. not reabsorbed, decrease in half life

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In acidic urine, basic drugs are a. more ionized, hence not reabsorbed, decrease in half life b. un-ionized, hence not reabsorbed, decrease in half life c. more ionized hence not reabsorbed, increase half life

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In metabolizing a standard dose of INH, Filipinos are considered: a. fast acetylators c. neither slow nor fast b. slow acetylators d. same as the Caucasians

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In monitoring drug theraphy, it must be ensured that the patient receives drugs that are: a. effective, safe c. all of the above b. least effective d. none of the above

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Increases serum levels and prolongs agent the activity of penicillin derivatives by blocking the latter's tubular excretion: a. probeneid c. propranolol b. indomethacin d. methyldopa

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Infection acquired after at least 2 days in the hospital a. nosocomial d. superinfection b. superficial infection e. hirsutism c. secondary infection

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Inflammation in the inner-membraneous lining of the heart usually caused by bacteria and fungi a. infective endocarditis c. congestive heart failure b. angina pectoris d. none of the above

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Inflammation of the tongue a. glossitis c. tongusitis b. tonsilitis d. both a & c

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Instruction for patient in taking the medication a. transcription c. superscription b. inscription d. subscription

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Involves the degradation of the drug or excipients through reaction with the solvents present in the formulations: a. solvolysis c. photolysis b. oxidation d. polymerization

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Iron, a necessary dietary constituent, functions primarily: a. in oxidation-reduction system b. to maintain water and electrolysis c. growth and repair of tissues d. to stimulate bone formation balance

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It helps improve drug prescribing practice by promoting the safe and rational use of drug a. drug utilization review d. all of the above b. patient medication profile e. none of the above c. adverse drug reaction

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Levels of patient care requiring hospital setting a. intermediate & intensive care c. self care & ambulatory care b. self care and home care d. b & c only

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Lidocaine HCL is NOT administered orally because it is: a. ineffective by this route d. a cause of arrhytmias b. too acidic e. unstable c. too toxic by this route

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Low potassium level in blood produced by diuretics: a. hypokalemia c. hypocalcemia b. hyponatria d. hyperuricemia

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Manner of affixing the label to an IV admixture preparation container: a. upside down c. vertically b. sideways d. normal way

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Many diuretics tend to cause depletion of: a. potassium b. sodium c. carbonate ion d. urea

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Men are not accepted in this department for treatment: a. gynecology d. nephrology b. urology e. cardiology c. internal medicine

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Myxedema is what kind of state? a. hypothyroid d. hyperparathyroid b. hypoparathyroid e. hypopituitarism c. hyperthyroid

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Nitrostat Sublingual tablets are available as 1/200-gr tablets. What is the approximate equivalent in milligrams? a. 0.325 b. 0.077 c. 0.005 d. 0.65

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Official name of drug products containing 2 or more active ingredients with single INN a. INN of the combination products b. generic names of 2 or more active ingredients c. based on the nomenclature used by the PNDF d. products with standards formulations included in the current PNDF

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One teaspoonful is equivalent to: a. 5 mL b. 10 mL c. 15 mL d. 20 mL

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One who prepares reports on the progress of the pharmacy department and submits them to the director of the hospital: a. chief pharmacist d. all of the above b. asst, chief pharmacist e. none of the above c. staff pharmacist

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Pale red blood cells resulting from decreased hemoglobin content occurs in following conditions, except: a. vitamin B12 deficiency c. Microcytic anemia b. Thalassemia d. iron deficiency anemia

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Patient drug profile is maintained in the pharmacy department for the ff. purposes, except a. to lower down the patient's expenses b. to prevent potential drug interactions c. to promote rational use of drugs d. to detect drug-induced laboratory test abnormalities e. to prevent drug allergies

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Patron saints of medicine and pharmacy a. Cosmas and Damian c. George Ebers b. St. Peter d. Don Leon Ma. Guerrero

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Peppermint spirit contains 10% (w/v) of peppermint oil. How many mL of peppermint oil should be used in preparing 1 gallon of the spirit? a. 379 mL b. 3.79 mL c. 37.9 mL d. 3,785 mL e. 0.400 mL

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Petition for favor of healing and warning from great care and precaution. a. Rx c. Magistral Pharmacy b. Signa d. Mark thou

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Pharmacists provide pharmaceutical care by a. communicating with patients and other health care providers b. treating patients c. both d. neither

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Pharmacy records on all drugs dispensed to the patient are in: a. nursing department c. patient bill b. therapeutic sheet d. all of the bill c. patient chart

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Phenobarbital and griseofulvin are __________of coumarins. a. enzyme inducers c. antagonists b. enzyme inhibitors d. agonists

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Pico denotes _____ of the basic unit: a. 10-12 b. 10-15 c. 10-18 d. 10-10

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Principal site of drug metabolism a. liver c. stomach b. kidney d. small intestine

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Proteinuria occurs with many conditions such as: a. renal disease and bladder infection b. multiple myeloma c. diabetes mellitus d. diabetes insipidus

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Psychiatric, AIDS and leprosy-victims must be attended by: a. custodial hospital d. short-term hospital b. general hospital e. long-term hospital c. non-accredited hospital

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Regulated drug, except a. LSD c. Methaqualone b. Amphetamine d. Phenobarbital

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Relevant pharmaceutical services: a. quality control, IV admixtures b. drug information, education and training c. extemporaneous compounding d. drug dispensing e. all of the above

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Represents the type of transaction that involves purchase of goods on specific volume and receiving certain merchandise at no additional cost: a. deals c. discount b. volume contract d. group purchasing

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Requirements in order to properly implement the philosophy of pharmaceutical care, except: a. basic knowledge of laboratory test and results b. a good understanding of disease process c. provision of drug information d. therapeutic planning skills

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Responsible for preparing the pharmacy newsletter: a. drug information services division b. education and training division c. administrative services division d. pharmaceutical research division e. departmental services division

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Roman numeral for 1050: a. ML b. MC c. MD d. DC

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Route of administration where drugs are applied to the skin surface to be absorbed slowly into the systemic circulation a. transdermal route c. buccal route b. inhalation route d. rectal route

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Rx Potassium permanganate tablets 0.30 g Dispense 50 tablets. Signa: three tablets in 6 pt of water and use as directed. Express the concentration as a ratio strength of the solution prepared according to the direction given in the prescription. a. 1:3153 b. 1:3253 c. 1:3053 d. 1:3000

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Rx Procaine hydrochloride 1% Sodium chloride q.s. Sterile water for injection ad 100.0 Make isoton. Sol. Sig. for injection How many grams of sodium chloride should be used in compounding the prescription? (NaCl equivalent of procaine HCl is 0.21) a. 0.690 g b. 0.5 g c. 0.6 g d. 0.65 g

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Rx Zinc sulfate 0.06 Boric acid q.s. Purified water ad 30.0 Make isoton. Sol. How many grams of boric acid should be used in compounding the prescription? The sodium, chloride equivalents of zinc sulfate and boric acid are 0.16 and 0.52, respectively. a. 0.50 g b. 0.45 g c. 0.59 g d. 0.30 g

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Rx Dextrose anhydrous 25% Sodium chloride q.s. Sterile water for injection ad 1000mL Label: Isotonic Dextrose and Saline Solution. How many grams of sodium chloride should be used in preparing the solution? The sodium chloride equivalent of dextrose anhydrous is 0.18. a. 4.7 g b. 4.2 g c. 4.5 g d. 4.0 g

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Salt of zinc that is valuable as an eyewash for the treatment of conjunctivitis a. zinc sulfate c. zinc oxide b. zinc chloride d. all of these answers

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Should not be added to intravenous solutions of amphotericin B to prevent salting out of the drug: a. electrolytes c. antibiotics b. vitamins

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Side effects occurring during the use of oral contraceptives include: a. nausea c. increased glucose tolerance b. weight loss d. none of the above

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Simethicone is most likely to be included in what type of OTC product. a. antacids c. decongestant b. cough products d. laxative

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Specific gravity of urine is elevated in the following conditions, except: a. diabetes insipidus c. nephrosis b. diabetes mellitus d. all of the above

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Tetracycline - Iron preparation produces complexation reaction when give concurrently, what is the best management for this combination? a. do not give them concurrently b. replace iron with other vitamin supplement c. drink plenty of water d. replace tetracycline with other antibiotic

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The adult dose of a liquid medication is 0.1 mL/kg body weight to be administered as a single dose. How many teaspoonfuls should be given to a patient weighing 220 lb? a. 2 tsp b. 2.5 tsp c. 3 tsp d. 2 tbsp

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The alternative drug for meclizine HCL; a. scopolamine c. eserine b. hyoscyamine d. ergotamine

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The best way to deal with physically challenged patients is to do the ff: a. treat them like any other patients c. stare at them b. avoid making eye contact d. ignore them

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The breath of an alcoholic patient may smell: a. fruity c. musty b. ammoniacal d. sweet

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The chemical substance used commonly in running a GI series is: a. barium sulfate d. sodium bicarbonate b. fluorescein dye e. sodium carbonate c. radioactive iodine

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The chief active constituent a. base c. corrective b. vehicle d. adjuvant

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The clinical pharmacist function focuses on a. the patient c. educational and training b. cost effective therapy d. drug product

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The concentration of NaF in a community's dinking water is 0.6 ppm. Express this concentration as percentage. a. 0.00006% b. 0.0006% c. 0.006% d. 0.06% e. 0.6%

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The degradation reaction for aspirin involves: a. hydrolysis c. oxidation b. racemization d. photolysis

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The dose of beclamethasone, an aerosolized inhalant, is 200 cg twice daily. The commercial inhaler delvers 50 mcg per metered inhalation and contains 200 inhalations. How many inhalers should be dispensed to a patient if a 60-day supply is prescribed? a. 3 b. 2 c. 4 d. 5

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The dose that can kill the patient: a. lethal dose b. toxic dose c. therapeutic dose d. maintenance dose

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The drawback on alcohol is $11.50 per proof gallon. If an eligible claimant used 18 gallons of 95% alcohol, how much drawback will be allowed? a. 2941 mL b. 850 mL c. 11765 mL d. 85 mL

A

The final decision as to which drugs should be included in the ward stock rests upon: a. P & TC d. physician b. pharmacist e. administrator c. nurse

A

The following are aminoglycosides, except: a. quinidine c. streptomycin b. kanamycin d. neomycin

A

The following are guidelines for reducing drug interactions, except: a. employ combination therapy c. educate the patient b. identify patient risk factors d. know properties of drugs

A

The following are importance of recognizing potential incompatibilities, except: a. rewarding for the pharmacist c. safety o the patient b. savings in money, time effort d. quality medicines dispensed

A

The following are manifestations of chemical incompatibilities except: a. immiscibility c. gel formation b. photolysis d. evolution of gas

A

The following are purposes of the admission history except: a. to record the address of the patient unsettled account b. to patient's chief complaint c. to record the description of his/her present illness d. all of the above

A

The following are remedies for oxidation except: a. acid pH c. addition of antioxidant b. change dosage form d. protection from light

A

The following are services that involve primary the professional care of the patient except: a. admitting section d. medical record service b. nutrition service e. anesthesia service c. pathology service

A

The following can legally receive drug samples, except: a. nurses c. dentists b. pharmacists d. veterinarians

A

The following is/are true regarding absorption of salicylic acid: a. non-ionized form is more lipid-soluble & absorbable b. ionized form is more lipid-soluble & absorbable c. polar form is more readily absorbed d. absorption is increased when taken with an antacid

A

The following person performs some of the pharmacist's technical functions except: a. governing body d. secretary b. clerk e. pharmacy aide c. intern

A

The following statements are correct about the pharmacist conducting and interview, except: a. he/she should be the only one asking questions b. he/she should avoid repetition during interviews c. he/she must also listen to the patient's statements d. none of the above

A

The functions of suspending agents include the ff. except: a. prevent oxidation-reduce reaction b. increase the viscosity of the vehicle c. slow down the rate of settling down d. cause the preparation to remain in suspension

A

The larger the volume of distribution: a. the more extensive the distribution b. the faster the distribution c. emptying of bile from the liver d. the slower the distribution the higher the physiological significance emptying of bile from the gall bladder

A

The leading and major organization of hospital pharmacists in the country: a. PSHP c. ASHP b. AMA d. PPHA

A

The major use of titanium dioxide in pharmacy is in: a. sunscreens d. effervescent salts b. antacid tablets e. emulsions c. capsule as a diluent

A

The manifestation in no. 32 is a result of a: a. therapeutic incompatibility c. physical incompatibility b. chemical incompatibility d. adverse drug reaction

A

The mechanism of action of calcium channel blockers is: a. decrease cardiac contractility c. increase the need of oxygen b. excretion of acetaldehyde d. none

A

The most commonly used diuretic incombination with antyhypertensives a. hydrochlorothiazide c. ethacrynic acid b. furosemide d. am iloride

A

When a supervising pharmacist serves on the pharmacy and therapeutics committee, which of the ff. types of detailed information should be supplied by him for consideration and evaluation? a. information pertaining to the therapeutic, pharmaceutics and economic aspects of a drug b. information pertaining to the economic aspects of a drug only c. information pertaining to the therapeutic and economic aspects of a drug

A

Which is not a primary function of hospital? a. preventive medicine c. providing health care b. giving health information d. conduct scientific research

A

Which is not an acceptable method of drug information dissemination? a. megaphone d. leaflets b. pharmacy bulletin e. seminar c. newsletter

A

Which is not included in the laboratory report of a patient? a. manufacturing data d. hematology data b. microbiology data e. chemistry c. pathology data

A

Which of the ff. does not correctly describe formulary system? a. detrimental to the free enterprise system b. appraises drug therapy c. controls drug cost d. assures quality of drug

A

Which of the fllowing events demand a change in dose size and dose requirement? a. change in the normal excretion pattern b. urinary recycling c. both a and b d. none of the above

A

Which of the following does not correctly describes formulary system? a. detrimental of the free enterprise c. control drug cost system b. appraise drug therapy d. assume quality of drug

A

Which of the following dose not cause a therapeutic incompatibility? a. errors in pricing c. loading dose b. dosage form errors d. errors of storage and supply

A

Which of the following drugs is administered solely by inhalation? a. beclomethasone dipropionate c. dexamethasone b. epinephrine HCL d. none of the above

A

Which of the following elements are common to ambulatory care but not to inpatient pharmaceutical service program? a. information on the proper use of the drug will be disseminated b. medications dispensed will be completely labeled & packaged c. the pharmacy program must be directed by a qualified pharmacist d. drugs will be properly controlled

A

Which of the following hormones of the anterior pituitary act on other endocrine glands 1. growth hormone 2. antidiuretic hormone 3. adrenocorticotropic hormone 4. thyroid-stimulating hormone a. 3 and 4 c. 2, 3, and 4 b. 1, 2 and 4 d. 1, 2, 3, and 4

A

Which of the following is not a sign or symptom occurring in CHF? a. Bradycardia d. decrease exercise capacity b. Shortness of breath e. edema c. Hepatomegaly

A

Which of the following is the fundamental moral principle on which all ethical behavior based? a. do good and avoid evil b. Do what is best for society as a whole c. Obey all national laws d. Maintain patient confidentiality e. Obey all local laws

A

Which of the following is the last step in the monitoring prcess: a. assess the response to therapy b. monitor the response to therapy c. set therapeutic goals d. integrate the monitoring plan

A

Which of the following properties would characterize a drug when it is bound to plasma albumin? a. it is biologically inactive b. it can pass through the glomerulus c. it is promptly metabolized d. a and b

A

Which of the following questioning techniques is least likely to result in accurate assessment of patient compliance? a. direct questioning c. sympathetic confrontation b. gentle probing d. nonjudgemental questioning

A

Which of the following would be most dangerous to use in a patient already receiving high doses of gentamicin? a. ethacrynic acid d. hydroDIURIL b. tetracycline e. pentobarbital sodium c. propantheline bromide

A

Which one of the following does not have to be in the form of a written policy and procedure in the pharmacy? a. patient admission b. handling flammable materials c. orienting new pharmacy employee d. handling of narcotics

A

Which one of the following is not an objective parameter? a. vertigo d. hemoglobin b. urine output e. ejection fraction c. bilirubin

A

Which statement is not true regarding Lithium-NSAID combination? a. NSAID impaired renal synthesis of bronchodilator prostaglandin b. NSAID antagonize the renal excretion of lithium c. NSAID may cause sodium and water retention d. NSAID inhibit prostaglandin dependent renal excretion of lithium.

A

Zinc chloride is a three-ion electrolyte, dissociating 80% in a certain concentration. Calculate its dissociation factor (I): a. 2.6 b. 1.6 c. 2.9 d. 3

A

______ grams is also equivalent to 10 milliliters of water. a. 10 b. 100 c. 1.00 d. 0.01 e. 0.01

A

ss is equal to: a. one half b. one whole c. one d. none of the above

A

Drugs requiring strict precautions in their use, except a. Methotrexate c.Nitrofurantoin b. Codein d. Phenytoin

B

. How many grams of reserpine would be required to prepare 10,000 tablets, each containing 250 mg of reserpine? a. 2.5 b. 2500 c. 250 d. 25

B

100 proof strength of alcohol is equivalent to: a. 100% b. 50% c. 70% d. 45%

B

12 bottles of 100-tablet multivitamins cost P3000 when bought on a promotional deal. If the tablets sell for P450 per bottle, what percent of gross profit is realized on the selling price? a. 45% b. 44.44% c. 35.44% d. 40.44%

B

A basic component of clinical pharmacy practice where in the pharmacist gives advice on therapeutic matters to the patient or other members of the health field. a. communication c. consulting b. counseling d. all

B

A clinically noticeable drug interaction resulting from the displacement of drug A by drug B from common plasma protein binding sites is often seen when: a. drug A has a high association constant for binding the protein b. drug B has a high association constant forbinding the protein and is given in large doses c. drug B has a low association constant for binding the protein and is given in large doses d. drug B is more toxic than drug A e. drug B is rapidly absorbed

B

A department that supplies sterile line, sterile kits, operating room packs, needles, syringes and other medical surgical supplies: a. nursing department c. medical social department b. central service department d. laboratory service dept.

B

A disease associated with excessive mucus production by the tracheobronchial tree which results in airway obstruction: a. asthma c. emphysema b. chronic bronchitis

B

A dispensing error occurred but detected during rechecking at the pharmacy belongs to which medication error category? A C B D

B

A drug whose action is affected in a drug interaction: a. precipitant c. interactant b. object drug d. none of the above

B

A drug-induced hypersensitivity reaction caused by sulfonamides: a. Parkinson's disease c. hypertension b. Steven's Johnson syndrome d. contact dermatitis

B

A filled prescription for ethical drugs must be: a. returned to the patient c. discarded after recording b. filed for future reference d. forwarded to BFAD

B

A mathematical model for synergism: a. 1 + 1 = 2 c. 0 + 1 = 2 b. 1 + 1 = 8 d. 1 + 1 = 0

B

A pharmacist weighed 800 mg of a substance on a balance of dubious accuracy. When checked on a balance of high accuracy, the weight was found to be 785 mg. Calculate the %error in the first weighing. a. 2% b. 1.88% c. 1.9% d. 1.78%

B

A previously healthy 68-year old woman develops auditory hallucinations. She cannot provide many details but believes her mother is speaking to her. She has difficulty cooperating during the interview and physical examination which is unremarkable. The most likely diagnosis is: a. complex partial seizures d. hyperthyroidism b. Alzheimer's disease e. Peduncular hallucinations c. Adverse medication effect

B

A process of lifelong learning availed of by pharmacists for maintaining and improving professional competence: a. undergrad studies c. graduate studies b. continuing education d. intensive program

B

A reaction that is noxious and unintended, which occurs in doses used in man for prophylaxis, diagnosis and therapy: a. drug interaction c. adverse drug effects b. adverse drug reaction d. pharmacodynamic effects

B

A rubber, plastic, or glass tube inserted into the bladder in order to withdraw urine from patients unable to void naturally. a. rectal tube d. incontinence b. catheter e. none c. urinals

B

A saturated solution of sodium chloride boils at 227.1°F. What is its boiling point on the centigrade scale? a. 100°C b. 108.24°C c. 105°C d. 107°C

B

A sign to the pharmacist that the patient is overusing a certain product: a. not purchasing c. healthy patient b. frequency of refills d. discharge patient

B

A suspension with the f. ingredients (FeCl3, Fe(OH)3, acacia, FD&C #5 (orange color) and methyl paraben will reveal this manifestation: a. polymerization c. cementation b. gelatinization d. precipitation

B

A term used to denote hypersensitivity to specific substance: a. antigen c. antibody b. allergy d. ADR

B

A trade name for chorpropamide is: a. Tolinase d. Micronase b. Diabenese e. Orinase c. dimelor

B

A type of drug reaction which requires immediate treatment and is often fatal: a. drug allergy c. tachyphylaxis b. anaphylaxis d. none of the above

B

A type of synergism in which the combined effect is equal to the additive effect of the combined drugs is termed: a. potentiation c. metabolism b. summation d. hyperactivity

B

A unit dose package can be defined as a a. vial of 1gm of Keflin to be reconstituted by the nurse sent to the nursing unit b. package containing the exact dose of drugs to be administered to a patient at a specific time c. bottle containing enough medication for 24 hours d. package containing enough medication for the next three doses

B

A vaginal foam contains 0.01% (w/v) of dienestrol. Express this concentration as a ratio strength. a. 1:100 b. 1:10,000 c. 1:1,000 d. 1:100,000

B

A vitamin capsule contains 6.25 mcg of Vit B12. How many capsules can be prepared from 1 g of vit B12? a. 106000 b. 160000 c. 100600 d. none

B

A written order signed by a licensed medical practitioner for medicine to be compounded by a pharmacist to meet the needs of a certain person at a particular time a. letter c. recommendation b. prescription d. receipt

B

A young male patient who is receiving medication for hypertension complains of mental depression, tremors and rigidity of limbs, and impairment of sexual function. This patient is most likely being treated with: a. guanethidine c. propranolol b. reserpine

B

Alcohol is a specific potentiating agent when used with: a. penicilline c. aspirin b. antihistamine d. sulfonamide

B

Alcohol is a specific potentiating agent when used with: a. sulfonamides c. aspirin b.antihistamines d.penicillin

B

All of the following are competencies required in institutional pharmacy practice, except: a. assimilation and provision of comprehensive information on drugs and their actions b. effective administration and management of hospital c. development and conduct of product formulation and packaging program d. conduct of and participation in research

B

An 80-year old woman with a history of congestive heart failure develops angina pectoris, her medications are adjusted to include furosemide, Digoxin, nitroglycerin, propranalol and potassium supplements. Shortly thereafter, she develops intermittent frontal throbbing headaches. What should the physicians do first? a. perform a temporal artery biopsy b. discontinue nitroglycerin c. begin sublingual ergotamine d. obtain a brain computed tomography (CT) scan e. discontinue digoxin

B

An ADR experienced as a consequence of receiving an inappropriately high dose of the drug due to patient characteristics: a. idiosyncracy c. side effect b. extension effect d. Type B

B

An associated pharmacological effect of chlorphenamine maleate: a. hypotension c. headache b. sedation d. nausea

B

An endoscopy may provide a helpful clue for the diagnosis of which of the following? a. endocarditis d. diabetes mellitus b. peptil ulcer disease e. constipation c. aplastic enema

B

An enteric-coated tablet that disintegrates upon passing through the stomach falls under what type of a defective product? a. faulty drug delivering apparatus c. inadequate packaging b. defective dosage form d. deteriorated product

B

An estradiol transdermal system contains in each skin patch 4 mg of estradiol and 0.3mL of alcohol. How many liters of alcohol would be required to manufacture a half-million patches? a. 15 L b. 150 l c. 1,500 L d. 300 L

B

An instrument for measuring temperature, or intensity of heat: a. barometer q b. thermometer c. pycnometer d. spectrophotometer

B

An ointment is prepared by incorporating 10 g of a drug into 100 g of White petrolatum. What is the percent w/w of active ingredient? a. 10.0% d. 0.95% b. 9.1% e. none of the above c. 0.91%

B

Benztropine is often given to patients taking the anti-psychotic phenothiazines because benztropine a. reduces the dose of phenothiazine required b. is an anticholinergic drug that reduces the extrapyramidal side effects of the phenothiazine c. eliminates the unpleasant GI irritation caused by the phenothiazine d. is an antidepressant e. reduces gut motility to ensure that the phenothiazine is completely absorbed

B

Blood pressure is determined by: 1)palpation 2) percussion 3) auscultation 4) inspection a. 1,2,3,4 c 2,4 b. 1,3 d. 1,2,3

B

Can result in cancer or "birth defects" in cells of an offspring. a. germ cell mutation c. replication b. somatic cell mutation d. mitosis

B

Care centers with diagnostic and treatment facilities that may or may not be attached to or associated with an acute care hospital: a. day care centers c. health centers b. ambulatory care centers d. medical centers

B

Chest percussion is done to: a. identify the tactile fremitus b. determine the amount of liquids in the lungs c. assess the size of the lungs d. all of these

B

Chlorazepate dipotassium a. antiepileptic c. major tranquilizer b. minor tranquilizer d. anesthetic

B

Complete blood count consist of the following except: a. hematocrit c. WBC count b. platelet count d. hemoglobin

B

Compound used for the determination of secretory functions of the liver a. phenolphthalein c. insulin b. bromosuphthalein d. all of the above

B

Contains one discreet pharmaceutical dosage form: a. unit dose d. multiple dose package b. single unit package e. both b & c c. unit dose package

B

Current prescription information included all of the ff. except: a. the name and description of the drug b. the date or time the medication was stopped c. the dosage of the drug d. the prescribed and actual dosing schedule e. the date and time the medication was started

B

Delay in gastric-emptying time for the drug to reach the duodenum will ______, thereby prolonging the onset of time for the drug. a. slow the rate and extent of drug distribution b. slow the rate and extent of drug absorption c. increase the rate and extent of drug absorption d. increase the rate and extent of drug metabolism

B

Diabetes mellitus affects: a. protein metabolism d. lipid metabolism b. carbohydrate metabolism e. all of the above c. purine metabolism

B

Dispensing directions to the pharmacist is a. inscription c. superscription b. subscription d. transcription

B

Drug distribution system used more frequently in small private hospital a. floor stock d. all of the above b. individual prescription number e. none of the above c. unit dose

B

Drug samples are used for the following purposes, except: a. to encourage clinical use by the physician b. to be sold to indigent patients c. for wounded civilians d. for medical outreach purposes

B

Drug which is an antineoplastic agent: a. gentamycin c. furocemide b. cisplexin d. plasil

B

Drugs bound to plasma proteins are considered: a. pharmacologically active c. free drugs b. pharmacologically inactive d. bioavailable drugs

B

Generic equivalent drugs are finished pharmaceutical products having same ingredients, same dosage form, and the same strength. They differ only in a. generic name c. international non-proprietary b. brand name d. active constituents

B

Glucose is NOT subject to hydrolysis because it is: a. a dissacharide d. insoluble b. a monosaccharide e. both B and C c. a polysaccharide

B

Gross and microscopic examination of tissues or cells removed from a living patient, for the purpose of determining the diagnosis or prognosis of disease, or the confirmation of normal conditions: a. phlebotomy d. x-ray b. biopsy e. none of the above c. surgery

B

Hepatitis B immune globulin is preserved with 1:10,000 (w/v) of thimerosal. If the dose of the injection is 0.06 mL/Kg of body weight, how many micrograms of thimerosal would be contained in the dose for a 150-lb patient? a. 400 mcg b. 409 mcg c. 415 mcg d. 450 mcg

B

Hospital department that supplies sterile linen, operating room packs and other medical surgical supplies: a. nursing department d. laboratory service dept. b. central service dept. e. pharmacy dept. c. medical social dept.

B

Hospital pharmacists maintain medication profiles for in-patients and out-patients and use these to a. Define the therapeutic goals and endpoints of drug therapy b. Check for drug sensitiveness and interactions c. Reflect the methods for drug administration d. all of the above

B

How many 1-fluidounce bottles of lagundi syrup can e prepared form 5 gallons of the syrup? a. 740 b. 640 c. 639 d. 540

B

How many 5 cc doses may be obtained from 1 L of a liquid? a. 20 b. 200 c. 2000 d. 2

B

How many fl.oz. bottles of lagundi syrup can be prepared from 5 gallons of the syrup? a. 639 b. 640 c. 540 d. 740

B

How many gallons of 95% (v/v) alcohol would contain 91.2 proof gallons? a. 137 b. 48 c. 173.28 d. 52 e. none

B

How many grams of 10% (w/w) ammonia solution can be made from 1800g of 28% (w/w) strong ammonia solution? a. 6428.57 g b. 5050 g c. 50400 g d. 342.86 g

B

How many grams of a drug substance are required to make 160 mL of a solution, each tsp of which contains 2 mg of the drug substance? a. 64 g b. 0.064 g c. 0.015 g d. 0.64 g

B

How many grams of a drug substance should be dissolved in 250 mL of water to make a 5% (w/w) solution? a. 9.6 g b. 13.16 g c. 60 g d. 10 g

B

How many grams of dextrose are required to prepare 4500 L of a 5% solution? a. 80,000 g b. 225,000g c. 4 f3 d. 8 f3

B

How many grams of ethyl estradiol are needed to prepare 2,500 tablets, each containing 50 mcg of the medicinal substance? a. 1.25 g b. 12.5 g c. 0.125 g d. 125 g

B

How many grams of glacial acetic acid (99.9% w/w) must be added to 1 galloon of purified water to obtain a solution containing 0.25% acetic acid? a. 1.2 g b. 9.5 g c. 12 g

B

How many grams of lactose should be added to 80 g belladonna extract assaying 2.5% (w/w) of alkaloids to reduce its strength to 1.4%? a. 52.5 b. 62.8 c. 42.8 d. 60.2

B

How many grams of silver nitrate should be used in preparing 500 mL of a solution such that 10 mL diluted to a liter will yield 1:5000 solution? a. 5 b. 10 c. 15 d. 20

B

How many grams of sucrose are required to prepare 2000 mL of a 4% solution? a. 50 g b. 80 g c. 90 g d. 100 g

B

How many grams of water are needed to make 300 g of an 8% w/w solution of lime water? a. 275 g b. 276 g c. 300 g d. 277 g

B

How many grams of zinc oxide should be added to 3,400 g of a 10% zinc oxide ointment to prepare a product containing 15% of zinc oxide? a. 150 g b. 200 g c. 250 g d. 210 g dipole

B

How many liters of 2% (w/v) iodine tincture can be made from 123 g of iodine? a. 6150 L b. 6.15 L c. 61.15 L d. none of the given

B

How many liters of a mouthwash can be prepared from 100 mL of cinnamon flavor if its concentration is to be 0.5% (v/v)? a. 10 L b. 20 L c. 15 L d. 18 L

B

How many mL of 1:16 solution of sodium hypochlorite should be used in preparing 5000 mL of a 0.5% solution of sodium hypochlorite for irrigation? a. 200 mL b. 400 mL c. 600 mL d. 800 mL e. 100 mL

B

How many mL of 1:50 stock solution of ephedrine sulfate would be needed to prepare 30 mL of the ff. prescription? Rx Ephedrine sulfate 0.25% Normal saline solution q.s. 10 mL a. 1.25 b. 3.75 c. 4 d. 7.5 e. 12.5

B

How many mL of 1:50 stock solution of ephedrine sulfate would be needed to prepare 30 mL of the prescription? Rx Ephedrine sulfate 0.25% Normal saline q.s. 10 Ml a. 1.25 b. 3.75 c. 4 d. 7.5 e. 12.5

B

How many mL of a 1:400 (w/v) stock solution should be used to make 4 L of a 1:2000 (w/v) solution? a. 1000 mL b. 800 mL c. 1600 mL d. 200 mL

B

How many mL of a syrup having asp gr of 1.350 should be mixed with 3000mL of a syrup having a sp gr of 1.250 to obtain a product having a sp gr of 1.310? a. 3500mL b. 4500mL c. 4600mL d. 5500mL

B

How many mL of methyl salicylate should be used to prepare 1 pt of a 5% (v/v) solution? a. 24.10 mL b. 23.60 mL c. 23.70 mL d. 24.50 mL

B

How many mL of water should be added to 300 mL of 1:750 (w/v) solution of benzalkonium chloride to make a 1:2500 (w/v) solution? a. 997.5 mL b. 700 mL c. 90.23 mL d. 60000 mL

B

How many mL will you dispense for a prescription calling for a 100 g of a liquid substance with a sp.gr. of 1.25? a. 75 mL c. 85 mL b. 80 mL d. 90 mL

B

How many milliequivalents are there in 15 mL of a 50% MgSO4 solution? (mol. Wt. 246) a. 6.097 mEq b. 60.97 mEq c. 6.96 mEq d. 69.7 mEq

B

Hypertrophy refers to: a. an abnormal increase in the number of cells in the tissue b. an enlargement or overgrowth of an organ c. excessive perspiration d. increased motor activity e. excessive sensitivity of the skin

B

If 150 mL of polyethylene glycol 400 weighs 74.1 g, what is its specific gravity? a. 0.88 b. 0.494 c. 2.35 d. 1.3

B

If 400 ml of a 20% (w/v) solution are diluted to 2 liters, what will be the percentage strength (w/v)? a. 8% b. 4% c. 5% d. 2%

B

If 5 fluidounce of a 1:1000 (w/v) solution of sterile alcohol diluted to 2 pts what will be the ratio strength w/v of the solution? a. 1:3200 b. 1:6400 c. 1:8000 d. 1:6300

B

If 50 tablets contain 0.625 g of an active ingredient, how many tablets can e prepared from 31.25 g of the ingredient? a. 1000 tablets b. 2500 tablets c. 3030 tablets d. none of the above

B

If a physician prescribed 4 grams of aspirin to be taken by a patient daily, about how many 5-grain tablets should the patient take each day? a. 10 tablets b. 12 tablets c. 15 tablets d. 8 tablets

B

If a physician prescribed Keflex, 250 mg q.i.d. x 10 days, how many milliliters of Keflex suspension containing 250 mg per 5 mL should be dispensed? a. 250 mL b. 200 mL c. 150 mL d. 100 mL

B

If a serum sample is determined to contain 270 mg/dL of cholesterol, what is the concentration of cholesterol (mol wt 386) in terms of millimoles per liter? a. 6.5 mmol/L b. 6.9 mmol/L c. 69.9 mmol/L d. 5.66 mmol/L

B

If an intravenous dose of mannitol is 1.5% (w/v) sodium chloride solution can be made from 1 lb of sodium chloride? a. 50,444 mL b. 30,000 mL c. 50,400 mL d. 1,000 mL

B

If some moist crude drug contains 7.2% (w/w) of active ingredient and 21.6% of water, what will be the percentage (w/w) of active ingredient after the drug is dried? a. 7.2 b. 9.2 c. 11.2 d. 13.2

B

If the dose of the drug is 100 mg how many doses are there in 100 mg? a. 100 b. 1000 c. 10000 d. 100000 e. 1000000

B

If the pharmacist doubts the correctness of the prescription, he should: a. consult the patient b. consult the prescriber of the patient c. consult other pharmacist d. base decision on ailment

B

If the specific gravity of alcohol is 0.812, what is the weight in kilograms of 10 L? a. 2.81 kg b. 8.12 kg c. 2.18 kg d. 1.82 kg e. 8.21 kg

B

Importance of a label: a. for sake of art c. to improve elegance b. to establish identity d. to give prominence

B

In a prescription, the dispensing directions to the pharmacist is the: a. superscription c. inscription b. subscription d. signa

B

In basic urine, acidic drugs are a. un-ionized, hence reabsorbed, decrease half life b. more ionized, not reabsorbed, decrease half life c. more un-ionized, not reabsorbed, increase half life d. un-ionized, not reabsorbed, increases elimination rate

B

In dosing the drug gentamicin in pediatric patients, for every 1 mg/kg of gentamicin administered, serum drug concentrations are expected to increase by 2.5mcg/mL. What would be the expected serum drug concentration following an administration of a 2.5 mg/kg dose of gentamicin? a. 5 mcg / mL b. 6.25 mcg/ mL c. 10 mcg/ mL d. 2.5 mcg/ mL

B

In what proportion should alcohols of 90% and 50% strengths should be mixed to make 70% alcohol? a. 3 parts / 5 parts b. 1 part / 1 part c. 5 parts / 4 parts d. 4 parts / 5 parts

B

Incumbent president of PSHP: a. Lourdes Echauz d. Gloria Arroyo b. Normita Leyesa e. Siopin Co c. Eladio Tinio

B

Indicates the quantitative range or amounts of drug that maybe prescribed within the guidelines of usual medical practice. a. divided dose c. loading dose b. usual dosage range d. total dose

B

Instruction and special care to avoid undesired effects and to ensure the safe and effective use of the product a. warnings c. contraindications b. precautions d. indications

B

Interactions that arise with drug acting on the receptors, sites of action or physiological system a. pharmaceutical interactions b. pharmacodynamic interactions c. pharmacokinetic interactions d. change in body fluids and electrolyte balances

B

Interpret the drug orders from the chart: a. nurse c. phycisian b. pharmacist d. all of the above

B

Introduction of a virus or disease producing microorganism into the body to give protection against certain disease/s: a. injection c. inspissation b. inoculation d. none of the above

B

Is the act of transmitting facts, feelings and meanings by words, gestures or other actions: a. counseling c. consulting b. communication d. all of these

B

Is the totality of services offered by all health disciplines: a. social security system c. medicare b. health care system d. all of these

B

Isotonic solution of this substance will still cause hemolysis of RBC a. benzoic acid c. sodium bicarbonate b. boric acid d. sodium benzoate

B

It enables the pharmacist to monitor drug utilization of each patient confined in the hospital: a. admission history d. adverse drug reaction report b. patient medication profile e. progress note c. patient chart

B

It encompasses the collection, organization, retrieval, interpretation, evaluation, and dissemination of information pertaining to all aspects of medicine. a. PTC c. LAFH b. DIS d. EDL

B

It forms the beginning of a direct order from the prescriber to the compounder a. inscription c. subscription b. superscription d. errors in the written order

B

It is a list of medications which are available only in that hospital: a. MIMS d. RPS b. Formulary e. both a and b c. PDR

B

It occurs when drugs are mixed inappropriately in syringes or infusion fluids prior to administration. a. pharmacodynamic interaction c. pharmacokinetic interaction b. pharmaceutical interaction d. all of the above

B

Ives is a first year medical student. One day, she was opening the neck of the cadver. She picked up a bottle which she taught was her water canteen and accidentally drank the liquid. The liquid is usually used to prevent the polymerization of formalin. She kept the incident to herself (she was worried that her classmates who were elitists might make fun her). Two years later, she lost her eyesight. What was the poison? a. ethylene glycol d. thinner b. methanol e. acetone c. chloroform

B

Kernicterus is a drug induced disorder that may occur in the neonate following therapy with which of the following drugs? a. isoniazid c. phenytoin b. sulfisoxazole d. gentamicin

B

Large overdose of acetaminophen is likely to cause: a. tinnitus d. renal tubular acidosis b, hepatic necrosis e. seizures c. agranulocytosis

B

Levodopa should not be taken with the following drugs, except: a. pyridoxine c. MAOI b. carbidopa d. antipsychotics

B

Medical staff primarily concerned with regular care of patient: a. honorary medical staff d. residential medical staff b. active medical staff e. consulting medical staff c. associate medical staff

B

Medication administered to the wrong patient may be classified as: a. wrong dose error c. wrong time error b. unauthorized drug error d. omission error

B

Methotrexate is used as an antineoplastic agent and also used for the treatment of a. hyperuremia c. goiter b. arthritis d. none of the above

B

Methyl salicylate is used primarily as a (a): a. flavoring d. emulsifier b. counter-irritant e. binder c. suspending agent

B

Mode of transmission of gastrointestinal infection a. dust b. consumption of contaminated food and water c. aerosolize droplets d. mosquito bite

B

Most drugs are: a. strong electrolytes d. highly ionic b. weak electrolytes e. none of the above c. nonelectrolytes

B

Most highly trained expert on drugs and has the best opportunity to keep up to date on developments in this field: a. physician c. nurse b. pharmacist d. medical technologist

B

NPO means: a. non-progressive operation d. nothing after six b. nothing by mouth e. none of the above c. with full stomach

B

Non-compliance to therapeutic regimens may result in the ff. except: a. additional diagnostic evaluation b. prevention of disease/symptoms c. hospitalization d. unnecessary multiple regimens

B

Non-selective beta-blockers are the following, except: a. Pindolol c. Nadolol b. Metoprolol d. none of the above

B

Number of mL of constituents per 10 mL of solution: a. percent weight per volume d. % w/w b. % v/v e. none of the given c. percent volume in weight

B

One avoirdupois pound is equivalent to: a. 373.2 g b. 454 g c. 28.35 g d. 31.1 g

B

One fluidounce of a cough syrup contains 10 gr of sodium citrate, how many mg are contained in 5 mL? a. 50 b. 109 c. 40 d. 108 e. 30

B

One of the responsibilities of the pharmacy department is to control all drugs used in the hospital. Which of the ff. does not fall in this responsibility? a. drug samples must be distributed only through the pharmacy b. chief pharmacist should have a private office c. maintenance of an up-to-date formulary d. routine inspection of drug storage areas

B

One of the violations committed by dispensing pharmacist is: a. informing the patient of the current list of available drugs b. imposing a particular brand or product on the buyer c. recording of prescriptions filled d. dispensing of the product according to the prescription

B

One thousand nanograms equals one: a. kilogram b. microgram c. milligram

B

Oxidizing agents are incompatible with reducing agents. This is a: a. physical incompatability b. chemical imcompatability c. therapeutic incompatibility d. both A &B

B

Paracetamol belongs to which Pregnancy risk category? B A X C

B

Paregoric acid contains the equivalent pf 0.4% opium. How many mg of opium are represented in a tablespoon dose of equal parts of paregoric and kaopectate? a. 20 mg b. 25 mg c. 15 mg d. 30 mg e. 28 mg

B

Part of a label that is most likely to be presented, shown or examined under customary conditions for display for retail sale. a. outer label c. inner label b. principal display panel d. label

B

Patient who is not bedridden, who can take care of himself and administer his own medication: a. patient care c. geriatric b. ambulatory patient d. pediatric

B

Patients about to undergo electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) are usually given succinycholine a. reduce the severity of the central nervous system (CNS) are usually given succinylcholine b. modify muscular constractions to prevent injury to the patient c. lengthen the duration of the convulsion d. prevent hype

B

Peripheral veins are seldom used for the administration of TPN fluids because a. TPN fluids tend to infiltrate surrounding tissue b. the blood flow in peripheral vessels is not great enough to protect the peripheral vessels from irritation c. large-bore needles must be used d. the vessels are easily occluded e. the hypotonic solution caused local hemolysis

B

Pharmacist's clinical function includes the ff. except: a. drug utilization review d. pharmaceutical care b. drug dispensing e. drug informatratix c. pharmacokinetic monitoring

B

Pharmacist's responsibility a. taking blood pressure c. laboratory testing b. monitoring drug abuse d. diagnosis

B

Pharmacy department is best classified under what division of hospital: a. general c. administrative b. clinical d. medical

B

Phenobarbital-Antihistamine drug combinations will result to a. Phenobarbital metabolism is accelerated by antihistamine b. Antihistamine metabolism is accelerated by Phenobarbital c. Phenobarbital peak level increases d. Decreased Phenobarbital overall elimination rate

B

Potential problem of using nalbuphine in a patient who is dependent on Codeine in the : a. additive respiratory depression b. precipitation of narcotic withdrawal symptoms c. increase tolerance to codeine d. impaired renal excretion of codeine e. excessive central nervous system stimulation

B

Prepare 30% alcohol cooling sponge from 1 pint of 70% isopropyl rubbing alcohol using the whole bottle. a. add 500 ml of distilled water to 1 pt of 70% alcohol b. add 656.6 ml of distilled water to 1 pt of 70% alcohol c. add 333.33 ml of distilled water to 1 pt of 70% alcohol d. add 200 ml of distilled water to 1 pt of 70% alcohol

B

Prescriber of a prescription: a. pharmacist c. nurse b. veterinarian d. medical technologist

B

Prescription calls for 250 mL of a liquid medicine contains 0.025 g of atropine sulfate and specific dose of 5 mL . Each dose contains ____ mg of atropine sulfate. a. 0.0005 b. 0.5 c. 5 d. 25

B

Primary means to achieve the goal of clinical interview a. literary skills c. culinary skills b. effective communication d. counseling

B

Primary sources of drug information, except: a. Medical Journals c. Pharmacy and Pharmacology Journals b. The Medical Letter d. none of the above

B

Providing the correct medicine at the correct time in the correct dose and correct route of administration: a. patient care c. research b. rational drug therapy d. drug information

B

Providing the correct medicine at the correct time, in the correct dose and the correct route of administration is called: a. primary care c. osteopathy b. rational drug therapy d. homeopathy

B

Providing the correct medicines at the right time at the right dose and using the right route of administration to the right patient is: a. primary care c. osteopathy b. rational drug therapy d. homeopathy

B

Purified water contains not ore than 10 ppm of total solids. Express this concentration as a percentage. a. 1.00% b. 0.001% c. 0.01% d. 10%

B

Reaction rate is increased most readily by: a humidity d. photolysis b. high temperature e. hydrolysis c. freezing

B

Reactions which are noxious, unintended and which occur at doses normally used in man for prophylaxis, diagnosis or therapy: a. drug interaction c. pharmacodynamic b. adverse drug reactions d. therapeutic incompatibilities

B

Reduce 25 mcg to g a. 2.5 x 10-6 b. 2.5 x 10-5 c. 2.5 x 10-4 d. 2.5 x 10-3

B

Refers to the schedule of dosing (e.g., QID, 10 days) a. divided doses c. single dose b. dosage regimen d. total dose

B

Responsible for the physical and psychosocial needs of patients and carry out physician directed orders regarding patient care: a. resident physicians c. clinical pharmacists b. nurses d. dieticians

B

Serves as the secretary of the P & TC: a. medical director c. nursing director b. pharmacy director d. administrator

B

Substances which absorb moisture from the air are called: a. effervescent powders c. anhydrous powders b. hygroscopic powders d. efflorescent powders

B

Tetracycline antibiotics may stain children: a. one month in utero and three years b. six month in utero and eight years c. birth and ten years d. one and half years

B

Tetracycline has been shown to form a calcium complex in bone-forming tissue in infants given oral tetracycline in doses of 0.011 g/lb body weight every 6 hours. Express the dose in terms of milligrams per kilogram of body weight. a. 5 mg/Kg b. 24.2 mg/Kg c. 25 mg/Kg d. 11 mg/Kg

B

The ability to shift attention in demand, adapting to the total flow of communication a. clarification c. sequencing b. flexibility d. none of the above

B

The administration of the same dose of active ingredient in different galenic forms a. always lead to the same therapeutic effect b. does not necessarily lead to the same therapeutic effect c. always lead to different therapeutic effect d. none of the above

B

The anticoagulant action of heparin is monitored by the a. whole blood count b. activated partial thromboplastin c. prothrombin time d. bleeding time e. antiplatelet clotting time

B

The average body surface area of an adult is: a. 1.76 m2 b. 1.73 m2 c. 1.7 v d. 1.73 cm

B

The best way to deal with antagonistic patient is to do which of the following: a. avoid them b. limit the length of each interaction c. talk with the legal guardians d. speak slowly and distinctively

B

The clinical functions of a hospital pharmacist may include all of the following, except: a. monitoring drug interactions b. administration of medications pharmacokinetic consultation d. participation on a nutritional support team e. making rounds with physicians

B

The conversion of an optically active form to an optically inactive form is called: a. polymorphism c. polymerization b. racemization d. enantiomorphism

B

The drug of choice for gout, since this drug decreases the formation of uric acid by inhibiting xanthine oxidase: a. colchicines c. quinine b. allopurinol d. all of the above

B

The ff. are true, except: a. two preparations each labeled with the same active chemical components are generic equivalents b. Two preparations each labeled with different active ingredients are clinically effective equivalents c. both high and poor quality pharmaceuticals are available under both generic names and brand names d. a relationship exists between quality pharmaceuticals and therapeutic efficacy

B

The ff. brought about the increasing need of hospital formularies except: a. increasing number of new drugs being marketed b. unbiased advertising & unscientific drug literature c. highly competitive marketing practices of the pharmaceutical industry d. all of the above e. none of the above

B

The final decision as to which drugs shall be placed on the pavilion in the selection of charge floor stock drugs rests on: a. chief pharmacist c. medical staff b. pharmacy & therapeutic committee d. both a & d

B

The first recognized representative of pharmaceutical profession: a. community pharmacist d. industrial pharmacist b. hospital pharmacist e. clinical pharmacist c. manufacturing pharmacist

B

The focal point about which all activities of the hospital revolves: a. physician c. governing board b. patient d. administrator

B

The following are general sections of a pharmacy procedural manual, except: a. facilities d. services & activities b. library e. personnel c. organization

B

The following are patient-related predisposing factors to ADRs except: a. age c, genetic disposition b. formulation d. history of allergy

B

The following are the responsibilities of pharmacy and therapeutic committee, except: a. develop formulary b. update the policies of the pharmacy department c. choice of drugs to be requisitioned d. add and delete from the list of drug e. none of the above

B

The following are true about biotransformation except: a. occurs after drug distribution b. converts polar to nonpolar drugs c. converts lipophilic to hydrophilic drugs d. can influence drug elimination rate

B

The following are true about dimercaprol except: a. British Anti-Lewisite c. indicated for as poisoning b. Indicated for Fe poisoning d. chemical antagonist

B

The following are true for health care team, except: a. health teams include nurses, physicians, pharmacists, etc. b. health care teams are health personnel from a single or common discipline or specialization c. members of a health care teams deal with various aspects of the care and management of a patient

B

The following are true regarding incompatibilities, except: a. problems arising during compounding, dispensing and dispensing and drug administration b. easier to correct than to prevent c. may be intentional or unintentional d. must be recognized by pharmacists

B

The following provide health care services and perform tasks under the direction of the physician, except: a. cytotechnologist c. medical technologist b. clinical pharmacist d. occupational therapist

B

The group established in the Phil. For hospital pharmacists a. ASHP c. ASHP b. PSHP d. PACOP

B

The inability to control elimination of urine and the feces: a. defecation d. pyresis b. incontinence e. diuresis c. emesis

B

The incorrect prescription that can be filled is the: a. impossible prescription c. violative prescription b. erroneous prescription d. none of the above

B

The label text outside the principal display panel on the immediate container of pharmaceutical products as specified by RA 3720 contains the following information except: a. formulation c. batch and/or lot number b. contraindication d. mode of administration

B

The lowering of melting point is called: a. evolution c. hydrolysis b. eutexia d. none of these

B

The meaning of the abbreviation p.c. in the signa of a prescription a. as necessary c. at bedtime b. after meal d. sufficient quantity

B

The most common cause of diabetic ketoacidosis and coma in the diagnosed and treated diabetic is: a. insulin overdosage b. failure of the patient to use insulin properly c. electrolyte depletion d. use of the wrong type of insulin e. excessive physical activity

B

The most common side effect of erythromycin therapy is: a. hysterical laughing c. weight gain b. abdominal cramping d. drowsiness

B

The most important protein to which drugs can bind in the plasma: a. lipoprotein c. glycoprotein b. albumin d. none of the above

B

The most serious side effect of ergonovine use would be: a. stimulation of the uterus c. nausea and vomiting b. dry gangrene of fingers and toes

B

The normal body temperature is 37°C. Express this in °Fahrenheit. a. 96.8°F b. 98.6°F c. 28.3°F d. 100°F

B

The normal drop rate in TPN therapy is: a. 1 ml/min c. 1ml/min b. 2 ml/min d. 5 ml/min

B

The normal range of specific gravity of urine is about 1.003 to 1.030. Using 5-mL urine samples, what would be the difference in weight, in mg, between these extremes? a. 145 mg b. 135 mg c. 136 mg d. 155 mg

B

The pharmacy department does not supply one of the following: a. IV admixture d. light b. sterile linen e. biological c. narcotics

B

The precipitation of an organic substance from a saturated solution when highly soluble salts are added is known as: a. polymorphism c. racemization b. salting-out d. eutexia

B

The prescription should be read and checked: a. infront of the patient/customer c. in the counter of the botica b. in the privacy of the pharmacy d. none of the above

B

The process used to determine the "waiting period" of an outpatient for his prescription? a. drug recall c. flow process chart b. queuing theory d. activity chart

B

The protrusion of a loop or knuckle of an organ or tissue through an Abnormal opening: a. fracture c. puncture b. hernia d. none of the above

B

The reaction between sodium bicarbonate and aspirin would result to: a. formation of precipitate c. hydrolytic changes b. evolution of gas d. invisible changes

B

This enables the pharmacist to screen for drug reactions and incompatibilities, drug allergies of drug prescribed a. nurses notes d. patient history b. patient drug profile e. all of the above c. pharmacy record book

B

This identifying information includes: color, birthplace, nationality, religion, and social status: a. informant d. occupation b. racial stock e. none of the above c. admission

B

This is a disorder marked by permanent alveolar enlargement distal to the terminal bronchioles and there is inflammation and excessive mucuous secretion which cause air trapping in the alveoli: a. chronic bronchitis c. pulmonary b. emphysema d. none

B

This is not a function of the dietetic service: a. participate in ward rounds and conferences b. recording medication histories of patients c. plan patient's menu d. interview patients regarding their food habits e. counseling patients concerning normal or modified diet regimen

B

This occurs whenever the combined effect of two drugs with different sites of activity is greater than the algebraic sum of their independent effects: a. summation c. potentiation b. synergism d. heterergic

B

This refers to the maximum effect a drug can produce, regardless of the dose required to produce the effect a. drug potency c. drug threshold b. drug efficacy d. drug response

B

Type F ADRs can occur as a result of the following except: a. antimicrobial drug resistance c. counterfeit drugs b. patient compliance d. drug instability

B

Type of drug strongly bound to albumin: a. basic drug c. alkaline drugs b. acidic drugs d. all of the above

B

Type of patient who requires the service of the hospital during the critical time of his illness or injury, a time he may not be able to make his needs known: a. home care patient d. self-care patient b. intensive care unit e. none of the choices c. chronic care patient

B

Urinary alkalinizer administered with sulfonamides treatment to prevent crystalluria a. Na2CO3 c. NaOH or KOH b. NaHCO3 d. Na2CO3 10H2O

B

Used in the treatment of alcoholism by inhibiting activity of aldehyde dehydrogenase: a. probenecid c. Phenobarbital b. antabuse d. aspirin

B

Vital signs include all of the following except: a. blood pressure d. respiratory rate b. cardiac output c. heart rate c. temperature

B

What does 0.5mg/ 500 g capsule mean when expressed in %w/w? a. 0.5% b. 0.1% c. 5% d. 1% e. none

B

What is the dose of a drug for a 6-year old child if the average adult dose is 1 ½ grains? a. ½ g b. ½ gr c. ½ mg d. ½ mcg

B

What is the specific gravity of a liquid having a specific volume of 0.825? a. 0.825 b. 1.212 c. none of the choices

B

What is weight of 60 mL of oil whose density is 0.9624 g/mL? a. 5.770 g b. 57.7 g c. 6.0 g d. 0.577 g

B

When suppositories containing phenol causes the vehicle to soften the melting point may be raised by adding: a. lanolin c. fixed oil b. petrolatum d. vehicle

B

When the word otic appears on the label of the drug, the patient should be informed that the drug is applied on th a. mouth c. eyes b. ear d. nose

B

When valporic acid is prescribed for petit mal epilepsy in a patient who is already receiving Phenobarbital a. the Phenobarbital should be discontinued because Phenobarbital will inactivate valporic acid b. the dose of Phenobarbital may have to be decreased because valporic acid will increase Phenobarbital blood levels c. ethosuximide should also be prescribed d. valporic acid should be given in the morning and the Phenobarbital should be given at bedtime e. the dose of both drugs may have to be higher than usual because each drugs may have to be higher than usual because each drug enhances the metabolism of the other

B

Which drug is notorious for causing hypersensitivity reactions? a. Penicillin d. Amikacin b. Aspirin e. Ether c. Digoxin

B

Which drug is used to treat gastrointestinal spasms and colic? a. Warfarin d. Diazepam b. Propantheline e. Mylanta c. Phenytoin

B

Which hormone aids in the conversion of glycogen to glucose in the liver: a. insulin c. estrogen b. glucagons d. parathormone

B

Which of the following drugs undergoes marked hydrolysis in the GI Tract? a. Aspirin d. Hydrocortisone b. Penicillin G e. Chlortetracycline c. Acetaminophen

B

Which of the following group of drugs does aggravate congestive heart failure? a. estrogen c. Beta-blocking agents b. Cardiac glycosides d. Corticosteroids

B

Which of the following is a disadvantage of documenting a medication history using the freestyle format? a. the format is inflexible b. scanning the document for specific details is difficult c. space may not be available for all patient information d. all of the above

B

Which of the following is an objective parameter? a. blurred vision d. tinnitus b. temperature e. fatigue c. headache

B

Which of the following is most closely related to cefazolin? a. Erythromycin d. Carbencillin b. Moxalactam e. Gentamycin c. ampicillin

B

Which of the following is not a minimum standard for pharmacies in hospitals: a. facilities d. research b. drug administration e. drug distribution & control c. assuring rational drug therapy

B

Which of the following is not an antiasthma preparation? a. terbutaline c. salbutamol b. cimetidine d. prednisolone

B

Which of the following is not an antiasthma preparation? a. terbutaline d. salbutamol b. nifedipine e. theophylline c. prednisolone

B

Which of the following is not needed in the admission sheet? a. patient's name and address d. occupation b. monthly income e. family status c. sex & date of birth

B

If a cough syrup contains 0.24 g of codeine phosphate in 120 mL, how many milligrams are contained in each tsp dose? a. 20 mg b. 15 mg c. 10 mg d. 5 mg

C

All of these should be taken into consideration in preparing dosage form not available commercially, except: a. stability d. pharmacokinetic b. quality assurance e. economic factor c. availability of the patient

C

. What is the % of alcohol in a mixture of 400 mL of 40% alcohol and 600 mL of a 60% alcohol? a. 50% b. 57% c. 52%

C

If 800g of a 5% coal tar ointment is mixed with 1200 g of a 10% coal tar ointment, what is the concentration of coal tar in the finished product? a. 8.5% b. 9.5% c. 8% d. 9%

C

175. Factors that influence the development of clinical pharmacy: a. unresponsiveness of health care delivery systems to drug therapy problems b. overeducated and under utilized pharmacist c. both d. neither

C

2 solutions that have the same osmotic pressure: a. hypotonic b. hypertonic c. isoosmotic d. isotonic

C

A 250 mL infusion bottle contains 2.0 mEq of calcium per mL. How much calcium in grams does it contain? Ca: mol wt = 40.0 a. 3.0 g b. 5.0 g c. 10.0 g d. none of the above

C

A 55-year old patient with a 5-year history of angina and a recent myocardial infarction is admitted to the hospital because of malignant hypertension. Diazoxide should not be used in this patient because a. of its cardiostimulating effects b. of its slow onset of activity c. it tends to increase uric acid levels d. it is likely to cause orthostatc hypotension e. of its hepatotoxicity

C

A STAT order means the drug has to be administered a. as needed by the patient c. immediately b. at the hour of sleep d. before surgery

C

A common disease affecting teenagers primarily, which is precipitated by occlusion of the dust-draining sebaceous glands a. psoriasis c. acne vulgaris b. urticaria d. photoallergic reaction

C

A cough syrup is labeled as containing 20% alcohol by volume. Which of the ff. statement is/are true? a. Each 100mL of syrup contains exactly 20mL alcohol USP. b. The proof strength of this product is 40. c. All of these d. There is the equivalent of 20mL of absolute alcohol present in every 100mL of syrup.

C

A drug that increases the anticoagulant action of warfarin because its metabolite competes with the anticoagulant for plasma protein binding sites: a. tolbutamide c. chloral hydrate b. aspirin d. diazepam

C

A generic substitute means: a. therapeutic equivalent d. all of the above b. bioequivalent e. both a & c c. chemical equivalent

C

A humectant retards a. bacterial growth d. spreadability b. degradation e. all of the above c. surface evaporation

C

A jar of cleansing cream is sold for P7.50, thereby yielding a gross profit of 60% on the cost. What did it cost? a. P5.00 b. P4.00 c. P4.69 d. P4.50

C

A laminar flow hood is used when intravenous solutions are: a. labeled d. administered b. stored e. both a & c c. prepared

C

A method of solving problems that involved the mixing of solutions or mixture of solids a. alligation medial b. alligation alternate c. both a and b d. none

C

A modern usage of the term ambulatory patient: a. in-patient d. institutionalized patient b. ward patient e. hospitalized patient c. non-institutionalized patient

C

A pain reliever tablet is listed at P100 per dozen, less a discount of 33.5%. The manufacturer offers 12 tablets free for every 6 dozens purchased. What is the net cost per tablet when the drug is bought on the deal? a. P4.25 b. P4.35 c. P4.75 d. P4.50

C

A patient medication orders states that he is to receive ampicillin 500 mg.p.o.q8H. How many doses of ampicilln 250 capsules should be placed in the patient's unit dose drawer daily? a. 2 c. 6 b. 4 d. 10

C

A patient with a documented allergy to morphine should not receive which of the following analgesics? a. meperidine d. methadone b. pentazocine e. butorphenol c. codeine

C

A pharmacist purchased 5 gallons of alcohol. At different times, 2pints, 2 gallons, 8 fluidounces, and ½ gallon were used by the pharmacist. What volume, in fluidounces, remained? a. 256 b. 264 c. 280 d. 296

C

A physician places a patient on a daily dose of 48 units of U-80 insulin. How many ml should the patient inject each day? a. 0.4 b. 0.5 c. 0.6 d. 0.25

C

A physician requests that an iso-alcoholic elixir containing 30.0% alcohol be prepared. How much low alcoholic elixir (10.0% of alcohol) and high alcoholic elixir (78% of alcohol) must be mixed to prepare 1 gallon of iso-alcoholic elixir? a. 1481 mL of low and 953 mL of high b. 1520 mL of low and 953 mL of high c. 1407.35 mL of low and 3377.64 mL of high d. 2925 mL of low and 1450 mL of high

C

A potent analgesic emergency drug: a. epinephrine c. pethidine b. dopamine d. ephedrine

C

A prescription calls for 0.3 g of phosphoric acid with a sp gr of 1.71. How many mL should be used in compounding the prescription? a. 0..5 b. 5.7 c. 0.18 d. 3

C

A prescription calls for 0.3 g of phosphoric acid with a specific gravity of 1.71. How many mL should be used in compounding the prescription? a. 0.5 mL b. 0.7 mL c. 0.18 mL d. 0.3 mL

C

A prescription should be refused when: a. patient is terribly sick b. there is no available delivery service c. essential information is missing d. it is not signed by the pharmacist

C

A prescription where the generic name does not correspond to the brand name a. violative Rx c. impossible Rx b. erroneous Rx d. yellow DDB Rx

C

A remedy for tablet granulations containing vitamin C: a. prepare by dry granulation c. both A & B b. use precoated ascorbic acid granules d. none of the above

C

Administrative policies for a pharmacy unit are generally developed a. with the approval of the pharmacy and therapeutics committee b. with the approval of the medical and/or nursing staffs c. with the approval of the administrative officers of the hospital d. by the pharmacy unit alone

C

Admixture with solutions or mixture of greater strength or by evaporation of the diluent: a. diluted b. saturated c. concentrated d. none

C

Advantages of unit dose drug distribution, except: a. more efficient use of personnel c. increased floor stock b. minimization of credits d. greater workload control

C

Adverse drug reactions characterized by exaggerated or inordinate response to normal doses of a drug: a. idiosyncrasy c. hypersensitivity b. allergy d. potentiation

C

Alkaline phosphatase below normal value indicates a. bone fracture b. liver inflammation c. hypothyroidism and growth retardation d. bile duct obstruction

C

All of the following are advantages of unit dose drug distribution system, except: a. pharmacist review of medication errors b. participation on a nutritional support team c. prompt delivery of a new medication orders d. reduced pharmacy costs

C

All of the following are adverse reactions to sulfonamides except: a. skin eruption c. "gray baby" syndrome b. kernicterus

C

All of the following are considered desirable functions of contemporary hospital pharmacy, except: a. clinical consultation d. purchasing & inventory control b. IV mixture programs c. floor stock distribution

C

All of the following are minimum standards for hospital pharmacy, except: a. facilities c. drug administration b. research d. assuring rational drug therapy

C

All of the following techniques are useful in communicating with the Hearing-impaired elderly patient, except: a. sitting at eye level in front of the patient b. removing audible and visual distraction c. raising the voice as high as necessary to be heard d. repeating phrases to test comprehension e. writing down the question

C

An advantage of loperamide over diphenoxylate as an anti-diarrheal is the fact that loperamide: a. has a relatively short biologic T1/2 and is, therefore, not likely to be abused b. has a direct effect on the CNS c. does not appear to have opiate-ike effects d. is not a control substance e. can be given parenterally

C

An elixir is to contain 250 mcg of an alkaloid in each teaspoon dose. How many g of the alkaloid will be required to prepare 5L of the elixir? a. 25 g b. 2.5 g c. 0.25 g d. 5 g e. 0.5 g

C

An endocrine disease characterized by increased susceptibility to Infection, increased fatigability, recessive inheritance and polyuria is: a. Acromegaly d. Cushing's disease b. Grave's disease e. Hashimoto's disease c. Diabetes Mellitus

C

An important advantage of using dopamine in cardiogenic shock is that dopamine a. will not cross blood-brain barrier and cause CNS effects b. has not effects on alpha and beta receptors c. produces dose-dependent increase in cardiac output and renal perfusion d. will not increase blood pressure e. can give orally

C

Are added to drug formulations to prevent or reduce oxidation a. complexing agents c. antioxidants b. surfactants d. additives

C

Area within the pharmacy curriculum which deals with patient care with emphasis on drug therapy: a. dispensing pharmacy d. both a and c b. radiopharmacy e. all of the above c. clinical pharmacy

C

Associated with intense marrow erythropoitic acticity a. Basophilic stippling c. Nucleated RBCs C b. Heinz bodies d. Schistocytes

C

Because it is the language of medical science throughout the world, this language is still used in Rx writing: a. English c. Latin b. German d. Spanish

C

Best type or mode or questioning during the middle phase of interview: a. questions answerable with yes or no b. open question c. open - ended question d. direct question e. any type

C

Borborygmi is: a. discontinuous, bubbling abdominal sound of short duration b. accurse abdominal sound that disappears on coughing c. loud gurgling and tinkling sounds heard over the abdomen d. also known as crepitation

C

Calculate the sodium (Na) content, in terms of mEq, of 1 g of ampicillin sodium (C16H18N3NaO4S, mol wt 371) a. 2.5 mEq b. 2.8 mEq c. 2.7 mEq d. 3 mEq

C

Change 1/10% to a common fraction. a. 1/100 b. 1/10 c. 1/1000 d. 1/.01

C

Chloramphenicol can lead to this untoward drug reaction: a. agranucytosis c. both A & B b. Gray syndrome d. none of the above

C

Citric acid, atropine sulfate and ferrous sulfate are classified as: a. eutectic mixtures c. efflorescent substances b. deliquescent substs. d. polymorphs

C

Completed hospital records or charts are the legal property of the: a. patient d. patient's representative lawyer b. doctor in-charge e. insurance carrier c. hospital

C

Concentration of a weak solution of liquid preparation is expressed in terms of: a. proof strength b. percentage strength c. ratio strength d. mEq

C

Concentrations of electrolytes in solution are expressed in terms of: a. g% b. g/mL c. mEq d. millimole

C

Consists of the hemoglobin, hematocrit, red blood cell count, WBC count, mean cell volume, mean cell hemoglobin and mean cell hemoglobin count a. Red blood cell inclusions c. Complete blood count b. Blood smear d. Burr cells

C

Control of congestive heart failure can be achieved by: a. reduction of cardiac workload b. control of excessive salt and water retention c. both of the above d. none of the above

C

Convert 104°F to centigrade. a. 20.0°C b. 30.0°C c. 40.0°C d. 50.0°C

C

Corticosteroids are frequently given with antacids to a. enhance absorption b. slow absorption c. reduce ulceration and bleeding d. increase the rate of distribution

C

Cromolyn sodium is useful in asthma only in: a. oral tabs c. inhalation b. pills d. injectable

C

Cyclosporine is a/an a. aminoglycoside antibiotic d. fungicide b. third-generation cephalosporine e. prostaglandin analog c. immunosuppressant

C

Decreased urinary recycling, increases elimination rate constant hence a. increases half life b. longer duration of pharmacologic response c. shortens duration of pharmacologic response d. increases therapeutic concentration in the body

C

Deficiency of Vitamin B12 in the body leads to: a. hemolytic anemia, anoxeria, loss weight b. mlicromatic anemia, los appetite c. megaloblastic anemia,subacute combined degeneration and epithelial tissue abnormality d. hyperthropy of skin, burning sensation of palm and sole

C

Defined as an organized, directed post -graduate training program in a define area of pharmacy practice: a. training c. residency b. practicum d. none of these

C

Degradationof drugs or excipient molecules can be brought about by light, either room lights or sunlight. a. solvolysis c. photolysis b. oxidation d. polymerization

C

Disadvantage/s of the individual prescription order system of drug distribution: a. increased potential for medication errors b. increased drug inventory c. delay in drug administration d. all of the above e. none of the above

C

Diuretics tend to enhance lithium salt toxicity due to a. direct drug interaction b. potassium depletion c. sodium depletion d. increase solubility of the lithium salts

C

Duphaston is a/an a. cathartic c. infertility drug b. laxative d. anti-TB drug

C

During drug interaction, the affected drug may become more active resulting to the following except: a. increase drug activity c. less effective b. longer therapeutic action d. toxicity

C

Ecstacy exhibits this type of ADR: a. Type A b. Type B c. Type C d. Type D

C

Education and training division a. coordinate programs of undergraduate pharmacy students b. participate in hospital-wide educational programs involving doctors, nurses. etc. c. both a and b d. none of the above

C

Emulsions made with tweens are usually: a. unstable d. clear b. w/o e. reversible c. o/w

C

Enzyme induction of Phenobarbital with oral contraceptives can lead to: a. decreased Phenobarbital action b. increased oral contraceptives action c. unreliable contraception d. none of the above

C

Examples of co-solvents: a. water, butanol c. glycols, sorbitol, glycerol b. alcohol, mineral oil d. acetone, water, alcohol

C

Excessive rapidity of respiration: a. Cytopenia c. tachypnea b. Necrosis d. tachycardia

C

Express 0.2% as a ratio strength. a. 1:5000 b. 1:50 c. 1:500 d. 1:5

C

Express 1:2000 as a percentage strength a. 0.5% b. 5% c. 0.05% d. 0.0005%

C

FeSO4 is used for a. cough d. parasitism b. pain e. arthritis c. anemia

C

Filling of prescription is lawfully the job of: a. physician d. sales clerk b. nurse e. patient c. pharmacist

C

First hospital pharmacist in the United States a. Charles Rice c. Jonathan Roberts b. Jonathan Wilbert d. none of the above

C

For which kind of patient is the availability of monitoring date limited? a. a hospitalized, critically ill patient b. a patient just started on insulin therapy c. a patient with stable, well-controlled mild hypertension d. a patient undergoing renal dialysis e. a postsurgical trauma patient

C

Fundamental functions of hospitals, except: a. patient care d. research b. education e. public health c. housing

C

General corrections of incompatibilities include all of the ff. except: a. separation of immiscible liquids c. use of a different brand b. change of vehicle d. substitution of ingredients

C

Generally, the presence of the impaired renal function or overt renal failure in a patient reduce his requirements for: a. all drugs b. drugs that are reabsorbed from the kidney tubules c. drugs that are directly excreted or which are actively metabolized by the liver and are excreted by the kidney d. b and c

C

Generic dispensing means: a. dispensing drugs with generic names only b. dispensing with correct prescription c. dispensing the costumer's choice from generally equivalent drugs d. dispensing drugs in proper containers

C

How many doses of teaspoonful each are there in a 4-fl. Oz. bottle of medication? a. 10 b. 20 c. 24 d. 30

C

How many fluidounces of a 7% solution can be made from 142 grains of potassium iodide? a. 4.6 b. 5 c. 4.5 d. 4.4

C

How many gallons of water are needed to dilute 1 gallon of 6^ conc. Of antiseptic solution to make 2% final concentration? a. 1 gallon b. 3 gallons c. 2 gallons d. 1.5 gallons

C

How many grains are there in 5.0 g of strychnine sulfate? a. 10.4 gr b. 20.4 gr c. 77.2 gr d. 0.99 gr

C

How many grams of a 1:10 trituration of atropine sulfate are required to obtain 25 mg of atropine sulfate? a. 250 b. 25 c. 0.25 d. 2.5

C

How many mL of glycerin would be needed to prepare 1 lb of an ointment containing 5% w/w glycerin? The density of glycerin is 1.25 g/mL. a. 1.2 b. 22.7 c. 18.2 d. 24

C

How many mg are there in 3/8 grains? a. 23 mg b. 23.5 mg c. 24 mg d. 24.5 mg

C

How many milligrams of a certified red color should be used in preparing 5 L of a 0.1% solution? a. 0.005 g b. 0.5 g c. 5 g d. 0.05 g

C

How many milliliter of U-100 insulin should be used to obtain 50 units of insulin? a. 5 mL b. 50 mL c. 0.5 mL d. 500 mL

C

How many milliliters of a 23.5% (w/v) concentrate of sodium chloride solution should be used in preparing 650 mL of a stock solution such that 30 mL diluted to a liter will yield a 1:5000 solution? a. 0.2 mL b. 4.33 mL c. 18.44 mL d. 11.75 mL

C

How many milliliters of a syrup containing 85% (w/v) of sucrose should be mixed with 150mL of a syrup containing 60% (w/v) of sucrose to make a syrup containing 80% (w/v) of sucrose? a. 500 mL b. 550 mL c. 600 mL d. 650 mL

C

How many milliliters of water must be added to 250 mL of a 25% (w/v) stock solution of sodium chloride to prepare a 0.9% (w/v) sodium chloride solution? a. 6,5100 mL b. 6,600 mL c. 6,694 mL d. 6,490 mL

C

How many proof gallons are contained in 3 wine gallons of a 50% (v/v) alcohol? a. 5 proof gallons b. 4 proof gallons c. 3 proof gallons d. 2 proof gallons

C

Htperalimentation is indicated for a. Renal and Hepatic failure c. both of the above b. Crohns disease d. none of the above

C

Hypothyroidism should be treated with daily administration of which one of the following thyroid hormone preparations? a. dextrothyroxine d. methimazole b. propylthiouracil e. chlorpropamide c. thyroxine

C

If 10 mL f a nitroglycerin injection (5mg of nitroglycerin per milliliter) are added to make a liter of intravenous fluid, what is the percentage (w/v) of nitroglycerin in the final product? a. 0.025% b. 0.05% c. 0.005% d. 0.0005%

C

If 1000 mL of syrup with a specific gravity of 1.313 contains 850 g of sucrose. What is the % (w/w)? a. 6.5% b. 65.5% c. 64.74% d. 64%

C

If 250 mL of a 1:800 (v/v) solution are diluted to 1000 mL, what will be the ratio strength (v/v)? a. 1:320 b. 1:3000 c. 1: 3,200 d. 1: 32,000 DNA

C

If 250 units of an antibiotic weighs 1 mg, how many units are in 25 mg? a. 6,256 b. 6,255 c. 6,250 d. 6,500

C

If ampules of amyl nitrate inhalant each contain 0.3 mL of amyl nitrate, having a sp gr of 0.87, how many grams of the drug would be used in preparing 4000 ampules? a. 4401 g b. 4014 g c. 1044 g d. 1404 g e. 1440 g

C

If the ratio 1:250 is expressed as %, the result is: a. 0.004% b. 0.04% c. 0.4% d. 0.004% e. 0.05%

C

If there is doubt in legibility of the prescription, the pharmacist should: a. decide based on patient's ailment c. consult the prescriber b. make an educated guess d. consult MIMS

C

If we divide 5L into 10 equal parts, what is the volume of 1 part? a. 50 mL b. 0.005 L c. 0.500 L d. 0.05 L

C

In Schizoprenic syndrome, there is primarily: a. increased cholinergic activity b. decreased cholinergic activity c. increased dopaminergic activity d. decreased dopaminergic activity

C

In preparing 250 mL of a certain lotion, a pharmacist used 16 mL of liquefied phenol. What was the percentage of liquefied phenol in the lotion? a. 15.63% b. 0.064% c. 6.4% d. none

C

In radiopharmacy, he term "rem" means a. radiation per millisecond b. radiation per minute c. roengent-equivalent-man d. external roentgens per minute e. roentgen exposure per minute

C

In this serve form of erythema multiforme, there is involvement of the oronasal anogenic mucosa. a. exfoliative dermatitis c. Steven Jhonson's syndrome b. photosensitive eruptions d. all of these

C

In using isoproterenol hydrochloride solution (1:5000 w/v), 1 mL of the solution is diluted to 10 mL with sodium chloride injection prior to IV administration. What is he percentage concentration of the diluted solution? a. 0.001 b. 0.005 c. 0.002 d. 0.008

C

In what order should the physical examination proceed? a. head, vital signs, ears, eyes, skin b. eyes, head, ears, skin, vital signs c. vital signs, skin, head, eyes, ears d. ears, eyes, head, skin, vital signs

C

In what proportion should 10% and 2% coal tar ointments be mixed to prepare a 5% ointment? a. 3:7 b. 2:5 c 3:5 d. 2:3

C

Increased sugar level in the blood over normal level. a. hypercalcemia c. hyperglycemia b. hyperkalemia d. hyperuricemias

C

Information which is not necessary in an inpatient prescription: a. date when the order was written b. name and strength of medication c. patient's addressograph information d. printed name of physician

C

It is a legal document that includes section for hospital specific admission, initial history, physical exam, daily progress notes, etc. a. medical record c. both a and b b. patient chart d. none of the choices

C

It is a technique that delivers an amount of electrolyte solution over a period of several hours and is used to replace electrolytes needed by the patient a. drop factor c. fluid blousing b. metabolism d. loading dose

C

It provides basic information regarding renal function, urinary tract disease and the presence of certain systemic diseases: a. Creatinine clearance c. Urinalysis b. Blood urea nitrogen d. Renal function tests

C

It refers to the in-vivo phenomenon that occurs whenever an interactant chemical modifies the expected therapeutics results of a drug. a. Adverse drug reactions c. Drug interaction b. Anaphylaxis d. Idiosyncrasy

C

It serves as a guide to the hospital pharmacist in the development and execution of effective and proficient pharmaceutical services in the hospital: a. formulary system d. patient's medication profile b. P & TC e. blue book c. pharmacy procedural manual

C

It shows the flow of authority and services on hand: a. pharmacy procedural manual c. organizational chart b. hospital pharmacy d. journal

C

Its increase is strongly correlated with coronary artery disease a. Tryglicerides c. Low density lipoprotein b. High density lipoprotein d. Lipids

C

Lanoxin pediatric elixir contains 0.05 mg of digoxin / mL. How many micrograms (mcg) are there in 3 mL of the elixir? a. 1.5 b. 0.0015 c. 150 d. 15 e. NOTA

C

Legal document which contains all the treatment done to the patient: a. patient medical profile d. doctor's sheet b. therapeutic sheet e. all of the above c. patient chart

C

Medical staff is composed of: a. pharmacists d. medical technologists b. nurses e. both b & c c. physicians

C

Medical staff who are responsible for taking care of patient and who has direct involvement with the staff organizational and administrative duties: a. resident medical staff d. consulting medical staff b. honorary medical staff e. honorary medical staff c. attending medical staff

C

Medication orders (Chart Orders) differ from prescription in that they: a. are intended for ambulatory use b. contains only the generic name of the drug c. may contain nonmedication instructions from the practitioner d. contain the quantity of medication to be dispensed

C

NPO means: a. patient should be given drugs after meals b. patient should be given drugs before meals c. patient should not be given anything by mouth d. patient should be left undisturbed

C

Nizatidine inhibits gastric acid secretion as a result of what kind of activity? a. anticholinergic d. antianxiety b. antiadrenergic e. anorectic c. antihistaminic

C

Non-licensed personnel play an important role in the hospital pharmacy because a. many of them aspire to be pharmacists, and working in the hospital pharmacy provides training b. they can be trained to act in the place of a pharmacist within 3 months c. they can perform certain functions under the supervision of a registered pharmacist and therefore free other pharmacists to perform more professional duties

C

Number of grams of constituents per 100 mL solution: a. % w/w b. % v/v c. % w/v d. none of the given

C

Occurs immediately upon compounding like presence of precipitate; Effervescene of color changes. a. minor incompatibility c. immediate incompatibility b. delayed incompatibility d. major incompatibility

C

One kilogram is equivalent to: a. 1000 mg b. 2.5 lb c. 1000 g d. 5.432 gr

C

One pound of a fungicidal ointment contains 9.08 g of undecylenic acid. Calculate the percentage (w/w) of undecylenic acid in the ointment. a. 1.81% b. 1.5% c. 2% d. 2.5%

C

One who shall initiate regulation pertaining to the professional policies of the Pharmacy Department: a. pharmacy & therapeutic committee d. clinical pharmacist b. therapeutic sheet e. all of the bill c. patient chart

C

Oral antihistamines exhibit the following side effect: a. drowsiness c. both A & B b. sleepiness d. anemia

C

Outpatient health care settings include the following except: a. clinics c. rehabilitation centers b. day surgery units d. emergency rooms

C

Patient who is able to walk: a. in-patient d. hospitalized patient b. ICU patient e. none of the above c. ambulatory patient

C

Patient-focused practice area a. outpatient clinic c. geriatrics and long term care b. community pharmacies d. patient's home

C

Patients on lithium carbonate therapy should be advised: a. to limit water intake b. to stop taking the drug if they experience mild side effects c. not to restrict their normal dietary salt intake d. not to take the drug during manic phase of their cycle e. not to take the drug with food

C

Phlevitis is most closely associated with which type of injections? a. intradermal d. subcutaneous b. intramuscular e. both IM and IV c. intravenous

C

Physical and emotional stress can trigger the production of: a. asthma b. angina pectoris, congestive heart failure c. both of the above d. none of the above

C

Physicians prefer the calculation of doses for children based on: a. age b. weight c. body surface area d. height

C

Physiological antidote for narcotics. a. atropine c. naloxone b. ephedrine d. codeine

C

Piroxicam is a /an: a. prohibited drug c. OTC drug b. regulated drug d. any of these answers

C

Powerful tool for the orderliness, cleanliness, and sanitary procedures in the hospital pharmacy department: a. chief pharmacist d all of the above b. assistant chief pharmacist e. none of the above c. staff pharmacist

C

Prednisone is converted to which of the following by the liver? a. Cortisone d. Methylprednisolone b. Hydrocortisone e. Dexamethaxone c. Prednisolone

C

Prepare the hospital pharmacy newsletter: a. administrative services c. pharmacy information service b. education & training service d. Pharmaceutical research division

C

Purified water USP may NOT be used in: a. syrups d. elixirs b. topical preparations e. effervescent solutions c. parenteral preparations

C

Purpose of a pharmacy policy and procedure manual a. ensure uniformity and consistency b. the best defense in the event of litigation c. both of the above d. none of the above

C

Ranitide (Zantac) is effective in treating duodenal ulcer because it; a. strengthens the productive coating in the intestinal wall b. is an agonist at H2 receptor and therefore reduce pepsin c. blocks histamine stimulation of gastric acid secretion by H2 blocker d. none of the above

C

Reaction which arise from the known pharmacological action of the drug and may be due to excessive dose of a drug a. precaution d. type B ADR b. contraindication e. drug interactions c. type A ADR

C

Remedy when a solid substance faild to dissolve in a liquid a. addition of an inert ingredients b. prepare an emulsion c. prepare a suspension d. dispensing the ingredients separately

C

Responsibilities often delegated to hospital pharmacy technicians include: a. counseling patients d. pharmacokinetic monitoring b. review physician's order e. none c. prepare IV admixture

C

Responsible for creating a hospital formulary: a. pharmacy d. medical staff b. medical director e. both b & c c. board of trustees

C

Responsible for the procurement, distribution and control of all drugs used within the hospital: a. purchasing agent c. pharmacist b. medical staff d. lay personnel

C

Second line anti-tuberculosis drugs are the following, except: a. ethionamide, cycloserine, pas b. kanamycin, viomycin,capreomycin c. pza,streptomycin,ethambutol d. none of the above

C

Serve as a tool with which the pharmacist assures appropriateness, safety, and effectiveness of drug therapy: a. medical staff b. pharmacy & therapeutics committee c. patient medication profile d. physicians original order

C

Side effects of streptomycin: a. headache c. ototoxicity b. dryness of the mouth d. none of the above

C

Situation wherein there is an increase in total bilirubin; direct bilirubin is usually normal or slightly elevated and urine color is normal and no bilirubin is found in the urine; a. Biliary stone c. Hemolysis b. Cirrhosis d. Iron deficiency anemias

C

Sodium benzoate is effective as a preservative if the pH of the preparation is: a. above 4 c. below 4 b. above 7 d. below 7

C

Solutions that contain bacteriostatic agents: a. cannot be tested for sterility b. must be cultures on agar plates for sterility tests c. must be diluted beyond the bacteriostatic level for sterility tests d. do not require a sterility test e. are none of the above

C

Spans and tweens are a. highly polymerized mannuronic acid anhydrites b. phospholipids c. polyoxyalkalene derivatives d. glycosides

C

Sudafed cough syrup contains 0.09 g of dextromethorphan hydrobromide in each fluidounce. How many milligrams of this agent would be present in each teaspoonful dose? a. 10 mg b. 12 mg c. 15 mg d. 20 mg

C

Surgical puncture of the heart a. pericardium c. cardiocentesis b. colostomy d. necroscopy

C

Takes charge of interviewing medical sales representatives: a. educational and training division b. in-patient services division c. purchasing and inventory control division d. administrative services division e. departmental services division

C

Temperature at which specific gravity should be performed according to USP/ NF: a. 4°C b. -40°C c. 25°C d. 25°C e. -40°C

C

Tetracycline is contraindicated for children because: a. it causes discoloration of teeth c. both of the above b. severe gastric disturbance d. none of the above

C

The "NO SUBSTITUTION" instruction is seen on a. erroneous prescription c. vilative prescription b. impossible prescription d. any of the above

C

The USP states that 1 g of a chemical is soluble in 10mL of alcohol. What is the percentage strength of a saturated solution of this chemical if alcohol has a sp gr of 0.80? a. 10.0% w/w b. 11.1% w/v c. 11.1% w/w d. 12.5% w/v

C

The abbreviations SOS on prescription means: a. at once d. do not repeat b. freely e. on alternate days c. if needed

C

The active ingredients of Desenex powder is: a. tolnatrate c. undecylenic acid b. salicylic acid

C

The admission sheet should contain the following except: a. the unit record number c. laboratory test result b. the patient's name d. admission diagnosis

C

The affinity of low molecular weight substances to macromolecular Structure in blood and tissue influences the: a. physical properties of the drug b. chemical properties of the drug c. distribution equilibrium of drugs d. liberation of drugs

C

The clinical investigation of a new drug consists of four phases. Phase I of the clinical testing involves administering the drug a. to animals to determine side effects of the drug b. to animals for toxicity studies c. by select clinicians to healthy volunteers d. by select clinicians to patients suffering from the disease e. by general practitioners to patients suffering from the disease

C

The directions intended for the patient on a prescription read 1 Tbsp a.c. and h.s. for 10 days. What is the minimum volume the pharmacist should dispense? a. 200 mL b. 150 mL c. 600 mL d. 450 mL

C

The dose of a drug is 0.5 mg/kg. What dose should be given a 6-year-old child who weights 44 lb? a. 0.003 g d. 0.100 g b. 0.033 g e. 0.05 g c. 0.010 g

C

The emergency treatment of patients with congestive heart failure a. digitalis glycoside d. vasodilators b. bed rest e. diuretics c. inotropic agents

C

The emergency treatment of patients with congestive heart failure: a. digitalis glycoside d. vasodilators b. bed rest e. diuretics c. inotropic agents

C

The ff. are clinical functions of pharmacist except: a. participate in in-service and patient education program b. assessing for drug interaction and adverse reactions c. taking quarterly physical inventory d. preparation of medication

C

The ff. drugs often precipitate an interaction when administered with a second drug, except: a. sedation c. hemolytic anemia b. headache d. hypokalemia

C

The following are alkanizing potassium salts, Except: a. potassium citrate c. potassium chloride b. potassium acetate d. potassium gluconate

C

The hematocrit measures the : a. total number of blood cells per volume of blood b. number of red blood cell per volume of blood c. percentage of red blood cells per volume of blood d. weight of hemoglobin per volume of blood e. weight of red blood cells per volume of blood

C

The ideal drug distribution system a. complete floor stock system c. unit dose system b. individual prescription system d. none of the above

C

The inhalant dose of amyl nitrite is 0.18 mL. Express the dose in minims. a. 4 m b. 2 m c. 3 m d. 5 m

C

The injection form of calcium gluconate (Ca(C7H13O8)2 contains 1 g of drug in 10 mL of solution. How many mEq of calcium are present? (Ca=40, (Ca(C7H13O8)2 =430) a. 0.78 b. 2.3 c. 4.7 d. 503

C

The injection of small amount of undiluted medication directly into the vein or through a heparin lock. a. drip infusion d. IV piggyback b. intermittent infusion e. none c. IV bolus

C

The least acceptable method of transmitting prescription orders of physician: a. by imputing the order into a computer terminal b. by sending a carbon copy of the physician's original medication order c. transcribing by nursing personnel to a requisition form d. the physician write the medication order on a separate blank and send it to the pharmacy

C

The major reason for drug use review a. drug cost d. drug administration b. patient drug history e. all of the above c. quality of drug therapy

C

The most prevalent commercial solid dosage forms are: a. hard capsules d. bulk powders b. soft gelatin capsules e. divided powders c. tablets

C

The most relaxed and comfortable position for examination of a patient with abdominal pain is: a. Sim's position c. dorsal position b. lithotomy position d. supine position

C

The pediatric dose of cefadroxil is 30 mg/kg/day. If a child is given a daily dose of 2 teaspoonfuls of a suspension containing 125 mg of cefadroxil per 5 mL, what is the weight in lb. of the child? a. 18.5 lbs b. 18.8 lbs c. 18.3 lbs d. 18.1 lbs

C

The pediatric dose of cefadroxil is 30mg/Kg/day. If a child was given a daily dose of 2 teaspoonfuls of pediatric suspension containing 125 mg of cefadroxil per 5 mL, what was the weight, in pounds, of the child? a. 19 lbs b. 17.3 lbs c. 18.3 lbs d. 18.5 lb

C

The pharmacy and therapeutics committee is not designed to: a. serve an educational function b. advise on professional policies involving the use of drugs in the hospital use c. dispense drugs for hospital use d. recommend in-service programs relating to drugs

C

The pharmacy department is not responsible for: a. inspecting unused/expired drugs b. preparing parenteral nutrition c. distributing sterile linen d. informing the hospital staff pertaining to medication

C

The supply of medicine to an individual patient in accordance to the prescription given by the physician: a. compounding c. dispensing b. formulation d. none of the above

C

These are H2 blockers, except: a. cimetidine c. felodipine b. nizatidine d. ranitidine

C

This drug class is used for mild symptoms, predominantly tremors in parkinson's disease: a. dopamine agonist c. anticholinergics b. dopamine precursor d. none

C

This drug inhibits the Vit. K dependent synthesis of clotting factors II, VII, IX and X a. Tetracycle c. Warfarin b. Diphenhydraime d. Aspirin

C

This is one of the items in the medical record for the purpose of providing the physician with a chronologic picture and analysis of the clinical course of the patient: a. special examination d. pathologic findings b. history of present illness e. physical examination c. progress notes

C

This pharmacy division coordinates and control all drug delivery and distribution systems: a. departmental services division b. administrative services division c. purchasing & inventory control division d. central supply services division

C

This provides the patient the best possible therapy and also provides guidelines to physicians and veterinarian a. pharmacy and therapeutic committee b. medical dictionary c. hospital formulary d. a & c e. none of the above

C

To calculate a loading dose, one must first determine: a. body clearance c. volume of distribution b. fraction protein bound d. all of the above

C

To prevent errors, the pharmacist uses: a. his knowledge of pharmacognosy b. his knowledge of chemistry c. his broad knowledge of drugs d. his knowledge of diseases

C

Type of drug distribution system for government hospital: a. individual prescription order system b. unit dose c. combination of individual prescription and floor stock d. complete floor stock

C

Type of drug distribution system wherein the prescription is compounded and dispensed in the usual manner as in the purchase of medicines from a local drug store a. free floor stock b. charge floor stock c. individual prescription medication d. unit dose dispensing e. coordinated

C

Upon exposure to air, aminophylline solution may develop: a. gas c. crystals of theophylline b. a precipitate of aminophylline d. a straw color

C

Used as pharmaceutical packaging materials include aluminum, tin and tin-coated lead a. glass c. metals b. plastics d. paperboards

C

Using a vial containing 200,000 units of Pen G sodium, how many mL of solvent should be added to the dry powder in preparing a solution having a concentration of 25, 000 units/mL? a. 5 mL b. 10 mL c. 8 mL d. 12 mL e. 15 mL

C

Water is most likely to cause instability on the following drugs, except: a. Penicillins c. Alkaloids b. Cephalosporins d. Benzodiazepines

C

What extra label should be included on the Mycostatin prescription? a. shake well d. apply early in the morning b. avoid alcoholic beverages e. dissolve in water c. do not take by mouth

C

What happen to the erythrocytes when the spleen of a person is removed? a. the number of circulating old erythrocytes increase b. the number of circulating abnormal erythrocytes increase c. the number of circulating old and abnormal erythrocytes increase d. the number of circulating old and abnormal erythrocytes decrease

C

What is the molarity of a solution that is prepared by dissolving 10 g of KCl (mol wt 74.5) in enough water to make 500 mL of solution? a. 0.288 b. 0.258 c. 0.268 d. 0.168

C

What is the percent concentration of cholesterol if a patient's blood serum level is determined to be 260mg%? a. 26% b. 2.6% c. 0.26% d. 0.26% e. 260%

C

What is the percent concentration of cholesterol in a patient's blood serum if the cholesterol level is determined to be 260 mg%? a. 2.6% b. 26% c. 0.26% d. 0.026%

C

What is the percentage of alcohol in a mixture of 400 mL of 95% v/v alcohol, 100 mL of 70% v/v alcohol and 0.6 L of 50% v/v alcohol? a. 75% b. 7.5% c. 68% d. 69% e. 72.7%

C

What is the proof strength of a 50% (v/v) solution of alcohol? a. 25 proof d. 75 proof b. 50 proof e. 150 proof c. 100 proof

C

When albumin level is above normal, it indicates: a. Neoplastic disease c. Dehydration and shock b. Hepatic insufficiency d. Malnutrition

C

When an oxidizing agent is triturated in a mortar with a reducing agent, this would likely result to: a. formation of damp mass b. discoloration of powders c. violent explosion d. volatilization of some of the ingredients

C

When rendering first aid care to a severely injured person, priority should be given to: a. arresting hemorrhage b. recognition and treatment of shock c. recognition of associated head injuries d. establishing and maintaining a patient airway

C

When the response of a patient to one or more drugs is different in nature than that intended by the prescriber is called: a. antagonistic incompatibility b. threrapeutic incompatibility b. chemical incompatibility d. physical incompatibility

C

When used to treat angina, nifedipine is much more likely than verapamil and diltiazem to cause: a. hypokalemia d. mental depression b. tachycardia e. bronchopasm c. cardiac arrythmias

C

Which drug is said to possess a high first pass liver metabolism? a. Aspirin d. Digoxin b. Amikacin e. Penicillin c. Nitroglycerin

C

Which of the ff. correctly applies to this group of drug products? Paracetamol 325 mg. Tab, Cortal 325 mg Tab, Alvedon 325 mg Tab a. all are generically equivalent c. all are non-prescription drugs b. all are in brand names d. all are prescription drugs

C

Which of the following is the most appropriate source of information regarding questions of fact such as usual dosage regimens? a. the pharmaceutical company b. a colleague c. a standard pharmacy textbook d. an on-line search of the published literature e. all of the above

C

Which of the following metallic ions is especially required in blood clotting process? a. Ba c. Ca e. K b. Na d. Mg

C

Which one is used as antiviral? a. Terramycin c. Zovirax b. Garamycin d. Vibramycin

C

Which one of the following antacid products is a chemical combination of aluminum and magnesium hydroxides? a. Maalox c. Riopan b. Mylanta d. Gelusil

C

Which one of the following is a laboratory test or fungal skin infections? a. rapid plasma regain test b. venereal disease research laboratory test c. potassium hydroxide preparation d. white blood cell count with differential e. cold agglutinin titer

C

Which question is not of importance in the pharmacist's review of the patient's drug therapy record? a. Were tests for predicting drug allergies done on patients with suspicious history? b. Was the drug employed one with a special effect upon the diagnosed ailment? c. Was the drug taken with water? d. Did the patient receive his therapy via oral route when the topical route should have been employed?

C

Which vitamins and minerals should be supplemented routinely in the pregnant woman? a. iron & pyridoxine d. calcium & pyridoxine b. iron & thiamine e. calcium & vit. A c. iron & folate

C

Zephiran is used in ophthalmic solution as: a. suspending agent c. antimicrobial agent b. surfactant d. antimicrobial agent and surfactant

C

q.s. a. pint b. right eye c. a sufficient quantity d. when required

C

t means a slowness in performing common voluntary movements like standing or walking: a. akinesia c. bradykinesia b. gait d. none

C

Sudden withdrawal of steroids can result in: a. anemia c. Parkinson's disease b. hypertension d. addison's disease

D

A disadvantage of using cromolyn sodium powder for asthma is: a. its brief duration of action b. the development of rebound bronchoconstriction c. the rapid development of tachyphylaxis d. ineffective in treating acute attacks e. poor GI absorption after administration of the capsule dosage form

D

A patient's states that he has smoked two packs of cigarettes a day for 30 years. What is the patient's pack year smoking history? a. 2 packs c. 30 packs years b. 15 packs years d. 60 packs years

D

A separate sterile room is required for: a. reconstitution of lyophilized injections b. ophthalmic preparations c. preparation of IV admixtures d. all of the above

D

A test for kidney function is: a. CBC d. BUN b. CHF e. EKG c. KFT

D

Abilities required of hospital pharmacists, except: a. through knowledge of drugs and their action b. ability to develop and conduct a pharmaceutical manufacturing program c. ability to conduct and participate in research d. manage a hospital

D

Above normal level of uric acid indicates a. Urinary tract infection c. Acute hepatitis b. Urethral contamination d. Gout

D

Acacia in the presence of Bismuth salts can form a "cake" at the bottom of the container. This manifestation is known as: a. gelatinization c. emulsification b. hydrolysis d. cementation

D

Acetaminophen has limited value in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis because a. it frequently produces gastric irritation and bleeding b. it is not potent enough as an analgesic c. chronic usage may lead to renal damage d. it lacks anti-inflammatory properties e. it may cause methemoglobinemia

D

Activated charcoal is used in some antidotes because of which of its properties? a. neutralizing d. adsorptive b. emetic e. stabilizing c. absorptive

D

Active listening consists of which of the following tasks? a. Focusing on what the other person says b. Assessing the way the other person communicates c. Conveying an open, relaxed, and unhurried attitude d. None of the above

D

Active listening includes the following tasks: a. focusing on what the other person says b. assessing the way the other communicates c. conveying an open, relaxed and unhurried attitude d. all of the above

D

Administration of which of the following drugs would be contraindicted in patients with allergic bronchial asthma: a. atropine d. propanolol b. metacholine e. phentolamine c. d-tubocurarine

D

Advantages of unit dose distribution: HOSPITAL PHARMACY www.brex.us 99 a. reduction in the incidents f medication error b. decrease in the total cost of medication related activities c. more accurate billings for drugs d. all of the above

D

Alkaline salts like potassium penicillin when placed in an acidic solution can result in: a. conversion into free acid c. insolubility b. precipitation of penicillin d. all of the above

D

All are policies of a hospital pharmacy, except: a. prescription written by the physician who is not a member of the hospital staff should not be dispensed by hospital pharmacy b. only those orders & prescription within the hospital should be dispensed by hospital pharmacy c. all employees of the hospital should be given a 36% discount d. there should be no ongoing formal program of quality pharmaceutical service

D

All of the following statements concerning upper respiratory infections are true, except: a. Most of these are caused by viruses b. Symptoms may involved the sinuses, throat, larynx and airways c. Treatment is primarily symptomatic d. Prevention usually is achieved by timely immunization

D

Allotment of space in the pharmacy should be based on: a. establishment of formulary system to reduce the amount of storage space capacity b. based on the ability of the director to haggle for more available space c. basic functions to be carried on in the pharmacy d. a & c only

D

An adult patient who has ingested 30 acetaminophen tablets (325 mg/tab) six hours ago should be treated with/by: a. careful observation for signs of central nervous system toxicity b. ipecac syrup c. activated charcoal d. N-acetylcysteine e. glutathione

D

An anionic exchange resin intended to bind bile acids, cholesterol metabolites and co-administered drugs: a. chloramphenicol c. tetracycline b. cholesterol precursor d. colestyramine

D

An authorized, structure and continuing program that reviews, analyzes and interprets pattern of drug usage in a given health care delivery system against predetermined standards: a. adverse drug reaction review c. P & TC b. formulary system d. drug use review

D

An important potentialcomplication of corticosteroid therapy is a. dissemination of local infection b. masking symptoms of an infection c. increased susceptibility to infection d. all of the above

D

An impossible prescription is described by the following except: a. only the generic name is written but not legible b. both generic & brand names are not legible c. the generic name does not correspond to the brand name d. the generic name is not legible and the brand is written legibly

D

Aspirin combines with Phenylsalicylate resulting to: a. melting c. turbid solution b. non-homogenous mixture d. moist mass

D

Aspirin is the drug of choice used in: a. Transient ischemic attack b. Prevention of embolic events following coronary artery bypass surgery c. Dialysis access grafts d. all of the above e. none of the above

D

Assessment of the musculoskeletal system includes: a. assessment of posture and gait c. ROM testing b. measurement of the extremities d. all of these

D

Automatic stop-order policy for drugs: a. when patient goes to the operating room b. when the patient is transferred to another service c. after 24 hours of administration d. a and b only e. all of the above

D

Below normal level of uric acid indicates a. Urethral contamination c. Gout b. Urinary tract infection d. Cystitis

D

Biliary recycling is influenced by: a. rate of excretion of drug into the b. gall bladder function c. rate of loss of drug with feces bile d. all of the above

D

Change to percent the number 1/300. a. 3% b. 33% c. 3.3% d. 1/3%

D

Chemical incompatibility includes all of the following except: a. racemzation c. cementation b. implosion d. liquefaction

D

Chloramphenicol palmitate exists in 3 different polymorphs, each differ in the ff. properties, except: a. solubility c. melting point b. free energy d. none of the above

D

Chronic diseases diagnosed and stabilized by physician and maintenance care is provided by the pharmacist: a. Hypertension and Congestive Heart Failure b. Diabetes and Angina c. Mental health disorders and psoriasis d. All of the above

D

Clindamycin is closely related to which of the following in effective spectrum? a. Chloramphenicol d. Lincomycin b. Tobramycin e. It is unique in spectrum c. Kanamycin

D

Cocoa butter, which is solid at room temperature and melts at 34°C, has a specific gravity of 0.86. If a formula calls for 48 mL of theobroma oil, what would be the corresponding weight of cocoa butter to use? a. 40 g b. 55.81 g c. 50 g d. 41.3 g

D

Cold preparations when taken in large doses may interact with: a. sedatives c. MAOIs b. guaiafenisin d. a and c

D

Combinations liable to produce therapeutic incompatibilities when administered at the same time except: a. sedatives and stimulants c. caffeine and chloral hydrate b. tannins and aloins d. aspirin and warfarin

D

Compounding is concerned with: a. supply of a medicine c. order for medicine b. preparation & distribution of drugs d. preparation of medicine

D

Consequence of diverse drug reactions: a. increased mortality c. increased cost of therapy b. prolonged hospital stay d. all of the above

D

Digitoxin is available for parenteral pediatric use in a concentration of 0.1mg/mL. How many milliliters would provide dose of 40 mcg? a. 0.04 mL b. 40 Ml c. 40 mL d. 0.4 mL

D

Drug products that are considered prohibited, expect a. Heroine and Morphine b. Coca leaf and its derivative cocaine c. Mescaline and Indian Hemp d. Secobarbital

D

Drugs which are excreted into the sweat include the following except: a. antipyrine c. benzoic acid b. alcohol

D

During eye examination, the following are noted except: a. visual acuity c. EOM b. papillary reflex

D

During palpation, the ff. are used, except: a. fingers c. back of the hands b. palms d. fist

D

During the interview, the pharmacist observes that the patient's clothing has a predominance of Velcro-type fastenings. This may indicate which of the following? a. Photosensitivity d. loss of manual dexterity b. recent weight loss e. gout c. recent weight gain

D

Effective way of taking the patients medical history a. direct questioning c. either b. indirect questioning d. both

D

Emergency box in the hospital contains the following drugs, except: a. Phenobarbital d. guaifenesin b. epinephrine e. morphine c. heparin

D

Expression of taking 50% (v/v) alcohol or proof spirits as 100 proof: a. 50% v/v alcohol b. 50% proof spirit c. proof spirit d. proof strength e. none

D

Factors that reduced binding capacity to albumin, except a. liver impairment c. during pregnancy b. smoking d. nenonates patient

D

Factors that tend to reduce stomach contraction and gastric emptying rate except: a. consumption of meals high in fat c. depression b. patient lying on left side d. hyperthyroidism

D

Feature/s of the unit dose drug distribution system a. maintains duplicate copy of the doctor's order b. maintains patient medication profile c. delivers medications in "unit of use" form d. all of the above e. a and c only

D

Four equal amounts of belladonna extract, containing 1.15%, 1.30%, 1.35% and 1.20% of alkaloids respectively, were mixed. What was the percentage strength of the mixture? a. 1.2% b. 1.4% c. 1.5% d. 1.25%

D

Four thousand (4000) nanograms equals 4: a. centigrams b. grams c. milligrams d. micrograms

D

Functions of the P and TC, except: a. review adverse drugs reactions to drugs administered b. to recommend addition and deletion of drugs c. to serve as advisory to medical staff and pharmacists d. approval of duplicate preparation to be listed in the formulary

D

Gums are used in tabletting primarily as: a. disintegrators d. binding agents b. glidants e. both B & C c. lubricants

D

How many mL of 24% (w/v) concentrate of saline solution should be used in preparing 600mL of a solution such that 10 mL diluted to a liter will yield a 0.09% solution? a. 300mL b. 150 mL c. 50.0mL d. 225mL

D

How many mg are there in 3/8 grains? a. 23.5 mg b. 24 mg c. 23 mg d. 24.5 mg

D

How many milliliters of 95% (w/w) sulfuric acid having a specific gravity of 1.820 should be used in preparing 2 liters of 10% (w/v) sulfuric acid? a. 110 mL b. 120 mL c. 114 mL d. 116 mL

D

How many milliliters of a 37% (w/v) concentrate of saline solution should be used in preparing 750 mL of a solution such that 10 mL diluted to a liter will yield a 9% solution? a. 225 mL b. 156.5 mL c. 67.5 mL d. 182.4 mL

D

How many of a grams of a drug, tannic acid should be dissolved in 320 mL of glycerine having a specific gravity of 1.25 to make a 20% (w/w) solution? a. 8 g b. 0.8 g c. 80 g d. 100 g e. 0.008 g

D

If 2 tablets contain 550 mg of paracetamol, how many tablets should contain 3000 mg? a. 10 b. 12 c. 8 d. 11

D

If a patient is determined to have 100 g% of blood glucose, what is the equivalent concentration in terms of mg/dL? a. 1 b. 10 c. 40 d. 100

D

If a pint of a certain liquid weighs 9200 grains, what is the specific gravity of the liquid? a. 1.0 b. 1.32 c. 1.276 d. 1.26

D

If alcohol is taxed at P12.50 per proof gallon, what is the tax on 30 wine gallons of 95% v/v alcohol? a. P197 b. P57 c. P16 d. P712.50 e. P85

D

If glycerin (sp gr 1.25) costs P131.00 per pint, how much would 10 lbs cost? a. 105.90 b. 1105.90 c. 1025.90 d. 1005.90

D

Important characteristics of idiosyncratic drug reaction, except: a. congenital hypersensitivities b. genetic or hereditary in origin c. metabolic abnormality d. none of the above

D

In inventory control, the turnover rate is calculated by which of the ff. formula? a. annual purchases + annual inventory b. annual purchases - annual inventory c. annual purchases - annual inventory d. annual purchases/annual inventory

D

In pricing prescription, the pharmacist must consider a. cost of ingredients c. percentage mark up b. professional fee d. all of the above

D

In pricing the prescription, the pharmacist must consider: a. cost of ingredients c. percentage mark-up b. professional fee d. all of the above

D

Increase urinary recycling increase half hence, expect a. decreases elimination rate constant b. blood levels rise and persist longer c. danger of toxicity in multiple dosing d. increases elimination rate constant

D

Indicative of rapid gastrointestinal transit and malabsorption syndromes a. black stools c. hard stools b. gray stools d. water stools

D

Information sources utilized by drug information centers may include all of the following, except: a. medical journals c. on-line computer information sources b. textbooks d. popular literature

D

Injections are randomly tested for fever-producing agents which are called a. analgesics c. histamines b. antitussives d. pyrogens

D

Inspection involves: a. concentrated visualization of the patient b. listening to sounds that may emanate from the patient c. noting particular odors from the patient d. all of these

D

Institutional pharmacy is basically: a. extended-care pharmacy c. manufacturing pharmacy b. community pharmacy d. hospital pharmacy

D

Insulin preparation is usually administered by: a. intradermal injection c. intravenous bolus b. intramuscular injection d. subcutaneous injection

D

It plays a dominant role in immunologic activity and appear to produce antibodies a. Neutrophils c. Monocytes b. Basophils d. Lymphocytes

D

Kenoturia usually indicates uncontrolled diabetes mellitus, but it may also occur with: a. Systemic bleeding disorder b. Gout c. Trauma and tumor d. Starvation and zero low carbohydrate diets

D

Liquefaction of crystalline salt occurs on trituration is due to: a. addition of water b. addition of other liquid ingredient c. absorption of moisture from the air d. liberation of water of crystallization

D

MAO enzymes inactivates: a. adrenaline c. serotonin b. noradrenaline d. all of the above

D

Major dimensions of clinical interview: a. interpersonal experience c. communication b. scientific inquiry d. both a and b

D

Major pathway of excretion are via the kidney into the urine and via the liver into the a. bile c. alveolar air b. urine d. feces

D

Medication histories are taken by pharmacist of every patient admitted to the hospital or on ambulatory care section and which are taken: a. to detect drug-induced laboratory test abnormalities b. to help improve drug prescribing practices c. to help prevent potential drug toxicities d. all of the above e. none of the above

D

Methotrexate sodium in action contains 25 mg of methotrexate sodium per mL. Express the % concentration of methotrexate in the injection. a. 0.25% b. 25% c. 0.025% d. 2.5% e. 0.0025%

D

Mixture of phenolic, aldehyde, ketonic compounds and alcohols are examples of a. insoluble substances c. delinquent substances b. hydroscopic substances d. eutectic mixtures

D

Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAO inhibitors) and foods rich in tyramine like cheese will lead to: a. accumulation of pressor amines b. increase in blood pressure c. non-metabolism of tyramine d. all of the above

D

Most common side effects of erythromycin therapy: a. anaphylaxis c. headache b. ototoxicity d. abdominal cramps

D

Teratogenicity is a/an: a. Type A ADR c. Type C ADR b. Type B ADR d. Type D ADR

D

Most life-threatening adverse drug reactions affect the: a. central nervous system b. liver & kidney system c. bronchial smooth muscle d. cardiovascular and respiratory system e. gastrointestinal tract

D

Not a suitable location for the hospital pharmacy department: a. first floor c. near the emergency room b. near the information area d. basemen

D

Nursing stations are inspected or visited by the pharmacist due to the ff. reasons, except: a. to check labels for legibility b. to remove expired products c. to remove deteriorated drugs d. to remove empty containers

D

Nutritional solution prepared by hospital pharmacist for patients who has dysfunctional GIT: a. IV mixture d. TPN b. D5W e. NTP c. NSS

D

Objectives of clinical pharmacy include the ff. except: a. to study the patient's disease and be able to identify problems b. to describe the desired drug therapy including therapeutic alternatives c. to be able to select the most appropriate treatment d. none of the above

D

Objectives of drug information service: a. answering inquiries d. a and b b. publication e. all of the above c. budget preparation and printing scheme

D

Optimum absorption takes place in the a. gastrointestinal tract c. stomach b. receptor d. small intestine

D

Oral hypoglycemics are usually most useful in: a. Type I diabetes d. Type II diabetes b. ascariasis e. UTI c. asthmaD

D

Oxidation is: a. loss of electrons c. cause of drug instability b. dehydrogenation d. all of the above

D

PSHP was established in what year? a. 1930 d. 1962 b. 1942 e. 1970 c. 1950

D

Parts of formulary system, except: a. information of hospital policies and procedures concerning drugs b. drug product listing c. special information d. special formularies

D

Peppermint spirit contains 10% (v/v) of peppermint oil. How many mL of peppermint oils should be used in preparing 1 gallon of the spirit? a. 390 mL b. 400 mL c. 377 mL d. 378.5 mL

D

Pharmacist's monitoring drug therapy would typically be checking all of the ff., except: a. proper utilization of drug d. appropriate diagnosis b. drug interactions e. none c. allergy contraindications

D

Pharmacists should caution patients whoare taking niacin that this drug: a. stains the urine bright red c. causes muscular weakness b. causes ringing in the ears d. should be taken with meals

D

Pharmacy division responsible for improving formulations of existing products: a. assay and quality control division b. manufacturing and packaging division c. department services division d. pharmaceutical research division e. administrative services division

D

Poor patient compliance with prescription instruction is usually due to the ff. except: a. patient understood pharmacists instructions poorly b. pharmacist has poor communication skills c. inadequate time of pharmacist for patient counseling d. any of the above

D

Precipitation can be: a. physical incompatibility c. adverse drug reaction b. chemical incompatability d. A or B

D

Prepare 1000 mL of KMnO4 1:12000 compresses out of KMnO4 1:8000. a. add 333.3mL water to 1000mL KMnO4 1:8000 b. add 666.6mL water to 333.3mL KMnO4 1:8000 c. add 333.3mLKMnO4 1:8000 and enough water to make a final volume of 1000mL d. add 333.3mL water to 666.6mL KMnO4 1:8000

D

Probenecid and penicillin exhibits this type of interaction: a. enzyme induction c. alteration in gastric emptying b. enzyme inhibition d. competition for tubular secretion

D

Purpose of P and TC, except: a. develops a formulary of accepted drugs for used in the hospital b. evaluates clinical data concerning drug for use in the a hospital c. adds or deletes from the list of drugs accepted for used in the hospital d. advises the doctor as to what brand of drug to use

D

Pyrogenic contamination may cause the patient to have a. fever d. a & b b. chills e. a & c c. infection

D

Ranitidine is used for: a. high blood pressure d. peptic ulcer b. asthma e. diabetes c. allergy

D

Refers to the likehood that the study results can be useful for clinical decision making: a. reasoning c. evaluative b. validity d. applicability

D

Responsibilities often delegated to hospital pharmacy technicians include a. counseling of patients being discharged b. review of physician's medication orders c. pharmacokinetic monitoring d. affix pre-printed labels to containers of pre-packaged drugs

D

Responsible for specifications as to the quality, quantity, and source of drugs a. purchasing agent c. medical staff b. president d. pharmacist

D

Rx Antipyrine 7% Glycerin ad 60.0 Signa: Five drops in the right eye. How many grams of antipyrine should be used in compounding the prescription? a. 2 b. 7 c. 5.5 d. 4.2

D

Secondary and tertiary literature consist of the following, except: a. compiled databases b. review articles published in journals c. textbooks d. none of the above

D

Skills required for patient-centered pharmacy practice include which of the Following: a. therapeutic planning and monitoring skills b. physical assessment skills c. communication skills d. all of the above e. none of the above

D

Source/s of information regarding incompatibilities a. Remington c. Product inserts b. USP d. all of the above

D

Stenosis refers to: a. hardening of tissue with a loss of elasticity b. inflammation of the sternum c. inflammation of the vertebrae d. narrowing of stricture of a duct or canal e. stoppage of blood flow in a part of the body

D

Substance used as a test for liver function by measuring the amount of hippuric acid in urine a. sodium borate c. sodium salicylate b. aspirin d. all of the above

D

The anti-emetic effect of which of the ff. drugs is the result of increasing the rate of gastric emptying? a. amitriptyline d. metoclopramide b. benztropine e. aluminum hydroxide gel c. codeine

D

The antiseptic property of hydrogen peroxide is due to a. ozone c. peroxidase b. acetanilide d. oxygen

D

The approved clinical use of the product based on substantial evidence of the efficacy and safety of the drug a. warning c. pharmacologic category b. formulation d. indication

D

The clinical functions of a hospital pharmacist may include all of the following, except: a. monitoring drug interactions b. participation on a nutritional support team c. making rounds with physicians d. administration of medications

D

The combination of NaHCO3 with an organic acid (citric or tartaric acid) will result in: a. precipitation c. oxidation b. color changes d. effervescence

D

The combined action of two or more drugs which results in an Enhancement or intensifying effects is termed: a. metabolism c. stimulation b. antagonism d. synergism

D

The conclusion of an interview should contain the ff. except: a. request for additional information from patient b. request for patients opinion c. opportunity for the patient to make corrections if necessary regarding the interview d. none of the above

D

The conversion of an optically active drug with one chiral center into an optically inactive isomer: a. polymorphism c. epimerization b. enatiomerism d. racemization

D

The date after which the product is not intended to be used: a. beyond-use date c. stop date b. expiry date d. both A & B

D

The drawback on alcohol is P450 per proof gallon. If an eligible claimant used 8 gallons of 95% alcohol, how much drawback will be allowed? a. 1,937 b. 3,680 c. 5,275 d. 6,992

D

The ff. is/are characteristic/s of side effects: a. dose-dependent c. associated pharmacological effect b. predictable d. all of the above

D

The following are possible remedies for liquefaction of solid substances except: a. triturate separately and mix by tumbling b. add adsorbents to liquid combination c. dispense powders separately d. incorporate cotton in packaging

D

The following are the physiologic effects of food on drug reaction, except: a. reducing gastric emptying rate b. milk reduces absorption of tetracycline c. tea increases absortion of paracetamol d. vegetables potentiate anticoagulants

D

The following are true regarding excretion of acidic drugs except: a. exist in the ionized state in alkaline urine b. exist in the non-ionized form in acidic urine c. acidic urine increases drug action d. none of the above

D

The following information can be deducted from the assessments of the skin, except: a. scabs and scars - old and recent wounds b. reddish skin - recent exposure under the sun c. yellowish stains on the second and third fingers-chronic smoker d. produce sweating - dehydration

D

The following statement is true about Drug Utilization Review (DUR), except a. DUR is a system for assessing drug distribution and medication system b. DUR is a system for monitoring adverse drug reaction c. DUR is expected to predict potential drug interaction d. DUR recommends the use of brand names in prescribing medicines e. all of the above are correct

D

The following type/s of incompatibility may be dispensed: a. intentional incompatability b. unintentional incompatability c. delayed chemical incomp., but within shelf-life of product d. both A & C

D

The ingestion of alcoholic drinks while on analgesic or sedative therapy represents a commonly encountered drug interaction that may result in: a. tolerance c. excessive CNS stimulaton b. antagonism d. excessive CNS depression

D

The most accurate method in calculating children's dose based on weight and height is: a. Young's rule c. Cowling's rule b. Fired's rule d. BSA

D

The pharmacist's role in pharmaceutical care involves identifying, resolving and preventing drug related problems that come from a. under treatment c. inappropriate treatment b. over treatment d. all of the above

D

The purpose of medical records a. serve as a basis for planning and continuity of patient care b. to provide date for use in research education c. to serve as a basis for interview and evaluation of the care d. all of the above e. none of the above

D

The rate of exchange of drugs from one fluid compartment to another is influenced by the: a. pka of the drug c. rate of blood flow b. pH of the fluid compartment d. all of the above

D

The recognition of the disease by its signs and symptoms a. prognosis c. diagnosis b. diaphoresis d. assessment

D

The responses of which of the following drug should be monitored when it is use simultaneously with propranolol? a. digoxin c. chlorothiazide b. quinidine d. insulin

D

The risk of medication misuse or errors are often due to a. increase frequency of change in medication use b. increase number of medications for patient c. increased potency of modern medication d. all of the above

D

The risk of medication misuse or errors are often due to: a. increase frequency of changes in medication use b. increase number of medications for patient c. increase potency of new drugs d. all of the above e. none of the above

D

The skin is assessed for: a. lesions c. mobility b. hydration d. all of these

D

The smallest diameter of needle cannula is gauge: a. 18 c. 25 b. 20 d. 27

D

The use of an investigational new drug within a particular institution requires that the a. institution be certified by BFAD b. licensed prescriber to be approved by the chief investigator like pharmacy and therapeutics committee c. hospital administrator, licensed prescriber and pharmacy be certified by BFAD d. institution and the physicians be certified by the BFAD

D

The usual dose of digoxin for rapid digitalization is a total of 1.0 mg, divide into two or more portions at intervals of 6 to 8 hours. How many milliliters of digoxin elixir containing 50 mcg/ mL would provide this dose? a. 15 mL b. 10 mL c. 25 mL d. 20 mL

D

These are acceptable colors of pharmacy wall, except: a. white d. orange b. cream e. baby pink c. mint

D

These are developing trends in pharmacists functions, except a. use of generics b. advise physician on dosage regimen c. influence physician in choice of drugs d. diagnosis

D

These reactions belongs to Augmented type (type A): a. extension effect c. side effect b. allergy d. a and c

D

This consists of routine systematic review of the body: a. provisional diagnosis d. physical examination b. special examination e. pathologic findings c. personal family history

D

This group consists of medical practitioners of recognized professional ability: a. active d. consulting b. associate e. honorary c. courtesy

D

This is not a chronic ailment: a. asthma d. diarrhea b. cancer e. diabetes c. epilepsy

D

Three potential benefits of formulary systems, except: a. economic c. education b. therapeutic d. expensive

D

Throbbing headache is characteristically produced by which of the following drugs? a. procainamide d. glyceryl trinitrate b. propranolol e. nifedipine c. verapamil

D

To achieve the goals of pharmacy service department, the hospital pharmacist should: a. perform technical task b. practice in patient care areas c. perform task that require professional judgment d. b & c e. all of the above

D

Tobacco and cigarettes are potent enzyme inducers. As a consequence, a. one needs to increase dose of drug c. this is an ADR b. this leads to drug tolerance d. all of the above

D

Total parenteral nutrition should be protected from light because it contains: a. fats d. vitamins b. carbohydrates e. proteins c. electrolytes

D

Traditional classification of adverse drug reactions: a. side effect c. allergy b. extension effect d. all of the above

D

Treatment of hypoglycemia includes: a. insulin d. both b & c b. candy e. all of the choices c. fruit juice

D

Valium and Tagamet combination will not result to one from the ff: a. Tagamet delay elimination of anti-anxiety agent b. Increased sedation and dizziness c. Blood levels of anti-anxiety drug increased d. Valium increases the metabolism of Tagamet

D

Vanishing creams are classified as: a. oleaginous d. o/w b. absorption bases e. w/o c. water-soluble bases

D

Warfarin anticoagulation is used for a variety of cardiac conditions. Each the following medications increases the anticoagulant effect of warfarin, except: a. cimetedine d. vitamin K b. quinidine e. none of the above c. phenylbutazone

D

What information should be documented regarding a suspected medication allergy? a. the date or time the reaction occurred b. the intervention performed to manage the reactions c. name and description of causative agent d. all of the above

D

What information should be documented regarding a suspected medication allergy? a. the date or time the reaction occurred b. the interventions performed to manage the reaction c. whether the patient has received similar medications d. all of the above

D

What is the HLB of a mixture of 20.0% of Span 80 and 80.0% of Tween 80? HLB of Span 80=5.3; HLB of Tween 80=15.0 a. 6.3 b. 8.9 c. 10.3 d. 12.9

D

What is the solubility of anhydrous chemical if 100 g of a saturated aqueous solution leaves a residue of 25 g after evaporation? a. 1:5 b. 1:4 c. 1:2 d. 1:3

D

What is the weight in grams of 4 fluidounces of orange oil with a specific gravity of 0.844? a. 105 g b. 110 g c. 95 g d. 99.83 g

D

When dispensing a compounded prescription, these information must be written on the label except: a. indications c. name of manufacturer b. name and strength of actives d. name of physician

D

When dispensing prepared dosage forms, the pharmacist may use which of the ff dose equivalents? a. exact equivalent c. approximate dose b. exact dose d. a and b

D

Which agent is flammable when electrical switches are used in its presence? a. Aspirin d. Ether b. Digoxin e. Penicillin c. Amikacin

D

Which analgesic is useful for patients with myocardial infarction? a. mefenamic acid d. aspirin b. acetaminophen e. meperidine c. morphine

D

Which is not a part of patient's medication history? a. past and present medication b. drug allergies c. previous adverse effects associated with medication use d. cost of medication

D

Which is/are true about the DDB prescription form? a. original copy-pharmacist copy c. triplicate copy - doctor copy b. duplicate copy - patient's copy d. all of the above

D

Which of the ff. is not a method of operating a unit dose dispensing program: a. Centralized UDDS d. non-charge b. decentralized UDDS e. none c. combination of a and b

D

Which of the following are important components involved in the provision of drug information? a. determining the primary question b. developing an appropriate search strategy c. assessing available information d. all of the above e. none of the above

D

Which of the following are important considerations when evaluating a literature review? a. publication date b. author expertise c. way the author selected the primary research article d. all of the choices

D

Denaturation of emulsions is characterized by: a. irreversible precipitation d. changing of external phase b. reversible precipitation e. C & D c. creaming

E

Which of the following are important considerations when evaluating an original research article? a. Appropriateness of the study design b. Clinical significance o sstatistically significant data c. Study participant characteristics d. All of the above e. None of the above

D

Which of the following drugs used in the treatment of gout does not affect urate metabolism or excretion? a. allopurinol d. colchicine b. probenecid e. none of the above c. sulfinpyrazone

D

Which of the following factors influence drug metabolism and metabolic pathway? a. genetic variation c. physiologic or disease state b. antioxidant d. none ofthese answers

D

Which of the following factors may make it necessary to give lower doses of drugs to geriatric patients? a. reduced enzyme activity c. enhanced absorption b. reduced kidney function d. a and b

D

Which of the following is NOT a naturally occurring emulsifier? a. acacia d. veegum b. cholesterol e. tragacanth c. gelatin

D

Which of the following is an noninvasive test or procedure? a. venipuncture d. ultrasonography b. angiography c. radionuclide studies c. paracentesis

D

Which of the following is the most appropriate source of information regarding questions of fact such as usual dosage regimens? a. a colleague b. drug manufacturer c. an on-line search of the published literature d. a standard pharmacy textbook

D

Which of the following may increase the absorption of iron? a. antacid d. ascorbic acid b. folic acid e. milk c. high protein meal

D

Which of the following phenothiazines is least likely to produce extra pyramidal side effects? a. chlorpromazine d. thioridazine b. perphenazine e. trifluoperazinc c. prochlorperazinc

D

Which of the following statements is correct regarding a patient recovered from hepatitis Type B infection? a. the virus will be excreted in the feces b. the patient is a good candidate for blood donation c. the patient will have protective immunity to all viral hepatitis d. detection of hepatitis B antigen in serum is indicative of the carrier state

D

Which of the following types questions should be avoided while interviewing the patient? a. Leading questions d. all of the above b. multiple questions e. none of the above c. excessive yes/no questions

D

Which of these drug products require a physician's prescription? a. Aspirin 325 mg tab c. Nubain 10 mg/vial b. Paracetamol 500 mg Tab d. both B & C

D

Which psychotropic drug has a long duration of action in the geriatric patient because of lipid storage a. Digoxin d. Chlorpromazine b. Cipsplatin e. Aspirin c. Amikacin

D

Which statement is incorrect regarding interaction involving tyramine containing substance and MAO inhibitor? a. inhibition of MAO result in the accumulation of large amounts of norepinephrine b. decrease in the rate of intracellular metabolism c. large amount of norephinephrine can cause severe headache and hypertension d. large amount of stored norepinephrine can cause hypotensive crisis

D

With respect to other drug distribution methods, the advantages of unit dose include the ff, except: a. safer for the patient b. more effective method of utilizing professional resources c. less workload to the pharmacists d. less manpower requirement e. both a & b

D

You have a stock solution of 50% sodium nitrate and you were asked to prepare 300 mL of a 10% solution. How many mL are needed? a. 20 b. 15 c. 30 d. 60

D

he maximum dose of theophyline in children under 9 years of age is 24 mg/kg/day, while the maximum in adults is: a. 40 mg/kg/day d. 16/mg/kg/day b. 36 mg/kg/day e. 10 mg/kg/day c. 100 mg/kg/day

D

hich of the following should not be administered to a patient being treated for narrow-angle glaucoma? a. physostigmine d. homatropine b. pilocarpine e. carbachol c. phospholine iodide

D

njections are often indicated as the correct form of administering a drug when a. the drug is a suspension b. the drug contains alcohol c. the drug is insoluble d. the drug is not easily absorbed from the GIT

D

q.i.d. means: a. once a day b. twice a day c. three times a day d. four times a day

D

Which is NOT a function of a pharmacist in the Philippines? Counseling on medications Drug information Drug response monitoring Diagnosis

Diagnosis

Generic dispensing means: Dispensing drugs with generic names only Dispensing with a correct prescription Dispensing the customer's choice from generally equivalent drugs Dispensing drugs in proper containers

Dispensing the customer's choice from generally equivalent drugs

A condition that is likely to give rise to metabolic alkalosis: Renal failure Hyperventilation Diuretic use Salicylate use

Diuretic use

Which of the following is the fundamental moral principle on which all ethical behavior based? Do good and avoid evil Obey all national laws Maintain patient confidentiality Do what is best for society as a whole

Do good and avoid evil

Oral antihistamines are notorious for exhibiting which of the following side effects? Anemia Diarrhea Drowsiness Insomnia

Drowsiness

Which one pertains to physiological or a psychological state resulting from drug administration? Drug dependence Drug addiction Drug tolerance Drug habituation

Drug dependence

A 20 ml vial of a biological solution is labeled 2.0 megaunits. How many units of the drug are present in every ml of the solution? a. 100 b. 1000 c. 2000 d. 10000 e. 100000

E

A child weighing 25 lbs is to receive 5 mg of phenytoin per kg of body weight daily as anticonvulsant. How many mL of pediatric phenytoin suspension containing 30 mg per 5 mL should this child receive? a. 1.5 mL b. 5.5 mL c. 7.5 mL d. 6.5 mL e. 9.47 mL

E

A pathogen is: a. a bacillus d. a septic substance b. a virus e. any disease producing organism c. a carcinogen

E

A patient is wide-eyed, very nervous with an increased systolic pressure, increase pulse rate, fine skin and hair, and loss body weight. He is probably suffering from a. diabetes d. hypothyroidism b. hyperpituitarism e. hyperthyroidism c. hyperparathyroidism

E

A pharmacist has 50 mL of 0.5% gentian violet solution. What will be the final ratio if he dilutes the solution to 1250 mL with purified water? a. 1:8 b. 1:200 c. 1:50 d. 1:1000 e. 1:5000

E

A solution contains 660 mg of NaF per 120 mL and has a dose of 10 gtts. If the dispensing dropper calibrates 30 gtts per mL. How many mg of NaF are contained in each dose? a. 2.2 b. 0.5 c. 2.75 d. 5.5 e. 1.83

E

A very important liaison between the hospital, patient and his community a. administrator d. pharmacist b. P & TC e. medical social service c. priest

E

All of the following are direct responsibilities of the chief pharmacist, except: a. schedules work hours for pharmacy staff b. establishes and/or implements written policies & procedures for pharmacy operation c. evaluates job performance of pharmacy staff d. selects, hires and institutes disciplinary action & discharges pharmacy staff e. performs packaging and labeling functions to promote product stability

E

All of these are possible indications for the use of ibuprofen, except: a. dental pain c. bursitis b. dysmenorrheal d. acne

E

An elderly insulin-ependent diabetic is about to be placed on a beta blocker for his hypertension. Which of the following would be most appropriate for this type of patient? a. propanolol d. nadolol b. pindolol e. atenolol c. timolol

E

Another name for regular insulin is: a. isophane insulin d. NPH b. crystalline zinc insulin e. Semilente c. protamine zinc insulin

E

Arguments against indiscriminate use of antibiotics as chemotherapeutic agents include the following except: a. toxic effects of antibiotics b. allergic reactions included in patients c. development of drug resistance by an infectious agent d. secondary effects experienced due to creation of an imbalance in the normal body flora e. the cost of medication

E

Function of the Chief Pharmacist in Pharmacy and Therapeutic Committee a. maintenance of an adequate up to date library and drug therapy references b. interviewing and screening of professional medical representative c. preparation and dissemination of accurate minutes of committee meeting d. all of the above e. a & c

E

Function/s of purchasing and inventory control: a. maintain drug inventory control b. purchase all drugs c. receive, store and distribute drugs d. coordinate and control all drug delivery and distribution system e. all of the above

E

How many grams of a dug substance should be dissolved in 1800 mL of water to make 10% (w/w) solution? a. 100 g b. 50 g c. 300 g d. 25 g e. 200 g

E

IV medications maybe administered as: a. infusion d. saddleback b. bolus e.a,b, & c c. piggyback

E

In terms of its major pharmacologic effect, metropolol is most similar to a. isoproterenol d. hydrochlorothiazide b. metaproterenol e. propranolol c. guanethedine

E

In-charge of inspecting the contents of emergency box daily: a. P & TC c. both a and c b. pharmacist e. both b & c c. nurse

E

In-patient pharmacist's responsibilities: a. keeps the central dispensing area neat and orderly b. provides drug information as necessary to the pharmacy, medical and nursing staff c. insure that good techniques are used in compounding IV mixture d. a and b. e. b and c

E

It is considered as the backbone of any hospital staff a. medical staff c. clinical department b. administration d. all of the above

E

Lidocaine HCl syringe contains 100 mg per 5 mL injection. Express this concentration in % (w/v). a. 0.2% b. 20% c. 10% d. 1.0% e. 2%

E

Life support techniques used to treat critically ill patient, except: a. pulmonary wedge pressures d. hemodialysis b. intraaortic ballons e. none of the above c. extracorporeal membrane oxygenation

E

Most hospitals provide the following modalities: a. surgery d. drug therapy b. hypnosis e. a & d c. acupuncture

E

Patients on corticosteroids therapy should be given the ff. precautions, except: a. appetite stimulation d. barbiturates b. antianginals e. antineoplastic agents c. local anesthetics

E

Responsibilities of Pharmacy & Therapeutics Committee, except: a. develop a mechanism for reporting & reviewing ADR b. prepare policies governing the activities of medical representative c. develop a book containing the list of medications available in the hospital d. prepare list of emergency drugs e. interview pharmacy staff

E

Salicylic acid is used primarily as a/an: a. analgesic d. uricosuric agent b. antipyretic e. keratolytic agent c. cough suppressant

E

San Lazaro Hospital specializes in: a. mental health d. bone disorder b. childbirth e. contagious diseases c. pulmonary diseases

E

Sixty capsules of atropine, each to contain 1/250 gram, are to be made. How many tablets of atropine sulfate 0.5 mg each are needed to make the capsules? a. 32 tab b. 10 tab c. 130 tab d. 25 tab e. NOTA

E

Surface-active agents tend to enhance absorption due to: a. their effects on biological membrane b. their effects on the dissolution rate of drugs c. reduction of interfacial tension d. B & C only e. A, B, and C

E

Tetracyclines tend to form complexes with: a. calcium ions d. iron ions b. magnesium ions e. all of the above c. aluminum ions

E

The act of a pharmacist in supplying one or more drug products to, or for patient, usually in response to an order from a doctor" a. administering d. giving b. corporation e. dispensing c. procuring

E

The action of which of the following drugs will most likely to be impaired by concurrent administration of tetracycline? a. chloramphenicol d. erythromycin b. sulfanomide e. penicillin c. lincomycin

E

The best emergency advice that a pharmacist could give an individual who has just suffered burn is to: a. apply butter to the burn b. apply Vaseline to the burn c. contact a physician immediately d. immerse the burn area in warm water followed by cold water e. immerse the burn area in cold water

E

The following are focus of DUR, except: a. drugs d. health providers b. patients e. diagnosis c. research

E

The following are fundamental functions of the hospital, except: a. taking care of the sick and the injured b. education of medical and allied health profession and the patients c. research for the advancement of medical knowledge against disease d. all of the choices e. none of the choices

E

The formulary is very important so it should be: a. complete d. a and b b. concise e. all of the above c. easy to use

E

The hospital which is affiliated with a university: a. Philippine Heart Center d. National Kidney Institute b. Quezon Institute e. Philippine General Hospital c. San Lazaro Hospital

E

The macroscopic evaluation of sputum includes all of the ff. except: a. color d. odor b. viscosity e. gram's c. volume

E

The triad of tremor, rigidity, and bradykinesia is associated with which one of the following? a. rheumatoid arthritis c. angina pectoris b. mania e. parkinsonism c. hyperthyroidism

E

The two major properties of drug that are usually modified by Complexation are: a. odor and taste d. chemical structure and stability b. taste and solubility e. stability and solubility c. chemical structure and solubility

E

These are administrative and management responsibilities of pharmacist, except: a. preparation of reports b. inventory control c. plan and integrate professional services d. budget

E

These are examples of objective parameters, except: a. blood level d. blood pressure b. laboratory tests e. degree of pain c. x-ray tests

E

Two hours after receiving his last dose of heparin a patients begins bleeding from his gums after brushing his teeth. What is the most appropriate therapeutic action? a. inject 10 mg of phytonadione intravenously b. inject 60 mg of protamine sulfate intravenously c. inject 30 mg of protamine sulfate intravenously d. swab a small amount of epinephrine 1:100 onto the gun tissue to produce local vasoconstriction e. wait for the anticoagulant effect to subside

E

What will result if the distribution of drugs is slower than the process of biotransformation and elimination? a. high blood levels of drug b. low blood levels of drug c. synergism d. potentiation e. failure to attain diffusion equilibrium

E

Which duty should not be assigned to a pharmacy technician? a. maintain drug inventory records b. clean prescription equipment c. print labels for prepackaged product d. weigh ingredients in bulk compounding e. compound prescriptions

E

Which is not a clinical manifestation of gastroenteritis? a. fever d. diarrhea b. vomiting e. night sweats c. abdominal pain

E

Which is not a sign and symptom of DM? a. delayed wound healing d. excessive hunger and thrist b. blurred vision e. tachypnea c. dryness of skin

E

Which of the ff is not an outcome included in the definition of pharmaceutical care? a. cure of disease b. elimination or reduction of symptoms c. arresting or slowing down of the disease process d. prevention of disease symptoms e. reducing health care costs

E

Which of the following antihypertensive drugs should be administered by slow intravenous infusion? a. minoxidil d. prazosin b. clonidin e. nitroprusside c. hydalazine

E

Which of the following are needed to monitor patient response to drug therapy? a. knowledge of pharmacotherapeutics b. knowledge of pathophysiology c. communication skills d. physical assessment skills e. all of the above

E

Which of the following drug classes has been definitely established to be teratogenic in humans? a. salicylates d. barbiturates b. antianginals

E

Which of the following is not a step in the selection of specific therapeutic regimens? a. Creation is a list of therapeutic options for each problem b. Selection of an appropriate therapeutic regimen for each problem c. Identification of alternative regimens d. Creation of a monitoring plan and monitoring of the patient e. Identification of objective and subjective patient parameters

E

Which of the following types of tissues frequently store drugs? a. fatty tissue d. A & B b. muscle tissue e. A & C c. protein tissue

E

dvantage(s) of timolol maleate over pilocarpine for the reduction of elevated intraocular pressure include (s): a. longer duration of activity b. little or no effect on visual acuity or accommodation c. little or no effect on pupil size d. no systemic side effects e. A, B, & C

E

n disease management, pharmacists are responsible for: a. drug therapy d. both a & c b. improving patient outcomes e. all of the above c. decreasing the cost of drug therapy

E

The combination of Sodium bicarbonate with Citric acid or Tartaric acid in an aqueous solution will result in: Effervescence Precipitation Decolorization Oxidation

Effervescence

Which one of the following is the drug of choice for anaphylactic shock? Noepinephrine Epinephrine Diphenhydramine Cetirizine

Epinephrine

When the generic name in a prescription is preceded by the brand name, the prescription is: Erroneous Violative Valid/Correct Impossible

Erroneous

Simultaneous administration of Diazepam and Cimetidine will NOT result to: Increased sedation and dizziness Slower metabolism of Diazepam Faster metabolism of Cimetidine Increased blood levels of Diazepam

Faster metabolism of Cimetidine

Which TPN access point utilizes vein such as those found in the arms? Central Peripheral Nasogastric Orogastric

Peripheral

Which one of the following abbreviations is appropriate for a medical order requiring an intravenous bolus injection? IVPB KVO per IV IVP

IVP

Which pharmacy division is responsible for distribution of medications to patients admitted in the hospital? Drug information services Pharmaceutical research Outpatient services Inpatient services

Inpatient services

A detailed document which shows, at minimum, the actual existing stocks in the pharmacy and their corresponding quantities: Inventory report Pharmacy financial statement Pharmacy purchase history Inventory turnover rate

Inventory report

5. Dr. Z calls for a prescription that includes a dose of 3 tsp of medicine to be administered QID, 15 minutes after meals and at bedtime. How many days will a 350 mL bottle of the medicine last? It will last for 5 days, but not enough for 6 days. It will last for 6 days, but not enough for 7 days. It will last for 6 days. It will last for 7 days, but not enough for 8 days.

It will last for 5 days, but not enough for 6 days.

Which of the following emergency drugs is most likely utilized when a patient is to be subjected to minor surgery? Morphine sulfate ampule Paracetamol ampule Lidocaine ampule Salbutamol nebule

Lidocaine ampule

The unusual result of triturating camphor and menthol during compounding may be described as: Solidfication Liquefaction Lowering of melting point Synergistic effect

Liquefaction

The blood cell that plays a role in immunologic activity and appear to produce antibodies: Lymphocytes Basophils Neutrophils Monocytes

Lymphocytes

Which of the following is a dangerous drug? Phenytoin Tramadol Oxycodone Naloxone

Oxycodone

In drug interaction references, the drug affected by the interaction is referred to as which of the following? Active drug Object drug Inactive drug Precipitant drug

Object drug

A signa that says "1 tab PO QID if T >37.9°C" most likely belongs to what type of medication order? Stat order PRN order Standing order Automatic stop order

PRN order

Which department is responsible for the development and oversight of drug utilization and drug-related policies? Pharmacy & therapeutics committee Executive medical staff Purchasing department Board of trustees

Pharmacy & therapeutics committee

Which emergency drug is the choice for pediatric febrile seizures? Phenobarbital Calcium gluconate Potassium chloride Magnesium sulfate

Phenobarbital

Failure to mix or dissolve when two or more ingredients are combined may be termed as: Complexation Adverse reactions Physical incompatibility Drug precipitation

Physical incompatibility

By custom, the chairperson for the P&TC is chosen among which of the following health professionals? Hospital administrator Registered nurse Pharmacist Physician

Physician

Which situation will increase the volume of stock-on-hand? Frequent dispensing of the drug Drug product recall Receipt of new deliveries Expiration of the drug

Receipt of new deliveries

What emergency response color code signifies an emergency involving fire? Red White Blue Black

Red

An untoward effect from Aspirin when it is administered to children with fever due to a viral infection: Gray baby syndrome Stained teeth Tendinitis Reye's syndrome

Reye's syndrome

Which one of the following forms is utilized when requesting dangerous drug preparations Statement of account Ordinary prescription Medication order SPFDD

SPFDD

A disadvantage of documenting using the freestyle format would be: Scanning the document for specific details is difficult. Space may not be available for all pertinent information. The information gathered are too superficial. The format is not flexible and too structured.

Scanning the document for specific details is difficult.

Which of the following is NOT a fundamental function of a hospital? Training center for future medical professionals Source of medicines and medical supplies Source of accurate and reliable medical information Shelter services for the homeless

Shelter services for the homeless

Which one may be experienced as a consequence of receiving an inappropriately high dose of the drug to patient characteristics? Underdosing Adverse drug reaction Tolerance Side effect

Side effect

Term for migration of the drug into the container: Sorption Leaching Permeation Vaporization

Sorption

Which department performs sterilization processes necessary for all aseptic hospital operations? Laboratory services Sterile products division Nursing department Central supply services

Sterile products division

In a prescription, the dispensing directions to the pharmacist is the: Signa Superscription Subscription Inscription

Subscription

Kernicterus is a drug induced disorder that may occur in the neonate following therapy with: Gentamicin Sulfisoxazole Phenytoin Isoniazid

Sulfisoxazole

For dispensing thick, viscous liquids, the container should be: Collapsible tubes Standard prescription bottles Wide-mouthed bottles Dropper bottles

Wide-mouthed bottles